105/BIO 105 F 20… · Web viewDirections for Use. Read the correct answer for each question,...

Biology 105 – Human Biology

Midterm Exam 2 Part 1

Session 2016Sections

Class LocationDays / Time

Instructor

Fall69003 4 Units2210 / 2030T Th 800 AM – 920 AM LECT 930 AM – 1220 PM LABRIDDELL

Fall69007 4 Units2210 / 2030T Th 800 AM – 920 AM LECTh 930 AM – 1220 PM LABRIDDELL

This is an example of questions, identifications and matching exercises at the level of an introduction to A&P.

Directions for Use. Read the correct answer for each question, statement. Then restate the question or statement incorporating the correct answer in a complete sentence. Repeat it to yourself verbally / audibly 3 X’s. Then go to the next question. See Example 1.

1. GENERAL ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY

1. Characteristics of most living organisms include the ability to [Mark all that apply]A) repair and completely restore itself during any type of injury.B) respond and adapt to their environment.C) control the external environment.D) reproduce and developE) grow and exhibit traits based on their genetics.

2. 2) The waste products of metabolism are eliminated through the process ofA) assimilation.B) absorption.C) excretion.D) digestion.E) resorption.

3. 3) All of the chemical operations underway in the body refer toA) systemic physiology.B) special physiology.C) cell physiology.D) metabolism.E) physiological chemistry.

4. 4) Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of humans?A) Nutrients are absorbed directly from the environment.B) Excretion involves movement across exposed surfaces.C) Body cells must travel to one part of the body for nutrients and to another for waste product removal.D) Excretion is a simpler process than it is in smaller organisms.E) Respiration is more complicated than it is in very small organisms.

5. 5) Surface anatomy is a topic in the study ofA) systemic physiology.B) cytology.C) histology.D) cell physiology.E) macroscopic anatomy.

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6. 6) Studying all the superficial and internal features in one specific area of the body is called

A) gross anatomy.B) surface anatomy.C) systemic anatomy.D) regional anatomy.E) surgical anatomy.

7. 7) The study of function is to ________ as the study of form is to anatomy.A) physiologyB) histologyC) microscopic anatomyD) systemic anatomyE) cytology

8. 8) The study of cells and cellular structures is calledA) gross anatomy.B) cytology.C) histology.D) organology.E) microbiology.

9. 9) Which of the following involves the study of events focused at the molecular level?A) pathological physiologyB) systemic physiologyC) cytologyD) histologyE) cell physiology

10. 10) The study of body structure is called ________.A) physiologyB) homeostasisC) anatomyD) positive feedbackE) negative feedback

11. 11) The branch of biological science that deals with how the liver functions is called ________.A) endocrine physiologyB) histologyC) adrenal anatomyD) hepatic cytologyE) renal physiology






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12. 12) Which specialty of anatomy focuses on the function and structure of the heart, blood, and blood vessels?

A) morphologyB) cardiologyC) cytologyD) histologyE) renology

13. 14) A cardiologist studies the human body mainly with an approach resembling

A) gross anatomy.B) surface anatomy.C) microscopic anatomy.D) systemic anatomy.E) regional anatomy.

14. 15) Which of the following is considered connective tissue?A) bloodB) heartC) peritoneumD) basement membraneE) mitochondrion

15. 16) A collection of cells that work together designates a(n)A) chemical.B) organ.C) tissue.D) organ system.E) molecule.

16. 17) Which of the following is the simplest level of organization?A) cellularB) chemicalC) organD) systemE) tissue

17. 18) The heart, blood, and blood vessels combine to form which of the following?A) a group of cellsB) an organ systemC) the smallest level of organizationD) an organE) an individual living entity

18. 19) Contractile protein fibers of the heart are considered to belong to which level of organization?A) tissue






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B) organismC) cellularD) chemicalE) organ

19. 20) Which of the following is an accurate description of the cellular level of organization?A) Cells consist of two or more different tissues working together to perform specific functions.B) Cells are considered to be the largest living units in the body.C) Cells are comprised of different molecules that interact to form larger structures, each type of which has a specific function.D) Cells combine to form molecules with complex shapes, which determine their function(s).E) Cardiac muscle is an example of the cellular level of organization.

20. 21) The fact thata single defective protein causes cystic fibrosis, a multisystemic illness, proves thatA) all organisms are composed of cells.B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent.C) chemical molecules make up cells.D) all cells are independent of each other.E) congenital defects can be life threatening.

21. 22) The production of another human organism is the function of which of the following systems?A) skeletalB) reproductiveC) respiratoryD) lymphoidE) cardiovascular

22. 23) Coordinating the activities of other organ systems in order to direct immediate responses to stimuli is characteristic of the

A) integumentary system.B) endocrine system.C) nervous system.D) cardiovascular system.E) None of these is correct.






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23. 24) The trachea and lungs are components of theA) endocrine system.B) digestive system.C) respiratory system.D) urinary system.E) lymphoid system.

24. 25) The pituitary and thyroid glands are components of theA) endocrine system.B) cardiovascular system.C) respiratory system.D) lymphoid system.E) digestive system.

25. 26) Gas exchange is a function of theA) cardiovascular system.B) lymphoid system.C) respiratory system.D) urinary system.E) endocrine system.

26. 27) Which structure(s) is/are a component of the digestive system?A) pituitary glandB) ligamentsC) urethraD) arteriesE) liver

27. 28) Covering, protection, and thermoregulation are functions of which organ system of the human body?A) integumentaryB) muscularC) skeletalD) nervousE) endocrine

28. 29) The thymus is associated with which organ system?A) nervousB) lymphaticC) digestiveD) urinaryE) endocrine






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29. 30) Which of the following is characteristic of the endocrine system?A) It releases chemical messengers called neurotransmitters.B) It produces a more rapid response to body changes than the nervous system.C) It can produce effects that last for days or longer.D) It can produce an effect that involves only one tissue at a time.E) It is an important thermoregulatory system.

30. 31) What is/are the primary function(s) of the skeletal system?A) protection from environmentB) internal transport of materialsC) support, protection, and mineral storageD) delivery of air for gas exchangeE) locomotion and heat production






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Figure 1-1 The Organ Systems of the Human Body

Use Figure 1-1 to answer the following question(s)






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31. 32) Which organ system is labeled #1?A) nervous systemB) reproductive systemC) integumentary systemD) lymphatic systemE) muscular system

32. 33) What is(are) the function(s) of the organ system labeled #3?A) help control body temperatureB) provides support; produces heatC) provides support; protects tissues; stores mineralsD) directs immediate responses to stimuliE) defends against infection and disease

33. 34) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the spleen is to theA) lymphatic system.B) urinary system.C) digestive system.D) cardiovascular system.E) muscular system.

