Post on 03-Feb-2022
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Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
1. Consider the following statements about the
Money Bills:
1. A money bill can only be introduced in
the Lok Sabha and that too on the
recommendation of the president.
2. Every Money bill is considered to be a
government bill and can be introduced
only by a minister.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or
amend a money bill, t can only make
the recommendations.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following Committee had
published a draft bill for a new, comprehensive
data protection law, the Personal Data
Protection Bill 2018 (PDPB)?
(a) Justice Shri krishna Committee
(b) A.K Mathur Committee
(c) Ravi Kumar Committee
(d) Shreenivad Iyer Committee
3. Recently, the Prime Minister Narendra Modi,
chaired his thirtieth interaction through
PRAGATI platform. With reference to this
identify which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct about PRAGATI?
1. Launched in 2015, the Pragati platform
is aimed at starting a culture of Pro-
Active Governance and Timely
Implementation.
2. It is a multi-modal platform that is
aimed at addressing common man’s
grievances, and simultaneously
monitoring and reviewing important
programmes and projects of the
Government of India as well as projects
flagged by State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Lok Adalat?
1. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative
dispute redressal mechanisms
where disputes/cases pending in
the court of law or at pre-litigation
stage are settled/ compromised
amicably.
2. Lok Adalat functions as a voluntary
and conciliatory agency without any
statutory backing for its decisions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements about
Finance Commission:
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
1. Finance Commission is constituted by
the president of India every fifth year or
at such earlier time as he considers
necessary.
2. The Chairman of the finance
commission should be a retired chief
justice of India.
3. The recommendations made by the
Finance Commission are binding on the
government.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
6. Consider the following statements about the
Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill,
2019:
1. The Bill provides for a mechanism to
ban unregulated deposit schemes such
as Ponzi schemes and protect the
interests of depositors.
2. A Ponzi scheme is a type of investment
fraud wherein one party promises high
returns on an investment with little to
no risk.
3. It also seeks to amend three laws,
including the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934 and the Securities and Exchange
Board of India Act, 1992.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Writ Jurisdiction of High
court?
1. The Article 226 of the Constitution
empowers a high court to issue writs.
2. The High Court can issue writs only for
the enforcement of fundamental rights
and not for any other purpose.
3. The High Court cannot issue the writ of
Habeas Corpus which refers to an order
issued by the court to a person who has
detained another person, to produce
the body of the latter before it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Inter-State River Water
Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019?
1. The bill empowers the central
government to set up a Disputes
Resolution Committee (DRC) which will
seek to resolve the dispute through
negotiations, within one year.
2. The Bill also provides for a transparent
data collection system at the national
level for each river basin.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about Register of Indigenous
Inhabitants of Nagaland (RIIN)?
1. RIIN aims to prepare a master list of all
indigenous peoples and check the
issuance of fake indigenous inhabitant
certificate.
2. The RIIN will also be integrated with the
online system for Inner-Line Permit,
which is already in force in Nagaland.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Right to Information
(Amendment) Bill, 2019?
1. The RTI Amendment Bill fixes the term
of Chief Information
Commissioners(CICs) to Six years from
the date on which he enters upon his
office.
2. The amendment also proposed that
salaries, allowances and other terms of
service CIC and ICs “shall be such as
may be prescribed by the Central
Government”.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
11. Consider the following statements about
the Election Commission of India:
1. It is a permanent and an independent
body established by the Constitution of
India directly to ensure free and fair
elections in the country.
2. Since its inception in 1950 and till 15
October 1989, the election commission
functioned as a single member body
consisting of the Chief Election
Commissioner.
3. The election commissioners hold the
office for a term of six years or until
they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. The preamble of the Indian Constitution was
amended in 1976, the amendment added which
of the following words to the preamble?
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Integrity
4. Fraternity
5. Republic
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
13. Consider the following statements about
National Medical Commission Bill, 2019:
1. The Bill repeals the Indian Medical
Council Act, 1956 and dissolves the
current Medical Council of India.
2. The Bill sets up the National Medical
Commission (NMC) as an umbrella
regulatory body with certain other
bodies under it.
3. The Bill proposes a common final year
undergraduate examination called the
National Exit Test for the students
graduating from medical institutions to
obtain the license for practice.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. In which of the following matters, the
powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal
to that of the Lok Sabha?
A. In introduction and passage of
Constitutional amendment bills.
B. In passage of financial bills involving
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India.
C. In authorising the Parliament to create
new All-India Services common to both
the Centre and states.
D. Both A and B
15. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
1. Land and its management fall under the
exclusive legislative and administrative
jurisdiction of States as provided under
the Constitution of India.
2. At the Centre, in so far as land related
issues are concerned, the Ministry of
Rural Development, Department of
Land Resources (DoLR), is the nodal
Ministry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider the following statements about
the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot
System (ETPBS):
1. ETPBS is a type of Postal voting
whereby Ballot Papers are distributed
electronically to voters and returned by
them in post
2. It is also known as e-postal ballots and
the registered people are known as
Service Voters.
3. The ETPBS is less secured compared to
regular voting as the votes can be easily
manipulated and secrecy of votes
cannot be maintained.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about "WHIP" in political Parlance?
1. A Whip is a ‘written order’ which
demands party members to be present
in Parliament or a state assembly if an
important vote is scheduled.
2. Whips can only be issued by the ruling
party or an opposition party with single
largest strength in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Consider the following statements about
the Joint sitting of two houses of the
Parliament:
1. Joint sitting is an extraordinary
machinery provided by the Constitution
to resolve a deadlock between the two
Houses over the passage of a bill.
2. The President presides over a joint
sitting of the two Houses.
3. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting
is one-tenth of the total number of
members of the two Houses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
19. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Central Apprenticeship
Council (CAC)?
1. It is an apex statutory body under the
Apprentices Act, 1961.
2. Its function is to assist and advice the
Central Government for the
implementation of Apprentice Act.
3. Central Government can establish the
CAC by notification in the official
Gazette under Section 24(1) of the
Apprentices Act, 1961.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20. Central Apprenticeship Council (CAC)
It is an apex statutory body under the
Apprentices Act, 1961. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct about Fundamental
Duties in the Indian Constitution?
1. The fundamental duties in the
Indian Constitution were added
based on the recommendations of
the Sardar Swaran Singh
Committee.
2. The duty of providing children
opportunities for education
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
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between the age of six and
fourteen years was added by the
86th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 2002.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Indian State of Sikkim?
1. Before Sikkim became an Indian State,
it was ruled by the Chogyals (or kings)
of the Namgyal dynasty of Tibetan
descent.
2. After India became independent in
1947, a treaty was signed between
Maharaja Tashi Namgyal and India
which made Sikkim a full-fledged State
of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Recently, the Madhya Pradesh government
indicated that it plans to initiate steps towards
creation of a Legislative Council. With reference
to this identify which of the following Indian
states have a Legislative Council as a Second
House?
1. Maharashtra
2. Karnataka
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Jammu & Kashmir
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Central Water Commission
(CWC)?
1. It is a premier Technical
Organization of India in the field of
Water Resources and is presently
functioning as an attached office of
the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
2. The CWC is headed by a Chairman,
with the status of Ex-Officio
Secretary to the Government of
India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Section 144 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure (CrPC)?
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
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1. It is issued in severe situations, under
this people are instructed to stay
indoors for a specific time or period.
2. No order under this section can remain
in force for more than two months.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. The President of India is elected indirectly
by the members of electoral college consisting
of which of the following members?
1. The elected members of both the
Houses of Parliament
2. The elected members of the legislative
assemblies of the states
3. the elected members of the legislative
assemblies of the Union Territories of
Delhi and Puducherry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Fast Track Courts?
1. These are special kind of courts which
have exclusive jurisdiction over a
particular category of law
2. Fast track courts are generally
established to reduce the burden of
cases from high courts and district
courts and also to provide speedy
justice.
3. The Fast Track Courts are established
directly by a Presidential Order.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
1. Originally, the Constitution had
fixed the strength of the
Supreme Court judges at thirty-
one judges (one chief justice
and thirty other judges).
2. Recently, President signed into
law a Bill which seeks to
increase the sanctioned
strength of judges in the
Supreme Court from 30 to 33
besides the Chief Justice of
India
3. The judges of the Supreme
Court are appointed by the
president.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Motor Vehicles (Amendment)
Bill, 2019?
1. The Bill allows the central government
to order for recall of motor vehicles if a
defect in the vehicle may cause damage
to the environment, or the driver, or
other road users.
2. The Bill provides for a National Road
Safety Board, to be created by the
central government through a
notification.
3. To help road accident victims, Good
Samaritan guidelines have been
incorporated in the Bill.
4. The Bill has withdrawn the earlier
provisions of automated fitness testing
for vehicles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. The Article 371 of the Constitution, contains
“special provisions” for 11 states, including 6
states of the Northeast. With reference to this
identify Article 371B deals with special provision
with respect to which of the following State?
(a) Assam
(b) Nagaland
(c) Tripura
(d) Mizoram
30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the National Crisis Management
Committee (NCMC) which was in news
recently?
1. It is a permanent crisis management
committee of the Government in the
wake of a natural calamity headed by
the Home Minister of India.
2. It aims for effective coordination and
implementation of relief measures and
operations and to oversee the
command, control and coordination of
the disaster response.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Article 35A of the Indian
Constitution?
1. The Article 35A was incorporated in the
Constitution of India during the signing
of Instrument of Accession on 26
October 1947.
2. It gives the J&K legislature full
discretionary powers to decide who
'permanent residents' of the state are.
3. The Article gives the residents of J&K
special rights and privileges in
employment with the state
government, acquisition of property in
the state, settling in the state.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the recent
observations/guidelines of the Karnataka High
Court on erection temporary structures on
roads and footpaths?
1. The court observed that denial of
permission to erect temporary
structures on roads and footpaths for
religious festivals infringe upon the
right of freedom to free profession,
practice and propagation of religion
under Article 25 of the Constitution.
2. The Court also said that before granting
permission for temporary structures
municipal corporations should do spot
inspections and also get the traffic
police’s opinion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Incorrect about The Association of World
Election Bodies (A-WEB) which was in news
recently?
(a) A-WEB was established in the year
1985 as UN affiliated body, with its
permanent secretariat at, Hague,
Netherlands.
(b) A-WEB is the largest association of
Election Management Bodies
(EMBs) worldwide.
(c) A-WEB's vision is to foster efficiency
and effectiveness in conducting
free, fair, transparent and
participative elections worldwide
(d) The Election Commission of India
recently hosted the 4th General
Assembly of Association of World
Election Bodies (A-WEB) in
Bengaluru.
34. Which of the following feature of
the Indian Constitution is borrowed
from the Irish Constitution?
(a) Nomination of members to Rajya
Sabha
(b) Suspension of Fundamental Rights
during Emergency
(c) Removal of Supreme Court and high
court judges
(d) Procedure for amendment of the
Constitution and election of
members of Rajya Sabha.
35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Appointment of Governors of
the States in India?
1. The governor indirectly elected by a
specially constituted electoral
college as is the case with the
president.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
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2. As per the Constitution of India, the
Appointed governor should not be a
person who has taken too great a
part in politics generally, and
particularly in the recent past.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill?
1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016,
amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.
2. It seeks to provide citizenship to illegal
migrants, from Afghanistan, Bangladesh
and Pakistan, who are of Hindu, Sikh,
Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian
extraction.
3. The Bill also seeks to reduce the
requirement of 11 years of continuous
stay in the country to six years to obtain
citizenship by naturalisation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Right to Internet?
