052 P2 Foundation QA v04

8/9/2019 052 P2 Foundation QA v04

1/23

PRINCE2 Questions by Subject DRAFT

PRINCE2 Questions Page 1 ref/P2/FT-IP2 Questions v04

PRINCE2 Questions by Subjectwww.iplazza.eu

TABLE OF CONTENTS

1 Introduction......................................................................................................11.1 Basics of PRINCE2..................................................................................................... 21.2 Starting Up a Project................................................................................................... 31.3 Directing a Project ...................................................................................................... 51.4 Initiating a Project ....................................................................................................... 41.5 Controlling a Stage ..................................................................................................... 61.6 Managing Product Delivery......................................................................................... 71.7 Stage Boundaries ....................................................................................................... 8

1.8 Closing a Project......................................................................................................... 91.9 Planning.................................................................................................................... 10

2 Components...................................................................................................112.1 Business Case.......................................................................................................... 112.2 Organisation ............................................................................................................. 122.3 Plans ........................................................................................................................ 132.4 Controls Stage....................................................................................................... 142.5 Controls Tolerance................................................................................................. 152.6 Management of Risks ............................................................................................... 162.7 Quality in a Project Environment............................................................................... 172.8 Configuration Management....................................................................................... 18

2.9 Change Control Component ..................................................................................... 19

3 Comp ..............................................................................................................203.1 Change Control Technique ....................................................................................... 203.2 Quality Review Technique ........................................................................................ 213.3 Product Based Planning ........................................................................................... 22

4 Answers..........................................................................................................23

PART1 PRINCE2 FOUNDATION

1 Introduction

These are sample PRINCE2 Questions which you can attempt after section of the PRINCE2Course


2/23



1.1 PRINCE2 Introduction

Q1: Which part of a productlifespan is NOT part of a projectlife cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?

A. The change over to operational use of the productB. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of useC. The specification of the productD. Finalisation of the business case

Q2: Fill in the missing phrase from "a project is a management environment that is created for thepurpose of delivering one or more business products according to..."

A: The Customers Needs B: An Agreed ContractC: The Project Plan D: A specified Business Case

Q3: Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?A: Plans B: ControlsC: Work Package D: Configuration Management

Q4: Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 characteristic of a project? (tip: measuring

products & defining resources is important for PRINCE2)A. An organisation structure, with defined responsibilities, to manage the projectB. Defined and measurable business productsC. A defined amount of resourcesD. A defined set of techniques

Q5: Which of the following techniques is explained in PRINCE2?A: Earned Value Analysis B: Critical Path AnalysisC: Motivation D: Change Control

Q6: What is the term used in PRINCE2 to describe everything that the project has to create orchange?

A: Package B: Item

C: Product D: Component

Q7: The key to successful use of the process model is its tailoring, where each process isapproached with the key question. Which of the following is the key question?

A. Is this process really relevant and necessary to this project?B. how I use this process clear? If not, is it any clearer at the next level down?C. How extensively should this process be applied on this project?D. Can I find a short cut through this process?

Q8: Which is shorter, the Project Life Cycle or the Product Lifespan?

A. Product LifespanB. They are the sameC. Project Life Cycle

D. It depends on whether the project is part of a programme

Q9: What type of project is PRINCE2 suited for?A: None B: AnyC: Government related projects D: IT projects, only


3/23



1.2 Starting Up a Project

Q1: The Project Approach is established as part of what process?A. Controlling a Stage

B. Starting Up a ProjectC. Initiating a ProjectD. Directing a Project

Q2: Which process checks the content of the Project Mandate and enhances it into a ProjectBrief?

A. Directing a ProjectB. Managing Product DeliveryC. Initiating a ProjectD. Starting Up a Project

Q3: What management product produced in Starting up a Project (SU) is submitted to the ProjectBoard with a request to authorise project initiation (Tip: which doc contains Bizz Case info?)

A. Project BriefB. Draft Initiation Stage PlanC. Draft Project Initiation DocumentD. Project Plan

Q4: The information gathered in the Starting Up a Project (SU) should answer what basicquestion?

A. Do we have a viable and worthwhile project?B. Do we know who thought of this idea?C. Do we care about the outcome at this stage?D. Do we solve the problem now or later?

Q5: The decision on whether a projects solution will be contracted to third parties is described inwhich management product?

A. The Project PlanB. The Project ApproachC. The Project BriefD. The Project Quality Plan

Q6: The Project Brief is used by the Project Board as part of the justification for initiation?o TRUE, FALSE

Q7: What log is created in Starting up a Project? (Tip: Which is needed for Project Brief?)A. Lesson Learned LogB. Issue LogC. Risk LogD. Quality Log

Q8: The Project Mandate is updated with further information by the Executive and ProjectManager

o TRUE, FALSE

Q9: The Customer Quality Expectations need to be agreed in Starting up a Project?A. TRUE, FALSE

Q10: What management product defines the methodby which the work will be carried out? (tip:

method)A: Project Brief B: Project MandateC: Project Plan D: Project Approach


4/23



1.3 Initiating a Project

Q1: What document is input to the Project Board with a request to authorise the project?A: The Project Brief B: The Project MandateC: A draft Project Initiation Document D: An Implementation Plan

Q2: What Management Product is created in IP4 - Setting up Project Controls?A: Communication Plan B: Draft Project Initiation DocumentC: Risk Log D: Project Plan

Q3: In which sub process is the PID authorised?A: DP1 - Authorising Initiation B: DP2 - Authorising a ProjectC: DP4 - Giving Ad Hoc Direction D: DP5 - Confirming Project Closure

Q4: One of the main purposes for the Initiating a Project (IP) process is to answer the question,how the quality required will be achieved?