34. 35) A structure that senses change is called a(n) ________.A) stimulusB) receptorC) effectorD) integration centerE) control center

35. 36) The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions with respect to the external environment is called ________.

A) integrationB) internal regulationC) responsivenessD) homeostasisE) external regulation

2. CHEMISTRY

36. 9) Which of the following elements is found in all organic molecules?A) nitrogenB) oxygenC) ironD) carbonE) copper






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37. 10) Atoms of the same element have the same number of ________ but may have a different number of ________.

A) protons; electronsB) electrons; protonsC) electrons; neutronsD) neutrons; electronsE) protons; neutrons

38. 16) Combinations of atoms that contain two or more different elements are calledA) molecules.B) compounds.C) mixtures.D) isotopes.E) None of these are correct.

39. 29) The term that applies to all of the composition reactions that occur in metabolism is ________.A) anabolismB) dehydration synthesisC) catabolismD) ionizationE) homeostasis

40. 30) Reactions that ultimately result in larger molecules formed from smaller ones are called ________ reactions.A) hydrolysisB) reversibleC) exergonicD) dissociationE) synthesis

3. THE CELL

41. 1) The smallest living things areA) proteins.B) organ systems.C) tissues.D) organs.E) cells.

42. 2) The intracellular fluid inside a cell is known asA) cytosol.B) protoplasm.C) extracellular fluid.D) cytoplasm.E) a colloidal gel.






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43. 3) Which of the following describes the four basic concepts of cells?A) cell theoryB) Darwinian theoryC) cell cycleD) mitotic theoryE) theory of differentiation

44. 4) Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?A) Cells are the basic structural unit of life.B) Tissues are the site of control.C) Organelles are the basic functional unit of life.D) Cells are produced by meiosis.E) Cells are immortal.






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4. HISTOLOGY

Can you complete this classification of tissues?

ConnectiveFibrous

LooseAdipose

45. AreolarReticular

DenseElasticIrregularRegular

SupportiveCartilage

ElasticFibro

46. HyalineBone

CompactSpongy

FluidBlood

Cells47. Erythrocytes

LeukocytesPlatelets

PlasmaLymph

48. MuscleCardiacSkeletalSmooth

49.NervousNeurogliaNeurons

EpithelialSimple

ColumnarCiliatedNon Ciliated

CuboidalSquamous

StratifiedCuboidal

50. ColumnarSquamous

KeratinizedNon Keratinized

PseudostratifiedTransitional






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51. 1) Which of the following is one of the four main types of tissue?A) glandularB) cardiacC) serousD) epithelialE) skeletal

52. 2) Collections of specialized cells and cell products that perform a specific function are

A) cellular aggregates.B) tissues.C) organs.D) organ systems.E) cellular strata.

53. 3) The study of tissues is called ________.A) systemic physiologyB) pathologyC) cell physiologyD) cytologyE) histology

54. 4) The tissue type in the body that stores energy is ________ tissue.A) epithelialB) connectiveC) muscleD) nervousE) contractive

55. 20) Which of the following accounts for most of the volume of connective tissues?A) blood vesselsB) lipid moleculesC) carbohydratesD) cellsE) extracellular matrix






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Figure 4-3 Epithelial Tissue Use Figure 4-3 to answer the following question

56. 21) Identify the type of epithelial tissue shown in the figure.A) simple squamousB) stratified squamousC) pseudostratified ciliated columnarD) simple cuboidalE) transitional

57. 22) Flattened cells on the surface of an epithelial tissue are characteristic of ________ epithelia.A) squamousB) ciliatedC) columnarD) transitionalE) cuboidal

58. 23) The type of epithelium that is found in the exchange surfaces of the lungs isA) simple squamous.B) stratified squamous.C) simple cuboidal.D) stratified cuboidal.E) transitional.

59. 24) Which of the following is a correct statement about stratified epithelia?A) They afford little mechanical protection.B) They are characteristic of regions where secretion or absorption occurs.C) They line only internal compartments and passageways.D) They cover surfaces that are subjected to mechanical or chemical stress.E) They are vascular.






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60. 31) Which of the following is a type of connective tissue?A) muscle tissueB) nervous tissueC) bone tissueD) simple squamous tissueE) glandular tissue

61. 32) The connective tissue fiber type that can be stretched, and then returns to its original length, is calledA) collagen.B) elastin.C) actin.D) myosin.E) fibrin.

62. 33) The cell that accounts for almost half of the volume of blood is theA) red blood cell.B) leukocyte.C) platelet.D) thrombocyte.E) megakaryocyte.

63. 36) Connective tissue structures that attach muscles to bone are calledA) mast cells.B) tendons.C) ligaments.D) cartilage.E) nerves.

64. 37) Which of the following is a supportive connective tissue?A) cartilageB) bloodC) adipose connective tissueD) dense connective tissueE) areolar connective tissue

65. 41) Which connective tissue type provides insulation?A) dense regular connective tissueB) fluid connective tissueC) adipose tissueD) dense irregular connective tissueE) areolar tissue






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66. 61) Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.A) cartilage B) nervousC) epithelialD) connectiveE) muscle

67. 62) The muscle tissue without striations is ________ muscle.A) skeletal B) smoothC) cardiacD) voluntaryE) multinucleated

68. 63) The muscle tissue that contains intercalated discs is ________ muscle.A) skeletalB) smoothC) cardiacD) voluntaryE) multinucleate

69. 64) ________ cells are specialized for contraction.A) EpithelialB) NeuralC) MuscleD) Connective tissueE) Glandular

70. 65) The muscle tissue that contains very large, multinucleate cells is ________ muscle.A) skeletalB) smoothC) cardiacD) voluntaryE) multinucleate

71. 66) Which tisue is found in the walls of blood vessels, and in digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive organs?

A) skeletal muscleB) striated muscleC) intercalated muscleD) smooth muscleE) cardiac muscle






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72. 73) Which type of tissue contains neuroglial cells?A) connectiveB) epithelialC) muscleD) neuralE) squamous

73. 74) Cells of neural tissue that support the tissue are calledA) neuroglia.B) neurons.C) fibroblasts.D) adipocytes.E) mast cells. 6. SKELETAL SYSTEM

74. 1) Which of the following primary functions of the skeletal system applies to the role of bone marrow?A) supportB) storageC) protectionD) blood cell productionE) movementAnswer D 6-1

75. 2) Red bone marrow functions in the formation ofA) adipose tissue.B) new bone.C) blood cells.D) osteoblasts.E) osteocytes.Answer C 6-1

76. 3) Regulatory functions of the skeletal system includeA) maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids.B) absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements.C) facilitating transmission of nerve impulses.D) cushioning abdominal organs such as the kidneys.E) contracting muscles.Answer A 6-1






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77. 4) Which of the following is an example of the skeletal system's primary function of providing structural support?A) Calcium salts are found in bone.B) Bones change the magnitude and direction of the forces generated by skeletal muscles.C) Red marrow fills the internal cavities of many bones.D) The skull encloses the brain.E) Individual bones provide a framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs.