1. The right to Internet access is the view
that all people must be able to access
the Internet in order to exercise and
enjoy their rights to freedom of
expression and opinion and other
fundamental human rights.
2. Recently, government of India
introduced a bill in the Parliament
making right to access internet is part of
the fundamental right to education as
well as the right to privacy under the
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Right to Equality under Article
14 of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Right to Equality under article 14
provides Equality of opportunity in
matters of public employment
2. The Right to Equality under article 14 is
available to both citizens and foreigners
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Recently, September 2, 1946, marked the
formation of the interim government of India
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led by Jawaharlal Nehru. With reference to this
identify, in the interim government formed in
1946 the Vice-President of the Executive
Council was;
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
40. Recently, the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (NCST) recommended the
inclusion of Ladakh in the 6th schedule. With
reference to this identify the Sixth Schedule
includes which of the following?
(a) Provisions relating to the administration
and control of scheduled areas and
scheduled tribes.
(b) Provisions relating to the administration
of tribal areas
(c) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to
the states and the union territories.
(d) Specifies the powers, authority and
responsibilities of Panchayats.
41. Under which of the following circumstances
a member of parliament or legislative assembly
incurs disqualification as per the Anti-Defection
law?
1. If he voluntary gives up the
membership of the political party on
whose ticket he is elected to the House
2. if he votes or abstains from voting in
the House contrary to any direction
given by his political party
3. If any independently elected member
joins any political party
4. If any nominated member joins any
political party after the expiry of six
months.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
42. Recently, US House of Representatives
Speaker Nancy Pelosi announced that the
House would launch an impeachment inquiry
against President Donald Trump. With
reference to this identify which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct about the
impeachment of US President?
1. The US President can be removed from
office for “treason, bribery, or other
high crimes and misdemeanours”.
2. The Chief Justice of the US Supreme
Court has the sole power of
impeachment of US president.
3. Bill Clinton is the only American
president to be impeached so far.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the appointment of Judges?
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1. The judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the president.
2. Currently, the appointment of judges of
SC are recommended by the National
Judicial Appointments Commission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Consider the following statements about
National Population Register which was in news
recently:
1. The NPR is being prepared under
provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955
and the Citizenship (Registration of
Citizens and issue of National Identity
Cards) Rules, 2003.
2. The NPR is a citizenship enumeration
drive which intends to drive out a
foreigners staying in an Indian locality
for more than six months.
3. It is mandatory for every “usual
resident of India” to register in the NPR.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about Centralized Technology Vertical
(CTV) which was in news recently?
1. It is a proposed planned unit which will
be established under the Central
Bureau of Investigation (CBI) which
would be functional by next year.
2. It aims to facilitate real-time
information sharing with investigators
across the country.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Who among the following chairs the
meetings of Zonal councils?
(a) Union Home Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) One of the Chief Ministers of the
States participating
(d) Union finance Minister
47. The right to express dissent finds mention in
which of the following Supreme Court’s
Judgement?
(a) Berubari Union case
(b) Kesavananda Bharati case
(c) Golaknath case
(d) Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar
48. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Assam Accord of 1985 which
was in news recently?
1. The Assam Accord was a Memorandum
of understanding between Assam and
the north eastern states bordering it.
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2. The accord brought an end to the
Assam Movement and paved the way
for the leaders of the agitation to form
a political party and form a government
in the state of Assam soon after.
3. As per the accord, all people who came
to Assam prior to January 1, 1966,
would be given citizenship.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
49. Recently, Shillong Declaration on e-
governance adopted at the 22nd National
Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) talked
about India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA).
With reference to this identify which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct about
IndEA?
1. The primary purpose of IndEA is to help
state governments, ministries and
departments in the governments at
various levels to adopt a structured
approach for developing their
enterprise architecture.
2. India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA) is
a way to establish Unity in Diversity in
the domain of e-Governance.
3. It is designated as a National nodal
agency to coordinate matters related to
cyber security incidents in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
50. According to the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (NCST), the total tribal
population in Ladakh region is more than 97
percent. With reference to this identify, which
of the following Scheduled Tribes can be found
in the Ladakh region?
1. Changpa
2. Purigpa
3. Drokpa
4. Bodo
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
51. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes which
of the following ways of acquiring Indian
citizenship?
1. By Descent
2. By Registration
3. By Naturalization
4. By Incorporation of Territory
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
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(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. A bill is deemed to be a money bill if it
contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any
of which of the following matters?
1. The imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration or regulation of any tax
2. The regulation of the borrowing of
money by the Union government
3. The imposition of fines or other
pecuniary penalties
4. The demand or payment of fees for
licenses or fees for services rendered
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about Krishna river dispute?
1. The dispute began with the erstwhile
Hyderabad and Mysore states, and later
continuing between successors
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra
Pradesh
2. The First Krishna Water Disputes
Tribunal (KWDT) was set up under the
Inter-State River Water Dispute Act,
1956, in 1969.
3. The KWDT is yet to present a report due
to frequent relook applications from
the party states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
54. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the National Green Tribunal
(NGT)?
1. It is a specialized body equipped with
the necessary expertise to handle
environmental disputes involving multi-
disciplinary issues.
2. The Tribunal is mandated to make and
endeavor for disposal of applications or
appeals finally within 6 months of filing
of the same.
3. The Tribunal is bounded by the
procedure laid down under the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
55 Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Right to Dissent?
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1. Dissent is a sentiment or philosophy of
non-agreement or opposition to a
prevailing idea of a government's
policies or an entity (e.g., an individual
or political party which supports such
policies).
2. The right to freedom of speech which
has been enshrined as a fundamental
right under Article 19 (1)(a) in the
Constitution of India includes the right
to dissent.
3. The Section 124 A of IPC, 1860 deals
with Sedition, which is punishable with
life imprisonment and also an
additional fine if the ruling dispensation
thinks a person is inciting hatred against
the establishment or government
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Amendment Bill, 2019?
1. The Bill amends the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967.
2. The Bill removes the earlier provision
which empowered the government to
designate individuals as terrorists on
the same grounds.
3. The Bill a empowers the officers of the
NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above,
to investigate cases.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the National Commission for
Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)?
1. It was set up in March 2007 under the
Commission for Protection of Child
Rights Act, 2005.
2. It works under the administrative
control of the Ministry of Women &
Child Development.
3. The Act defines the Child as a person in
the 0 to 18 years’ age group.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Ordinance Making Power of
the President?
1. Article 123 of the Constitution
empowers the President to promulgate
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ordinances during the recess of
Parliament.
2. These ordinances do not have the same
force and effect as an act of Parliament
and they cease to exist once the
Parliament meet in a session.
3. An ordinance can only be promulgated
when both the houses are not in
session.
4. An ordinance can be issued only on
those subjects on which the Parliament
can make laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
59. Which of the following Indian States were
formerly union territories and later elevated to
statehood?
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Manipur
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Sikkim
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
60. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Supreme Court of India?
(a) Its original jurisdiction covers not
only federal cases but also cases
relating to naval forces, maritime
activities, ambassadors, etc
(b) It has no advisory jurisdiction
(c) It defends rights of the citizen
according to the ‘due process of
law’.
(d) None of the above
61. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the National Commission for STs?
1. It is a statutory established in 1993
under a legislation enacted by the
Parliament.
2. The Commission, while investigating
any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a civil
court.
3. The commission is also the watchdog of
human rights in the country, that is, the
rights relating to life, liberty, equality
and dignity of the individual guaranteed
by the Constitution
4. The Commission presents an annual
report to the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
62. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities?
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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1. Originally, the Constitution of India did
not make any provision with respect to
the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities.
2. It is duty of the Special Officer to
investigate all matters relating to the
safeguards provided for linguistic
minorities under the Constitution.
3. The Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities hold the office for a term of
six years or until they attain the age of
65 years, whichever is earlier.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
63. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Union Territories?
1. The UTs are the members of the federal
system in India and share a distribution
of power with the Centre.
2. The UTs comes under the direct control
and administration of the Central
government.
3. Every union territory is administered by
the President acting through an
administrator appointed by him.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Which of the following Schedule deals with
the Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the
states and the union territories?
(a) Fourth Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule
65. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about a Financial Bill?
1. A financial bill contains provisions
involving expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India and includes
any of the matters mentioned in Article
110.
2. It is treated as an ordinary bill and in all
respects, it is governed by the same
legislative procedure which is applicable
to an ordinary bill
3. The Finance Bill cannot be passed by
either House of Parliament unless the
President has recommended to that
House the consideration of the bill.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Public Accounts Committee?
1. The members to the PAC are elected by
the Parliament every year from
amongst its members according to the
principle of proportional representation
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by means of the single transferable
vote.
2. At present, it consists of 30 members
and all the members of the PAC are
drawn from Lok Sabha only.
3. The function of the committee is to
examine the annual audit reports of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG), which are laid before the
Parliament by the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
67. Which of the following conditions are laid
down by the constitution for the governor’s
office?
1. He should not be a member of either
House of Parliament or a House of the
state legislature.
2. He should not hold any other office of
profit
3. His emoluments and allowances cannot
be diminished during his term of office
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Proxy Voting in India?
1. Proxy voting allows a registered elector
to delegate his voting rights to a
representative he nominates.
2. The provision of Proxy Voting has been
prescribed in the constitution of India.
3. Only “classified service voter” serving in
the armed forces or paramilitary forces
is allowed to avail of these benefits
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
69. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Article 21 A?
1. Article 21 A declares that the State shall
provide free and compulsory education
to all children of the age of six to
fourteen years.
2. This provision makes only elementary
education a Fundamental Right and not
higher or professional education.
3. This provision was added by the 86th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
70. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Central Bureau of Investigation
(CBI)?
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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1. The CBI is the main investigating agency
of the Central Government and plays an
important role in the prevention of
corruption and maintaining integrity in
administration.
2. The establishment of the CBI was
recommended by the Santhanam
Committee on Prevention of Corruption
3. The CBI is statutory body and works
under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
71. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about North Eastern Council?
1. A North-Eastern Council was created by
a separate Act of Parliament—the
North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
2. Its functions are similar to those of the
zonal councils, but with few additions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. Which of the following statement is correct
about the National Human Rights
Commission(NHRC)?
(a) The commission is a multi-member
body consisting of a chairman and
two members and the chairman
should only be a chief justice of
India.
(b) The chairman and members are
appointed by the president on the
recommendations of Council of
Ministers headed by PM
(c) The chairman and members hold
office for a term of six years or until
they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
(d) The commission has its own nucleus
of investigating staff for
investigation into complaints of
human rights violations.
73. Recently, Articles 15(6) and 16(6) have been
inserted in the Constitution, vide the
Constitution (One Hundred and Third
Amendment) Act, 2019. With reference to this
identify which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
1. This enables the State to provide the
benefits of reservation on preferential
basis to the EWSs in civil posts and
services in the Government of India and
admission in Educational Institutions.
2. The 10% reservation under EWS
category is applicable to those persons
who are not covered under the existing
scheme of reservations for the
Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes
and the Socially and Educationally
Backward Classes.
3. The Amendment also make such
reservations mandatory in State
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Government-run educational
institutions or State Government jobs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
74. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about State Legislative Councils(SLC)?
1. Article 71 of the Constitution provides
for the option of a state to have a
Legislative Council in addition to its
Legislative Assembly.
2. The Constitution empowers the
Parliament to create or abolish a
legislative council with or without the
approval of concerned State.
3. The Act of Parliament concerning SLCs
is deemed as an amendment of the
Constitution for the purposes of Article
368.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Central Information
Commission(CIC)?
