Post on 21-May-2018
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CompTIA A+ 220-902 Exam 100-Question Practice Test Developed for www.GetCertified.nl This practice exam has been developed exclusively for GetCertified Opleidingen. Answers and explanations on last pages.
1. Windows 7/8/8.1 offer a security feature which limits privileges of software applications and access to administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level permission or a user attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen prompt requiring an administrator password to proceed. This functionality is called: A. User Account Control (UAC) B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) C. Windows Firewall D. Windows Defender real-time protection
2. What is the name of a Microsoft Windows feature that allows for encrypting entire drives?
A. Encrypting File System (EFS) B. LoJack C. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
D. BitLocker
3. If personal files, such as email, documents, or photos are lost or deleted, Windows System Restore can be used to recover such files. A. True B. False
4. Windows 7/8/8.1 facilitate moving user accounts and settings, application configuration data, and personal files from one computer to another with the use of:
A. Windows Ease of Access B. Windows System Restore C. Windows Easy Transfer D. User Account Control (UAC)
5. What is the function of Windows Defender software?
A. Allowing and blocking applications through Windows Firewall B. Protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software C. Reviewing computer's status and resolving issues D. Management of User Account Control settings
6. A Windows software that checks information coming from the Internet or other type of outside network and depending on settings either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called:
A. Antispyware B. Windows Defender C. Antivirus D. Windows Firewall
7. While upgrading from an earlier edition of Windows to Windows 7 it is important to make sure that programs and devices will work with the new OS version. To find potential compatibility problems with computer's hardware, devices, or programs that might affect the installation of Windows 7, Microsoft offers a free utility designed to check for any issues and to provide information on recommended actions before performing an upgrade to improve the PC's compatibility with Windows 7. What is the
name of that utility?
A. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard B. Upgrade Assistant C. Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor D. Windows Easy Transfer
8. Windows Upgrade Assistant is a free Microsoft tool released mainly for Windows 7/8 owners who wish to perform an in-place upgrade from their OS versions to Windows 8 or 8.1. The tool also allows to check for hardware compatibility of systems running Windows XP and Vista with Windows 8. This functionality is directed at those users who wish to upgrade older versions of their Windows OSs to Windows 8 through the clean installation option, which is the only upgrade path available in such case.
A. True B. False
9. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and Apple NetBoot are two examples of technologies that enable booting a computer system with the use of a network interface.
A. True B. False
10. Which of the terms listed below refers to an automated installation process that relies on an answer file and does not require user interaction or presence?
A. Repair installation B. Remote network installation C. Clean installation D. Unattended installation
11. An operating system installation that preserves system settings, personal files, and applications from the older OS version is referred to as:
A. Image deployment B. Unattended installation C. In-place upgrade D. Clean install
12. If a computer's hard disk has adequate free disk space, it is possible to install more than one operating system and then choose which OS to use during each startup. This type of configuration setup is often referred to as:
A. Single sign-on B. Multi-mode C. Multiboot D. Virtualization
13. Which of the installation types listed below provides a simpler and less costly alternative to manual OS installation in an environment consisting of multiple hosts requiring the same configuration settings?
A. Upgrade install B. Image deployment C. Repair installation D. Clean install
14. Which of the new built-in software options added in Windows 8 allows for reinstallation of the OS without affecting the existing user profiles and settings?
A. Reset B. Refresh C. Repair D. Restore
15. A new maintenance feature added in Windows 8 that enables clean installation of the OS without the need for installation media is called:
A. Reset B. Refresh C. Repair D. Restore
16. Provided that the process ID of NOTEPAD.EXE obtained with the TASKLIST command is 1230, which of the following answers lists the correct syntax for a Windows Command Prompt TASKKILL command that would allow to close this application?
A. TASKKILL /PID 1230 B. TASKKILL -IM 1230 C. TASKKILL /IM 1230 D. TASKKILL -PID 1230
17. Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) offers a set of tools and utilities to troubleshoot Windows startup issues. Which of the command-line commands launches a tool for manual troubleshooting of problems related to Master Boot Record (MBR), boot sector, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store in Windows RE Command Prompt?
A. DISKPART B. BOOTREC.EXE C. CHKDSK D. FIXBOOT
18. A Microsoft Windows command-line utility that provides disk partitioning functions in Windows 7/8/8.1 is called:
A. DISKPART B. MSTSC C. REGEDIT D. FDISK
19. The /F switch of the CHKDSK utility:
A. Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information B. Displays cleanup messages C. Displays the full path and name of every file on the disk D. Fixes errors on the disk
20. Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows Command Prompt command used for uncompressing cabinet files?