A: FALSE B: TRUE

Q5: When is the Project Quality Plan created?A: During Initiation (IP) B: During Start Up (SU)C: As part of Managing Stage Boundaries D: As part of the Project Brief

Q6: Project Controls information is input to what Management Product? (tip: becomes parts)A: Project Brief B: Project ApproachC: Stage Quality Plan D: Project Initiation Document

Q7: Which of the following options correctly completes the statement, the purpose of initiating aproject (IP) is to:

A. Identify the Executive from the projects stakeholdersB. Draw up a contract in the form of a Project Initiation DocumentC. Drive Controlling a StageD. Delegate day-to-day charge of the project to a Project Manager

Q8: The Business Case will contain a summary of key risks. Where will the details of the all therisks be stored?

A: Issues Log B: Configuration Item RecordsC: Risk Management Documentation D: Risk Log

Q9: In which top-level process are the files for the project set up? (tip: Setting up Project Files)A: Controlling a Stage (CS) B: Managing Product Delivery (MP)C: Starting Up a Project (SU) D: Initiating a Project (IP)

Q10: In what process is the Lessons Learned Log created? (tip: Same as Issue Log)A: IP4 - Setting Up Project Controls B: IP5 - Setting Up Project FilesC: IP2 - Planning a Project D: IP1 - Planning Quality


5/23



1.4 Directing a Project

Q1: In which process is the initiation of the project authorised?A: Starting Up a Project (SU) B: Initiating a Project (IP)

C: Directing a Project (DP) D: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)

Q2: When does the process of Directing a Project (DP) begin?A: Before Starting Up a Project B: After Starting Up a ProjectC: After Initiating a Project D: After Managing Stage Boundaries

Q3: The Project Board can monitor progress and provide advice and guidance to the ProjectManager at any time. What is this process called?

A: CS2 - Assessing Progress B: DP4 - Giving Ad Hoc DirectionC: Trigger for Premature Close D: DP2 - Authorising the Project

Q4: What is the management conceptemployed by the Project Board? (tip: PRINCE2 term)

A: Management by Issues B: Management by ExceptionC: Management by Delivery D: Management by Progress

Q5: What is the purpose of the project closure notification? (tip: think costs)A. Notify the project management team that the project is closedB. Notification to all interested parties that facilities, support and resources can be

withdrawnC. A Project Issue has closed the projectD. Notify auditors that the files have been archived

Q6: Which is NOTan input of DP1 - Authorising Initiation?

A: Job Description B: Project ApproachC: Project management team structure D: Project Start-Up Notification

Q7: Once the PID is accepted by the Project Board in DP2 - Authorising a Project, why is the PID

baselined?A. To act as a guide for project decisions going forward and preserve original intentionsB. To lock the project to the original specifications and not allow any subsequent changesC. To establish punitive measures when the project fails to deliverD. To preserve the projects original intentions only

Q8: When does the Project Board settolerances for the next stage? (tip: not at start)

A. As part of giving approval for that Stage PlanB. At the official start of the projectC. Via Ad Hoc DirectionD. When requesting an Exception Plan

Q9: In which of the following decisions is the Project Board NOT involved?

A: Authorising a Work Package B: Authorising Project ClosureC: Authorising Initiation D: Authorising a Stage

Q10: Which of the following is NOT an objective of DP5 Confirming Project Closure?A. Notify all interested parties of the closure of the projectB. Release the resources provided to the projectC. Ensure that the project has a clearly defined end and an organised handover of

responsibility to the group(s) who will use, support and sustain the productsD. Planning for the next project


6/23



1.5 Controlling a Stage

Q1: It would be chaotic to have people who are working on the project starting activitieswhenever they think fit. What product does PRINCE2 use to control this? (tip: how is work

organized by the PM?)A: Project Issue B: Work PackageC: Checkpoint Report D: Quality Review

Q2: Controlling a Stage (CS) handles what part of the project? (tip: think PM)A: Directing a Project (DP)B: The implementation of Work PackagesC: Day to day management of the projectD: The close of one stage and the planning of the next

Q3: As part of CS2 - Assessing Progress the Project Manager looks at Checkpoint Reports,Work Packagesstatus and what other management product?

A: Highlight Reports B: Quality LogC: Business Case D: Project Initiation Document

Q4: What process does Controlling a Stage (CS) drive?A: Planning (PL) B: Managing Product Delivery (MP)C: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) D: Directing a Project (DP)

Q5: Who is primarily responsible for handling the day-to-day management of the project?A: The Executive B: The Project BoardC: The Project Manager D: The Team Manager

Q6: In which sub-process is the Stage Plan updated with actuals to day?A: CS5 Reviewing Stage Status B: CS7 Taking Corrective ActionC: CS1 Authorising a Work Package D: CS2 Assessing Progress

Q7: Which report is an output of CS6 Reporting Highlightsand given to the Project Board?A: Exception Report B: Highlight ReportC: Checkpoint Report D: Progression Report

Q8: What product is used to capture project issues?A: Risk Log B: Quality LogC: Issues Log D: Lessons Learned Log

Q9: In a PRINCE2 project, who authorises Work Packages?A: The Executive B: Project AssuranceC: The Team Manager D: The Project Manager

Q10: Who is responsiblefor keeping control of products via configuration management? (tip:

responsible it can be delegated)A: The Executive B: The Project ManagerC: The Team Manager D: Project Support


7/23



1.6 Managing Product Delivery

Q1: Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Team Managers responsibilities?A. The Team Manager negotiates work to be done

B. The Team Manager oversees the work to be doneC. The Team Manager reports progress to the Project BoardD. The Team Manager delivers the completed Work Package

Q2: Which report does the Team Manager send to the Project Manager on a regular basis?A: Exception Report B: Highlight ReportC: Checkpoint Report D: Financial Report

Q3: All third parties must also being using PRINCE2 in order for PRINCE2 to work correctly?TRUE FALSE

Q4: What is the fundamental principlebehind the process Managing Product Delivery (MP)?