1. The Central Information Commission is
a constitutional body.
2. CIC is a high-powered independent
body which inter alia looks into the
complaints made to it and decide the
appeals.
3. Chief Information Commissioner and an
Information Commissioner are not
eligible for reappointment
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
76. Which of the following articles of the Indian
Constitution explicitly confer the power of the
judicial review on the Supreme Court and the
High Courts?
1. Article 13
2. Article 32
3. Article 226
4. Article 372
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the seat of the Supreme Court?
1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the
seat of the Supreme Court.
2. The Constitution authorises the chief
justice of India to appoint other place or
places as seat of the Supreme Court.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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3. The Constitution authorizes to High
Courts and Supreme Court to give
direction either to the President or to
the Chief Justice to appoint any other
place as a seat of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Development of Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) Scheme?
1. The Scheme aims at skill development
of vulnerable tribal groups of North East
Indian States.
2. Projects under the scheme are entirely
by the Central government.
3. Under this scheme, financial assistance
is provided to the State/UT
Governments based on their proposals
for development of tribal people
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Judicial activism?
1. Judicial activism denotes the proactive
role played by the judiciary in the
protection of the rights of citizens and
in the promotion of justice in the
society.
2. It implies the assertive role played by
the judiciary to force the other two
organs of the government (legislature
and executive) to discharge their
constitutional duties.
3. The concept of judicial activism is
closely related to the concept of Public
Interest Litigation (PIL)
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the newly created ‘Jal Shakti’
Ministry?
1. It has been created by merger of
Ministries of Water Resources, River
Development & Ganga Rejuvenation
along with Drinking Water and
Sanitation.
2. The Ministry will also address
international and inter-states water
disputes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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81. Consider the following statements about
the composition of the 17th Lok Sabha
members who will sit in the Lower House of
Parliament for the next five-year term:
1. The 17th Lok Sabha has the highest
representation of women the Lower
House has ever seen.
2. More than 75% of the total members of
Lok Sabha are at least graduates.
3. Chandrani Murmu, a tribal woman is
the youngest MP to be elected in the
17th Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82. Recently, Ajit Doval was reappointed as
National Security Advisor (NSA) of India for
another five-year tenure. With reference to this
identify which of the following statement(s)
is/are Incorrect?
1. Along with the reappointment he has
also been elevated to rank of Cabinet
Minister for this term.
2. NSA is the chief adviser to the prime
minister of India on national and
international security policy matters
and also serves at the discretion of
Prime Minister of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Incorrect?
1. National Investigation Agency (NIA) is
governed by its own NIA Act and has
jurisdiction across the country.
2. The CBI is governed by the Delhi Special
Police Establishment Act that makes
consent of a state government
mandatory for conducting investigation
in that state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Consider the following statements about
the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. It is a constitutional body for
adjudication of disputes with respect to
recruitment and conditions of service of
persons appointed to public services.
2. The members of the defence forces are
not covered under the jurisdiction of
CAT.
3. The appeal against the orders of a
tribunal could be made in High Court
and not directly in Supreme Court.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
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(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
85. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
1. If a sitting Rajya Sabha member
contests and wins a Lok Sabha election,
his seat in the Upper House becomes
automatically vacant on the date he is
declared elected to Lok Sabha.
2. An individual can contest from two
parliamentary constituencies but, if
elected from both, he has to resign one
seat within 14 days of the declaration of
the result, failing which both his seats
shall fall vacant.
3. If a member of the State Legislature is
elected to the Lok Sabha, his seat in the
state legislature automatically becomes
vacant.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
86. Consider the following statements about
Cabinet Committees:
1. Cabinet Committees are Constitutional
bodies which are instrumental in
reducing the workload of the Cabinet.
2. Members of the Cabinet Committees
can be from both the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha.
3. Ministers who are not the part of the
Cabinet can be added to a Cabinet
Committee.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
87. The Rule 49MA which was in news recently
is related to which of the following?
(a) Reporting of malfunctioning of
Electronic Voting Machines and
Voter Verified Paper Audit Trails.
(b) Rule which makes sexual activities
"against the order of nature" illegal.
(c) Rule which criminalizes attempted
Suicides.
(d) None of the above
88. Consider the following statements about
the Attorney General of India:
1. He is the highest law officer in the
country.
2. He must be a person who is qualified to
be appointed a judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. He holds the office during the pleasure
of the president as the constitution
does not contain the procedure and
grounds for his removal.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
89. The Election Commission of India recently
declared the National People’s Party as a
national party. With reference to this identify
which of the following is/are among the
benefits of being a National Party?
1. If a party is recognised as a `National
Party’ it is entitled for exclusive
allotment of its reserved symbol to the
candidates set up by it throughout
India.
2. Recognised `National’ parties need only
one proposer for filing the nomination.
3. They also get broadcast/telecast
facilities over
Akashvani/Doordarshan during general
elections.
Select the Correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
90. Consider the following statements about
the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha:
1. The leader of the largest Opposition
party having not less than one-tenth
seats of the total strength of the House
is recognised as the leader of the
Opposition in that House.
2. The Position of the Leader of opposition
is conventional in nature and doesn't
enjoy any statutory recognition.
3. They are also entitled to the salary,
allowances and other facilities
equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
91. Recently, the cabinet secretary Pradeep
Kumar Sinha was given a three-month
extension, making him the longest-serving
bureaucrat in the post in the last seven
decades. With reference to this identify which
of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about the Cabinet Secretary?
1. The cabinet secretary is appointed by
the President of India by warrant under
his hand and seal.
2. Cabinet secretary is the administrative
head of the secretariat and is also the
ex-officio chairman of the civil services
board.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. The Election Commission of India is
responsible for the conduct of elections to
which of the following?
1. Parliament
2. State Legislatures
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3. The Office of President of India
4. The Office of Vice-President of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
93. Recently, Virendra Kumar a BJP MP from
Madhya Pradesh was chosen to be the Pro-tem
Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha. With reference
to this consider the following statements about
the Pro Term Speaker:
1. The Pro Term is appointed by the
president when the Speaker of the last
Lok Sabha vacates his office
immediately before the first meeting of
the newly-elected Lok Sabha.
2. It is a temporary office as the new
Speaker is elected by the House, the
office of the Speaker Pro Tem ceases to
exist.
3. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers
of the Speaker.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
94. Which of following Writs and their
explanation is/are correctly matched?
1. Habeas Corpus: It is an order issued by
the court to a person who has detained
another person, to produce the body of
the latter before it.
2. Mandamus: It is issued by the court to
enquire into the legality of claim of a
person to a public office.
3. Prohibition: It is issued by a higher court
to a lower court or tribunal to prevent
the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction
or usurping a jurisdiction that it does
not possess.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
95. Consider the following statements about
the President Rule in J&K:
1. Since J&K has a separate Constitution,
Governor’s rule is first imposed for six
months after an approval by the
President.
2. At the expiry of six months of
Governor's Rule and if suspension of
assembly has not been revoked, Jammu
and Kashmir comes under the
President's Rule as per Article 356 of
the constitution.
3. Governor’s rule is mentioned under
Article 370 section 92 – ‘Provisions in
case of failure of constitutional
machinery in the State.’
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
96. The Article 15 of the Constitution provides
that the State shall not discriminate against any
citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
sex or place of birth. With reference to this
identify which of the following is/are exceptions
to this general rule of non-discrimination?
1. The state is permitted to make any
special provision for women and
children.
2. The state is permitted to make any
special provision for the advancement
of any socially and educationally
backward classes of citizens or for the
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
3. The state is empowered to make any
special provision for the advancement
of any socially and educationally
backward classes of citizens.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Consider the following statements and
identify, the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
the Constitution are characterized by which of
the following?
1. The fundamental rights provided by the
constitution are absolute in nature and
the State cannot impose restrictions on
them.
2. They are justiciable, allowing persons to
move the courts for their enforcement,
if and when they are violated.
3. They can be suspended during the
operation of a National Emergency
except the rights guaranteed by Articles
20 and 21.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
98. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Incorrect about Pocket Veto of President?
(a) Pocket Veto refers to the power of
the president where he neither
ratifies nor rejects nor returns the
bill, but simply keeps the bill
pending for an indefinite period.
(b) Despite the President of India
enjoys the power of pocket veto, it
has never been exercised in India.
(c) The President has no veto power in
respect of a constitutional
amendment bill
(d) None of the above
99. The power of adjournment sine die of Lok
Sabha lies with which of the following
dignitaries?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
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(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.
100. Recently, Prime Minister called for all-
party meet on ‘one nation, one election’ i.e
holding elections to Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies simultaneously, once in
five years. With reference to this identify which
of the following articles needs to be amended in
order to implement the concept of
simultaneous elections?
1. Article 83
2. Article 85
3. Article 172
4. Article 174
5. Article 356
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above
101. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Incorrect about the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG)?
1. He is the head of the Indian Audit and
Accounts Department appointed by the
President of India
2. He holds office for a period of five years
or up to the age of 60 years, whichever
is earlier.
3. He can be removed by the president on
same grounds and in the same manner
as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
102. The Article 3 of the constitution authorizes
the parliament to:
1. Form a new state by separation of
territory from any state or by uniting
two or more states or parts of states.
2. Increase or decrease the area of any
State.
3. To cede Indian territory to a foreign
country.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
103. Which of the following can be considered
as the important elements of the concept of
‘Rule of Law'?
1. Absence of arbitrary power
2. Equality before the law.
3. The primacy of the rights of the
individual.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
104. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Zonal Councils?
1. The Zonal Councils are constitutional
Bodies aimed at promoting cooperation
and coordination between states, union
territories and the Centre.
2. The Prime Minister of India is the
common chairman of all the zonal
councils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
105. Consider the following statements about
the Zero Hour of the parliamentary Session in
India:
1. Zero Hour refers to the first hour of
every parliamentary sitting.
2. It is an informal device and not
mentioned in the in the Rules of
Procedure of the house.
3. The Zero Hour allows members of the
Parliament to raise matters without any
prior notice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
106. Consider the following statement(s) about
the Removal of High Courts Judges:
1. A judge of a high court can be removed
in the same manner and on the same
grounds as a judge of the Supreme
Court.
2. The Motion to remove a judge of a high
court cannot be rejected by the
Speaker/Chairman.
3. If motion is admitted the house
immediately starts voting on the
motion.
4. If the motion is passed by each House
of Parliament by special majority, the
judge stands impeached from
immediate effect.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
107. Which of the following Indian
territories/territory was/were acquired by the
means of police action by India in 1961 from
Portuguese?
(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Goa, Daman and Diu
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim
108. Under the Constitution, the Parliament of
India consists of which the following parts?
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. The president of India
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4. The Attorney General of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All the above
109. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about the Motion of thanks to
President’s Address?
1. Motion of thanks is moved after the
President makes an address to a joint
sitting of Parliament at the start of the
Budget session, which is prepared by
the government and lists its
achievements.
2. A failure to get motion of thanks passed
amounts to defeat of government and
leads to collapse of government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
110. The President is an integral part of the
Parliament of India, and enjoys certain
legislative powers. With reference to this
identify which of the following forms part of
legislative powers of the president?
1. He can summon or prorogue the
Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
2. He directly administers the union
territories through administrators
appointed by him.