A. REPLACE B. EXPAND C. CONVERT D. RECOVER
21. The "Run as administrator" option in MS Windows available after right-clicking on the Command Prompt application icon allows for execution of shell commands reserved for a system administrator.
A. True B. False
22. Many of the utilities available in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel are implemented as the so-called Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. The most prominent MMC component in this menu (which contains a collection of other MMC snap-ins such as Device Manager, Disk Management, and Event Viewer) is called:
A. Task Manager B. Performance Monitor C. Computer Management D. System Configuration
23. If a device in Windows fails after driver update, the driver can be restored to the previously installed version in:
A. Device Manager B. Windows Update menu C. Programs and Features menu D. Task Manager
24. An MS Windows account that enables users to have temporary access to a computer without the capability to install software or hardware, change settings, or create a user password is called:
A. Guest account B. Temporary account C. Standard account D. Managed user account
25. Windows Task Scheduler is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals. Which of the locations listed below contains the application icon shortcut which can be used to launch the Task Scheduler MMC snap-in?
A. Ease of Access Center B. Programs and Features menu in Windows Control Panel C. Windows Command Prompt D. Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel
26. System Configuration is a Windows tool that can help in finding and isolating problems that might prevent Windows from starting correctly by providing the capability to choose which common services and programs should be run during system startup. Which of the following commands is used to launch System Configuration from the Command Prompt?
A. TASKMGR B. MSINFO32 C. APPWIZ.CPL D. WSCUI.CPL E. MSCONFIG
27. In Windows Disk Management utility, a normal disk status indicating that the disk is ready for read/write operations is labeled as:
A. Basic B. Online C. Dynamic D. Unallocated
28. Which of the following Windows tools allow(s) for migrating user data and user information to a new computer? (Select all that apply)
A. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) B. CHKDSK C. USMT D. Windows Easy Transfer E. MBSA F. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
29. Which of the Command Prompt commands listed below launches the Remote Desktop Connection utility in MS Windows?
A. MSTSC B. MMC C. SERVICES.MSC D. EXPLORER
30. A Windows Internet Properties applet tab containing an option for managing pop-up windows displayed by websites is called:
A. Security B. Programs C. Privacy D. General
31. Which of the power-saving states in Windows uses the least amount of power?
A. Sleep B. Standby C. High performance D. Hibernation
32. The term "Power plan" refers to a collection of hardware and system settings that manage how a Windows-based computer uses power. Available configuration options for managing power in MS Windows (accessible via the Power Options applet in Windows Control Panel) include three pre-set power plans (Balanced, Power saver, and High performance), along with the possibility of creating a custom power plan based on specific user preferences.
A. True B. False
33. Which of the following Control Panel applets in MS Windows provides an option for setting up a broadband, dial-up, or VPN connection?
A. Phone and Modem B. System Configuration C. Network and Sharing Center D. Windows Mobility Center
34. In Windows 7/8/8.1, the Remote Desktop Connection utility can be launched from the Start menu search box, from the Run menu dialog box, or from a command line. Which of the following commands is used to start Remote Desktop Connection from the Command Prompt?
A. MMC B. MSDS C. RDP D. MSTSC
35. If a network adapter's "Speed & Duplex" property is set to Half Duplex, communication on the network will be taking place:
A. Only in one direction at a time B. In both directions at half the speed C. In one direction at half the speed D. In both directions simultaneously
36. A solution that allows to turn on a network host remotely by sending a special data packet (known as Magic Packet) is called:
A. RDP B. Jumbo frame C. Backdoor access D. Wake-on-LAN
37. Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism that allows for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic? (Select best answer)
A. Quality of Service (QoS) B. Bandwidth cap C. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) D. Fair access policy
38. What is the function of archive bit in MS Windows?
A. Search indexing
B. Setting file attribute to read-only
C. Creating an extra copy of a file D. Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup
39. The backup utility in Windows 8/8.1 that allows for restoration of different versions of saved personal files is called:
A. NTBackup B. Backup and Restore C. File History D. System Restore
40. Virus definition database files contain all the known viruses and countermeasures against them that can be applied by a particular antivirus application. In order to be effective, an AV program needs up-to-date versions of these files which can be obtained through an AV software update feature.