78. 5) The primary function of ________ is exemplified when bones function as levers.A) supportB) protectionC) movementD) storageE) blood cell productionAnswer C 6-1

79. 6) Bone cells capable of dissolving the bony matrix are termedA) chondrocytes.B) osteons.C) osteoclasts.D) osteocytes.E) osteoblasts.Answer C 6-2

80. 7) Immature, active bone cells that produce new bone matrix are termedA) osteocytes.B) stem cells.C) osteoblasts.D) osteoclasts.E) chondrocytes.Answer C 6-2

81. 8) Osseous tissue is classified as which of the following?A) neural tissueB) nonstriated muscle tissueC) connective tissueD) epithelial tissueE) striated muscle tissueAnswer C 6-2

82. 9) Narrow sheets of calcified matrix are referred to as






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A) osteons.B) canaliculi.C) lamellae.D) osteoclasts.E) central canals.

10) Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony rods or plates calledA) trabeculae.B) osteons.C) lamellae.D) canaliculi.E) perforating canals. 11) The connective tissue covering the outer surface of a bone is (the)A) matrix.B) osteon.C) periosteum.D) endosteum.E) articular cartilage.

12) The bones of the limbs are classified asA) short bones.B) long bones.C) flat bones.D) sesamoid bones.E) irregular bones.

13) Which of the following is found only in compact bone?A) trabeculaeB) canaliculiC) osteoblastsD) osteonsE) marrow

14) The medullar cavity of a long bone is lined with ________.A) periosteumB) endosteumC) lacunaeD) lamellaeE) osteon

15) The shaft of a long bone is called the ________.A) epiphysisB) trabeculaC) canaliculus






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D) diaphysisE) lamella

16) Tarsal bones are classified as ________ bones.A) longB) flatC) shortD) irregularE) sesamoid

38) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?A) the skullB) the manubriumC) the sternumD) the scapulaE) the vertebrae 39) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?A) clavicleB) patellaC) carpal bonesD) ribsE) coxal bones

40) The appendicular skeleton contains ________ bones.A) 80B) 206C) 126D) 64E) 62 44) The atlas is classified as a ________ vertebra.A) thoracicB) lumbarC) sacralD) cervicalE) cccygeal 45) Ribs that are connected to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions are called ________ ribs.A) falseB) trueC) floatingD) vertebrochondralE) sternal






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46) The coronal suture is the boundary between which bones?A) frontal and parietalB) frontal and nasalC) frontal and sphenoidD) parietal and temporalE) nasal and vomer

47) Bones of the skull that articulate with the nasal bones include (the)A) temporal bone.B) ethmoid bone.C) zygomatic bone.D) sphenoid.E) maxillary bone.

50) The bone that makes up the lower jaw is theA) mandible.B) maxillary.C) zygomatic.D) temporal.E) cribriform plate. 51) Which of the following curves develops as a child begins to stand and walk?A) lumbarB) thoracicC) sacralD) cervicalE) cervical and sacral

52) The vertebral column contains ________ cervical vertebrae.A) 4B) 5C) 7D) 12E) 31 53) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae.A) 4B) 5C) 7D) 12E) 31






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54) Humans have ___ ribs.A) 2B) 6C) 10D) 12E) 24

55) The coccyx is typically composed of ________ fused vertebrae.A) 1-2B) 3-5C) 6-7D) 7-8E) 9-11

56) The maxillary bones articulate with all other facial bones except the ________.A) zygomatic bonesB) palatine bonesC) vomerD) ethmoid boneE) mandible

57) Bones encased within the temporal bone that are involved in sound detection are calledA) optic bones.B) external acoustic meatus.C) internal acoustic meatus.D) auditory ossicles.E) crista galli. 59) True ribs are directly connected to the sternum by ________.A) articular cartilagesB) costal cartilagesC) costal facetsD) sternal ligamentsE) costal ligaments






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60) Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called ________.

A) false ribsB) floating ribsC) vertebrosternal ribsD) true ribsE) vertebrochondral ribs

66) The primary / accommodating curves of the vertebral column are theA) cervical and lumbar.B) cervical and thoracic.C) cervical and sacral.D) thoracic and sacral.E) thoracic and lumbar. 66) The secondary / compensatory curves of the vertebral column are theA) cervical and lumbar.B) cervical and thoracic.C) cervical and sacral.D) thoracic and sacral.E) thoracic and lumbar. 71) The hyoid boneA) serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx.B) provides a site for the attachment of muscles that rotate or extend the head.C) marks the point of articulation with the lower jaw.D) contributes to the nasal septum.E) is the attachment point for the temporalis muscle.

74) The C1 vertebra forms a pivot joint with the C2 vertebra through a projection called the ________.

A) transverse processB) pedicleC) densD) spinous processE) superior articular process






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83) Functions of the curves of the vertebral column include which of the following?A) aligns the body's weight in line with the body axisB) aligns the weight of the trunk over the arms onlyC) shifts the weight of the trunk forwardD) increases the ability to extend the limbsE) keeps the vertebral column straight and rigid

96) The ankle consists of ________ tarsal bones.A) twoB) fiveC) sixD) sevenE) eight 97) The clavicle articulates with theA) manubrium.B) ribs.C) humerus.D) body of the sternum.E) cervical vertebrae.

100) The coxal bone forms by the fusion of which components?A) the obturator, ilium, and acromionB) the ilium, ischium, and pubisC) the ala, ilium, and capitulumD) the acetabulum, femoral head, and pubisE) the sacrum, coccyx, and acetabulum

101) The pectoral girdle consists of theA) clavicle and humerus.B) clavicle, scapula, and humerus.C) clavicle and scapula.D) clavicle, scapula, and sternum.E) scapula and humerus. 106) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where theA) scapula articulates with the ribs.B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium.C) humerus articulates with the rib cage.D) scapula articulates with the clavicle.E) The appendicular skeleton and the axial skeleton have no direct connections.






