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T H E MEANING O F THE TER M "LAW" ()
IN 1 CORINTHIANS
by
HARM W. HOLLANDER
Leiden
1. Introduction
When one reads Paul's most influential letters, the correspondence
to the Galatians and to the Romans, one must come to the conclusion
that for the apostle the Jewish law did not possess any authority for
the gentile believers within the Christian communities. Not only was it
worthless as a means forsalvation, but even as a code ofconduct with
commandments concerning such matters as circumcision, Sabbath, anddietary laws, the law was not valid forgentile Christians, norperhaps
even forJewish Christians. This fact notwithstanding, Paul frequently
exhorted all Christians to live according to "the will ofGod" or to live
in obedience to "the commandments ofGod."1
One ofthe factors which mayhave influenced Paul to take such a
remarkable or radical stand on the issue ofthe role ofthe Jewish law
might have been the Graeco-Roman concept ofthe meaning and func
tion of laws in general. Laws were considered to be "some kind of
codes which guide and control people and according to which theyare
judged."2
Laws were related to peoples ornations. In other words, each
people ornation had its own specific laws, which were not particularly
valid among other peoples or nations. It is possible that this common
Hellenistic concept smoothed the way forPaul to declare that the Jew
ish law, as the code ofthe Jewish people, was not applicable to Christians,
or at least to gentile Christians.
1S hi f Ch i i id i diff f h f h J h
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118 HARM W. HOLLANDER
In order to confirm this hypothesis or, more in general, to learn
what the apostle's ideas about laws actually were, it may be wise to
analyse Paul's use of the term "law" (). The best strategy to do
this is to examine those letters where the Jewish law as such is no issue
and where there is no trace of a discussion between Paul and his read
ers on the role of the Jewish law and its meaning for the Christian
communities in the Graeco-Roman world. The Corinthian correspond
ence fulfils these conditions very well.
It is a well-known fact that the theme of righteousness or salvation
by faith and not by works of the lawan idea so prominent in Paul'sletters to the Galatians and the Romansis absent in the letters to the
Corinthians. Even in 2 Corinthians, where Paul has to defend himself
against some "super-apostles" who boasted of their Jewish origin and
impressed so many of the Corinthian Christians,3
the Jewish law is not
an issue. Not only do Paul's ideas about the law over against faith in
Jesus Christ not play a part in his letters to the Corinthians, but the
very word for "law," , occurs no more than nine times in 1 Corin
thians and never in 2 Corinthians.4
Moreover, the Greek word for "commandment," , occurs even less: no more than twice in the
Corinthian letters, both times in 1 Corinthians.5
It is quite customary, however, to regard all the occurrences of the
word in 1 Corinthians as references to the Jewish law. In fact,
many scholars are inclined to interpret Paul's use of the term in
his entire uvre as referring to the Jewish law, unless the context makes
it absolutely clear that he is referring to something else.6
Certainly it
is true that Paul himself was a (Christian) Jew. It is also true that theearly Christian communities were groups of Jews and gentiles, and that
some of these groups debated with each other concerning the role of
the Jewish law. But it seems as if these facts have made scholars7
think
3See 2 Cor 10-12, esp 11 5,13, 12 11
41 Cor 9 8-9,20, 14 21,34, 15 56 In addition, the word appears as a vana
lectio in 1 Cor 7 39, where it is undoubtedly introduced by a scnbe (or scribes) under
the influence of the parallel phrase in Rom 7 2 Finally, for companson, the word is used 74 times m Romans and 32 times in Galatians5
1 Cor 7 19, 14 37
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 119
that for Paul and his readers the Greek word automatically required
the Jewish law to be its referent; only in the second place might
refer to something other than Jewish law.
But is the assumption that in the Pauline letters the Greek word
first of all refers to the Jewish law and only in the second place
to anything else really plausible? Paul and his readers in Corinth and
in other Pauline communities were Greek-speaking people, men and
women who lived in a world that was imbued with the Graeco-Roman
(Hellenistic) culture. For such people, the word could have differ
ent referents.8
From the situation, the context in which the word was
used, people understood which referent was meant. That is, of course,
nothing new: all words receive their meaning from the context in which
they are used. The same is true in the case of the Greek word for "law."
It could refer to different things: for instance, to the law in general, to
a particular national legal code, to the law of nature or the law of God,
or to some kind of universal law or custom.9
This should make us cau
tious about assuming a priori that the Jewish law is the primary referent
of the word in the Pauline letters; especially in Paul's first letter
to the Corinthians, where there is no discussion at all about the role
of the Jewish law in the Christian community. A detailed analysis of
the passages in 1 Corinthians where the Greek word for "law" is used
will demonstrate that Paul understood and used the term in a
rather broad, unspecific sense, and that he relatively often referred to
legal codes other than Jewish law.
2. 1 Corinthians 9:8-9
The first passage in which the word occurs is 1 Corinthians
9:8-9. In chapters 8 and 10 of his first letter to the Corinthians Paul
of in the Pauline letters as references to the Jewish law, where, as he must admit,
it cannot be shown from the immediate context (see, e.g., his interpretations of 1 Cor.