A. True B. False
41. Data files containing detection and/or remediation code that antivirus or antispyware products use to identify malicious code are known as:
A. Repositories B. Signature files C. Macros D. Security logs
42. An antivirus software can be kept up to date through: (Select 2 answers)
A. Driver updates B. Audit trails C. Engine updates
D. OS updates E. Virus signature updates 43. Time Machine is a backup utility for:
A. Linux B. Mac OS X C. Windows D. Other
44. A Mac OS X system feature providing a single-screen thumbnail preview of all open windows and applications is called:
A. Spotlight B. Mission Control C. Ease of Access Center D. Desktop Window Manager
45. A service that enables storage of data on Apple cloud servers is known as:
A. iCloud
B. Remote Disk
C. OneDrive D.
Dropbox
46. Which of the following answers refers to an interface capable of sensing more than one finger press at a time?
A. Touchscreen B. Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) C. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) D. Multi-touch
47. Which of the Apple software utilities enables installation of an alternative OS in a multiboot environment?
A. Boot Camp B. VirtualBox C. Hyper-V D. VMware Player
48. Which of the following commands in Linux is used to display information about files and directories contained within the current working directory?
A. pwd B. ls C. grep D. ps
49. Which of the answers listed below refers to a Linux command for copying files and directories?
A. cp
B. copy
C. xcopy D. robocopy 50. What is the name of a Linux command used for renaming files and directories?
A. rm B. ps C. mv D. ls
51. A solution that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware is known as:
A. Virtualization B. Clustering C. Hyperthreading D. Load balancing
52. A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host system is called:
A. ICS server B. Hypervisor C. UC server D. Virtual switch
53. A cloud computing infrastructure type where applications are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers is known as:
A. Thick client B. SaaS C. Virtualization D. IaaS
54. In which of the cloud computing infrastructure types clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment?
A. IaaS B. SaaS C. P2P D. PaaS
55. Which of the following cloud services would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?
A. SaaS B. API C. PaaS D. IaaS
56. Which of the server types listed below is used for dynamic assignment of IP addresses?
A. DNS server
B. FTP server
C. SMTP server
D. DHCP server
57. Which of the following acronyms refers to a network security solution combining the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection?
A. MTU B. STP C. UTM D. XML
58. A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other GPS-enabled devices is called:
A. User authentication B. Phishing C. Geotracking D. SSID broadcast
59. The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as:
A. Linking B. Three-way handshake C. Crosstalk D. Pairing
60. An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as:
A. SSO B. TLS C. SSL D. WAP
61. Which of the answers listed below refers to a general term used to describe software designed specifically to damage or disrupt the operation of a computer system?
A. Adware B. Spyware C. Spam D. Malware
62. Which of the following answers refers to malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program?
A. Trojan horse B. Spyware C. Logic bomb D. Adware
63. A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level access to a computer or computer network is known as:
A. Backdoor B. Botnet C. Rootkit D. Armored virus
64. An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of:
A. Spoofing B. Shoulder surfing C. Backdoor D. Birthday attack
65. Zero-day attack
exploits: A. New accounts B. Patched software C. Vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software
developer D. Well known vulnerability
66. An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.
A. True B. False
67. What is tailgating?
A. Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person B. Manipulating a user into disclosing confidential information C. Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car D. Looking over someone's shoulder in order to get information
68. Which of the security controls listed below is used to prevent tailgating?
A. Hardware locks B. Mantraps C. Video surveillance D. EMI shielding
69. What type of countermeasure would be used to prevent shoulder surfing?
A. Security guard
B. Video surveillance
C. Privacy filter D. Cable lock 70. Which of the following is an example of a multifactor authentication?
A. Password and biometric scan B. User name and PIN C. Smart card and identification badge D. Iris and fingerprint scan
71. A system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is called:
A. WAN B. NAT C. VPN D. LAN
72. Which of the features listed below are supported by the New Technology File System (NTFS)?
A. Object permissions B. Encryption C. Compression D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS
73. Which type of password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS?
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Supervisor D.
Power User
74. Which of the following acronyms refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personally owned mobile devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information and applications?
A. BSOD B. BYOD C. JBOD D. BYOB
75. What is the most effective way for permanent removal of data stored on a magnetic
drive? A. Quick format
B. Recycle bin
C. Degaussing D. Low-level format 76. Disabling SSID broadcast:
A. Is one of the measures used for securing networks B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover C. Blocks access to WAP D. Prevents wireless clients from accessing the network
77. Which WAP configuration setting allows for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless
signal? A. Beacon frame B. Power level controls C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. MAC filtering
78. Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?
A. WPA B. WPS C. WEP D. WAP
79. A network access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network is known as:
A. EMI shielding B. Hardware lock C. MAC filter D. Quality of Service (QoS)
80. Which of the following would be the easiest step to troubleshoot BSoD?
A. System restart B. Safe Mode C. Driver rollback D. Fixboot
81. Which of the tools listed below is used to rearrange data on disks and drives in order to improve system performance?