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107) Posteriorly, the coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joints.A) sacroischialB) symphysealC) intervertebralD) sacroiliacE) sacrohiatal

108) The bones of the wrist form the ________.A) tarsusB) brachiumC) manusD) os coxaeE) carpus 115) Which coxal bone feature supports the body's weight when one is sitting?A) ischial tuberosityB) iliac crestC) pubic symphysisD) obturator foramenE) pubic tubercle

120) Compared with the pectoral girdle, the pelvic girdle is

A) not as firmly anchored to the axial skeleton.B) comprised of more massive bones, which are adapted for weight bearing.C) composed of more separate bones.D) more flexible and freely movable.E) structurally identical.

121) The bones of the pelvisA) are bones of the axial skeleton only.B) are bones of the appendicular skeleton only.C) include portions of both axial and appendicular elements.D) include two prominent sesamoid bones.E) are connected anteriorly at the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by an interosseous membrane.

122) Compared with the male pelvis, the female pelvis has aA) larger pelvic outlet.B) relatively broad, high pelvis.C) relatively narrow, high pelvis.D) narrower pubic angle.E) smaller pelvic outlet






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144) A movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is termedA) inversion.B) abduction.C) adduction.D) flexion.E) extension.

145) The special movement of the thumb that allows it to grasp an object and hold onto it is calledA) rotation.B) opposition.C) circumduction.D) eversion.E) retraction. 147) Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that decreases the angle between articulating bones is which movement?A) flexionB) hyperextensionC) elevationD) retractionE) protraction

150) A movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane isA) abduction.B) flexion.C) extension.D) rotation.E) adduction. 152) ________ is a movement that occurs in the anterior-posterior plane and increases the angle between the articulating bones.A) EversionB) FlexionC) ElevationD) RepositionE) Extension

157) The movement of turning around the longitudinal axis of the body or a limb toward the ventral surface of the body is called medial ________.A) adductionB) rotationC) inversionD) supinationE) circumduction






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CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM BLOOD

3) The process of blood clotting is an example of which function of blood?A) stabilizing body temperatureB) transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastesC) defending against toxins and pathogensD) regulating the pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids throughout the bodyE) restricting fluid losses at injury sites 6) Blood is approximately ________ percent plasma by volume.A) 46-63B) 37-54C) 12-33D) 25-39E) 99.9

7) Plasma and interstitial fluid account for most of the volume of ________ in the body.A) serumB) lymphatic fluidC) whole bloodD) extracellular fluidE) packed blood 10) Red blood cells result from the process od sequential _______divisions of multipotent stem cells.A) hemocytopeniaB) mitosisC) meiosisD) differentiationE) progenitor cells

11) In adults, the stem cells responsible for the production of red and white blood cells originate primarily in theA) liver.B) thymus.C) spleen.D) red bone marrow.E) yellow bone marrow.






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12) The average life span of a red blood cell is aboutA) 10 daysB) 60 days.C) 120 daysD) almost a yearE) about ½ of a year

13) The function of hemoglobin is to

A) bind and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.B) protect the body against infectious agents.C) aid in the process of blood clotting.D) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells.E) absorb and neutralize the acids generated by active tissues. 14) ________ are the most abundant cell population of the formed elements of blood.A) ErythrocytesB) PlateletsC) NeutrophilsD) LymphocytesE) Monocytes

18) Red blood cell production is stimulated directly byA) TestosteronB) AndrogensC) ErythopoeitinD) IronE) Growth Hormone

25) Which disease is characterized by defective hemoglobin that results from a mutation affecting the amino acid sequence of one pair of the globular proteins of the hemoglobin molecule resulting in stiff, markedly curved red blood cells?A) sickle cell anemiaB) thalassemiaC) hematuriaD) jaundiceE) aplastic anemia 29) A hemoglobin molecule containsA) three protein chains, four heme groups, and two iron ions.B) two protein chains, two heme groups, and four iron ions.C) four protein chains, two heme groups, and two iron ions.D) four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron ions.






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E) four protein chains, six heme groups, and two iron ions. 36) A person's blood type is determined by theA) Genes that specify presence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane of the white blood cells.B) shape of the red blood cells.C) chemical character of the hemoglobin.D) Genes that specify presence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane of the red blood cells.E) number of specific molecules on the plasma membrane.

37) Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples ofA) surface antibodies.B) channel proteins.C) leukocytes.D) surface antigens.E) agranulocytes.

38) AgglutininsA) are surface antigens on RBCs.B) prevent blood clotting.C) are substances that can trigger a protective defense mechanism called an immune response.D) are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type.E) contain abundant stained "granules."

39) Type AB blood containsA) A agglutinins on the red blood cells.B) agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B.C) B agglutinogens on the red blood cells.D) B agglutinins in the plasma.E) agglutinin A and B.

40) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum and anti-Rh serum, but not with the anti-B serum. This meansA) Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion.B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood.C) Bill is Rh-negative.D) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O negative red blood cells.E) Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies.

41) Which of the following is an agranulocyte?A) erythrocyteB) basophil






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C) neutrophilD) eosinophilE) monocyte

42) The primary function of white blood cells is toA) remove carbon dioxide from active cells.B) clump together and stick to the blood vessel walls.C) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.D) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.E) help defend the body against infectious organisms.

IIdentify the following

Photomicrograph of White Blood Cells Choices

1. Basophil

2. Eosinophil

3. Lymphocyte

4. Macrophage

5. Monocyte

6. Neutrophil

13 CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM VESSELS

1) The muscular layer of blood vessels is the






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A) tunica intima.B) tunica externa.C) tunica media.D) tunica interna.E) tunica adventitia.

2) Thick-walled vessels, which are large and extremely resilient, are called ________ arteries.A) coronaryB) pulmonaryC) elasticD) muscularE) arteriolar

3) The external carotid artery would be classified as an example of a(n) ________ artery.A) anastomoticB) elasticC) conductingD) largeE) muscular

4) The outermost layer of the arterial wall is theA) endothelium.B) tunica intima.C) tunica externa.D) tunica media.E) serosa.

5) The vessels that permit exchange of materials between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluid are termedA) capillaries.B) arterioles.C) arteries.D) venules.E) veins. 14) Why do veins have relatively thin walls?