3. He can nominate two members to the
Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
4. He decides on questions as to
disqualifications of members of the
Parliament, in consultation with the
Election Commission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
111. Recently, the Ministry of Law and Justice
issued an Extraordinary Gazette Notification,
declaring the United Arab Emirates to be a
“reciprocating territory”. With reference to this
identify which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The UAE became the first country to be
declared as ‘reciprocating territory’
2. Orders passed by certain designated
courts from a ‘reciprocating territory’
can be implemented in India, by filing a
copy of the decree concerned in a
District Court here.
3. Now, the Indian expatriates in the UAE
would no longer be able to seek safe
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haven in India if they are convicted in a
civil case in the UAE.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
112. Which of the following statements is/are
Incorrect about the Committee on Public
Undertakings?
(a) The origin of this committee can be
traced to the standing financial
committee set up in 1921.
(b) The members of this committee are
elected by the Parliament every year
from amongst its own members
according to the principle of
proportional representation by means
of a single transferable vote.
(c) A minister cannot be elected as a
member of the committee.
(d) The chairman of the committee is
appointed by the Speaker from
amongst its members who are drawn
from the Lok Sabha only.
113. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Preamble of the Constitution?
1. The term ‘preamble’ refers to the
introduction or preface to the
Constitution and contains the summary
or essence of the Constitution.
2. The Original constitution did not
contain the preamble and it was added
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act (1976).
3. The Preamble is a source of power to
legislature and also acts as a prohibition
upon the powers of legislature.
4. The Preamble is -justiciable in nature,
that is, its provisions are enforceable in
courts of law.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
114. Recently, the Supreme Court asked
Parliament to amend the Constitution to strip
Legislative Assembly Speakers of their exclusive
power to decide whether legislators should be
disqualified or not under the anti-defection law.
With reference to this identify which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Provisions relating to disqualification of
the members of Parliament and State
Legislatures on the ground of defection
is included in the Seventh Schedule of
the Constitution.
2. The schedule relating to disqualification
of the members of Parliament and State
Legislatures was added by the 52nd
Amendment Act of 1985, also known as
Anti-Defection Law.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
115. The Andhra Pradesh Assembly recently
passed the Andhra Pradesh Decentralization
and Equal Development of All Regions Bill, 2020
which paved the way for creation of three
capital cities to usher in decentralization of
development. With reference to this identify
which of the following is the only country in the
world to have such model of three capitals?
(a) Philippines
(b) Chile
(c) Brazil
(d) South Africa
116. The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three
ways of losing citizenship whether acquired
under the Act or prior to it under the
Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and
deprivation. With reference to this identify
which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly
matched?
(a) By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of
full age and capacity can make a
declaration renouncing his Indian
citizenship and Upon the registration of
that declaration, that person ceases to
be a citizen of India.
(b) By Termination: When an Indian citizen
voluntarily acquires the citizenship of
another country, his Indian citizenship
automatically terminates.
(c) By Deprivation: the citizen has shown
disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
(d) All the above
117. Consider the following statements about
the Assam Accord:
1. It was a Memorandum of Settlement
(MoS) signed between representatives
of the various minority tribal of North
eastern states and the leaders of the
Assam Movement.
2. The Accord created a framework-
graded citizenship, depending on a
person’s parentage and when he/she
had migrated to India.
3. The Assam Accord laid the grounds for
the Supreme Court-directed National
Register of Citizens (NRC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
118. In the context of the recently formed
National Startup Advisory Council, consider the
following statements:
1. The council has been established to
advise the Government on measures
needed to build a strong ecosystem for
nurturing innovation and startups in the
country.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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2. The Council will be chaired by Minster
of Finance
3. The Council will consist of the non-
official members, to be nominated by
Central Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
119. The Parliamentary privileges are special
rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by
the two Houses of Parliament. With reference
to this identify the privileges are extended to
which of the following entities?
1. Members of the Parliament
2. Committees of the parliament and their
members.
3. Those persons who are entitled to
speak and take part in the proceedings
of a House of Parliament.
4. The President of India who is also an
integral part of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
120. With reference to the "Black Warrant"
which often appears in Indian media, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. A black warrant is a kind of notice
issued by a court of law announcing the
time and the place of the execution for
a convict, who has been condemned to
death.
2. The proceedings for the black warrant
are initiated after all the options of
mercy petitions are exhausted by a
death row convict.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
121. With reference to the One Hundred and
Third Amendment of the Constitution of India,
consider the following statements:
1. The Act newly inserts Articles 15(6) and
16(6) in the constitution of India which
provide 10% economic reservation in
government jobs and admission to
education institutions.
2. The Amendment makes such
reservations mandatory in State
Government-run educational
institutions or State Government jobs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. With reference to the Protection of Life
and Personal Liberty under article 21, consider
the following statements:
1. It means that no person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure
established by law.
2. This right is available to both citizens
and non-citizens.
3. The protection under article 21 is
available only against arbitrary
executive action and not from arbitrary
legislative action.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
123. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Zonal Councils?
1. The Zonal Councils are constitutional
bodies which are aimed at promoting
cooperation and coordination between
states, union territories and the Centre.
2. They are only deliberative and advisory
bodies.
3. The home minister of Central
government is the common chairman of
the five zonal councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
124. In the context of the Constitution of India,
which of the following statements is/are
Incorrect?
1. No religious instruction shall be
provided in any educational institution
wholly maintained out of State funds.
2. No person shall be compelled to pay
any taxes for the promotion or
maintenance of any particular religion
or religious denomination.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. Which of the following was not among the
bill passed in the Winter Session, 2019 of
Parliament which was concluded recently?
(a) The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019
(b) Transgender Persons (Protection of
Rights) Bill, 2019
(c) Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Bill
2019
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(d) The Muslim Women (Protection of
Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019
126. With reference to the writ jurisdiction of
the high court, consider the following
statements:
1. Article 226 of the Constitution
empowers a high court to issue writs
for the enforcement of the
fundamental rights of the citizens and
for any other purpose.
2. The high court can issue writs to any
person, authority and government only
within its territorial jurisdiction.
3. The writ jurisdiction of the high court is
wider than that of the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
127. With reference to the recent Supreme
Court ruling on Land Grabbing by state,
consider the following statements:
1. The SC held that a citizen’s right to own
private property is a human right.
2. The SC in its judgement pronounced
that a state can trespass into the
private property of a citizen and claim
the ownership of the land under the
doctrine of adverse possession, if fair
compensation is paid to the owner.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
128. With reference to the Right to Strike in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The right to strike is a fundamental right
under Article 19 of the Constitution of
India
2. The Constitution of India has conferred
the unions that they guaranteed right
to effective bargaining or right to strike
in India.
Which of the above statements is/are
Incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
129. Consider the following statements about a
Curative Petition:
1. A curative petition is the final and last
option for the people to acquire justice
as mentioned and promised by the
Constitution of India.
2. A curative petition is a way to ask the
court to review and revise their own
decision even after a review petition is
dismissed or used.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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3. The concept of Curative Petition in India
originated from the Golakhnath
judgement of the Supreme Court of
India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
130. Recently, the Supreme Court ordered the
Jammu and Kashmir administration to review all
the restrictions pertaining to Internet services in
the region. With reference to this identify which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Supreme Court observed that the
temporary suspension of Internet and
curtailing basic freedoms of citizens
should not be arbitrary and is open to
judicial review.
2. The freedom to use Internet is a legal
right and not a fundamental right in
India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
131. With reference to the Centre and State
relations, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Article 256 of the Constitution obligates
the State government to ensure
implementation of the laws made by
Parliament.
2. The refusal to enforce the law even
after the Centre issues directions would
empower the President to impose
President’s Rule in those States under
Articles 356 and 365.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
132. The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet recently
approved the Commissionerate system of
policing in the state. With reference to this
identify which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. In the commissionerate system, the
Commissioner of Police (CP) is the head
of a unified police command structure,
is responsible for the force in the city,
and is accountable to the state
government.
2. The system gives more responsibilities,
including magisterial powers, to IPS
officers of Inspector General of Police
(IG) rank posted as commissioners
3. The office of CP also has magisterial
powers, including those related to
regulation, control, and licensing.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
133. With reference to the promulgation of the
Ordinance in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Ordinances are laws that are
promulgated by the President of India
on the recommendation of the Union
Cabinet.
2. The provision of the ordinance making
in the Indian Constitution has been
borrowed from the constitution of USA.
3. An ordinance can be issued only on
those subjects on which the Parliament
can make laws.
4. Every ordinance issued by the President
during the recess of parliament must be
laid before both the Houses of
Parliament when it reassembles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
134. Which of the following writ can be issued
against both public authorities as well as private
individuals?
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Certiorari
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
135. Which of the following are among the
advantages, a language acquires if it is included
in the Eighth Schedule of the constitution of
India?
1. The Members of Parliament and MLAs
could speak in that language in
Parliament and State Assemblies
2. The Candidates could write all-India
competitive examinations like the Civil
Services exam in that language.
3. That language would get recognition
from the Sahitya Akademi.
4. The books of that language would be
translated into other recognised Indian
languages.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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136. Recently, the Chhattisgarh government
moved the Supreme Court against the National
Investigation Act, 2008 stating it is violative of
the Constitution. With reference to this identify
which of the following statements is/are correct
about the NIA act?
1. The NIA Act makes the National
Investigation Agency the only truly
federal agency in the country.
2. It gives the NIA powers to take suo
motu cognizance of terror activities in
any part of India and register a case, to
enter any state without permission
from the state government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
137. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG)?
1. The CAG is the Principal Accounting
Adviser to Government of India and is
responsible for establishing and
maintaining a technically sound
Management Accounting System.
2. He is the guardian of the public purse
and controls the entire financial system
of the country at both the levels—the
Centre and the state.
3. CAG is an agent of the Parliament and
conducts audit of expenditure on behalf
of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
138. Which of the following is/are among the
rights of a death row convict in India?
1. In cases where the High Court has
awarded the death sentence, the
verdict has to be necessarily be
confirmed by the Supreme Court.
2. A death sentence awarded by a trial or
district court cannot be executed until
the High Court has confirmed the
verdict.
3. The President of India and Governors
have the power to “grant pardons,
reprieves, respites or remissions” of
punishment awarded by the courts.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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139. The Indra Sawhney versus Union of India
Case judgement is popularly known for
(a) The judgement of the Supreme Court
which ruled that the constituent power
of Parliament under Article 368 does
not enable it to alter the ‘basic
structure’ of the Constitution.
(b) The judgment that had upheld the
government’s move, based on the
Mandal Commission report, to give 27%
reservation to Other Backward Classes.
(c) The ‘means-test and creamy layer’ first
finds expression in the Indra Sawhney
versus Union of India judgment
delivered by a nine-judge Bench in
1992.
(d) All the above
140. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Article 14 of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Article 14 says that the State shall not
deny to any person equality before the
law or the equal protection of the laws
within the territory of India.
2. The provision of Article 14 confers
rights only to Indian Citizens.
3. The Supreme Court in the past has held
that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in
Article 14 is a ‘basic feature’ of the
constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
141. In the context of the Citizenship
(Amendment) Bill, 2019, consider the following
statements:
1. The Bill seeks to amend the Citizenship
Act, 1955, by wanting to grant
citizenship to illegal non-Muslims from
Bangladesh, Pakistan and Afghanistan,
who came to India on or before
December 31, 2014.
2. If the Bill is passed, it will be the first
time that citizenship will be provided on
the basis of religion.
3. The Bill exempts certain areas in the
North-East from its amendment
provisions.