14:34 and 15:56 on pp. 71-72).8
Even (non-Christian) Jewish authors not always use with the Jewish law as its
referent: see, e.g., Josephus, Anqmtates Judaicae 4,322; 16,277; Contra Apwnem 2,172; Philo,De Abrahamo 135; De vita Mosis 1,300; De ebnetate 47; 141-143; 193; 195; 198.
9
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120 HARM W. HOLLANDER
gives a description of the limits of Christian freedom.10
For Christian
freedom certainly has its limits: it is care for othersabove all care forone's fellow Christians, the members of the Christian communitythat
determines Christian ethical life, not freedom or the power to live as
one desires.
In verses 9:1-23 Paul gives an example from his own life and conduct
in order to illustrate the Christian ethical behaviour he is advocating.11
He, too, is "a free man," even an apostle, but in some circumstances
he prefers to give up his freedom in order to reach a higher goal. In
this passage Paul speaks about his apostolic right () to materialsupport from the Christian communities. After a brief introduction (w.
1-5) and the mentioning of the theme of the whole passage (v. 6), he
gives several arguments for this right to support (w. 7-23). But at the
same time Paul declares that he has voluntarily abstained from this
right (v. 12b and v. 15a) in order to be free and independent.12
It was
this attitude which made it possible for Paul "to win" so many people
for the Gospel of Jesus Christ.13
In v. 7 the apostle mentions, first of all, three examples of peoplewho may expect to be sustained by their own labours: "Who at any
time pays the expenses for doing military service? Who plants a vine
yard and does not eat any of its fruit? Or who tends a flock and does
not get any of its milk?"14
Paul's argument is clear: just like soldiers,
farmers, and shepherds, apostles should expect to be sustained, namely,
by the people who have become Christians due to their efforts. The
three examples are obviously taken from everyday life, "drawn from
commonplace realities."15
Or, in the words of the aposde himself in
10For the notions of "freedom" () and "the power to live as one wants
to" () in Paul's letters and m the Graeco-Roman world of his days, see esp
F StanleyJones, "Freiheit" in den Briefen des Apostels Paulus (Gottingen Vandenhoeck &
Ruprecht, 1987) and S Vollenweider, Freiheit ab neue Schpfung Eine Untersuchung zur
Eleuthena bei Paulus und in seiner Umwelt(Gottingen Vandenhoeck & Ruprecht, 1989)11 For some recent studies on the structure and coherence of 1 Cor 8-10, see
J Delobel, "Coherence and Relevance of 1 Cor 8-10," in The Connthian Conespondence(ed R Biennger, BETL 125, Leuven University Press/Uitgevenj Peeters, 1996) 177-190, and J F M Smit, "1 Cor 8 1-6 A Rhetorical Partum A Contnbution to the
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 121
v. 8a, they are instances "on a human level ( )";16
that is,
things that just happen within a human society, things that are custom
ary and accepted among men and in keeping with human standards
or manners.17
In w . 8-10 Paul goes on with more arguments for his apostolic right
to material support. This time, however, he does not refer to common
place realities that take place in human societies, to unwritten customs,
but to "the law": " . . . Does not the law also say the same?" (v. 8b).
Then he continues by referring to a passage from "the law of Moses,"
namely, Deuteronomy 25:4: "You shall not muzzle an ox while it is
treacling out the grain" (v. 9).18
Since God is not concerned for oxen but
speaks for the sake of humanity (w. 9c-10a), Paul concludes that the
O T commandment is meant to tell us that "whoever plows should plow
in hope and whoever threshes should thresh in hope of a share in the
crop" (v. 10).19
This means that ploughers and threshers, too, may
expect to be sustained by their labours, which is another argument for
Paul to show the Christians in Corinth that aposes, including Paul him
self, have the right of material support from the Christian communities.Thus, the two sets of examples in v. 7 and w. 8-10 are wholly inline with each other, both being illustrations of the same argument.But whereas the first example is an illustration "on a human level," thesecond is taken from "the law," or, more specifically, from "the law ofMoses." The formulation in v. 8 suggests that Paul is thinking of acontrast between the different levels from which the instances are drawn,
16
NRSV renders here "on human authority," but that elicits only one aspect of theoriginal wording.17 For such a use of the expression , cf. 1 Cor. 3:3; 15:32; and esp.