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A) It allows a typical vein to change the diameter of its lumen.B) It allows a typical vein to be stretched as its diameter increases during ventricular systole.C) A typical vein's wall allows exchange to occur quickly by diffusion across endothelial cells or through gaps between adjacent endothelial cells.D) A typical vein does not need to withstand much pressure.E) There are sphincters associated with the walls of veins, which allow vasomotion to occur. 15) What is the advantage of the small diameter of capillaries?A) It dampens the rise in pressure during ventricular systole.B) It slows blood flow, allowing sufficient time for exchange of materials across capillary walls to occur.C) It absorbs the pressure changes that occur during the cardiac cycle.D) It allows the vessels to overcome the force of gravity.E) It prevents the backflow of blood, improving venous return.24) The term blood pressure refers to the pressure in ________ of the cardiovascular system.A) the venous componentB) the capillary vesselsC) all the vesselsD) the arterial vesselsE) the arteriovenous component

26) The instrument used to measure blood pressure is the ________.A) stethoscopeB) thermometerC) endoscopeD) sphygmomanometerE) hydrostatic pressure cuff 27) As blood travels through the venous system toward the heart, why do the veins become larger in diameter?A) The transition causes the resistance to increase further so that the flow rate of blood increases.B) The transition causes the resistance to drop further so that the flow rate of blood increases.C) The transition causes the resistance to decrease further so that the flow rate of blood decreases.D) The transition causes the resistance to increase further so that the flow rate of blood decreases.E) The transition reflects no change in the resistance, but causes the flow rate of blood to increase.

34) The pressure at which the pulse can first be heard with a stethoscope pressed to the antecubital region corresponds to the ________ pressure.

A) peak systolicB) peak diastolicC) mean arterialD) average pulseE) capillary hydrostatic

40) As blood travels from the aorta toward the capillaries,A) cardiovascular pressure decreases.B) vascular resistance decreases.C) vascular flow increases.






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D) viscosity decreases.E) both cardiovascular pressure and vascular flow increase.

45) Which hormone is released by the kidneys when blood pressure falls or the oxygen content of the blood becomes abnormally low?A) ADHB) ANPC) angiotensin IID) erythropoietinE) renin

61) How do the arteries of the pulmonary circuit differ from those of the systemic circuit?A) They branch more than those of the systemic circuit.B) Their vessels' diameters are narrower.C) The tunic composition of their vessel walls is generally thicker.D) They carry oxygen-poor blood.E) There are valves in the branching arteries of the pulmonary circuit. 67) The ________ divides the aorta into a superior thoracic aorta and an inferior abdominal aorta.A) pericardiumB) mediastinumC) diaphragmD) peritoneumE) pleura68) Near the level of vertebra L4, the abdominal aorta branches to form the

A) common carotid arteries.B) common iliac arteries.C) femoral arteries.D) popliteal arteries.E) tibial arteries. 69) The vessel that receives most of the blood from organs inferior to the diaphragm is theA) internal jugular vein.B) external jugular vein.C) superior vena cava.D) inferior vena cava.E) coronary sinus. 73) The two common iliac veins form theA) femoral vein.B) popliteal vein.C) inferior vena cava.D) lumbar vein.E) great saphenous vein.






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75) The vessel that passes deep to the clavicle and supplies blood to the arm, shoulder, chest wall, back, and spinal cord is called the ________.A) internal thoracic arteryB) vertebral arteryC) thyrocervical trunkD) subclavian arteryE) brachial artery

88) The strong pulse that is felt by pressing gently along either side of the trachea usually indicates the location of the ________.A) internal jugular veinB) vertebral arteryC) external carotid arteryD) vertebral veinE) cephalic vein

94) Surgeons often use segments of the ________ as a bypass vessel during coronary bypass surgery.A) femoral veinB) internal iliac veinC) posterior tibial veinD) popliteal veinE) great saphenous vein

98) The pulse point that is palpated on the lateral wrist is actually the location of which of the following?A) axillary arteryB) radial arteryC) ulnar arteryD) superficial palmar archE) cubital artery






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Name these Vessels, Valves and ChambersIdentify !Idenetify ?Identify @

Identify %Idenetify #Identify $Identify &

Schematic CODE Choices

ABCDE

ABACADAEBCBDBECDCEDE

ABC

Abdominal Inferior Vena CavaAbdominal Superior Vena CavaAortic ArchAortic ValveAscending AortaCoronary ArteryCoronary SinusDescending Abdominal AortaDescending Thoracic AortaDescending Vena CavaHead and neckInterventricular SeptumL AV ValveLower LimbsPulmonary ValveR AV Valve






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ABDABEACD

Thoracic Inferior Vena CavaThoracic Superior Vena CavaUpper Limbs

13. CARDIOVASCCULARSYSTEM HEART

1) The heart AND PERIARDIUM ARE LOCATED WITHIN THE by theA) pleural cavity.B) peritoneal cavity.C) cardiac skeleton.D) mediastinum.E) coronary sinus.

2) The wall between the atria is called theA) ventricle.






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B) coronary sinus.C) coronary sulcus.D) auricle.E) interatrial septum.

3) The loose-fitting sac around the heart is lined by theA) parietal pericardium.B) epicardium.C) endocardium.D) parietal myocardium.E) parietal endocardium.

4) The innermost layer of the heart wall is theA) mediastinum.B) parietal pericardium.C) epicardium.D) myocardium.E) endocardium.

6) Blood returning directly from the systemic circulation enters theA) right atrium.B) right ventricle.C) left atrium.D) left ventricle.E) pulmonary trunk.

7) The tricuspid valve is locatedA) in the opening of the aorta.B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.C) where the vena cavae join the right atrium.D) between the right atrium and right ventricle.E) between the left atrium and left ventricle. 8) The left and right coronary arteries supply blood to the muscle tissue of theA) intestines.B) head.C) brain.D) heart.E) liver.

9) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood directly into theA) superior vena cava.B) inferior vena cava.C) coronary sinus.D) coronary sulcus.E) aorta.






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10) The semilunar valves prevent backflow into theA) atria.B) aorta.C) ventricles.D) pulmonary trunk.E) venae cavae.

11) Blood flowing from the left atrium to the left ventricle flows through the ________ valve.A) aorticB) tricuspidC) pulmonaryD) bicuspidE) papillary

12) Blood from the systemic circulation returns to the heart by way of theA) coronary sinus.B) pulmonary veins.C) venae cavae.D) aorta.E) pulmonary arteries.

14) The right atrium receives blood from the systemic circuit and pumps it to the ________.A) aortaB) left atriumC) right ventricleD) pulmonary trunkE) muscle tissue of the heart wall

15) The heart is surrounded by the ________ cavity.A) peritonealB) valvularC) cardiacD) coronaryE) pericardial

18) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from all parts of the body except the lungs.