A. A controlled break between Project Manager and product creation/provision by third partysuppliers

B. Before a Work Package is allocated to the team, there should be agreement with theProject Manager on what is to be delivered

C. Whatever the type of project, the actual task of creating the required products needs tobe managed

D. Work only commences and continues with the consent of the Project Manager

Q5 Which of the following statements about Managing Product Delivery (MP) is FALSE?A. It interfaces with Controlling a Stage (CS) and may use Planning (PL)B. Defined amounts of work are parcelled into Work Packages which need to be accepted

from the Project ManagerC. Team Managers are requiredD. One of the objectives is to get work done

Q6: When does a Team Manager report on the progress status of a Work Package to the ProjectManager?

A. On completion of the Work PackageB. Weekly Checkpoint ReportsC. On completion of a Quality ReviewD. At the frequency defined in the Work Package

Q7: Which step is NOT part of MP1 - Accepting a Work Package? (Tip: its linked with MP2 only)A. Understand the reporting requirementsB. Agree tolerance margins for the work packageC. Update the Quality Log with details of all quality checks carried outD. Produce a team plan which shows that the work package can be completed within the

constraints

Q8: Which option most fully describes the Managing Product Delivery (MP) process?A. Plan the workB. Execution of the work and risk evaluationC. Transfer, progress control and receipt of workD. Agree work with the Project Manager, get it done and hand it back

Q9: If they were to be used, Team Plans would be produced in which sub-process?A: MP2 - Executing a Work Package B: CS2 - Assessing ProgressC: MP1 - Accepting a Work Package D: CS1 - Authoring a Work Package

Process Model Diagram: 1, 2, 7, 9


8/23



1.7 Stage Boundaries

Q1: What is the trigger for SB6: Producing an Exception Report

A: Exception Plan request B: Exception Report

C: Exception Assessment D: Project Issue

Q2: Which of the following is an objectiveof Managing Stage Boundaries process?

A. Conduct all of the Quality Reviews right before taking the End Stage Report to the ProjectBoard

B. Plan the next two stages in detail for the Boards ApprovalC. Write a Lessons Learned ReportD. Provide the information needed for the Project Board to assess the continuing viability of

the project

Q3: How often is the Managing Stage Boundary process invokedA: At the end of each stage B: At the end of each projectC: At the end of each Work Package D: At the end of each stage except the final one

Q4: Who needs the information gathered in Managing Stage Boundaries to assess the continuingviability of the project? (tip: who is the End Stage Report sent too?)

A: Corporate / Programme Management B: Project BoardC: Project Manager D: Stakeholders

Q5: Which option reflects the three dynamic sectionsof the PID that are updated at the end of

every stage? (Tip: part of the PID is updated in SB)A. Project Plan, Post Project Review Plan, Project Quality PlanB. Quality Log, Risk Log, Lessons Learned LogC. Business Case, Project Brief, Project MandateD. Project Plan, Business Case, Risk Log

Q6: Managing Stage Boundaries uses the Planning (PL) process?

TRUE FALSE

Q7: When is the Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) process triggered? (tip: required)A: After the current stage is complete B: Near the end of the current stageC: During the End Stage Assessment D: During CS2 Assessing Progress

Q8: Which of the following plans listed below is NOT produced or updated in the Managing StageBoundaries (SB) process?

A: Exception Plan B: Next Stage PlanC: Team Plan D: Updated Project Plan

Q9: Which of the following should NOT be checked for necessary changes at the end of eachstage? (Tip: Most Mgmt Docs can be updated in SB, what is not a Mgmt Document?)

A: Background B: Project Quality PlanC: Project Approach D: Organisation Structure

Q10: The process of Managing Stage Boundaries is not a simple process and must be done veryformally?

TRUE FALSE


9/23



1.8 Closing a Project

Q1: In Closing a Project (CP) process the project files are archived. What is the explanation givenfor this?

A. To provide useful lessons to future projectsB. Never throw anything away.C. This material may be needed by Programme ManagementD. To permit any future audit of the projects actions including lessons learned

Q2: All the sub-processes within the Closing a Project (CP) may be done in parallel?TRUE FALSE

Q3: The Trigger to Close A Project can only come from Controlling a Stage? (help)TRUE FALSE

Q4: Which report assesses what Management Processeswent well or badly? (Tip: one report

compares the project to the PID and other report is more concerned with how well the project wasmanaged)

A: Follow-on Action Recommendations B: End Stage ReportC: Business Case review D: Lessons Learned Report

Q5: Which processconfirms operational and maintenance (future support) acceptance of final

products?A: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) B: Managing Product Delivery (MP)C: Closing a Project (CP) D: Controlling a Stage (CS)

Q6: Which document evaluates actual achievements against the Project Initiation Document?A: End Project Report B: Lessons Learned ReportC: Highlight Report D: Post Project Review

Q7: Which of the following is NOT within the scope of PRINCE2?