Gal. 3:15.18
On the wording of this quotation, which differs slightly from the LXX version of
Deut. 25:4, see esp. Chr.D. Stanley, Paul and the Language of Scripture. Citation Technique
in the Pauline EpistlesandContemporary hterature (SNTS Mon. Ser. 69; Cambridge: University
Press, 1992) 195-6.19
These words, printed in italics in the Nestle-Aland edition of the NT, are certainly
not a quotation from the O T or another source, but form Paul's own conclusion from
Deut. 25:4, quoted by the apostle in v. 9. Nowhere in Paul's letters is ("it was
wri tten") used to introduce an OT quotation; instead, it follows upon a quotation an d introduces its applications for "us" now (cf. 1 Cor. 10:11 and Rom. 15:4; Ro m. 4:23-24 is
e ception since the erb in 23 refers back to the cited passage in 3 and the
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122 HARM W. HOLLANDER
or rather of a climax: after the illustrations "on a human level" he
introduces another illustration on a higher level in order to convince
his readers. This higher level turns out to be "the law."20
It is only after the rather general reference to "the law" that Paul
quotes a specific passage from "the law of Moses," the law once given to
the people of Israel by Moses, their famous forefather.21
Most scholars
think that "the law" in v. 8 refers to the OT Scriptures in general and
that "the law of Moses" in v. 9 has the Pentateuch as its referent; or
they are of the opinion that both clauses refer to the Pentateuch. All
of these scholars consider the fuller formula in v. 9 to be an indication
for the correctness of their interpretation. But in the first place, Paul
"does not usually appeal to the OT by this designation";22
that is, he
does not normally refer to the OT in general as "the law" (v. 8). And
in the second place, it is rather awkward to mention first "the law"
and to refer next to "the law of Moses" when you have exactly the
same thing in mind. Is it, then, not more plausible that Paul refers in
v. 8 to the written legal codes that were in vogue in so many regions
of the Roman empire, and that in v. 9 he gives a quotation from "the
law of Moses" as a specimen of these laws?23 If this is true, Paul refers
in this passage first to some commonplace realities and next to the law
in general ( ), that is, to the (written) codes (= ) that are
found in all sorts of cultures and among all kinds of nations.24
Finally,
in order to prove his statement that "the law also says the same" (v 8),25
2 0The Greek sentence is without any doubt somewhat awkward 8a expects a neg
ative answer (see the particle at the beginning of the clause), whereas 8b expects
a positive answer, and the ("or also"), which joins the two clauses, recommends
the latter (cf Rom 4 9) Its general sense, however, is clear "Are there only arguments
on a human level for the things I am saying? Or does not the law say the same?" Cf
G D Fee, Connthians, 405, note 4621
Th e expression "the law of Moses" ( [] ) is unique in Paul's
oeuvre It is found seven times elsewhere in NT (Luke 2 22, 24 44, John 7 23, Acts
13 39, 15 5, 28 23, Heb 10 28) and is taken over from Jewish tradition in which Moses
was regarded as the great "lawgiver" of the Israelites (see, e g , 3 Ezra 8 3, Tobit 6 13,
7 13, and already Josh 8 31-32 [9 2], 2 Chron 23 18, Mai 4 4 [3 22], etc)22
So rightly G D Fee, Connthians, 406, who mentions as (possible) exceptions 1 Cor
9 8 and 14 21,34 He seems to forget Rom 3 19, which is another (possible) exceptionSee also below
2 3So also M Winger L 71
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 123
he quotes a passage from a particular law, viz. "the law of Moses,"
which he, as a Jew, knows best.26
According to w. 9c-10a, it is God who is speaking in or through
the law of Moses. For Paul as a Jew, this was self-evident. But even
in pagan literature we find the view that Moses, as the lawgiver of the
Jews, wrote down his laws in obedience to what his god told him.27
For Moses was one of the famous lawgivers of old who were thought
to have been inspired by God when they wrote down their laws.28
All this makes it wholly understandable that Paul, as a Hellenistic
Jew and Christian living in the Graeco-Roman culture, could refer first
to "the law" in general, and next to "the law of Moses" as a specimen of
a larger class of national laws, given by a God-inspired man, Moses,
to the people of Israel (or the Jews).29 This means that in 1 Cor. 9:7-10
Paul wants to make clear to his readers that it was not only in keeping
with human standards or (unwritten) manners that people might expect
to be sustained by their labours, but that on a higher, a divine level,
"the (written) law" in general and "the law of Moses" in particular
ordained the same thing. From this he concludes that apostles as well
have the right of material support, but that he himself voluntarily
abstained from this right.
ten code, is quite common. It is found particularly in passages where the author (or
orator) wants to make out a case for something or someone. See, e.g., Plato, Respublica
451 B; 604 B; Leges 959 B; Aristotle, Rhetonca I 15,12 (1375 B); Demosthenes, Contra
Macartatum 55; Contra ^charem 67; Hyperides, Oratio in Aihenogenem 13; Plotinus, Ennead
III 2,9; Libanius, Oratio 33,15; Philo, Quoddetenus potion insidian soleat159 (referring to
Gen. 12:7); Quod Deus immutabilis sit 99 (referring to Deut. 1:43-44); and cf. Rom. 3:19and 7:7. On 1 Cor. 14:34, see below.26 One may compare this with a modern sentence such as the following: "Life in the
city is quite noisy; in the city of Amsterdam, for instance, there live almost a million people,
and the cars, buses, trains, and trams are running day and night."27 See, e.g., Diodorus Siculus 1,94,2, ". . . and among the Jews Moyses referred his
laws to the god who is invoked as Iao" (text and trans. C.H. Oldfather in LCL); 40,
3,3-8; Strabo, Geographia 16,2,35-39. Most of their ideas on the role of Moses as the
lawgiver of the Jews were taken from the writings of Hecataeus of Abdera and, above
all, from the works and ideas of the Stoic philosopher Posidonius. Cf. J. Malitz, Die
Historien des Poseidonios (Zetemata 79; Mnchen: Oscar Beck, 1983) 302-323.