4. The bill increases the period through
which one can acquire Indian
Citizenship by Naturalization from 5 to
11 years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above
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142 The Central information commissioners are
appointed by the President on the
recommendation of a committee consisting of:
1. Prime Minister as Chairperson
2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok
Sabha
3. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by
the Prime Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
143 With reference to the imposition of Section
144, identify which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It authorises the Executive Magistrate
of any state or territory to issue an
order to prohibit the assembly of four
or more people in an area.
2. It can only be used to restrict group of
people and not an individual in
particular.
3. Order passed under Section 144 can
remain for an indefinite time from the
date of the order, unless the state
government considers it necessary to
terminate it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
144 With reference to the Freedom of
Assembly in the Indian Constitution, which of
the following statement is Incorrect?
(a) Every citizen in India has the right to
assemble peaceably and without arms
under Article 19 of the Constitution.
(b) It includes the right to hold public
meetings, demonstrations and take out
processions.
(c) This freedom can be exercised only on
public land and the assembly must be
peaceful and unarmed.
(d) Freedom of Assembly includes the right
to strike.
145 Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Departmentally-Related
Standing Committees (DRSCs)?
1. The main objective of the standing
committees is to secure more
accountability of the Executive to the
Parliament, particularly financial
accountability.
2. They also assist the Parliament in
debating the budget more effectively
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3. A minister of the respective ministries
and departments acts as ex officio
chairman of the DRSCs
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
146 Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT)?
(a) The Central Administrative Tribunal
(CAT) is a constitutional body
established under Article 312-A of the
Constitution.
(b) The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in
relation to recruitment and all service
matters of public servants covered by it.
(c) The appointment of Members in CAT is
made on the basis of recommendations
of a committee consisting of Prime
Minister and Leader of Opposition of
the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(d) All the above
147 Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Section 309 of the IPC which was
in news recently?
(a) It lays down the punishment for
attempted suicide.
(b) It criminalises consensual sexual
conduct between adults of the same
sex.
(c) It confers individuals the Right of
private defence of the body and of
property.
(d) it lays down the punishment for
Intentional insult with intent to provoke
breach of the peace.
148. With reference to the recently launched
India's Good Governance Index, consider the
following statements:
1. Good Governance index is a ranking
system established by NITI Ayog in
collaboration with the World Bank
Group.
2. It is a uniform tool across States to
assess the Status of Governance and
impact of various interventions taken
up by the State Government and UTs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
149. In the context of the concept of ‘equality
before law', consider the following statements:
1. The concept of ‘equality before law’ in
the Indian constitution has been taken
from American Constitution.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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2. In the Indian constitution, the Article 14
says that the State shall not deny to any
person equality before the law and
equal protection of the laws within the
territory of India
3. The rule of equality before law is not
absolute and there are constitutional
and other exceptions to it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
150. With reference to the Right to Information
(Amendment) Bill, 2019, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(a) The Bill changes the terms and
conditions of service of the CIC and
Information Commissioners at the
centre and in states.
(b) The Bill changes removes the three tier
structure established by the RTI act of
2005 for enforcing the right to
information guaranteed under the Act.
(c) The Bill removes public sector
undertakings from the list of the Public
Authorities which are required to make
disclosures on various aspects of their
structure and functioning.
(d) All the above
151. With reference to the Short Duration
Discussions in Rajya Sabha, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. The short duration discussion is a
procedural device to enable members
to raise discussion on matters of urgent
public importance without a formal
motion on a matter of urgent public
importance.
2. The Chairman cannot reject the
admissibility of the notice on Short
duration discussions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
152. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Curfew in India?
1. The notification for the Curfew is issued
by the District Magistrate under section
144 CrPC and it prohibits the assembly
of five or more people in an area.
2. Under Curfew, establishments such as
markets, schools, colleges, etc. are
ordered to remain shut, and only
essential services are allowed to run on
prior notice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
153. Which of the following devices of
parliamentary proceedings requires an oral
answer and hence supplementary questions can
follow?
(a) Starred Question
(b) Unstarred Question
(c) Short Notice Question
(d) All the above
154. With reference to the No Confidence
Motion, which of the following statement is
Incorrect?
(a) It should state the reasons for its
adoption in the Lok Sabha.
(b) It can be moved against the entire
council of ministers only.
(c) It is moved for ascertaining the
confidence of Lok Sabha in the council
of ministers.
(d) If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the
council of ministers must resign from
office.
155. With reference to a District Judge, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The district judge is the highest judicial
authority in the district.
(b) When a district judge hears the criminal
cases, he is called as the sessions judge.
(c) The district judge exercises both judicial
and administrative powers and also has
supervisory powers over all the
subordinate courts in the district.
(d) All the above statements
156. Consider the following statements about
the National Human Rights Commission
(NHRC)?
1. The National Human Rights Commission
is a statutory (and not a constitutional)
body.
2. The commission is a multi-member
body consisting of a chairman and four
members appointed by the president
based on the recommendations of a
committee of Council of Ministers.
3. The commission doesn’t have any of its
own investigating staff for investigation
into complaints of human rights
violations and takes helps of private
investigators or state police personnel.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
157. Recently, some of the major findings of a
study conducted by the Central Water
Commission (CWC) from May 2014 to April
2018 revealed the Heavy metals contaminating
India’s rivers. With reference to this identify
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
1. Chromium was the largest contaminant
found in al almost all the major rivers of
India.
2. The study found that mining, milling,
plating and surface finishing industries
that discharge a variety of toxic metals
into the environment as the main
sources of heavy metal pollution.
3. Long-term exposure to the heavy
metals may result in slowly progressing
degenerative processes that mimic
many diseases such as Alzheimer’s
disease and Parkinson’s disease
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
158. Which of the following powers/rights is
conferred to the Supreme Court by the Article
142 of the Constitution?
(a) It allows the Supreme Court to pass any
order necessary for doing complete
justice in any cause or matter pending
before it.
(b) It confers Supreme Court the rights to
issue writs making it as the guarantor
and defender of the fundamental rights
of the citizens.
(c) It allows Supreme Court to settle
dispute arising out of any pre-
Constitution treaty, agreement,
covenant, engagement, sanad or other
similar instrument.
(d) It authorises the president to seek the
opinion of the Supreme Court in the
matter of public importance.
159. With reference to the Protection of
Interests of Minorities under Article 29 of the
Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. Article 29 grants protection to both
religious minorities as well as linguistic
minorities
2. Under Article 29, no citizen shall be
denied admission into any educational
institution maintained by the State or
receiving aid out of State funds on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, or
language.
3. The scope of this article 29 is restricted
to minorities only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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160. With reference to the Attorney General
(AG) of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The Attorney General (AG) is appointed
by the president.
2. He must be a person who is qualified to
be appointed a judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. He is appointed for a period of five
years and can only be removed on the
grounds prescribed in the constitution.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
161. Which of the following statement is/are
correct about the Overseas Citizenship of India
(OCI)?
1. It is an immigration status permitting a
foreign citizen of Indian origin to live
and work in India indefinitely.
2. It was introduced by the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, 2005 and was
launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya
Divas convention held in Hyderabad in
late 2005.
3. The OCI status also provides the OCI
holder right to vote, right to hold
constitutional offices, and right to buy
agricultural properties.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
162. Which of the following fundamental rights
enshrined in the Indian constitution are
available to both Indian citizens and to
foreigners?
1. Equality before law and equal
protection of laws (Article 14)
2. Right to elementary education (Article
21A).
3. Right to freedom of speech and
expression (Article 19)
4. Protection of language, script and
culture of minorities (Article 29).
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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163. The feature of Single Citizenship in the
Indian Constitution is borrowed from the
Constitution of which of the following country?
(a) Irish Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Australian Constitution
(d) British Constitution
164. Under the RTI Act, 2005, Public Authorities
are required to make disclosures on various
aspects of their structure and functioning. With
reference to this identify under the act who
among the following is included in the ambit of
‘Public Authorities’?
1. ‘Public Authorities’ include bodies of
self-government established under the
Constitution, or under any law or
government notification.
2. It also includes any entities owned,
controlled or substantially financed and
non-government organizations
substantially financed directly or
indirectly by funds provided by the
government.
3. The Office of the Chief Justice of India
(CJI) is also a ‘public authority’ under
the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
165. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Administrative Tribunals?
1. Article 323 A enables the Parliament to
take out the adjudication of disputes
relating to service matters from the civil
courts and the high courts and place it
before the administrative tribunals.
2. The original Constitution did not
contain provisions with respect to
tribunals and the 42nd Amendment Act
of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the
Constitution which deal with the
tribunals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
166. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about secularism in India?
1. The term ‘secular’ was added by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
1976.
2. Secularism is one of the ‘basic features’
of the Constitution.
3. Indian Constitution embodies the
concept of secularism which connotes a
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complete separation between the
religion and the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
167. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Special Provisions for Some States
under Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the
constitution of India?
1. Articles 371 to 371-J contains Special
Provisions for 7 North Eastern States.
2. The intention behind them is to meet
the aspirations of the people of
backward regions of the states or to
protect the cultural and economic
interests of the tribal people of the
states
3. Originally, the constitution did not
make any special provisions for these
states and have been incorporated by
the various subsequent amendments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
168. The Election Commission grants
recognition to political parties as national or
state parties on the basis of their poll
performance. With reference to this identify, at
present, a party is recognised as a national
party if which of the following conditions is
fulfilled?
1. If it secures six per cent of valid votes
polled in any four or more states at a
general election to the Lok Sabha or to
the legislative assembly.
2. If it wins two per cent of seats in the
Lok Sabha at a general election and
these candidates are elected from three
states.
3. If it is recognised as a state party in any
one Indian State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
169. The successful functioning of the Indian
federal system depends not only on the
harmonious relations between the Centre and
the states but also between the states inter se.
With reference to this identify, the
Constitution of India makes which of the
following provisions with regard to inter-state
comity?
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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1. Adjudication of inter-state water
disputes.
2. Coordination through inter-state
councils.
3. Mutual recognition of public acts,
records and judicial proceedings.
4. Freedom of inter-state trade,
commerce and intercourse
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
170. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about powers and functions of the Chief
Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers?
(a) The governor appoints only those
persons as ministers who are
recommended by the Chief Minister
(b) He can ask a minister to resign or advise
the governor to dismiss him in case of
difference of opinion
(c) Chief Minister is the head of the council
of ministers, his resignation or death
automatically dissolves the council of
ministers.
(d) All the above
171. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the National Green Tribunal?
(a) The National Green Tribunal was
established in 2010 under the National
Green Tribunal Act 2010.
(b) The Tribunal shall not be bound by the
procedure laid down under the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908 but shall be
guided by principles of natural justice.
(c) The Tribunal is mandated to make and
endeavour for disposal of applications
or appeals finally within 6 months of
filing of the same.
(d) All the above
172. Recently, the Union government
introduced the Labour Code on Industrial
Relations, 2019 bill in the Lok Sabha. With
reference to this identify which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The bill aims to streamline industrial
relations and help India improve on the
ease of doing business index.
2. The Bill consolidates essential elements
of three laws—the Trade Unions Act,
1926, the Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and the
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
3. The Code also proposes setting up of a
“re-skilling fund” for training of
retrenched employees.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
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(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
173. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Question Hour in the Indian
Parliament?
1. The first hour of every parliamentary
sitting is slotted for this
2. It is a device through which the
Parliament exercises control over the
ministers or the government.
3. During question hour, the members of
the parliament can only put forward a
starred question which requires an oral
answer.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
174. Which of the following is/are among the
major provisions of the Jammu and Kashmir
Reorganisation Bill, 2019 which was in news
recently?
1. The Bill reorganises the state of Jammu
and Kashmir as the Union Territory of
Jammu and Kashmir without a
legislature.