A: Lessons Learned Report B: Project BriefC: Post Project Review D: Issue Log

Q8: In which process may a premature close to the project be authorised?A: Initiating a Project (IP) B: Closing a Project (CP)C: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) D: Directing a Project (DP)

Q9: The Lessons Learned Report is created as part of which process?A: Directing a Project (DP) B: Closing a Project (CP)C: Controlling a Stage (CS) D: Initiating a Project (IP)

Q10: The Closing a Project (CP) process should be followed only when the project comes to anatural close, not when the Project Board direct the Project Manager to prematurely close the

project via DP4 Giving Ad Hoc Direction? TRUE

FALSE


10/23



1.9 Planning

Q1: Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?A: Starting Up a Project (SU) B: Initiating a Project (IP)

C: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) D: Controlling a Stage (CS)

Q2: Which of the following is NOT correct, Planning provides all personnel involved in the

project with information onA: What is required.B: What the overall project benefits areC: When events will happenD: How the project will be achieved & by whom, using what specialist equipment and resources

Q3: When using the Planning process, which of the following comes first?A. Identifying products requiredB. Identifying activities required

Q4: Plans should notinclude the creation and update of management products?TRUE FALSE

Q5: Which management product can be used by the Project Board in lieu of a Gantt chart toreview the projects progress?

A: Business Case B: Project MandateC: Product Description D: Product Checklist

Q6: Which statement most accurately reflects the Planning (PL) process?A. Planning is only done once at the beginning of the projectB. The Planning process is used for creating project plans & team plans, but not stage plansC. Several iterations of the Planning process are normally needed during a projectD. Planning is a suggested process for PRINCE2 projects

Q7: Which of the following statements is NOT true?A. PL1 Designing a Plan involves deciding on what estimating methods are going to be usedB. PL2 Defining and Analysing Products involves producing a completed Product Checklist

that will not be updated.C. PL4 Estimating involves estimating how long activities will takeD. PL7 Completing a Plan involves adding explanatory text outlining any assumptions made

when creating the plan.

Q8: Which of the following statements is/are true?1. Planning is a repeatable process 2. Planning is an impossible process 3. Planning is an iterative process 4. Planning is a duplicating process

A: 1 + 3 are correct B: 1 + 2 are correct

C: 4 + 3 are correct D: 1 + 4 are correct

Q9: Which of the following statements is TRUE?A. Planning for the next stage should start after the current stage has completedB. It is easier and more accurate to plan for longer stages than shorter onesC. Those with Project Assurance roles should notbe involved in proposing quality checking resources

D. Time must be allocated for Planning because it is a time-consuming exercise

Q10: In which process are Product Descriptions written?A: Initiating a Project (IP) B: Managing product delivery (MP)C: Planning (PL) D: Controlling a Stage (CS)


11/23



2 Components

2.1 Business Case (BC)

Q1: Who owns the Business Case?A: The Senior User B: The Project ManagerC: The Project Board D: The Executive

Q2: The Business Case provides the basis for the Post-Project Review Plan.T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q3: What is the driving force behind the project (tip: main document with most of the informationto drive the project)?

A: Project Initiation Document B: Project PlanC: Project Brief D: Business Case

Q4: In what process is the Business Case refined and is incorporated as part of the Project

Initiation Document?A: Controlling a Stage (CS)B: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)C: Starting Up a Project (SU)D: Initiating a Project (IP)

Q5: The benefits & costs laid out in the Business Case must be continually checkedwith whichof the following options to verify that the project is and continues to be worthwhile and viable?

A: Project Issues B: RisksC: The initial PID D: The Quality Log

Q6: In PRINCE2 what management product is used to define the information that justifies thesetting up, continuation or termination of the project?

A: Project Initiation Document B: Business CaseC: End Stage Approval D: Project Brief

Q7: The Business Case contains the following information about the project. Which one of thefollowing options is incorrect?

A: Reasons and Options B: Costs and TimescalesC: Benefits and Risks D: Plans

Q8: Fill in the missing phrase: PRINCE2 defines a project as a management environment thatis created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to."

A: An agreed Acceptance CriteriaB: A baselined Project Initiation DocumentC: An approved Project BriefD: A specified Business Case

Q9: The focus of the Business Case should be on the totality (sum) of the business change.T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q10 : The Business Case is NOT the most important set of information for the project.T: TRUE F: FALSE


12/23



2.2 Organisation

Q1: Fill in the missing word: PRINCE2 defines, which might be allocated, shared, divided orcombined according to the project needs (tip: think what does PRINCE2 define in the manual)

A: Functions B: RolesC: Responsibilities D: Jobs

Q2: Which phrase applies to the user representativein a PRINCE2 project management team?

A: They will be impacted by the outcomeB: May need to use both in-house and external teams to construct the final outcomeC: Representation from the business viewpointD: Will provide the funding

Q3: On behalf of who do any appointed Project Assurance jobs assure the project?A: Project Manager B: Corporate ManagementC: Project Executive D: One or more members of the Project Board

Q4: Who can ensure that user needs and expectations are being met or managed?A: Project Assurance B: Corporate or Programme managementC: Project Support D: Project Executive

Q5: Which role from the following list does PRINCE2 say cannot be delegated?A: Team Manager B: Project AssuranceC: Project Board Member D: Project Support

Q6: Which individual role is ultimately accountable for the project?A: Project Manager B: Senior SupplierC: Executive D: Senior User

Q7: Who is responsible for the project delivering an outcome that is capable of achieving thebenefits defined in the Project Initiation Document?