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A) pulmonaryB) coronaryC) systemicD) systolicE) diastolic

19) The muscle layer of the heart is the ________.A) epicardiumB) myocardiumC) endocardiumD) visceral pericardiumE) endothelium

20) ________ permit the exchange of nutrients, dissolved gases, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues.A) VeinsB) ArteriesC) Arterial trunksD) CapillariesE) Vena cavae

21) The right ventricle pumps blood to theA) left atrium.B) left ventricle.C) lungs.D) systemic circuit.E) right atrium.

24) The first blood vessels to branch from the pulmonary trunk are theA) pulmonary arteries.B) bronchial arteries.C) circumflex arteries.D) carotid arteries.E) subclavian arteries.

25) The primary function of the venae cavae includes which of the following?A) return blood to the right atriumB) pump oxygenated blood into circulationC) remove excess fluid from the heart chambersD) anchor the heart to surrounding structuresE) prevent expansion of the heart






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26) The atrioventricular valve on the left side of the heart is often called theA) tricuspid valve.B) cuspid valve.C) mitral valve.D) pulmonary valve.E) aortic valve.

27) Which of the following indicates the start of the systemic circuit?A) pulmonary trunkB) pulmonary arteriesC) vena cavaeD) ascending aortaE) cardiac veins

28) The semilunar valve of the left side of the heart prevents backflow from theA) aorta.B) pulmonary trunk.C) pulmonary veins.D) right ventricle.E) left ventricle.

30) The function of an atrium is toA) collect blood returning to the heart.B) pump blood to the lungs.C) pump blood into the systemic circuit.D) prevent the movement of blood back into the ventricles.E) stabilize the position of the heart valves.

31) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to theA) heart.B) lungs.C) brain.D) kidneys.E) pancreas.

34) Atrioventricular valves prevent backflow into theA) ventricles.B) atria.C) venae cavae.D) aorta.E) pulmonary trunk.






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39) The right and left coronary arteries originate at the ________.A) aortic sinusesB) coronary sinusC) pulmonary trunkD) marginal arteryE) fossa ovalis1

40) If valve function deteriorates such that the heart cannot maintain adequate circulatory flow, symptoms of ________ appear.A) mitral valve prolapseB) carditisC) coronary artery diseaseD) rheumatic feverE) valvular heart disease

42) Deoxygenated blood is carried away from the right ventricle byA) venules.B) veins.C) arterioles.D) capillaries.E) arteries.

43) The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from theA) pulmonary trunk.B) pulmonary veins.C) aorta.D) inferior vena cava.E) pulmonary arteries.

44) In ________, the cusps of the bicuspid valves do not close properly.A) mitral valve prolapseB) valvular heart diseaseC) ventricular stenosisD) myocardial infarctions






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E) aortic sinuses

45) When the ventricles are relaxed, the ________ are loose and there is no resistance to the flow of blood from atrium to ventricle.A) auriclesB) chordae tendineaeC) papillary musclesD) trabeculae carneaeE) aortic sinuses

46) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart.1. right atrium2. left atrium3. right ventricle4. left ventricle5. vena cavae6. aorta7. pulmonary trunk8. pulmonary veinsWhat is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation?A) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6D) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6E) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6

70) Which of the following is greatest during left ventricular systole?A) the pressure in the ventricleB) the pressure in the aortaC) the pressure in the left atriumD) the pressure in the arteriesE) the pressure in the right atrium 71) The first heart sound ("lubb") is produced as the atrioventricular valves ________ and the semilunar valves ________.A) open; closeB) close; openC) open; openD) close; closeE) The actions of the valves do not contribute to the heart sounds.

72) Following are events that occur during the cardiac cycle.1. Ventricular pressure increases and exceeds pressure in the arteries.2. Ventricles fill passively.3. Atrial relaxation begins.






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4. Atrial contraction forces a small amount of additional blood into relaxed ventricles.5. Pressure in ventricles drops and blood flows back against cusps of semilunar valves, forcing them closed.6. Ventricular contraction pushes AV valves closed.Choose the correct order of events in the cardiac cycle.A) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5B) 2, 4, 3, 6, 1, 5C) 3, 6, 1, 5, 4, 2D) 2, 5, 1, 6, 3, 4E) 4, 3, 6, 1, 5, 2

19. REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM MALE & FEMALE

1) In adult males, the testes secrete ________.A) estrogensB) androgensC) FH and GnRHD) progesteroneE) LSH and FH

2) The female gonad is called a(n) ________.A) vestibuleB) fallopian tubeC) vaginaD) clitorisE) ovary

3) The primary organ(s) of the male reproductive system is(are) the ________.A) prostateB) testesC) bulbo-urethral glandsD) epididymisE) glans

4) What is the function of the gonads?A) secrete fluids into the reproductive system ducts or other excretory ductsB) connect the uterus with the exteriorC) receive and transport the gametesD) produce the gametes and hormonesE) enclose and support a developing embryo






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5) Maturing spermatozoa are stored primarily in theA) seminiferous tubules.B) straight tubules.C) lobules.D) interstitial areas.E) epididymis.

6) Slender, tightly coiled tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a maze of passageways called theA) epididymis.B) ductus deferens.C) rete testis.D) efferent ducts.E) ejaculatory ducts.

8) Undifferentiated spermatogenic stem cells are calledA) spermatogonia.B) spermatids.C) primary spermatocytes.D) secondary spermatocytes.E) sperm.

9) Interstitial cells produceA) sperm.B) FSH.C) nutrients.D) testosterone.E) androgen-inhibiting protein.

10) Sperm production occurs in theA) ductus deferens.B) seminiferous tubules.C) epididymis.D) seminal vesicles.E) rete testis.

11) In spermiogenesis, the small, relatively unspecialized gametes that physically mature are calledA) spermatogonia.B) secondary spermatocytes.C) spermatids.D) spermatozoa.E) nurse cells.






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12) ________ are produced at the end of the meiotic divisions in the seminiferous tubules.A) SpermatogoniaB) Primary spermatocytesC) SpermatidsD) Secondary spermatocytesE) Spermatozoa

14) In males, meiosis involves ________ cycle(s) of cell division and produces ________ cells, or gametes, each containing 23 individual chromosomes.

A) one; fourB) two; fourC) one; sixD) two; twoE) four; four 16) The anterior surface of the flaccid (nonerect) penis covers two cylindrical columns of erectile tissues called (the)A) glans penis.B) prepuce.C) corpus spongiosum.D) corpora cavernosa.E) penile urethra.

17) The portion of erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is theA) prepuce.B) glans.C) corpus spongiosum.D) corpora cavernosa.E) corona radiata.