2. The Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir will be administered by the
President, through an administrator
appointed by him known as the
Lieutenant Governor.
3. The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir
will be the common High Court for the
Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu
and Kashmir.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
175. Article 110 of the Constitution deals with
the definition of money bills. With reference to
this identify, a bill is deemed to be a money bill
if it contains provisions dealing with which of
the following matters?
1. The regulation of the borrowing of
money by the Union government
2. The appropriation of money out of the
Consolidated Fund of India
3. If the bill provides for the imposition of
fines or other pecuniary penalties.
4. If the bill consists of payment of fees for
licenses or fees for services rendered.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
176. Which of the following is/are among the
judicial powers and functions of the Parliament
of India?
(a) It can impeach the President for the
violation of the Constitution.
(b) It can remove the Vice-President from
his office.
(c) It can punish its members or outsiders
for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt.
(d) All the above
177. The government recently celebrated the
‘Constitution Day’ or ‘Samvidhan Diwas’ in the
Central Hall of Parliament to mark the 70th
anniversary of adoption of the Constitution by
the Constituent Assembly. With reference to
this identify which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
1. The Constitution Day is celebrated on
26th November every year as it was on
this day in 1949 that the Constitution
came into force.
2. On the Constitution day, Dr Rajendra
Prasad was also elected as the first
President of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
178. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Article 19 of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Article 19 contains six rights that
guarantees Right to Freedom of an
Individual.
2. These six rights are protected against
only state action and not private
individuals
3. The State can impose ‘reasonable’
restrictions on the enjoyment of these
six rights only on the grounds
mentioned in the Article 19 itself and
not on any other grounds.
4. These rights are available not only to
the citizens but also to foreigners or
legal persons like companies or
corporations, etc.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
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(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
179. President Ram Nath Kovind recently
approved a proclamation imposing President’s
Rule in Maharashtra, with reference to this
identify which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct about President's Rule under
Article 356 of the constitution?
1. A proclamation imposing President’s
Rule must be approved by both the
Houses of Parliament within two
months from the date of its issue.
2. During its operation, the state executive
and legislature continue to function and
exercise the powers assigned to them
under the Constitution.
3. Under this, the Parliament can make
laws on the subjects enumerated in the
State List only by itself, that is, it cannot
delegate the same to any other body or
authority
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
180. A number of recent Supreme Court
decisions have given impetus to the expression
“review petition”. With reference to this
identify, which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct about Review Petition?
1. The Constitution itself gives, under
Article 137, the Supreme Court the
power to review any of its judgments or
orders.
2. The court has the power to review its
rulings to correct a “patent error” and
not “minor mistakes of inconsequential
import”.
3. Only parties to a case can seek a review
of the judgment on it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
181. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Private Members Bill (PMB)?
1. A Member of Parliament (MP) who is
not a Minister in the Union Cabinet is
called a Private Member and bills
introduced by such members are called
Private Member's Bills.
2. A PMB can only be introduced in Lok
Sabha.
3. The admissibility of the PMB is decided
by the presiding officer of the house.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
182. Article 280 provides for a Finance
Commission constituted by the President every
fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make
recommendations to the President on which of
the following matters?
1. The distribution of the net proceeds of
taxes to be shared between the Centre
and the states, and the allocation
between the states, the respective
shares of such proceeds
2. The principles which should govern the
grants-in-aid to the states by the
Centre.
3. The measures needed to augment the
Consolidated fund of a state to
supplement the resources of the
panchayats and the municipalities in
the state on the basis of the
recommendations made by the State
Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
183. Recently, the Water Quality India
Association moved to the Supreme Court
against a ban imposed by the National Green
Tribunal (NGT) on use of RO filters in Delhi.
With reference to this identify which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. According to NGT, RO purifiers lead to
the wastage of almost 70-80 percent
water during the purification process.
2. The NGT order had come after an
expert committee set up by the tribunal
recommended a bar on use of RO
technology, especially in municipal
areas where piped water is supplied.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
184. Recently, the Union Cabinet decided to
extend the term of 15th Finance Commission.
With reference to this identify the 15th Finance
Commission is headed by who among the
following dignitary?
(a) Dr. Y. V Reddy
(b) N. K. Singh
(c) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(d) C. Rangarajan
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185. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Ordinance making power of
the president?
1. Article 123 of the Constitution
empowers the President to promulgate
ordinances and have the same force
and effect as an act of Parliament, but
are in the nature of temporary laws.
2. President can promulgate an ordinance
even when both the Houses of
Parliament are in session.
3. An ordinance can be issued only on
those subjects on which the Parliament
can make laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
186. Which of the following statements is
Incorrect about the Public Accounts
Committee?
(a) This committee was set up first in 1921
under the provisions of the
Government of India Act of 1919 and
has since been in existence.
(b) The term of office of the members is
one year and a minister cannot be
elected as a member of the committee.
(c) The function of the committee is to
examine the estimates included in the
budget and suggest ‘economies’ in
public expenditure.
(d) All parties get due representation in it
and the chairman of the committee is
appointed from amongst its members
by the Speaker
187. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Sessions of Parliament?
1. A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period
spanning between the prorogation of a
House and its reassembly in a new
session.
2. The president from time to time
summons each House of Parliament to
meet.
3. The maximum gap between two
sessions of Parliament cannot be more
than six months.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
188. The Union Cabinet recently approved the
proposal for adoption of Patent Prosecution
Highway (PPH) programme by the Indian Patent
Office (IPO). With reference to this identify
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Under this Pilot programme, IPO will
fast track patent applications in certain
specified technical fields.
2. The IPO will initiate a PPH with its
Japanese counterpart - the Japan
Patent Office (JPO) - on a pilot basis for
a period of three years.
3. The key to the programme is that some
of investigations ascertaining whether
the application qualifies for a patent or
not can be done away with by relying
on the findings of an another patent
office, which saw merit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
189. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the representation of states in
Rajya Sabha?
1. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the allocation of seats in the
Rajya Sabha.
2. The representatives of states in the
Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected
members of state legislative assemblies
3. The seats are allotted to the states in
the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
population.
4. At present, the Rajya Sabha has 250
members and all of them represents
the states
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
190. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Appointment of the chief
justice of India?
1. The chief justice is appointed by the
president after consultation with such
judges of the Supreme Court and high
courts as he deems necessary.
2. Since 1950, it has been a convention to
appoint the senior most judge of the
Supreme Court as the chief justice of
India and the convention has never
been violated till now.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
191. Which of the following statement is/are
correct about the Contempt of Court?
1. The expression ‘contempt of court’
has been defined by the
constitution of India
2. The Supreme Court has power to
punish for contempt not only of
itself but also of high courts,
subordinate courts.
3. Publication of any matter or doing
an act which scandalises or lowers
the authority of a court is
considered as Criminal contempt of
Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
192. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Fast Track courts?
1. These are special kind of courts which
have exclusive jurisdiction over a
particular category of law.
2. The original Constitution did not
contain provisions with respect to Fast
Track courts and they were added by
the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
193. The President of India can grant pardon
the sentence of any person convicted of any
offence in which of the following cases?
1. In all cases where the punishment or
sentence is for an offence against a
Union law.
2. In all cases where the punishment or
sentence is by a court martial.
3. In all cases where the sentence is a
sentence of death.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
194. Recently, Chief Justice of India Ranjan
Gogoi recommended Justice Sharad Arvind
Bobde as his successor and the 47th Chief
Justice of India. With reference to this identify
which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde?
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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1. Justice Bobde was appointed as a judge
of the Bombay High Court in 2000 and
went on to become Chief Justice of the
Madhya Pradesh High Court.
2. Justice Arvind Bobde was appointed as
the Chief Justice of India by superseding
three senior judges of Supreme Court.
3. Justice Bobde is part of the Ayodhya
Bench and is also hearing the BCCI
dispute.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
195. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Section 124A of the Indian
Penal Code which was in news recently?
1. Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code
lays down the punishment for sedition
which is a non-bailable offence.
2. A person charged under section 124A is
barred from a government job and have
to live without their passport and must
produce themselves in the court at all
times as and when required.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
196. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Electoral Bonds Scheme?
1. According to provisions of the scheme,
electoral bonds may be purchased by a
person, who is a citizen of India or
entities incorporated or established in
India.
2. Registered political parties that have
secured not less than 1 per cent of the
votes polled in the last election of the
Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly are
eligible to receive electoral bonds.
3. All Scheduled Commercial banks(SCB)
authorized by the Reserve Bank of India
can issue Electoral Bonds.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
197. The Article 22 of the constitution of India
confers which of the following rights on a
person who is arrested or detained under an
ordinary law?
1. Right to be informed of the grounds of
arrest
2. Right to consult and be defended by a
legal practitioner
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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3. Right to be produced before a
magistrate within 24 hours, excluding
the journey time.
4. Right to be released after 24 hours
unless the magistrate authorises further
detention.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(e) 1 only
(f) 1 and 2 only
(g) 1, 2 and 3 only
(h) 1, 2, 3 and 4
198. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Central Information
Commission(CIC)?
1. The Commission consists of a Chief
Information Commissioner and not
more than ten Information
Commissioners appointed by the
President of India.
2. It entertains complaints and appeals
pertaining to offices, financial
institutions, public sector undertakings,
etc., under the Central Government and
the Union Territories
3. The Central Information Commission is
a constitutional body.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
199. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Parole in India?
1. Parole is a system of releasing a
prisoner with suspension of the
sentence.
2. The release is conditional, usually
subject to behavior, and requires
periodic reporting to the authorities for
a set period of time.
3. Parole is seen as a matter of right for a
prisoner, to be granted periodically
irrespective of any reason, and merely
to enable the prisoner to counter the ill-
effects of prolonged time spent in
prison.
4. Since prisons is a State subject in the
Constitution, the Prisons Act of each
state government defines the rules
under which parole is granted in that
state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
200. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Election manifestos?
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1. According to the Election Commission
of India, election manifestos are legally
enforceable documents.
2. The election manifesto shall not contain
anything repugnant to the ideals and
principles enshrined in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
201. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Prime Minister's Economic
Advisory Council(PMEAC)?
1. It is a non-constitutional, non-
permanent and independent body
constituted to give economic advice to
the Government of India, specifically
the Prime Minister.
2. It is part of Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs and consists of
nominated members of the Cabinet
including Minister of finance
3. The Council is Chaired by the Prime
Minister of India and the Minister of
Finance acts as a de-facto vice
chairman.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
202. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT)?
1. It was set up in 1985 with the principal
bench at Delhi and additional benches
in different states.
2. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in
relation to recruitment and all service
matters of public servants covered by it
3. The CAT is bounded by the procedure
laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of
1908.
4. Appeals against the orders of the CAT
could be made only in the Supreme
Court and not in the high courts.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
203. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the National Critical Information
Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC)?
1. It is an organization of the Government
of India created under Sec 70A of the
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Information Technology Act, 2000 in
2014.
2. NCIIPC is designated as the National
Nodal Agency in respect of Critical
Information Infrastructure Protection.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
204. Consider the following Rights:
1. Right to freedom of speech and
expression.
2. Right to assemble peaceably and
without arms.
3. Right to move freely throughout the
territory of India.
4. Right to reside and settle in any part of
the territory of India.
Which of the above rights are guaranteed by
the Constitution of India under Article 19?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
205. The Constitution of India has made many
provisions to safeguard and ensure the
independent and impartial functioning of the
Election Commission under Article 324. With
reference to this identify which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The service conditions of the chief
election commissioner cannot be varied
to his disadvantage after his
appointment
2. The Constitution has prescribed the
qualifications of the members of the
Election Commission.