A: The Executive B: The Project ManagerC: The Senior User D: The entire Project Board

Q8: The use of which of these roles is OPTIONAL?A: Executive B: Project ManagerC: Senior User D: Team Manager

Q9: What is NOT a specific responsibility of Project Assurance?A: Checking adherence to Business CaseB: Managing RisksC: Risks are being controlledD: Ensuring the right people are being involved

Q10: The three project interests represented on the Project Board are which of the following?A: Capital, Monetary, FinancialB: Business, User, SupplierC: Economic, Customer, DevelopmentD: Legislative, Economic, Financial


13/23



2.3 Plans - Checked

Q1: What are described as the backbone of the management information system required for anyproject

A: Highlight Reports B: PlansC: The control points D: End Stage Assessments

Q2: Which plan is suggested in PRINCE2 to have a different structure?A: Project Plan B: Stage PlanC: Exception Plan D: None of the above

Q3: Project Plans and Stage plans need to have the endorsement and approval of whom?A: Corporate / Programme ManagementB: Project BoardC: Project ManagerD: Team Manager

Q4: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of planning?A: Helping the management team to think aheadB: Communication of what is to be doneC: Providing a yardstick against which to measure progressD: Creating issues and changes accurately

Q5: Planning identifies the activities (tip: Quality checking activities) needed to ensure thatqualitycan be built into products?

T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q6: Which of the following is NOT an element of a plan?A: A list of dependencies between activitiesB: A description when activities will occurC: A list of products to be produced

D: A list of realised benefits

Q7: Which one of the following items is an element of a PRINCE2 plan?A: Business CaseB: Communications PlanC: The points at which progress will be monitored and controlledD: Project Organisation Structure

Q8: At what point are the overall time and costs calculated (not estimated) for a project?A: At the beginning B: In the middleC: At the end D: Never

Q9: Which level of plan is optional?

A: None; all levels of plan are mandatoryB: Project PlanC: Stage PlanD: Team Plan

Q10: A list of dependencies between activitiesis an element of which of the following?

A: Configuration Item RecordB: A planC: Work PackageD: Product Description


14/23



2.4 Controls Stage - Checked

Q1: The first stage in a PRINCE2 project is called the?A: Planning Stage B: Starting Up Stage

C: Initiation Stage D: Control Stage

Q2: How does PRINCE2 suggest resolving the problem where the technical stages do NOTcoincide with the desired management stages?

A: By defining roles for Business, User and SupplierB: By keeping an independent Risk Log for each stageC: Breaking down the technical work so that it can be divided over 2 management stagesD: Dividing management stages into two so that they match the technical stages

Q3: Which of the following statements about stages is NOT correct?A: PRINCE2 stages are often described as business stagesB: Stages are partitions of the project with management decision pointsC: A stage is a collection of activities and products whose deliver is managed as a unitD: The number of stages in a project is flexible and depends on the needs of the project

Q4: The concept of management stages equates to?A: Design, build and implementationB: The use of a particular set of specialist skillsC: Delivery of productsD: Commitment of resources and authority to spend

Q5:. Which PRINCE2 technique helps to define which product will be created in which stage?A: Quality Review B: Configuration ManagementC: Product-based Planning D: Change Control

Q6: In describing how to define stages, the PRINCE2 manual talks of balancing a number offactors. Which of the following is FALSE?

A: How far ahead in the project it is sensible to planB: How will quality expectations be metC: Where the key decision points need to be on the projectD: Too many small stages versus too few big ones

Q7: A PRINCE2 project should minimally have how many stages?A: One B: TwoC: None D: Four

Q8: The use of stages in a PRINCE2 project is mandatory?T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q9: Which of the following has more detail?

A: Stage PlanB: Project Plan

Q10: What does PRINCE2 use to deal with decision points in a project where the Project Boardcan review the direction and the ongoing viability of a project?

A: Work Packages B: Team PlansC: Checkpoint Reports D: Stages


15/23



2.5 Controls Tolerance Checked

Q1: A well-planned project will go 100 per cent to plan?T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q2: How many standard elements to tolerance are there?A: One B: TwoC: Three D: Four

Q3: Which of the normal tolerance elements is considered to be the last one a project would wantto invoke (last one you would accept as a PM) ?

A: Risk B: ScopeC: Quality D: Benefit

Q4: Requirements for the project scope should be divided into what categories to represent thescope tolerance (tip: Scope does not document what is not required)?

A: Essential and desirable B: Good and betterC: Needed and not needed D: Immediate and long term

Q5: What is defined as the permissible (allowed) deviationfrom a plan without bringing the

deviation to the attention of the next higher authority?A: Contingency B: ChangeC: Tolerance D: Risk

Q6: What is another term for Risk Tolerance?A: Risk Compliance B: Risk AppetiteC: Risk Endurance D: Risk Management

Q7: If Stage Tolerance is forecast to be exceeded who needs to inform whom?A: Team Manager informs the Project ManagerB: Team Manager informs the Project Board

C: Project Manager informs the Project BoardD: Project Board informs the Corporate/Programme management

Q8: If Work PackageTolerance is forecast to be exceeded who needs to inform whom?A: Team Manager informs the Project ManagerB: Team Manager informs the Project BoardC: Project Manager informs the Project BoardD: Project Board informs the Corporate/Programme Management

Q9: The same tolerance figures should be given for time and cost?T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q10: Tolerance is built into a plan to allow for which of the following options?