A. FORMAT B. File recovery software C. CHKDSK D. Disk Defragmenter
82. A command-line utility in Microsoft Windows operating systems for registering and unregistering DLLs and ActiveX controls in the Windows Registry is called:
A. REGEDT32 B. BOOTREC C. REGSVR32 D. MSCONFIG
83. Which Windows Command Prompt command launches the Registry Editor? A. MSTSC B. REGEDIT
C. MMC D. MSCONFIG
84. A Windows utility used for browsing logs related to application events, user activity, and hardware or network failures is called:
A. Device Manager B. Control Panel C. Event Viewer D. Performance Monitor
85. Which of the following allows to start Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers?
A. Standby mode
B. System Restore
C. Safe mode D. Guest account 86. What would be the fastest for validating a digital certificate?
A. IPX B. OCSP C. CRL D. OSPF
87. Which of the tools listed below would be used to protect against ESD? (Select all that
apply) A. Antistatic bag
B. Ground mat
C. Tech bench D. Antistatic wrist strap 88. Which devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage?
A. CRT monitor B. Power supply unit (PSU) C. Inverter D. Laser printer E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's safety
89. Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be found
in: A. IDE configuration B. Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) C. MBSA D. MSDS documentation 90. Which of the following solutions is used for controlling temperature and humidity?
A. Faraday cage B. UART C. EMI shielding D. HVAC
91. In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as:
A. Proxy list B. Order of volatility C. Access log D. Chain of custody
92. Any type of information pertaining to an individual that can be used to uniquely identify that individual is known as:
A. PIN B. PII C. ID D. Password
93. Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put?
A. OEM B. AUP C. UAT D. ARO
94. A software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of a corporate network are referred to as:
A. AUP B. DLP C. UAT D. LTO
95. Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when dealing with a
customer? A. Ask close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No" B. Argue with a technical user if necessary to educate them C. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the problem
D. Rely on your own judgment and do not restate and clarify what the customer says
96. Examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer include: (Select 2 answers)
A. Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem B. Restating the issue to verify understanding C. Adjusting to the technical user conversation style by using technical jargon D. Talking to co-workers while interacting with the customer E. Clarifying customer statements by interrupting them if necessary
97. Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting
process? A. Establishing a theory of probable cause
B. Implementing the solution
C. Identifying the problem D. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem
98. Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology process is to:
A. Test the theory to determine cause B. Question users C. Implement the solution D. Establish a theory of probable cause
99. According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed:
A. After documenting findings, actions and outcomes B. As the first step of the troubleshooting process C. After implementing the solution D. As the last step of the troubleshooting process
100. The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures.
A. True B. False
ANSWERS
1. Answer: A. User Account Control (UAC)
Explanation: Windows 7/8/8.1 offer a security feature called User Account Control (UAC), which limits privileges of software applications and access to administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level permission or a user attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen prompt requiring an administrator password to proceed.
2. Answer: D. BitLocker
Explanation: A Microsoft Windows feature that allows for encrypting entire drives is called BitLocker.
3. Answer: B. False
Explanation: If personal files, such as email, documents, or photos are lost or deleted, Windows System Restore cannot be used to recover such files. Windows System Restore helps restore only a computer's system files to an earlier point in time (undo system changes to the computer) without affecting personal files.
4. Answer: C. Windows Easy Transfer
Explanation: Windows Easy Transfer is a system tool, introduced in Windows Vista and available in later releases, which facilitates moving user accounts and settings, application configuration data, and personal files from one computer to another.
5. Answer: B. Protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software
Explanation: Windows Defender software provides protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software.
6. Answer: D. Windows Firewall
Explanation: A Windows software that checks information coming from the Internet or other type of outside network and depending on settings either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called Windows Firewall.
7. Answer: C. Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor
Explanation: Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is a free system utility offered by Microsoft that allows to check for any issues as well as to obtain information on recommended actions before performing an upgrade from an earlier version of MS Windows to Windows 7. The function of this utility is to improve the PC's compatibility with Windows 7.
8. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Windows Upgrade Assistant is a free Microsoft tool released mainly for Windows 7/8 owners who wish to perform an in-place upgrade from their OS versions to Windows 8 or 8.1. The tool also allows to check for hardware compatibility of systems running Windows XP and Vista with Windows 8. This functionality is directed at those users who wish to upgrade older versions of their Windows OSs to Windows 8 through the clean installation option, which is the only upgrade path available in such case. 9. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and Apple NetBoot are two examples of technologies that enable booting a computer system with the use of a network interface.