3. The Constitution has specified the term
of the members of the Election
Commission.
4. The Constitution has debarred the
retiring election commissioners from
any further appointment by the
government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
206. Recently, Jammu and Kashmir government
issued formal orders for the abolition of
legislative council of J&K under the Jammu and
Kashmir Reorganization Bill, which was passed
in August. With reference to this identify which
of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) The Parliament can abolish a legislative
council or create it, if the legislative
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assembly of the concerned state passes
a resolution to that effect.
(b) The Act of Parliament to set up or to
abolish a council is deemed to be as an
amendment of the Constitution for the
purposes of Article 368 and require
special majority in the Parliament.
(c) The members of the legislative council
are directly elected and the maximum
strength of the council is fixed at 50%of
the total strength of the State
Legislative Assembly.
(d) All the above
207. When a bill, passed by a state legislature, is
presented to the governor for his assent, he has
which of the following alternatives as per the
Article 200 of the Indian Constitution?
1. He may give his assent to the bill.
2. He may withhold his assent to the bill
3. He may return the bill (if it is not a
money bill) for reconsideration of the
state legislature
4. He may reserve the bill for the
consideration of the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
208. The government recently notified rules for
the for fixing tenure, salaries and service
conditions of information commissioners in
Central Information Commission (CIC) and State
Information Commissions (SICs) as per the
recently passed Right to Information
(Amendment) Bill, 2019. With reference to this
identify which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The tenure of central and state
information commissioners has now
been increased to five years from three
years.
2. The maximum age limit has been fixed
at 70 and the commissioners are not
eligible for reappointment as
Information Commissioner.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
209. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Centralized Public Grievance
Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)?
(a) It is one of the flagship initiatives for
the reformation in governance started
by Central government through
addressing the grievances of general
public.
(b) It is a flagship scheme launched by the
Reserve Bank of India which provides a
resolution for general public on
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concerns and complaints related to
banking services
(c) It is an initiative launched by the Central
Government to address the concerns
relating to pollution and the disposal of
the large amount of ash from coal
based power stations.
(d) None of the above
210. Consider the following statements about
the fundamental duties of the citizens in India:
1. The original constitution did not provide
for the fundamental duties and these
were added by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1976.
2. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian
Constitution are inspired by the
Constitution of erstwhile USSR.
3. Duty to pay taxes is one among the
major fundamental duty of the citizens
of India as incorporated in the
constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
211. Which of the following statements is/are
Incorrect about the ‘Leader of the Opposition’
in the Parliament of India?
(a) The leader of the largest Opposition
party having not less than one-tenth
seats of the total strength of the House
is recognised as the leader of the
Opposition in that House.
(b) His main functions are to provide a
constructive criticism of the policies of
the government and to provide an
alternative government.
(c) The provisions with respect to the
recognition of the position of LoP is
mentioned in the Constitution of India.
(d) They are also entitled to the salary,
allowances and other facilities
equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.
212. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Territorial Extent of Central
Legislation?
1. The Parliament can make laws for the
whole or any part of the territory of
India.
2. The Parliament can make ‘extra-
territorial legislation’ i.e. the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the
Indian citizens and their property in any
part of the world.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
213. Which of the following statement is
Incorrect about the Judicial Review?
(a) The doctrine of judicial review was
originated and developed in the Britain.
(b) In India, the Constitution itself confers
the power of judicial review to both the
Supreme Court and High Courts.
(c) Judicial review is a basic feature of the
Constitution and cannot be curtailed or
excluded even by a constitutional
amendment.
(d) None of the above
214. The state of Maharashtra is the latest
example which displayed the use discretionary
powers by the Governor in the formation of the
government in case of a hung assembly. With
reference to this identify which of the following
Commissions in the past has recommended the
guidelines on government-formation in the case
of a hung assembly?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Punchhi Commission
3. Tendulkar Commission
4. Ashok Mehta Commission
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
215. In the context of Writ Jurisdiction of the
High Court, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Article 226 of the Constitution
empowers a high court to issue writs.
2. The writ jurisdiction of the high court
(under Article 226) is not exclusive but
concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court.
3. The High Court can issue writs only for
the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
216. In The context of The Tenth Schedule
which contains the provisions with respect to
the disqualification of members of Parliament
and the state legislatures on the ground of
defection, consider the following statements:
1. A member of a House belonging to any
political party becomes disqualified for
being a member of the House if he
votes or abstains from voting in such
House contrary to any direction issued
by his political party
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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2. An independent member of a house
becomes disqualified to remain a
member of the House if he joins any
political party after such election
3. A nominated member of a House
becomes disqualified for being a
member of the House if he joins any
political party during his term.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
217. Recently, President Ram Nath Kovind
rejected a petition demanding disqualification
of 11 party MLAs for allegedly holding office of
profit. With reference to this identify which of
the following statements is/are correct about
the Office of Profit?
1. An office of profit has been interpreted
to be a position that brings to the
office-holder some financial gain, or
advantage, or benefit.
2. The laws related to the office of profit
have been clearly defined in the
constitution under Article 102.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
218. Which of the following act abolished the
right to property as a Fundamental Right by
repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from
Part III?
(a) 40th Amendment Act
(b) 41st Amendment Act
(c) 42nd Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
219. Consider the following statements about
the Pardoning Powers of President:
(a) He can pardon or commute the
punishment or sentence of any person
convicted of any offence against a
Central law.
(b) He cannot pardon a death sentence.
(c) He cannot grant pardon or
commutation in respect to punishment
or sentence by a court-martial (military
court).
(d) All the above
220. Consider the following statements about
the Collective Responsibility of Ministers:
1. The fundamental principle underlying
the working of parliamentary system of
government is the principle of collective
responsibility
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2. The Constitution clearly states that the
council of ministers is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
3. The principle of collective responsibility
also means that the Cabinet decisions
bind all cabinet ministers even if they
differed in the cabinet meeting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
221. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Indian Parliamentary Group
(IPG)?
1. It is an autonomous body which was
formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of
a motion adopted by the Constituent
Assembly.
2. The Vice president of India who also
acts as the chairman of Rajya Sabha is
the ex-officio president of the Indian
Parliamentary Group.
3. The former members of Parliament are
also members of the IPG
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
222. The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes
various ways of losing citizenship whether
acquired under the Act or prior to it under the
Constitution. With reference to this identify,
when a citizen of India losses his citizenship if
he has obtained the citizenship by fraud, is
termed as:
(a) Loosing Citizenship by Renunciation
(b) Loosing Citizenship by Termination
(c) Loosing Citizenship by Deprivation
(d) None of the above
223. Which of the following Articles in the
Constitution of India are related to the Right to
Freedom of Religion?
1. Article 25
2. Article 26
3. Article 27
4. Article 28
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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224. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the 'Directive Principles of State
Policy'?
1. The DPSP denotes the ideals that the
State should keep in mind while
formulating policies and enacting laws.
2. The DPSP resemble the ‘Instrument of
Instructions’ enumerated in the
Government of India Act of 1935.
3. These are justiciable, that is, they are
legally enforceable by the courts in case
of their violation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
225. the context of the procedure for the
amendment of the Constitution as laid down in
Article 368, consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Constitution can
be initiated only by the introduction of
a bill in the Lok Sabha.
2. The constitutional amendment bill can
only be introduced by a minister and
not by a private member
3. The introduction of a constitutional
amendment bill requires prior
permission of the president.
4. In case of a disagreement between the
two Houses on the amendment of the
constitution, there is no provision for
holding a joint sitting of the two Houses
for the purpose of deliberation and
passage of the bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
226. Which of the following act means
terminating a sitting of Parliament for an
indefinite period?
(a) Adjournment
(b) Adjournment Sine Die
(c) Prorogation
(d) Dissolution
227. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Cabinet Committees?
1. They are extra-constitutional in
emergence i.e. they are not mentioned
in the Constitution.
2. They are set up by the Prime Minister
according to the exigencies of the time
and requirements of the situation.
3. They usually include only Cabinet
Ministers and the non-cabinet Ministers
are debarred from their membership.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
228. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Cabinet Committees?
4. They are extra-constitutional in
emergence i.e. they are not mentioned
in the Constitution.
5. They are set up by the Prime Minister
according to the exigencies of the time
and requirements of the situation.
6. They usually include only Cabinet
Ministers and the non-cabinet Ministers
are debarred from their membership.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
229. Which of following are among the
propositions that have been laid down by the
Supreme Court on imposition of President’s
Rule in a state under Article 356?
1. The presidential proclamation imposing
President’s Rule is subject to judicial
review.
2. The state legislative assembly should be
dissolved only after the Parliament has
approved the presidential proclamation
3. The power under Article 356 is an
exceptional power and should be used
only occasionally to meet the
requirements of special situations.
4. A state government pursuing anti-
secular politics is liable to action under
Article 356.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
230. The SAANS campaign which was recently
launched by the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare, is aimed at?
(a) Reducing child mortality due to
pneumonia
(b) Motivate all adults to get tested for HIV
(c) Immunizing every child under the age of
5 with oral polio vaccine.
(d) Vaccination campaign to save children
from diarrhoea.
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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231. With reference to the recent Supreme
Court ruling on Anticipatory Bail, consider the
following statements:
1. Under anticipatory bail, a person is
directed to be released on bail even
before arrest made.
2. The court recently observed that an
anticipatory bail cannot be limited to a
fixed time period and can continue till
the end of the trial.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
232. With reference to the Articles 16 (4) and
16 (4-A) of the Constitution, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
(a) It empowers the State to make a
reservation in matters of appointment
and promotion in favour of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes.
(b) It confers individuals with a
fundamental right to claim reservation
in promotion.
(c) Under the Articles, State governments
are bound to make a reservation and
have discretion in providing
reservations.
(d) None of the above
233. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalayas’,
consider the following statements:
1. Gram Nyayalayas or village courts are
established under the Gram Nyayalayas
Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to
justice system in the rural areas of
India.
2. The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over
by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the
same power, enjoy same salary and
benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First
Class.
3. The Nyayadhikari's are directly
appointed by the Supreme Court of
India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
234. With reference to the Supreme Court of
India, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) Its appellate jurisdiction is confined only
constitutional cases and not on civil and
criminal cases
(b) It defends rights of the citizen according
to the ‘due process of law’
(c) It has power of judicial superintendence
and control over state high courts due
to integrated judicial system.
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(d) All the above
235. With reference to the Sedition in India,
consider the following statements:
1. It refers to any action that brings or
attempts to bring hatred or contempt
towards the government of India and
has been illegal in India since 1870.
2. Sedition in India falls under Section
124A of the Indian Penal Code
3. The validity of the provision itself was
upheld by a Constitution Bench in 1962,
in Kedarnath Singh vs State of Bihar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
236. With reference to the Impeachment of
President of India, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The President can be removed from
office by a process of impeachment for
‘violation of the Constitution’.
2. The Constitution does not define the
meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the
Constitution’
3. The impeachment charges can only be
initiated in Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
237. With reference to the financial Powers of
the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. Money bills can be introduced in the
Parliament only with his prior
recommendation
2. He causes to be laid before the
Parliament the annual financial
statement
3. He constitutes a finance commission
after every five years to recommend
the distribution of revenues between
the Centre and the states.
4. He can make advances out of the
consolidated fund of India to meet war
expenditure without parliamentary
approval.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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238. With reference to the None of the Above"
(NOTA) system in India, consider the following
statements:
1. By expressing a preference for NOTA, a
citizen can choose not to vote for any
candidates who are contesting the
elections.