28 Cf. Plutarch, Numa 4,7 (Vitae par. 62 D), "Is it worthwhile, then, if we concedethese instances of divine favour, to disbelieve that Zaleucus, Minos, Zoroaster, Numa,
and Lycurgus who piloted kingdoms and formulated constitutions (
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124 HARM W. HOLLANDER
3. 1 Connthians 9:20-22
Paul's main objective in abstaining from the apostolic right of material supportthe central theme of 1 Corinthians 9and in proclaim
ing the Gospel "free of charge" (v. 18) is to become and to remain free
and independent (v. 19; cf. v. 1). This freedom and independence made
it possible for Paul to adjust himself to all sorts of circumstances and
to be God's missionary among all kinds of people. Thus, "he made
himself a slave to all," "he became all things to all people," in an at
tempt to "win more of them" or to "save some" (w. 19 and 22).30
In w . 20-22a the apostle Paul gives three instances of the chameleonlike conduct he showed in his missionary activities. The first kind
of social setting, in which he proclaims the Gospel of Jesus Christ and
in which he adapts himself to local conditions, is encountered when
he finds himself among Jews: "To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order
to win Jews" (v. 20a). In the entire context there is not the slightest
trace of a discussion on the role of Jews and gentiles in the mixed
Christian communities. Paul mentions the Jews ( ) here as
one of the (two) groups from which the early Christians were recruited.
The other group, of course, was the gentiles. In the next verse Paul
turns to them, referring to the gentiles as "those outside the law."31
Since chapters 8-10 deal with the limits of Christian freedom, it seems
evident that Paul mentions the Jews here because they were submitted
to dietary laws and other laws which might be regarded as commands
that restrict one's freedom. Like many Corinthians, the apostle is a sup
porter of "the freedom in Jesus Christ," but he wants to show his read
ers that among Jews he "behaves like a Jew," voluntarily giving up his
freedom and submitting to the (food) laws of the Jewish people. That
is, he does this as long as he is among Jews and only for the sake of
something more important than Christian freedom, viz. the salvation
of some of them.
What Paul meant in v. 20a, he explicates in v. 20b, where he speaks
30Cf also F S Jones, Freiheit, 46 On these verses, see esp S C Barton, '"All Things
to All People' Paul and the Law in the Light of 1 Connthians 9 19-23," in J D G
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 125
of people "under the law": "To those under the law I became as one
under the law (though I myself am not under the law) so that I might
win those under the law." The people "under the law" are, in view of
the immediate context, without any doubt the Jews;32
in this case "the
law" () refers here to the Jewish law, the law of Moses.33
Paul's
readers most probably understood it this way also, but only because
v. 20b was preceded by v. 20a.
Thus, as Paul argues in v. 20, when he is among fellow Jews, he
adapts himself to their customs and laws, although as a Christian he
is a free man who does not fall under the law of Moses. For Paul,
Christianity means "a new way," which implies that the law of Moses
has no authority over him. Nevertheless, due to particular circum
stances, the apostle gives up his freedom and accepts the authority of
the Jewish law, but only in order to "win" or "save" some of his Jewish
companions.
In v. 21 the apostle describes his conduct among gentiles: "To those
outside the law I became as one outside the law (though I am not free
from God's law but am under Christ's law) so that I might win those
outside the law." The context makes clear that "those outside the law"
refers to the gentiles, people who are not under the law ofMoses.,34
This means that, when Paul is among gentiles, he does not accept the
authority of the Jewish law and is, for instance, "non-kosher."35
Since the Greek term for "outside the (Jewish) law," , is
ambiguousit usually means "outside any law," "lawless"Paul hastens
to say that he is not "outside the law" in the latter sense of the word.36
Like every Christian, he is "under the law of Christ," .
The governing principle in his life or in that of Christians in general
32Th e formulation "(those) under the law" ([] ) is not used in a nega
tive sense but quite neutrally, referring to people, i.e. the Jews, who live in accordance
with their national laws, i.e. the law of Moses (cf. Rom. 6:14-15; Gal. 4:21).3 3
Th at the word is used here without the definite article is not an argument
against the interpretat ion of "law" as the law of Moses. In the letters of Paul, but
also elsewhere, is used with or without the article with no apparent difference
in meaning (so also, e.g., B.L. Martin, Chnst and the Law in Paul [SupplNovT 62;Leiden-New York-Kobenhavn-Koln: Brill, 1989] 21-22). Moreover, in prepositional
phrases the article can appear or be omitted without any apparent difference in mean
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126 HARM W. HOLLANDER
is not a law pertaining to a particular people or nation, for instance,
the Jewish law, but "the law of Christ" (Gal. 6:2) or the obedience to
"the commandments of God" (1 Cor. 7:19). Christians should live
according to the will of God and should "abound in love for one
another and for all" (1 Thess. 3:12).37
Finally, in v. 22a, Paul mentions another social setting in which
he proclaims the Gospel and adapts himself to local conditions: "To
the weak I became weak, so that I might win the weak." Again, the
apostle emphasizes that concern for the salvation of other people is of
more importance than one's freedom. Paul voluntarily abstains fromthis freedom and prefers to be weak in order to save the weak.38
4. 1 Connthians 14:21
In 1 Cor. 12-14 Paul deals rather extensively with the spiritual gifts
( ), which were held in high esteem by a number of
Corinthian Christians. In a reaction to their feelings about these gifts
and in an attempt to correct them, Paul points to the virtue of loveas the greatest gift and as "a still more excellent way" (12:31-13:13).