A: Approved changesB: Small problems and estimating errorsC: Dealing with risks as they occurD: Padding the numbers when dealing with faulty or dubious estimating methods


16/23



2.6 Management of Risks

Q1: Before determining what to do about risks, the Project Board and the Project Manager mustconsider?

A: The amount of risk they are prepared to tolerateB: Which member of the project team will respond to the riskC: How often the Risk Log should be updatedD: Monitoring the risks

Q2: The person best situated to keep an eye on a risk is called its?A: Supporter B: ManagerC: Owner D: Custodian

Q3: Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action (tip: Reaction after Analyzing Risk)?A: Prevention B: DenialC: Reduction D: Transference

Q4: Which of the following options bests completes the following definition of risk?A: Reliable outcome (either positive or negative)B: Undefined outcome (only negative)C: Uncertainty of outcome (whether positive opportunity or negative threat)D: Undeliverable outcome (both positive and negative)

Q5: The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the Management of Risk. Which of thefollowing options is the FALSE one? (Tip: Which one is for the PM?)

A: Notifying the Project Manager of any external r isk exposure to the projectB: Ensuring that risks are identified, recorded and regularly reviewedC: Making decisions on recommended reactions to riskD: Striking a balance between level of risk and potential benefits

Q6: Which of the following options best completes the statement, Risk Management at the project

level focuses on keeping? (Tip: No Project is 100% Risk Free)A: Unwanted resources out of the projectB: Unwanted outcomes to an acceptable minimumC: Undesirable effects away from the project teamD: Unforeseeable events from happening

Q7: Which role from the project Organisation Structure is the ownership of the risk managementprocess likely to lie with? (tip: Main Responsible for all Risk)

A: Project Manager B: Project SupportC: Team Manager D: Executive

Q8: When evaluating risks, which of the following evaluates the effect or result of a particularoutcome actually happening? (Tip: Effect = Damage)

A: Probability B: ProximityC: Impact D: Severity

Q9: Reduction, as a risk response (tip: After Analyzing) , can be described as?A: Terminate the Risk B: Treat the RiskC: Tolerate the Risk D: Plan B

Q10: Checking that the overall management of risk is being applied effectively is done in whichpart of the Risk Management Cycle?

A: Planning and Resourcing B: EvaluatingC: Identifying D: Monitoring and Reporting


17/23



2.7 Quality in a Project Environment

Q1: What type of needs should projects rely on?A: Implied B: Unidentified C: Stated D: Indivisible

Q2: Within projects, quality is a question of identifying what it is about the projects products orservices that makes them?

A: Demonstrable B: Visible C: Tangible D: Fit for their purpose

Q3: Which of the following is NOT considered an Acceptance Criteria that relates to theperformance of the project ? (Tip: which word is not used to describe an acceptance criteria?)

A: Target date B: Costs C: Functionality D: Mandate

Q4: Which of the following is included in the Project Initiation Document?A: Programme Quality Plan B: Project Quality PlanC: Team Quality Plan D: Stage Quality Plan

Q5: Which of the following best describes the Project Assurance role in quality checkingproducts?

A: Planning the Quality Checks in outlineB: Planning the Quality Checks in detailC: Specifying who should be involved in quality checkingD: Specifying the Quality Criteria for quality checking

Q6: Which of the following options is correct (Tip: Not A) ?A. Stage and Team plans must contain a quality planB. Stage and Team plans should contain a quality planC. Stage and Team plans do not contain a quality planD. Stage and Team plans will never contain a quality plan

Q7: What management product defines in general terms how the project will meet the

customers quality expectations(Tip: see bold text)?A: Project Plan B: Project Quality PlanC: Project Mandate D: Project Brief

Q8: Is it normally sufficient to simply reference the QMS manual that contains the standards to beused on a project?

Yes / No

Q9: Quality Criteria that cover the specification and quality measurements of a product arecaptured in which management product? (Tip: for each product)

A: Product Status Account B: Product Breakdown StructureC: Product Description D: Product Flow Diagram

Q10: In what process is the Quality Log created (Tip: Planning Quality)?A: Starting up a Project B: Initiating a ProjectC: Controlling a Stage D: Managing Product Delivery


18/23



2.8 Configuration Management

Q1: The configurationof the final deliverable of the project is (Tip: see bold)?

A: The sum total of its products B: The interim products

C: Its product description D: The single end product?

Q2: Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status isand who is working on it?

A: Work Package B: Product DescriptionC: Checkpoint Report D: Configuration Management

Q3: What name is given to the series of reviews and audits that is part of configurationmanagement to ensure there is conformity between the projects products?

A: Status Accounting B: VerificationC: Quality Reviews D: Quality Assurance

Q4: Who might receive completed products before the Team Manager reports that the WorkPackage has been completed?

A: The Customer B: The UserC: Configuration Librarian D: The Project Board

Q5: What other control is closely linked with configuration management?A: Risk Management B: Project ClosureC: Change Control D: Project Initiation

Q6: The person operating the Configuration Management method is called?A: Configuration Librarian B: Configuration AuditorC: Product Assurance D: Version Controller

Q7: If there were a need to know the current and previous versions of a product, what part ofPRINCE2 would most help us?