10. Answer: D. Unattended installation
Explanation: An automated installation process that relies on an answer file and does not require user interaction or presence is referred to as an unattended installation.
11. Answer: C. In-place upgrade
Explanation: A type of operating system installation that preserves system settings, personal files, and applications from the older OS version is referred to as an in-place upgrade.
12. Answer: C. Multiboot
Explanation: If a computer's hard disk has adequate free disk space, it is possible to install more than one operating system and then choose which OS to use during each startup. This type of configuration setup is often referred to as multiboot environment.
13. Answer: B. Image deployment
Explanation: Image deployment provides a simpler and less costly alternative to manual OS installation in an environment consisting of multiple hosts requiring the same configuration settings. Drive imaging allows for creating a backup copy of the entire contents of a disk drive (which may include a pre-configured Windows installation) and replicating the drive to a new computer.
14. Answer: B. Refresh
Explanation: A new built-in software functionality added in Windows 8 that allows for reinstallation of the OS without affecting the existing user profiles and settings is called Refresh.
15. Answer: A. Reset
Explanation: A new maintenance feature added in Windows 8 that enables clean installation of the OS without the need for installation media is known as Reset.
16. Answer: A. TASKKILL /PID 1230
Explanation: TASKKILL is an MS Windows command-line utility that allows to terminate tasks by process id or image name. In an example scenario, where the process ID of NOTEPAD.EXE obtained with the TASKLIST command is 1230, the correct syntax that would allow to close this application is TASKKILL /PID 1230.
17. Answer: B. BOOTREC.EXE
Explanation: The command-line command in Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) Command Prompt that launches a tool for manual troubleshooting of problems related to Master Boot Record (MBR), boot sector, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store is called BOOTREC.EXE.
18. Answer: A. DISKPART
Explanation: DISKPART is a command-line utility providing disk partitioning functions in Windows 7/8/8.1. DISKPART replaces the FDISK utility known from the earlier versions of MS Windows.
19. Answer: D. Fixes errors on the disk
Explanation: CHKDSK is a Microsoft Windows command-line utility used for checking disk, fixing errors on the disk, and displaying status report. The /F switch of the CHKDSK utility allows for fixing errors on the disk.
20. Answer: B. EXPAND
Explanation: A Windows Command Prompt command used for uncompressing cabinet files is called EXPAND.
21. Answer: A. True
Explanation: The "Run as administrator" option in MS Windows available after right-clicking on the Command Prompt application icon allows for execution of shell commands reserved for a system administrator.
22. Answer: C. Computer Management
Explanation: Many of the utilities available in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel are implemented as the so-called Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. The most prominent MMC component in this menu (which contains a collection of other MMC snap-ins such as Device Manager, Disk Management, and Event Viewer) is called Computer Management (COMPMGMT.MSC).
23. Answer: A. Device Manager
Explanation: If a device in Windows fails after driver update, the driver can be restored to the previously installed version in Windows Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC).
24. Answer: A. Guest account
Explanation: An MS Windows account that enables users to have temporary access to a computer without the capability to install software or hardware, change settings, or create a user password is called Guest. Due to the fact that the Guest account in Windows allows a user to log on to a network, browse the Internet, and shut down the computer, it is recommended to keep it disabled when it isn't needed.
25. Answer: D. Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel
Explanation: Windows Task Scheduler (TASKSCHD.MSC) is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals. An application shortcut for launching the Task Scheduler MMC snap-in can be found in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel.
26. Answer: E. MSCONFIG
Explanation: System Configuration is a Windows tool that can help in finding and isolating problems that might prevent Windows from starting correctly by providing the capability to choose which common services and programs should be run during system startup. System Configuration utility can be launched in Windows Command Prompt with the MSCONFIG command.
27. Answer: B. Online
Explanation: In Windows Disk Management utility (DISKMGMT.MSC), a normal disk status indicating that the disk is ready for read/write operations is labeled as Online.
28. Answers: C, D, and F. USMT, Windows Easy Transfer, and Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
Explanation: Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Windows Easy Transfer, and User State Migration Tool (USMT) are all tools for moving user data and user information to a new computer running MS Windows. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is a user migration tool available in Windows XP. Windows
Easy Transfer is an improved version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard for Windows Vista and Windows 7. USMT is a more advanced, scriptable command-line tool used for migrating multiple user profiles in Windows domain environment.
29. Answer: A. MSTSC
Explanation: Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC) is a former name of the Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) utility in Windows. RDC can be launched with the MSTSC command in Windows Command Prompt.