Finally, in chapter 14, he contrasts two particular spiritual gifts, viz
glossolalia and prophecy.
In verses 14:20-25 Paul describes the impressions of both glossolalia
and prophecy on outsiders and unbelievers. When they see people
speaking in tongues, they will think that they have gone mad; but when
they are faced with people who are prophesying, they will realize that
they find themselves in a community of believers.39
In order to persuade his readers, the apostle quotes a passage from the OT, viz. Isa.
28:11-12.40
From this text he concludes that "strange tongues" and glos
solalia are things that are proper for unbelievers and, consequently,
that prophecy is proper for real Christians.41
For our subject it is impor-
37Cf Rom 13 8-10, Gal 5 14, 6 2, and also 1 Cor 13 This rather general com
mand which forms the content of the law that governs Chnstian life may be compared
with the (equally vague and general) content of "the law of na tu re " presented by the
sage Cf J W Martens, "Ro mans 2 14-16 A Stoic Reading," NTS 40 (1994) 55-67,
esp 67, note 49
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 127
tant that Paul introduces the OT quotation with the phrase "In the
law it is written.. . ." The term "law" refers, of course, to the Jewish
law, or better: to the Scriptures. The formula "it is written ()42
certainly facilitated the Corinthians' interpretation of the word in
this sense.
As in 9:9 the reference to a passage found in "the law" is meant to
add force to the argumentation. Even though in Paul's opinion the
Jewish law or the law of Moses as the written code of commandments
and customs that constituted the Jewish way of life did not need to be
imposed on gentile believers,43
the Scriptures remained for him and
other Christians a holy book and "an oracular witness to Jesus Christ."44
5. 1 Corinthians 14:34
The comparison between prophecy and glossolalia in the first half
of chapter 14 is followed by a passage in which Paul argues for order in
the assembly (w. 26-40). Any disorderly behaviour should be avoided.
In this context the aposde urges women to "be silent in the churches,"
not "to speak" or to ask questions, but to "be subordinate" and to "ask
their husbands at home" (w. 33b-36). Because these verses seem to
contradict earlier statements about the role of women in the Christian
community, especially 11:2-16, many scholars resort to interpolation
theories and only a few attempt to interpret the text as it stands.45
sion. He simply mentions the outsider's or unbeliever's different reactions to people whoare speaking in tongues ("you are out of your mind") and to those who are prophesy
ing ("God is really among you"): the outsider or unbeliever will consider glossolalia to
be something insane and prophecy to be something divine.4 2
Cf. 1:19,31; (2:9); 3:19; 10:7; 15:45.4 3
See, e.g., Gal. 3:19,23,25; Rom. 10:4.4 4
Cf. R.B. Hays, "Three Dramatic Roles. The Law in Romans 3-4," in J.D.G. Dunn
(ed.), Paul, 151-164, esp. p. 163: "One function of the Law, thenperhaps its most
important function for Paulis to point forward to the coming of Christ and to God's
intent to call Jews and Gentiles together into a community that simultaneously confirms
the fidelity of God and glorifies God for his mercy."4 5
See the commentaries, ad be, and most recently C. Niccum, "The Voice of theManuscripts on the Silence of Women: Th e External Evidence for 1 Cor. 14.34-5," NTS
43 (1997) 242 255 Niccum comes to the conclusion that "no extant MS offers evidence
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128 HARM W. HOLLANDER
When the text in its present form is analysed, however, several obser
vations become apparent. First, the passage about the silence of women
fits quite well into the immediate context, where the order in the assem
bly is at stake. Moreover, it fits equally well into the larger unit of dis
course.46
Secondly, the situation described in our passage is different
than the one described in 11:2-16. In the latter passage Paul forbids
women "to pray" or "to prophesy" with their heads unveiled, irrespec
tive of the location where they find themselves. The situation is quite
different in 14:34-35. Here, the apostle forbids women "to speak" in the
assembly, that is, to interfere with what is going on there.47
"Chattering"
by women in the midst of the assembly should be avoided.48 Conse
quently, there do not seem to be decisive arguments against Pauline
authorship of w . 33b-35.
The author (Paul) gives four arguments why women should be silent.