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18) The ejaculatory duct in males is produced by the junction of the ductus deferens with the ________.A) seminiferous tubulesB) prostate gland ductC) epididymisD) acrosomal capE) seminal gland duct

20) How many spermatids are produced after the completion of meiosis II during spermatogenesis?A) oneB) twoC) fourD) sixE) eight

21) The muscle in the wall of the scrotum is theA) cremaster muscle.B) myometrium.C) dartos muscle.D) detrusor muscle.E) external os. 24) The physical maturation of sperm is called ________.A) meiosis IB) oogenesisC) spermatogonia mitosisD) spermiogenesisE) tetrad formation

28) The hormone responsible for initiating a male's sexual maturation and the appearance of secondary sex characteristics isA) testosterone.B) ICSH.C) FSH.D) LH.E) gonadotropin.29) The tubular gland that produces a secretion that contains fructose, is slightly alkaline, and contributes about 60 percent to the volume of the semen is theA) prostate gland.B) bulbourethral gland.C) corpus cavernosum.D) seminal vesicle.E) preputial gland.






Instructor



30) The role of the pituitary hormone LH in males is toA) stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone.B) stimulate the sustentacular cells to produce inhibin.C) initiate sperm production in the testes.D) develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics.E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive.

31) The pituitary hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis isA) FSH.B) LH.C) ACTH.D) ADH.E) GH.

36) Spermatogenesis beginsA) at puberty.B) during embryogenesis.C) at birth.D) at age 3.E) at age 7.

37) Which anterior pituitary lobe hormone targets the interstitial cells of the testes?A) FSHB) testosteroneC) progesteroneD) GnRHE) LH

38) The following is a list of structures of the male reproductive tract.1 - ductus deferens2 - urethra3 - ejaculatory duct4 - epididymis

The correct order in which spermatozoa pass through these structures from the testes to the penis isA) 1, 3, 4, 2.B) 4, 3, 1, 2.C) 4, 1, 2, 3.D) 4, 1, 3, 2.E) 1, 4, 3, 2. 42) The female structure that is derived from the same embryonic structures as the penis in males is theA) vagina.B) clitoris.C) vestibule.D) labia minora.E) labia majora.






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43) The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics isA) estrogen.B) progesterone.C) LH.D) FSH.E) gonadotropin.

44) The tubular structure of the uterus that projects a short distance into the vagina is called theA) urethra.B) ejaculatory duct.C) cervix.D) perimetrium.E) isthmus.

46) The shallow recess surrounding the cervical protrusion is known as the

A) isthmus.B) fornix.C) fundus.D) body.E) os. 50) The anterior enlargement of erectile tissue in females is known as theA) fornix.B) vestibule.C) hymen.D) clitoris.E) isthmus.

51) The reddish brown skin that surrounds the nipple is called theA) vestibule.B) fornix.C) zona pellucida.D) hymen.E) areola. 52) The process of oogenesis produces ________ viable ovum/ova.A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) eight






Instructor



54) The average length of the uterine (menstrual) cycle is ________ days.

A) 5B) 14C) 20D) 28E) 37

55) During the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, LH levels remain elevated for ________, long enough to stimulate the formation of a functional corpus luteum.A) 5 daysB) 24 hoursC) 7 daysD) 2 daysE) 6 hours 58) Oogenesis beginsA) by age 5.B) at puberty.C) by age 10.D) at birth.E) during embryonic development.

60) The ________ are finger-like projections at the end of the uterine tube.A) internal osB) isthmusC) infundibulumD) fimbriaeE) uterine glands

63) The inner lining of the uterus is called the ________.

A) myometriumB) internal osC) perimetriumD) endometriumE) cervix

64) The largest division of the uterus is the ________.A) vaginaB) body






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C) isthmusD) cervixE) internal os65) Unless fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum becomes scar tissue, which is known as the ________.A) follicular wallB) myometriumC) zona pellucidaD) corona radiataE) corpus albicans

66) The ________ is a layer of follicle cells that surrounds the oocyte on day 14 of a 28-day cycle.A) antrumB) zona pellucidaC) corona radiataD) corpus albicansE) isthmus

67) In females, mammary glands are specialized organs of the ________ system that are controlled by hormones of the reproductive system.A) endocrineB) nervousC) integumentaryD) muscularE) skeletal

68) The first uterine cycle occurs with the ________.A) menopauseB) oogenesisC) climactericD) perimenopauseE) menarche

69) A massive release, or surge, of ________ from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland triggers ovulation.

A) gonadotropinB) FSHC) LHD) estrogenE) progesterone 72) The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is theA) vagina.B) uterine tube.C) ovary.






Instructor



D) uterus.E) cervix.

73) The vaginaA) serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids.B) is homologous to the male scrotum.C) is normally bacteria-free.D) forms the upper portion of the birth canal.E) is lined by an endometrium.

74) MenstruationA) is the process of shedding of tissue until the entire functional zone has been lost.B) cannot occur if uterine inflammation exists.C) usually lasts eight to eleven days.D) usually results in the loss of 500 - 750 ml of blood.E) cannot continue if myometrial contractions occur.

75) Which of the following begins at ovulation and persists as long as the corpus luteum remains intact?A) menarcheB) secretory phaseC) functional phaseD) menstruationE) proliferative phase

76) The ovary does not release a mature gamete. Instead, a ________ is released.A) oocyteB) oogoniaC) primary oocyteD) secondary oocyteE) zygote

77) During the secretory phase of the uterine (menstrual) cycle,A) ovulation occurs.B) a new functional layer is formed in the vagina.C) uterine glands enlarge.D) the old functional layer of the endometrium is sloughed off.E) the corpus albicans releases hormones.

79) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum, which prepares the uterus for pregnancy, isA) LH.B) FSH.C) progesterone.D) estradiol.






Instructor



E) estrogen.

81) The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle continues until rising ________ levels mark the arrival of the secretory phase.A) GnRHB) FSHC) LHD) estrogenE) progesterone 82) Just prior to menses,A) ovulation occurs.B) a new uterine lining is formed.C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium.D) estrogen and progesterone levels drop…a time period that can be dangerous for the male partnerE) the corpus luteum is formed.

83) The increase in FSH that occurs by day 5 of the ovarian cycle triggersA) formation of a tertiary follicle.B) menstruation.C) ovulation.D) menopause.E) pregnancy.

85) Marissa is an avid marathon runner, and she trains incessantly. She has slimmed down so that she is now underweight for her height and has very little fat tissue. One would expect Marissa toA) have heavy menstrual flows.B) ovulate continuously.C) be amenorrheic (have no monthly menstrual flow).D) have painful menstrual cramps.E) show elevated levels of FSH. 88) The process of arousal is under the control ofA) the parasympathetic nervous system.B) the sympathetic nervous system.C) both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.D) the central and parasympathetic nervous systems.