2. If a majority of votes were cast for
NOTA, then the elections will be held
invalid and there will be a need to held
fresh elections within 6 months
3. India is the only country in the world to
have the NOTA option for voters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
239. In the Context of the Composition of Rajya
Sabha, which of the following statement is
Incorrect?
(a) At present, the Rajya Sabha has 250
members and of these, 238 members
represent the states and 12 members
are nominated by the president.
(b) The representatives of states in the
Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected
members of state legislative assemblies
(c) The election is held in accordance with
the system of proportional
representation by means of the single
transferable vote
(d) The seats are allotted to the states in
the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
population
240. With reference to the Appointment of
District Judge, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The district judge is the highest judicial
authority in the district.
2. A person to be appointed as district
judge should have been an advocate or
a pleader for seven years.
3. He should be recommended by the
Governor of the state for appointment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
241. Which of the following statements is
correct about the Central Vigilance Commission
(CVC)?
(a) The CVC is a constitutional body and
acts as a main agency for preventing
corruption in the Central government.
(b) It is a multi-member body consisting of
a Central Vigilance Commissioner
(chairperson) and not more than two
vigilance commissioners.
(c) They hold office for a term of Six years
or until they attain the age of seventy
years, whichever is earlier.
(d) After their tenure, they are eligible for
further employment under the Central
or a state government.
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242. With respect to the exceptions to the rule
of equality before law in India, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. The President or the Governor is not
answerable to any court for the
exercise and performance of the
powers and duties of his office.
2. The foreign sovereigns (rulers),
ambassadors and diplomats enjoy
immunity from criminal and civil
proceedings.
3. The UNO and its agencies enjoy the
diplomatic immunity.
4. No Member of Parliament shall be
liable to any proceedings in any court in
respect of anything said by him in
Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
243. With reference to the judicial review,
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Judicial review is the power of the
judiciary to examine the
constitutionality of legislative
enactments and executive orders of
both the Central and State
governments.
2. The phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has
nowhere been explicitly used in the
Constitution.
3. The power of judicial review is regarded
as a basic feature of the Constitution or
an element of the basic structure of the
Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
244. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code,
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It is a generic set of governing laws for
every citizen without taking into
consideration the religion.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution states that
there should be a Uniform Civil Code for
the citizens.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
245. With reference to the Doctrine of Eclipse in
the Indian Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. This doctrine states that any law that
violates fundamental rights is not null
or void ab initio, but is only non-
enforceable, i.e., it is not dead but
inactive.
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2. The doctrine of eclipse applies to both
pre-constitutional laws and post-
constitutional laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
246. In which of the following case the supreme
court of India had held that the Parliament can
amend any part of the Constitution including
fundamental rights?
(a) Sajjan Singh Case
(b) Kehsvananda Bharti Case
(c) Golakhnath Case
(d) Minerva Mills Case
247. Recently, the Constitution (Scheduled
Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Bill, 2019
was introduced in Rajya Sabha which seeks to
include the Parivara, Taliwara in the Scheduled
Tribes (ST) category. With reference to this
identify which of the following statements
is/are correct about Parivara and Taliwara
tribe?
(a) Most people from these communities
live in southern districts of Karnataka.
(b) Community is also known by different
synonyms such as Habshi and Badsha.
(c) It is believed that they are of African
origin because they clearly show the
Negroid racial strain in their physical
features.
(d) They are also included in the Centre’s
list of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups.
248. Recently, the Election Commission has
informed the Government that it is not in
favour of state funding of elections. With
reference to this identify, which of the following
government reports have looked at state
funding of elections in the past?
1. Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
2. Law Commission Report on Reform of
the Electoral Laws (1999)
3. National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution (2001)
4. Second Administrative Reforms
Commission (2008)
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
249. With reference to the Mineral Laws
(Amendment) Bill, 2020, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(a) The Bill amends the Mines and
Minerals (Development and
Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act)
and the Coal Mines (Special
Provisions) Act, 2015 (CMSP Act).
(b) The Bill restricts companies
acquiring Schedule II and Schedule
III coal mines through auctions to
use the coal produced only for
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specified end-uses such as power
generation and steel production.
(c) The Bill clarifies that the companies
need to possess prior coal mining
experience in India in order to
participate in the auction of coal
and lignite blocks.
(d) All the above
250. Who among the following was recently
appointed by the government to head a
Delimitation Commission to redraw Lok Sabha
and assembly constituencies of the Union
Territory Jammu and Kashmir and the north
eastern states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh,
Manipur and Nagaland?
(a) Ranjana Prakash Desai
(b) Rohinton Fali Nariman
(c) Arun Kumar Mishra
(d) Dipak Mishra
251. With reference to the constitutional
provisions regarding rights of an accused to be
defended, which of the following is correct?
(a) Article 22(1) gives the fundamental
right to every person not to be denied
the right to be defended by a legal
practitioner of his or her choice.
(b) Article 14 provides for equality before
the law and equal protection of the
laws within the territory of India.
(c) Article 39A, part of the Directive
Principles of state policy, states that
equal opportunity to secure justice
must not be denied to any citizen by
reason of economic or other disabilities,
and provides for free legal aid.
(d) All the above
252. With reference to the recent verdict of the
Allahabad High Court on ‘name and shame’
hoardings of those arrested during protests
against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act,
consider the following statements:
1. The action of the State is an
unwarranted interference in privacy of
people and is in violation of Article 21
of the Constitution of India.
2. No power is available in the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 to police or
the Executive to display personal
records of a person to public at large.
3. The placement of personal data of
selected persons “reflects colourable
exercise of powers” by the government.
Which of the above is/are the observations
made by the Court in its verdict?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
253. With reference to the recent Supreme
Court verdict on the Forcible dispossession of a
person’s property, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The Supreme Court reiterated
that forcible dispossession of a
person of his private property
without due process of law is a
human right violation.
2. The right to property is both a
human right and a
constitutional right — the latter
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under Article 300A of the
Constitution.
3. The verdict came on the
acquisition of a few acres in
Sikkim by the State’s
Agriculture department in 1980
for building the Progeny
Orchard Regional Centre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
254. With reference to the Major Port
Authorities Bill, 2020, consider the following
statements:
1. The bill will replace the Major Port
Trusts Act, 1963.
2. This will aim to privatize the Major
Ports in India with ownership and
management control to increase
efficiency of operations
3. The bill reorients the governance model
in central ports to landlord port model
in line with the successful global
practice
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
255. With reference to the State Election
Commission, consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent and an independent body
established by the Constitution of India directly
to ensure free and fair elections to state
legislative assemblies and State Legislative
Councils.
2. The state legislature make provisions with
respect to all matters relating to elections to
the municipalities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
256. With reference to the Article 142 of the
Indian Constitution, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(a) It confers powers on the Supreme Court
to declare that all laws that are
inconsistent with or in derogation of
any of the fundamental rights shall be
void.
(b) It empowers High Courts to issue writs
on any matter related to fundamental
rights.
(c) It gives the Governor a general
discretionary power to act against or
without the advice of his Council of
Ministers.
(d) It provides that “the Supreme Court in
the exercise of its jurisdiction may make
such order as is necessary for doing
complete justice in any cause or matter
pending before it
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257. Which of the following act means
terminating a sitting of Parliament for an
indefinite period?
(a) Adjournment
(b) Adjournment Sine Die
(c) Prorogation
(d) Dissolution
258. Match the following:
1. 101st
Constitutional
Amendment Act
A.
Reservation
for
Economically
Weaker
Sections
(EWSs)
2. 102nd
Constitutional
Amendment Act
B. Constitutional
status to National
Commission for
Backward Classes
3. 103rd
Constitutional
Amendment Act
C. - Introduced the
GST
4. 104th
Constitutional
Amendment Act
D. provisions
related to
reservation of
seats for
Scheduled Castes
(SCs) and
Scheduled Tribes
(STs).
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
(c) 1- C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
259. The 9th Schedule of Indian Constitution
contains:
(a) Provisions related to the Allocation of
seats in the Council of States (Rajya
Sabha)
(b) A list of central and state laws which
cannot be challenged in courts.
(c) Provisions as related to disqualification
of on ground of defection
(d) Provisions as to the Administration and
Control of Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes
260. Consider the following statements:
1. Consent of the Government of India is
required to initiate a legal suit against
United Nations Organizations (UNO) in
India as it is considered as a foreign
state.
2. UNO and its officials enjoy immunity
under the United Nations (Privileges
and Immunities) Act, 1947 and also has
immunity from every form of legal
process except insofar as in any
particular case it has expressly waived
its immunity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
Bagh, New Delhi. Contact Number- 9821553677. Website - www.chahalacademy.com
Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
261. Consider the following statements about
the Ethics Committee of the Parliament of India:
1. The provision to establish an Ethics
Committee was incorporated by the
constituent assembly in 1949.
2. It enforces the code of conduct of
members of Parliament and examines
the cases of misconduct and
recommends appropriate action.
3. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has
common Ethics Committee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
262. Recently, President has rejected a petition
demanding disqualification of Delhi MLAs for
allegedly holding office of profit. With reference
to this identify which of the following
statements is/are correct about the office of
Profit?
1. Articles 102(1) and 191 (1) mention
disqualifications on the basis of Office
of Profit in the Parliament and state
legislature respectively.
2. The term is it is neither defined in the
constitution nor under Representation
of People’s Act.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
263. With reference to the Centrally Sponsored
Schemes (CSS), consider the following
statements:
1. CSS are plan transfers to States by the
Union Government, which are
implemented through the State
Governments.
2. CSS is the biggest component of Central
Assistance to state plans (CA).
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
264. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013
established Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta
for States to inquire into allegations of
corruption against certain public functionaries.
With reference to this identify the jurisdiction
of Lokpal extends to:
1. Officials of the Union government
under Groups A, B, C and D
2. The chairpersons, members, officers
and directors of any board, corporation,
society, trust or autonomous body
either established by an Act of
Parliament.
3. Minister in the Union government and
Members of Parliament
4. Anyone who is or has been Prime
Minister
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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Branches- New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand | Bhilai | Bhubaneswar | Chandigarh | Dehradun | Kanpur | Mehsana | Lucknow | Patna | Raipur | Ranchi | Rajkot | Surat | Vadodara.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
265. Consider the following statements about
the Law Commission of India:
1. The Law Commission is a non-statutory
body constituted by the GoI, every ten
years.
2. Its major function is to work for legal
reform and works as an advisory body
to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
3. The first Law Commission of
Independent India was constituted in
1955 with Mr. M. C. Setalvad, as its
Chairman.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A C A A D A C C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A D D C C A B D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B C B D A C C A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B A A D D A B A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A A B C A D B A C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D B A A D B D A C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A C A C B D B D A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C D A A B D A B D C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B D D - A B A D D B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D D B D D C B A D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A C D D C A B B C C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B A A B D D B C C C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A B B D D C A C A A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C D C A D C B B C C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A C A D A B A B B A
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A B A A D A C A A A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A B A D C A B A D D
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171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
D D A B B D D C A A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
C D C B C C B D B A
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B A D C C A D A D B
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
A B C D A A D D A A
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
C C A B A A A C A D
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
A C D A A B A A D A
231 232 233 234 235 235 237 238 239 240
C A A C D B C A A A
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
B D D C A A A D A A
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
D D D B B D B D B B
261 262 263 264 265
A C C D B
Chahal Academy - B-7, Lower Ground floor, Apsara Arcade Near Karol Bagh Metro Gate No.7, Karol
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