First, it is customary in all other churches that women do not talk in
the Christian assembly. Secondly, women should be subordinate. Thirdly,
in the event that they want clarification about something, women should
ask their husbands at home. And fourthly, it is shameful for women to
speak in church. The third argument is in fact an admonition to women
to speak about divine matters with their own husbands at home, which
is, of course, quite easy to put into practice. The first argument is a ref-
erence to what is habitual in other local churches. Its intention is to help
the Corinthians realize that they are a part of the world-wide church
of Jesus Christ.49
The other two arguments are references to the nature
of things or the natural feeling ("it is shameful. . .")5 0
and to what is
customary in human society ("they . . . should be subordinate").
Thus, according to Paul, nature as well as society provide us with argu
ments for a prohibition of women's speech in the Christian assembly.
One of the reasons why women should be silent is that, as was men
tioned above, they "should be subordinate," viz. to their husbands. This
attitude of subordination reflects quite well the Hellenistic ideas about
the role of women in household and society. The notion that the wife
had to be submissive to her husband was (almost) generally taken for
46So also, e g , C D Osburn, "Th e Interpretation of 1 Cor 14 34-35," Essays on
W i E li Ch i ti it 1 ( d C D O b J li C ll 1993) 219 242
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 129
granted.51
In order to convince his readers, the apostle Paul refers to
this general feeling, adding at the same time that "the law also says
so" ( ). His argument here seems to follow more or less
the same line as his argument in 9:7-8. There, too, he tried to per
suade his readers by mentioning some unwritten customs and the law.
The examples from both custom and law were introduced as illustra
tions of the same argument. Something similar seems to be the case
in 14:34. As one of the reasons why women should be silent in the
Christian assembly in Corinth, the apostle refers to what is custom
ary in the Graeco-Roman society, viz. that women are subordinate
to their husbands. He goes on to say that "the law" directs the same.
This time, however, he does not quote a passage from a specimen
of "the law," for instance, the Jewish Law (or Scriptures), to illustrate
his argument as he did in 9:9.52
He only appeals to "the law," sug
gesting that "the law," too, mentions women's subordination to their
husbands.
But to what law does the term "the law" refer in 14:34? Most scholars
think that the author is appealing to the Jewish law, or more precisely,
the Jewish Scriptures. Th e difficulty, of course, is the fact that the O T
does not say a word about the subordination of women. Even Gen.
3:16, a passage which is the closest parallel to our verse, has a com
pletely different wording53
and can hardly have been the text Paul had
in mind when he wrote his words about women in 1 Cor. 14:34-35.
Of course, Paul could have been thinking of "the spirit" of the Jewish
law. According to its (Jewish) interpreters, the law of Moses teaches
the inferiority of women to men.54
But if this explanation of Paul's
51See, e.g., Plutarch, Coniugaha praecepta 33 {Mor. 142 E), "If they (= women) subor
dinate themselves () to their husbands, they are commended... control
ought to be exercised by the ma n over the wo man . . . " (text and trans. F.G. Babbitt
in LCL); cf. further, ofcourse, Eph. 5:24; Col. 3:18; 1 Tim. 2:11; Tit . 2:5; 1 Pet. 3:1,5.
See also C. Vatin, Recherches sur k manage et la condition de h femme mane l'Epoque helln-
istique (Paris: de Boccard, 1970), esp. pp . 200-201; and A. Standhartinger, Das Frauenbdim Judentum der hellenistischen eit. Ein Beitrag anhand von 'Joseph und Aseneth' (AGAJU 26;
Leiden-New York-Koln: Brill, 1995), esp. pp. 59-76.52 The fact that Paul appeals to "the law" without quoting a particular text is usedby G D Fee as one of the arguments against Pauline authorship of w 34 35 (see G D
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130 HARM W . HOLLANDER
thinking is true, it is the only place where Paul appeals to the inten
tions of the Jewish law by such a general designation. It is very doubt
ful that his (gentile) readers in Corinth would have understood the
Pauline phrase this way. The deadlock may be solved when we assume
that "the law" in v. 34 does not (exclusively) refer to the Jewish law,
but to the law in general or to the laws that are found in so many
cultures and among so many nations in the Graeco-Roman world
more or less comparable with its use in 9:8. Thus, Paul does not refer
to one particular law, but to the laws that one may find in each coun
try, nation, or city. For all laws of that time reflected the (Hellenistic)ideas about the (inferior) role of women in household and society.55
And though these laws did not usually mention explicitly that "women
should be subordinate",56
they contained all kinds of commandments
concerning, for example, marriage, divorce, household, and business
which were the results of the general feeling of the inferiority of women.
This general feeling in the Graeco-Roman world, which found expres
sion in many "customs" and other human (unwritten) manners, pro
vided a basis for many of these commandments.
57
In an attempt to persuade his readers to prohibit women from speak
ing in the Christian assembly, Paul was surely correct in referring to
"the law" in general. Of course, he might have thought of the Jewish law
in particular, but only because he was a Jew and was most acquainted
with that particular code. But the reference itself is to the law in general.