A: The Stage Plan B: The Issue LogC: Configuration Management D: Work Package Authorisation

Q8: In terms of Configuration Management, what are described as the assets of a project?A: The resources B: The plansC: The products D: The business benefits

Q9: The following appears on the cover sheet of a PID: 'Version 1. 3 Draft'. Which Component ofPRINCE2 would be responsible for this entry?

A: Controls B: Configuration ManagementC: Quality in a Project Environment D: Change Control

Q10: Where would you start if a question arises on why a particular product was changed?

A: Issue Log B: Configuration Item RecordC: Quality Log D: Risk Log


19/23



2.9 Change Control Component

Q1: Which of the following is NOT an Issue? (Tip: Faulty Product is Off Speciation, think ROQS)A: Request for Change B: Query

C: Potential problem D: Faulty product

Q2: How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?A: Weekly B: WeeklyC: At Checkpoint Meetings D: On a regular basis

Q3: What is the first job carried out at the identification of a new Project Issue?A: Allocation of priority B: Create entry in Issue LogC: Decision on what type of issue D: Impact Analysis

Q4: Which management product keeps track of Requests For Change?A: Request Log B: Daily LogC: Quality Log D: Issue Log

Q5: At what point does the Project Board decide if they will delegate the authority for approving orrejecting Project Issues to a change authority?

A: Pre-project preparation B: Project InitiationC: While giving ad hoc direction D: After the Quality Reviews

Q6: In PRINCE2 all potential changesare dealt with as? (Tip: Request for Change is a type)

A: Requests For Change B: Off-SpecificationsC: Configuration Items D: Project Issues

Q7: Which of the following is NOT a consideration when considering Project Issues?A: Benefits B: CostC: Risks D: Temperature

Q8: In which process does the Project Manager ask the Project Board where the authority formaking change (Change Authority) lies?

A: During Starting Up A Project (SU)B: During Initiating a Project (IP)C: In DP4 - Giving Ad Hoc DirectionD: When DP3 - Authorising a Stage

Q9: Who normally funds a Request for Change? (Tip: This is a new feature)A: The Project Board B: The ExecutiveC: The Supplier D: The Customer


20/23



3 Comp

3.1 Change Control Technique

Q1: If a product needs to be change, what management product should also be checked for anynecessary changes?

A: Quality Log B: Product Breakdown StructureC: Risk Log C: Product Description

Q2: All changes are treated as types of what?A: Risks B: Project IssuesC: Configuration Item Records D: Quality Reviews

Q3: An off-specification is best defined by which of the following statements?A: A record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirementB: Objectionable record of events about a products creationC: Unreasonable requirement in a product descriptionD: Illogical reporting requirements demanded by the project Board

Q4: In which sub-process of Controlling a Stage would an Impact Analysis be conducted?A: CS1 Authorising a Work PackageB: CS2 Assessing ProgressC: CS3 Capturing Project IssuesD: CS4 Examining Project Issues

Q5: When should the priority of a Project Issue be re-evaluated?A: Upon receipt of the Project Issue from the AuthorB: Immediately after the Project Issue has been loggedC: After the Impact AnalysisD: During Closing a Project process

Q6: Which of the following is NOT a suggested Project Issue priority rating?A: A must B: A nice-to-haveC: A should not have D: A cosmetic change

Q7: Who should make decisions on Requests for Change?A: The Project Manager and Project SupportB: The Project Board and the Project ManagerC: The Project Board or the delegated Change AuthorityD: The Project Manager or the delegated Change Authority

Q8: What is a concession?A: A contract to a third partyB: An error found in a Quality Review which is not correctedC: An Off-Specification accepted by the Project Board without corrective actionD: An allowance above and beyond tolerance levels

Q9: Which of the following is NOT an action of the change authority after an Impact Analysis?A: Reject the Project IssueB: Produce an Exception PlanC: Place Project Issue into pending statusD: Remove the cause of the problem

Q10: In which process are decisions made on exception situations?A: Directing a ProjectB: Starting Up a ProjectC: Managing Stage BoundariesD: Managing Product Delivery


21/23



3.2 Quality Review Technique

Q1: All Quality Reviews are done immediately before the End Stage Assessment?T: TRUE F: FALSE

Q2: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Quality Review Technique?A: Assess the conformity of a product against set criteriaB: Limit ownership of the productC: Provide an mechanism for management monitoring and controlD: Provide a platform for product improvement

Q3: Which role is suggested might act as Scribe to a Quality Review?A: Project Assurance B: ReviewerC: Project Support D: The Review Chairman

Q4: If a problem with a product affects other products than the one being Quality Reviewed, whataction should be taken?

A: A Project Issue is raised B: Reconvene the Quality Review Meeting

C: Give Ad Hoc Direction D: Produce an Exception Report

Q5: Which of the following options is NOT a normal result of a Quality Review Meeting?A: Approved immediatelyB: Approved once the identified errors are correctedC: Product should be removed from the stage plan and configuration management systemD: Product should be reviewed again

Q6: Defining when and by whom a product will be tested is in which process?A: IP2 - Planning a Project B: During Starting Up a Project (SU)B: CS2 - Assessing Progress D: SB1 - Planning a Stage

Q7: Which role advises on suitable reviewers for a quality review?