30. Answer: C. Privacy
Explanation: In Microsoft Windows, an option for managing pop-up windows displayed by websites can be found on the Privacy tab of the Internet Properties (aka Internet Options) applet located in Windows Control Panel.
31. Answer: D. Hibernation
Explanation: Hibernation is a power-saving state in Windows which consumes the least amount of power.
32. Answer: A. True
Explanation: The term "Power plan" refers to a collection of hardware and system settings that manage how a Windows-based computer uses power. Available configuration options for managing power in MS Windows (accessible via the Power Options applet in Windows Control Panel) include three pre-set power plans (Balanced, Power saver, and High performance), along with the possibility of creating a custom power plan based on specific user preferences.
33. Answer: C. Network and Sharing Center
Explanation: A Windows Control Panel applet providing an option for setting up a broadband, dial-up, or VPN connection is called Network and Sharing Center.
34. Answer: D. MSTSC
Explanation: In Windows 7/8/8.1, the Remote Desktop Connection utility can be launched from the Start menu search box, from the Run menu dialog box, or from a command line by typing in the MSTSC command.
35. Answer: A. Only in one direction at a time
Explanation: If a network adapter's "Speed & Duplex" property is set to Half Duplex, communication on the network will be taking place only in one direction at a time.
36. Answer: D. Wake-on-LAN
Explanation: A solution that allows to turn on a network host remotely by sending a special data packet (known as Magic Packet) is known as Wake-on-LAN.
37. Answer: A. Quality of Service (QoS)
Explanation: A mechanism that allows for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic is called Quality of Service (QoS).
38. Answer: D. Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup
Explanation: The function of the archive bit in Windows is to indicate whether a file has been modified since the last backup.
39. Answer: C. File History
Explanation: The backup utility in Windows 8/8.1 that allows for restoration of different versions of saved personal files is called File History.
40. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Virus definition database files contain all the known viruses and countermeasures against them that can be applied by a particular antivirus application. In order to be effective, an AV program needs up-to-date versions of these files which can be obtained through an AV software update feature.
41. Answer: B. Signature files
Explanation: Data files containing detection and/or remediation code that antivirus or antispyware products use to identify malicious code are known as signature files.
42. Answers: C and E. Engine updates and Virus signature updates
Explanation: An antivirus software can be kept up to date through engine updates and virus signature updates.
43. Answer: B. Mac OS X
Explanation: Time Machine is a backup utility for Mac OS X.
44. Answer: B. Mission Control
Explanation: A Mac OS X system feature providing a single-screen thumbnail preview of all open windows and applications is called Mission Control.
45. Answer: A. iCloud
Explanation: A service that enables storage of data on Apple cloud servers is known as iCloud.
46. Answer: D. Multi-touch
Explanation: A type of interface capable of sensing more than one finger press at a time is referred to as a multi-touch interface.
47. Answer: A. Boot Camp
Explanation: Apple software that enables installation of an alternative OS in a multiboot environment is called Boot Camp.
48. Answer: B. ls
Explanation: ls is a Linux command used to display information about files and directories contained within the current working directory.
49. Answer: A. cp
Explanation: Copying files and directories in Linux can be carried out with the use of the cp command.
50. Answer: C. mv
Explanation: A Linux command used for renaming files and directories is called mv.
51. Answer: A. Virtualization
Explanation: Virtualization is a technology that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware.
52. Answer: B. Hypervisor
Explanation: A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host system is called hypervisor.
53. Answer: B. SaaS
Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a type of cloud computing infrastructure where applications
are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers which simplifies maintenance and support. Compared to conventional software deployment which requires licensing fee and often investment in additional hardware on the client side, SaaS can be delivered at a lower cost by providing remote access to applications and pricing based on monthly or annual subscription fee.
54. Answer: A. IaaS
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is one of the cloud computing infrastructure types where clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment. The clients usually pay for computational resources on a per-use basis. In IaaS, cost of the service depends on the amount of consumed resources.
55. Answer: C. PaaS
Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a category of cloud computing services providing cloud-based application development tools, in addition to services for testing, deploying, collaborating on, hosting, and maintaining applications.
56. Answer: D. DHCP server
Explanation: Dynamic IP addresses are managed by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers. Domain Name System (DNS) servers resolve host names to IP addresses. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) servers are used for file sharing services. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) servers handle electronic mail (e-mail) messages.
57. Answer: C. UTM
Explanation: The term Unified Threat Management (UTM) refers to a network security solution (commonly in the form of a dedicated device called UTM appliance) which combines the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as for example URL filtering, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection, intrusion detection or prevention, content inspection, or malware inspection.