And it was most probably understood this way by Paul's readers in
Corinth.
trans. H. St. J. Thackeray in LCL); however, (the passage is suspected by some scholars on the basis of the NT parallels); Philo, De opifcio mundi 167.
55 See also above (and note 51).56 That is, of course, the reason why Paul does not quote a particular passage from
a specimen of "the law," as he did in 9:8-9.57 For such a use of , referring to socially accepted practices or feelings reflectedin laws and commandments, cf., e.g., Plato, Respubhca 604 B, "The law, I suppose,
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTH IANS 131
6. 1 Corinthians 15:56
The last occurrence of in 1 Corinthians is found in 15:56. Thisverse is certainly one of the most problematic verses in the letters of
Paul. It stands almost at the end of Paul's long treatise on the resur
rection of believers at the end of time. It is undoubtedly meant to
underline the role and power of death in human life and to show the
people in Corinth that the triumph over death will not be achieved
until the parousia of Jesus Christ. In a recent article,58
J. Holleman and
the present author have made an attempt to understand the verse "in
the context of Paul's communication with the Christian believers in thecommunity of Corinth and not primarily from what is said in other
Pauline letters." This means that we do not regard 1 Cor. 15:56 as "a
brief compendium of Paul's theology as to the relationship of sin and
the law to death,"59
which he worked out in more detail in his letters
to the Galatians and to the Romans; neither do we start from the
rather common interpretation of as the Torah or the Jewish law.
Instead, we argued "that both the connection between death and sin
and the connection between sin and law are to be understood against
the background of Hellenistic popular philosophy."60
As to the first connection, the relationship between death and sin
as it is expressed by the phrase "the sting of death is sin" (v. 56a), Paul
introduced a well-known Jewish Hellenistic idea, which he linked up
with the Greek concept of the degeneration of mankind.61
The notion
that death "came through a human being," viz. the first man Adam
(1 Cor. 15:21-22), was a common Jewish Hellenistic conception. Since
the times of Adam, death has been an active power in the life of man
kind, and, as Paul argues in 1 Cor. 15, it will remain so until the end
of time (v. 26).
In our verse Paul speaks about "sin" ( ) as "the sting of
death" ( ).62
In other words, sin is the means by
which the power of death injects, as it were, mortality in man. Although
Adam's transgression of God's command was the origin of mortality,
Paul recognized as well that whenever a human being sins, he incurs
the same punishment Adam once received, viz. mortality. That is: all
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132 HARM W. HOLLANDER
humans are mortal because all humans sin. Humans do not sin as a
result of hereditary sinfulnessthis conception was strange to Paul and
otherJewish or early Christian writersbut because of the fallen nature
of mankind due to the degeneration of human culture or society. This
concept of a degeneration of human society was widely current in the
Hellenistic world.63
Jewish authors like Philo were acquainted with it,
and there is nothing against assuming that Paul, too, was familiar with
this concept. From Paul's view, the present was (still) an age of sin and
death, only to be overcome by the parousia of Jesus Christ.
Paul's rather pessimistic view on the miserable state of humanity,
which he shared with many of his contemporaries,64
is underlined once
more by the last words of 1 Cor. 15:56b, "and the power of sin is the
law." In 1 Cor. 15 the Jewish law is not an issue at all, so that we
may conclude that the word "law" in v. 56 most probably refers to
something other than the Torah. This conclusion is all the more rein
forced by the fact that the terms "death" and "sin" in the same verse
are used generally and refer to universal powers. This makes it plau
siblethat the reference here, once again, has to do with the law in
general, or to the (written) laws that are found in all sorts of cultures
and among all kinds of nations.
The fact that Paul connected "sin" and "the law" as closely as he
does in v. 56b has, first of all, to do with a depreciation of laws in the
Graeco-Roman world of his days.65
According to many Hellenistic
authors, especially the Cynics and Stoics, (written) lawsin particular
all those laws that were found all over the world since the famous and
God-inspired lawgivers of old had diedwere associated with negative aspects of human life and were regarded as an imperfect means
to regulate society. Most of them turned out to be obstacles to true
6 3On this so-called idea of Ursprung undEntartung, developed in particular by the Stoic
philosopher Posidonius, see H W Hollander - J Holleman, "Relationship," 278 and
284-28664
See, e g Dio Chrysostom, Orationes 13,13, "And the opinion I had was that pretty
well all men are fools, and that no one does any of the things he should do, or con
siders how to rid himself of the evils that beset him and of his great ignorance and
confusion of mind, so as to live a more virtuous and a better life, but that they all are
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TH E TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 133
righteousness, since, as man-made products of common human opin
ion, they were often in conflict with nature or the unwritten law of
nature. In other words, laws were evidence of humanity's inborn wicked
ness and were hardly able to correct humanity's behaviour. Therefore,
many (Cynic) philosophers rejected laws and human conventions and
tried to live what they considered to be a life in harmony with nature;
free, independent, and self-sufficient.66
Paul, however, does not only mention "sin" and "the law" in v. 56b
as two symptoms of the miserable state of mankind. In his view "the
law" is "the power of sin", the means by which "sin" operates in the pre
sent age. "Sin" obtains its power and dominion over men from the very
existence of "the law."67
For Paul, this seems to mean that, even though
since the first man Adam all human beings are sinners because of the
depravity of mankind, the laws have not turned out to be a means to
improve men's behaviour; rather, they have contributed to the rein
forcement of sin. Laws do not only make people realize that they act
badly,68
but they stimulate people to sin as well.