91) The interstitial cells of the testes secrete which reproductive hormone(s)?A) androgensB) FSHC) estrogensD) GnRHE) progestins






Instructor








Instructor



96) The time in which ovulation and menstruation cease is called ________.A) oogenesisB) menarcheC) andropauseD) menopauseE) climacteric

Place a check mark in each column for which the organ or structure listed is anatomically associated

Organ / Structure Male ReproA

Feale ReproB

Male UrinaryC

Female UrinaryD

1. Ovary

2. Urethra

3. Prepuce

4. Prostate

5. Fimbriae

XXX

X

X

X X






Instructor



GREEK LATIN Lexicon Which ones are already familiar to you? Highlight them in your favorite color.

A Without, Not PresentAcros HighestAd TowardAden GlandAdip FatAesthet Sensation, FeelingAlg PainfulAmbi BothAmbul WalkAna Up, BackAndro MaleAngio VesselAnte BeforeAnthro HumanAnti AgainstApo Furthest PointArthro JointAster StarAudi HearingAxi AaxisBaro Pressure, WeightBen GoodBi TwoBlast PrecursorBrachi ArmBrady SlowBrady ShortBronch AirwayBucc CheekBurs PurseCalc StoneCapit HeadCardi HeartCarni Flesh, MuscleCaud TailCens To AssessCent HundredCephal HeadCerebro BrainCervic NeckCess SurrenderChondro Cartilage






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Circum AroundClad BranchClast BrokenClav KeyCoch SpiralCoel HollowCon With, TogetherContra Other SideCopul BondCord RopeCorono CrownCorp BodyCortic BarkCost RibCranio SkullCrib SeiveCric RingCruc CrossCub CubeCura CareCusp PointCycl CircularCyst SacCyt CellDactyl FingerDe[O]Nt ToothDeca TenDendr Tree LikeDesmo BandDexter RightDi Two TimesDia ThroughDigit FingerDist Distance, LongDodec TwelveDuct LeadDys PainfulEcto OutsideEf Away FromEn InEncephalo BrainEndo InsideEpi On, UponErythro RedEthem Seive






Instructor



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Instructor



Inter In BetweenIntra WithinIpsi Self, SameIso EqualIt Is InflammationJac ThrowJugu YokeJuxta Beside, Next ToKaryo Body, KernelKerato HornKino Movekondylos Knuckle

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Beyond






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Metra MeasureMicro SmallMis HateMiss SemdMning MembraneMob MoveMono SingleMorpho FormMort DeathMulti ManyMur WallMyelo MarrowMyo MuscleNecr DeadNeg NoNeo NewNephro KidneyNeuro NerveNict BlinkNigr BlackNihil NothingNoct NightNomin NameNon NothingNov NewNuc NutNutri NourishOculo EyeOd PathwayOen WineOid Like, SameOligo FewOliv OliveOlogy StudyOmni AllOmos ShpulderOnco MassOnt ExistingOo EggOphthalm EyeOps Opto Eye, SeeOpt EyeOptim BestOr Mouth, OpeningOrb Circle






Instructor



Orth StraightOs Osteo BoneOsis ConditionOto EarOv EggPach ThickPalm PalmPara BeyondPariet WallPass Suffer, FeelPathos DiseasePauc FewPector ChestPed FootPedia ChildPenn FeatherPept DigestPer Through, ThoroughlyPeri Around, SurroundPeri ArroundPetr RockPhag EatPhalang Close Formation,

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Instructor



Plexy To Strike, To HitPlur MorePodo FootPoiesis To MakePollic ThumbPoly ManyPost After, BehindPot DrinkPrend GraspPresby OldPriv SeparatePro BeforeProct AnusPropri One's Own PropertyProt FirstPseud Not TruePsych MindPtera WingPulmon LungPulp FlesfPyr FireQuadr FourQuasi As IfRach SpineRadi Beam, SpokeRadic RootRam BranchRe AgainnRect StraightRegul RuleRet NetRetro BackwardRhin NoseRhomb Spinning TopRostr BeakRrhea FlowRudi RoughRumin ThroatSacchr SugarSagitt ArrowSal SaltSan HealthySarco Flesh, MuscleSarco Flesh, MuscleSax Hard






Instructor



Scab ScratchScaph HollowSchis SplitSci KnowScler HardScoli CrookedScop, Scept ExamineScrib WriteScyph CupSect CutSell SaddleSemi HalfSemin SeedSept Fence, PartitionSeptic PutridSequ FollowSerp Creep, CrawlSerr To Saw, To Cut,

Little BladeSess SitSicc DrySimi MonkeySimil ImitateSingu OneSinistr Left SideSinu To Draw A LineSinus Hollow CavitySiph TubeSipi SipSis ConditionSist Cause To StandSol OnlySole AccustomedSoma BodySoma BodySomn SleepSon SoundSoph WiseSord DirtSparse SprinkleSpati SpaceSpect LookSperm SeedSpher BallSphinct Closing






Instructor



Spin ThornSpino SpineSpir BreatheSpondyl VertebraeSquam ScaleStatu StandStell StarSten StandStern Breast BoneStigmat PunctureStimul ExciteStom Mouth, OpeningStoma Mouth, OpeningStruct Build, MakeStyl ColumnStylo Stake, Stick, PoleSub BelowSud SweatSum SumSuper, Supra Above, OverSupin Laying BackSyn TogetherSyring PipeTach SilentTachy Swift, FastTaeni RibbonTag, Ting TouchTard SlowTars AnkleTechn SkillTele CompleteTelo End.Tempor TimeTend StretchTent HoldTenu SlenderTermin Limit, EndTerr EarthTerti ThirdTetr FourThalam ChamberThan DeathThei NippleTherm HeatThym Mood






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Thyr DoorTim AfraidTinct MoistenTomy To CutTon StretchTop PlaceTot AllTourn RotateTox Arrow, And Or BowTrab Beam, SpokeTrachy RoughTract PullTrans Through, AcrossTrapez 4 Sided TableTraum WoundTrema HoleTri ThreeTribu PayTroch WheelTrop TurningTrochle Pulley

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Vesic BladderVeter OldVill Shaggy HairVin WineVis See, VisionVisc ThickViv LiveVoc VoiceVolv RollVom DischargeVor SwallowVulner WoundVulp FoxVuls PullXen ForeignXer DryXiph SwordZo AnimalZyg YokeZym Ferment


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