58. Answer: C. Geotracking
Explanation: A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other GPS-enabled devices is known as geotracking.
59. Answer: D. Pairing
Explanation: The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as device pairing.
60. Answer: A. SSO
Explanation: An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as Single Sign-On (SSO). A single sign-on subsystem typically requires a user to log in once at the beginning of a session, and then during the session grants further access to multiple, separately protected hosts, applications, or other system resources without further login action by the user.
61. Answer: D. Malware
Explanation: Unwanted programs designed specifically to damage or disrupt the operation of a computer system are referred to as malicious software, or malware.
62. Answer: A. Trojan horse
Explanation: Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program is referred to as a Trojan horse. This type of malware may act like a legitimate program and have all the expected functionalities, but apart from that it will also contain a portion of malicious code appended to it that the user is unaware of.
63. Answer: C. Rootkit
Explanation: A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level access to a computer or computer network is known as rootkit.
64. Answer: A. Spoofing
Explanation: An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of spoofing.
65. Answer: C. Vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software developer
Explanation: Zero-day attacks exploit vulnerabilities that are present in already released software but unknown to the software developer.
66. Answer: A. True
Explanation: An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.
67. Answer: A. Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person
Explanation: The practice of gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person is called tailgating.
68. Answer: B. Mantraps
Explanation: Mantraps are two-door entrance points connected to a guard station. A person entering mantrap from the outside remains inside until he/she provides authentication token required to unlock the inner door. Mantraps are used to prevent tailgating, which is the practice of gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person.
69. Answer: C. Privacy filter
Explanation: Privacy filter is a protective overlay placed on the screen that narrows the viewing angle so data is only visible directly in front of the monitor and cannot be seen by others nearby. Privacy filter is one of the countermeasures against shoulder surfing.
70. Answer: A. Password and biometric scan
Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on
different categories of authentication factors, including unique physical traits of each individual such as
fingerprints ("something you are"), physical tokens such as smart cards ("something you have"), or user
names and passwords ("something you know"). Additional factors might include geolocation ("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns such as for example keyboard typing style
("something you do"). Multi-factor authentication systems require implementation of authentication
factors from two or more different categories.
71. Answer: C. VPN
Explanation: Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations.
72. Answer: D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS
Explanation: New Technology File System (NTFS) was designed as a replacement for its predecessor, the File Allocation Table (FAT) file system. Its advantages over FAT include improved reliability due to the file system recovery features, increased security achieved by allowing users to set permissions on files or folders, support for the Encrypting File System (EFS) technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS volumes, file compression, and disk quotas.
73. Answer: C. Supervisor
Explanation: The supervisor password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS. Another type of
password available for the BIOS interface is user password. Installing a supervisor password enables
additional security features in the BIOS interface. Depending on implementation, once the supervisor
password is set, the supervisor may for example disable user access to the BIOS setup utility, allow
access in a view only mode preventing the user from applying any changes, grant user access only to
selected fields in BIOS, or allow the user to view and change all the fields in the BIOS setup utility by
granting full access. Supervisor may also change or clear the user password, or set the point when the
user will be asked for password (for example only while accessing BIOS setup utility or when accessing
setup and booting the system).
74. Answer: B. BYOD
Explanation: The term Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personally owned mobile devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information and applications.
75. Answer: C. Degaussing
Explanation: Degaussing provides the most effective way for permanent removal of data stored on a magnetic drive.
76. Answer: B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover
Explanation: Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for the name of a Wireless Local Area Network
(WLAN). Wireless networks advertise their presence by regularly broadcasting the SSID in a special
packet called beacon frame. In wireless networks with disabled security features knowing the network
SSID is enough to get access to the network. SSID can be hidden by disabling the SSID broadcast on the
Wireless Access Point (WAP), but hidden SSID makes a WLAN only harder to discover and is not a true
security measure. Wireless networks with hidden SSID can still be discovered with the use of a packet
sniffing software. Security measures that help in preventing unauthorized access to a wireless network
include strong encryption schemes such as WPA and WPA2.
77. Answer: B. Power level controls
Explanation: Power level controls in Wireless Access Point (WAP) configuration settings allow for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless signal. From a security standpoint, this functionality keeps the signal coverage within the designated area and serves as a countermeasure against unauthorized network access attempts from outside.
78. Answer: B. WPS
Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a network security standard which simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with the capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network. WPS has known vulnerabilities and disabling this functionality is one of the recommended ways of securing the network.
79. Answer: C. MAC filter
Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a unique number assigned to every network adapter. Devices acting as network access points can have certain MAC addresses blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to the network.