All this leads to the conclusion that 1 Cor. 15:56 serves as a short
aside on the role and power of death in human life: death will not be
overcome until the end of time, until the parousia of Jesus Christ.
Intending to point out to his readers the permanent dominion of death
6 6Their opinion on laws is expressed fairly well in Lucian, Demonax59, ". . . that in
all likelihood the laws were of no use, whether framed for the bad or the good; for the
latter had no need of laws, and the former were not improved by them" (trans. A.M.
Harmon in LCL). See further, e.g., Diogenes Laertius 6, 63. 71-72; Maximus Tyrius,Dissertationes 6,5; Epictetus, Dissertationes I 13,5; IV 1,158; 7,17; Dio Chrysostom, Oratwnes
76,4; 80,4; Plutarch, Solon 5,2-3 {Vitae par. 80 F-81 A); Ps. Heraclitus, Epistuk 7; Ps.
Diogenes, Epistuk 28.6 7
This aspect of the relationship between "sin" and "the law" is somewhat under
estimated in H.W. Hollander - J. Holleman, "Relationship."6 8
For when there are no laws, there is no instance to show people up as sinners.
See, e.g., G.D. Fee, Connthians, 806, "The relationship of law to sin is that the former
is what gives the latter its pow er . . . the law . . . makes sin observable as sin. . . ." Cf.
Rom. 4:15b and 5:13b, passages which can be best explained as statements about the
role of laws in general and their relationship to men's sins: in these verses is thus
generic. Elsewhere in Romans, Paul applies this idea directly to the Jewish law, namely,in 5:20 ("But law came in, with the result that the trespass multiplied") and 7:7 ("if it
h d t b f th l I ld t h k i ") O thi M Wi
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134 HARM W. HOLLANDER
over men and to make them realize that they still lived in an "age of
anxiety," Paul referred to both the power of "sin" and "the law," and
their close relationship to "death." Death as well as sin characterize
the present age and the fallen state of mankind. "The law," viz. the
human and written laws that are found in all sorts of cultures and
among all kinds of nations, belongs to the old order as well. It is hardly
able to improve humanity's behaviour; on the contrary, it reinforces
sin, thus contributing to man's death. Again, in this verse the refer
ence is to the law in general, not to a particular law, the Jewish law
for instance.
7. Conclusion
The analysis of the five passages in 1 Corinthians where the word
occurs has led us to the conclusion that the Jewish law does not
seem to be the primary or the only referent of the word in this par
ticular letter. The Greek word for "law" could have, like so many other
words, different referents. From the context in which the word was
used, people understood which referent was meant.
Nevertheless, there are a few instances in 1 Corinthians where
does refer to the Jewish law; namely, in 9:9, 9:20, and 14:21. In 1 Cor.
9:20b, "those under the law" are without any doubt the Jews, since
the phrase is parallel with "the Jews" mentioned in v. 20a. This phrase
stands over against "those outside the law" in v. 21, which refers to the
gentiles, those who are not under the law of Moses. In 1 Cor. 14:21
Paul quotes Isa. 28:11-12 whereby the OT quotation is preceded by
the phrase, "In the law it is written. . . ." Here, "the law" obviously
refers to the Jewish law or, better yet, to the Jewish Scriptures. These
Scriptures remained for Paul, as for other Christians, a holy book and
a witness to Jesus Christ. Another reference to the Scriptures as the
holy book of Jews and Christians is found in 1 Cor. 9:9, where the
apostle quotes Deut. 25:4. This time, the quotation is introduced as a
passage or a command from "the law of Moses."
More interesting, however, is the fact that in 1 Cor. 9:8-9 "the lawof Moses" is most likely mentioned as a specimen of "the law" in gen
l h i l f h ( i ) l h f d
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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 135
passage, "the law" is introduced as a rather weak instrument. Although
it was intended to improve humanity's behaviour, it only contributes
to the reinforcement of sin; "the law" belongs together with the powerof sin and the power of death to a world that is passing away.
As a man living in the Graeco-Roman world, Paul regarded the law
of Moses, the Jewish law, as a written legal code that pertained to a
particular people or nation, i.e. the Jews.69 As one belonging to the
Christian movement, the aposde rejected the law of Moses as an author
ity in his life and in the lives of his fellow Christians, though the holy
Scriptures remained for him an important witness to Jesus Christ and
to a new society in which there is "no longer Jew or Greek,. . . slave
or free,. . . male and female."70 Instead, Paul viewed himself as being
"under the law of Christ" (1 Cor. 9:21), a law that centres on the obe
dience to "the commandments of God" (1 Cor. 7:19) in general, and
the love for one another in particular.
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^ s
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