A: The Producer B: The Team ManagerC: Project Assurance D: Quality Assurance

Q8: In which process is the Quality Log updated with the results of the Quality Reviews?A: Controlling a Stage (CS)B: Managing Product Delivery (MP)C: Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)D: Closing a Project (CP)

Q9: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Quality Reviews?A: Early identification of defects in productsB: An objective measurement for management progress control is providedC: Once a product has gone through a quality review users are more willing to commit

to that productD: They ensure the Business Case fits with the overall programme or company strategy


22/23



3.3 Product Based Planning

Q1: In a Product Breakdown Structure what type of product is a Highlight Report?A: Quality B: Specialist

C: Technical D: Management

Q2 : Given that producing a Product Breakdown Structure, Product Description for the finalproduct and Product Description for each product are three products of Product-Based PlanningTechnique, what is the fourth?

A: Identifying activities and dependenciesB: Writing Product DescriptionsC: SchedulingD: Product Flow Diagram

Q3: What does a Product Flow Diagram indicate?A: A hierarchical overview of the products to be deliveredB: A flowchart that shows everyone involved in the projectC: An overview of the end products to be deliveredD: The order and sequence in which the plans products will be created

Q4: Which of the following can be considered a product in PRINCE2?A: A document B: A cultural changeC: A machine D: All of the above

Q5: A Product Description should be written for a product?A: When the product is ready to be createdB: As soon as possible after the need for the product has been identifiedC: When the product has been createdD: As soon as the product has been approved

Q6: What is NOT a type of product in a PRINCE2 project?

A: A specialist product B: A technical productC: A management product

Q7: When should a Product Description be baselined?A: In Starting Up a Project processB: As part of DP4 Giving Ad Hoc DirectionC: When the plan containing its creation is baselinedD: During the Post Project Review

Q8: Which of the following is a key benefit of Product-Based Planning?A: It shows senior management how integral the project managers contributions are to

the success of the projectB: It ensures that all breakdowns and activities & value and contribute to the final product

C: Its emphasis on timelines demonstrates how delays will be handled on the projectD: It focuses the teams attention on the activities required for a successful project

Q9: If the Product-Based Planning Technique is used on a PRINCE project, when will it be used?A: DP5 Confirming Project Closure B: PL2 Defining and Analysing ProductsC: PL5 Scheduling D: CS8 Escalating Project Issues

Q10: Which management product defines a products quality criteria?A: Product Description B: Project Quality PlanC: Stage Quality Plan D: Quality Log


23/23



4 Answers

Processes

1) Basics of PRINCE2 1=B, 2=D, 3=C, 4=D, 5=D, 6=C, 7=C, 8=C, 9=B2) Starting up a Project 1=B, 2=D, 3=A, 4=A, 5=B, 6=T, 7=C, 8=F, 9=T, 10=D

3) Initiating a Project 1=A, 2=A, 3=B , 4=B , 5=A , 6=D , 7=B 8=D, 9=D, 10=D

4) Directing a Project 1=C, 2=B, 3=B , 4=B , 5=B , 6=D, 7=A, 8=A, 9=A, 10=D

5) Controlling a Stage: 1=B, 2=C, 3=B , 4=B , 5=C , 6=D , 7=B 8=C, 9=D, 10=B

6) Managing Product Delivery 1=C, 2=C, 3=F , 4=A , 5=C, 6=D, 7=C, 8=D, 9=C

7) Manage Stage Boundaries 1=A, 2=D, 3=D, 4=B, 5=D, 6=T, 7=B, 8=C, 9=A, 10=F

8) Closing a Project 1=D, 2=T, 3=F, 4=D, 5=C , 6=A, 7=C 8=D, 9=B, 10=F

9) Planning 1=D, 2=B, 3=A, 4=F , 5=D, 6=C, 7=B, 8=A, 9=D, 10=C

Components

1) Quality In A Project Env. 1=C, 2=D, 3=D, 4=B, 5=C, 6=B, 7=B 8=Y, 9=C, 10=B

2) Organisation 1=B, 2=A, 3=D, 4=A , 5=C , 6=C , 7=B 8=D, 9=B, 10=B

3) Plans 1=B, 2=D, 3=B, 4=D, 5=T, 6=D, 7=C 8=C, 9=D, 10=B

4) Stage 1=C, 2=C, 3=A, 4=D, 5=C, 6=B, 7=B 8=T, 9=A, 10=D

5) Controls Tolerance 1=F, 2=B, 3=C, 4=A , 5=C, 6=B, 7=C 8=A, 9=F, 10=B

6) Business Case 1=D, 2=T, 3=D, 4=D, 5=B, 6=B, 7=D 8=D, 9=T, 10=F

7) Risk Management 1=A, 2=C, 3=B, 4=C, 5=B, 6=B, 7=D, 8=C, 9=B, 10=D

8) Configuration Management 1=A, 2=D, 3=B, 4=C , 5=C, 6=A, 7=C, 8=C, 9=B, 10=B

9) Change Control Component 1=C 2=D, 3=B , 4=D, 5=B, 6=B, 7=D, 8=B, 9=D

Techniques1) Change Control Technique 1=C, 2=B, 3=A, 4=D, 5=C, 6=C, 7=C, 8=C, 9=A, 10=A2) Quality Review Technique 1=F, 2=B, 3=C , 4=A , 5=C , 6=D , 7=C 8=B, 9=D,3) Product Base Planning 1=D, 2=D, 3=D, 4=D , 5=B, 6=B, 7=C, 8=b, 9=B, 10=A

Date post:	01-Jun-2018
Category:	Documents
Upload:	upasanakanwal
View:	215 times
Download:	0 times

052 P2 Foundation QA v04

Documents