80. Answer: A. System restart
Explanation: Restarting Windows and allowing the system to automatically recover from the Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) error is the easiest way to troubleshoot this problem.
81. Answer: D. Disk Defragmenter
Explanation: Disk Defragmenter is a tool that rearranges data on disks and drives in order to improve
system performance. Defragmentation results in faster read/write operations of the magnetic hard
drive's read/write heads as they can access the data sequentially without seeking data fragments in
different areas of the disk (defragmentation consolidates data into smallest contiguous regions).
82. Answer: C. REGSVR32
Explanation: A command-line utility in Microsoft Windows operating systems for registering and unregistering Dynamic Link Libraries (DLLs) and ActiveX controls in the Windows Registry is called REGSVR32.
83. Answer: B. REGEDIT
Explanation: Windows Registry Editor can be launched in the Command Prompt with the REGEDIT command.
84. Answer: C. Event Viewer
Explanation: Event Viewer (EVENTVWR) is a Windows utility for monitoring system health and
troubleshooting problems with applications, operating system, and hardware. Event Viewer allows for
browsing and managing event logs. The most common logs available in Event Viewer include
Application, System, and Security logs. Depending on the severity of the event, Application and System
logs display events that fall into three categories: Information, Warning, and Error. Information events
denote normal operation of the system (such as starting and stopping of system services, or successful
completion of some routine background tasks), warning events point to non-critical errors (for example
when installation of a software component fails because the component is already on the system), error
events point to serious issues, for example when programs stop responding and need to be closed by
Windows. Security log contains events such as valid and invalid logon attempts, as well as events related
to resource use, such as creating, opening, or deleting files or other objects. Security-related events are
called audits and inform only about success or failure of an event. Administrators can specify what
events are recorded in the security log (for example in order to monitor attempts at logging on to the
system).
85. Answer: C. Safe mode
Explanation: Safe mode allows to start Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers. Safe mode is a diagnostic mode intended for troubleshooting operating system problems and removing malicious software.
86. Answer: B. OCSP
Explanation: Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) allows for querying Certificate Authority (CA) for validity of a digital certificate. Another solution for checking whether a certificate has been revoked is Certificate Revocation List (CRL). CRLs are updated regularly and sent out to interested parties. Compared to CRL, OCSP allows for querying the CA at any point in time and retrieving information without any delay.
87. Answers: A, B, and D. Antistatic bag, Ground mat, and Antistatic wrist wrap
Explanation: Antistatic bags, ground mats, and antistatic wrist wraps are used to protect the equipment against electrostatic discharge (ESD). Most of the internal computer parts are delicate and require very low voltage; the above mentioned tools are used by technicians in order to prevent an accidental electrical short which might damage the equipment during handling or repair.
88. Answer: E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's safety
Explanation: Laser printers, CRT monitors, PC power supplies, and inverters are all devices/components that require high AC voltage and may pose a risk of electrocution.
89. Answer: D. MSDS documentation
Explanation: Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be found in Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) documentation.
90. Answer: D. HVAC
Explanation: Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning (HVAC) systems are used for controlling temperature and humidity.
91. Answer: D. Chain of custody
Explanation: In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as chain of custody.
92. Answer: B. PII
Explanation: Personally Identifiable Information (PII) includes any type of information pertaining to an
individual that can be used to uniquely identify that individual. Identity of a person can be established by tracing their most basic attributes such as name, surname, phone number or traditional mailing address,
but also through their social security or credit card numbers, IP or email addresses, or data collected via biometric devices. Security of PII has become major concern for companies and organizations due to the
accessibility of this type of data over the Internet, but also due to misuse of personal electronic devices
such as USB drives or smartphones that are easily concealable and can carry large amounts of data.
93. Answer: B. AUP
Explanation: Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put.
94. Answer: B. DLP
Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions are software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of a corporate network.
95. Answer: C. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the problem
Explanation: One example of good communication skills is the ability to listen without interrupting until the customer finishes describing their problem.
96. Answer: A and B. Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem and Restating the issue to verify understanding
Explanation: Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem and restating the issue to verify understanding are examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer.
97. Answer: C. Identifying the problem
Explanation: Problem identification should be the very first step in the troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA. This step involves questioning the user and identifying user changes to the computer.
98. Answer: C. Implement the solution
Explanation: In troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA, implementing the solution should come after establishing a plan of action to resolve problem and identifying potential effects.
99. Answer: C. After implementing the solution
Explanation: According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed after implementing solution to the problem.
100. Answer: A. True
Explanation: The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures.