112012077 2005 Evaluation Questions

Jan. 2005

1. which of the following functional groups are tertiary hydroxyl group

A. ..B. ..C. ..D. ..E. ..

2. which of the following groups have geometrical isomers:

A. Hexane and cyclohexaneB. Pentane and penteneC. Butene and 2-ButeneD. Benzene and hexaneE. Non of the above

3. Which of the following statements concerning cytochrome enzyme are CORRECT?

I. The CYP7, CYP11, CYP27 are cytochrome enzyme responsible for cholesterol metabolism.

II. CYP3A is most common metabolizing enzyme in the body.

III. CYP3A does phase I reductive reactions.

A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above

4. The following statements are CORRECT about a muscarinic antagonist Atropine :

A. Atropine structure contain piperidine a pyridines rings.

B. Piperidine and pyrrolidineC. Pirmidine and pyrrolidineD. Quasi ring structure but not tertiary

amineE. Pyridine and Quasi rings structure.

5. If a structure of drug contain 3 sterogenic centers chiral centers, their will be how many isomers possible for this structure?

A. 8B. 21C. 3D. 2E. 12

6. 1-propanol and 2-propanol they are:

A. Conformational IsomerB. Geometric IsomerC. Constitutional IsomerD. Diasteroisomers IsomerE. Enatiomers Isomer

7. hexane and 2-methyl pentane are:

A. Conformational IsomerB. Geometric IsomerC. Constitutional IsomerD. Diasteroisomers IsomerE. Enatiomers Isomer

8. All the following statements are CORRECT about Enatiomers EXCEPT:

A. Enatiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of another

B. Enatiomers are rotate pan of polarized light in clockwise direction are know as dextrorotatory (D) or (+)

C. Enatiomers have identical physical and chemical properties

PEBC Preparation E.R.L.2005

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D. Enatiomers are rotate plan polarized light in anticlockwise direction are know as levorotatory.

E. 100% mixture of (D) or (L) Enatiomers is called racemic mixture.

9. All of the following statements are CORRECT about Diasteroisomers EXCEPT:

A. Diasteroisomers are neither mirror image no superimposible images

B. Diasteroisomers must contain at least two chiral centers

C. Diasteroisomers differ in properties such as solubility, volatility and melting point

D. Diasteroisomers contain different physical and chemical properties

E. Diasteroisomers contain non superimposible mirror images

10. Conversion of tetracycline to 4-epi tetracycline process in known as:A. IsomerizationB. EpimerizationC. ConversionD. SubstitutionE. Chemical reaction

11. D(+) Lactic acid and L (-) Lactic acid are:

A. DiasteroisomersB. EnatiomersC. Constitutional isomersD. Geometrical isomers E. Stereoisomer

12. Result of restriction around double bond a result in the following isomers:

A. DiasteroisomersB. EnatiomersC. Constitutional isomersD. Conformational isomersE. Geometrical isomers

13. Metabolic reactions that may be affected by a protein deficiency diet include:

I. Oxidative Reaction II. Hydrolysis

III. Glycine Conjugation


14. In amino acid conjugation which of the following reactions are involved:

A. Amino acid + AlcoholB. Amino acid + Amino acid C. Amino acid + GlycineD. Glycine + AlcoholE. Amino Acid + Glutamine

15. Which is strongest Base:A. ----B. ----C. ----D. ---E. ---

16. CYT P450 is :

A. Enzyme B. VitaminC. NeurotransmitterD. CatalystE. Amino acid

17. Where is the hydrolysis occur:A. B. C. D. E.

18. Where is the hydrolysis occur:

A. E


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B. EC. ED. eE. E

19. All the following are metabolic enzymes EXCEPT:

A. CYP 450B. CYP 3A4C. CYP 0D. CYP 1A4E. CYP 2A1

20. All the following are cytochrome enzymes metabolize drug xenobiotics (Biological Product) EXCEPT:

A. CYP 450B. CYP 3A4C. CYP 17D. CYP 1A4E. CYP 2A1

21. Antidepressants are metabolized by:

A. CYP 450 And CYP 1A2B. CYP 3A4 And CYP 1A2C. CYP 2D6 And CYP 1A2D. CYP 1A4 And CYP 1A2E. CYP 2A1 And CYP 1A2

22. Statins are metabolized by:

A. CYP 17B. CYP 1A2C. CYP 3AD. CYP 2A1E. CYP 450

23. Benzodiazepines Are metabolized be:


24. Grapefruit juice inhibit the following enzyme:

A. CYP 17B. CYP 1A2C. CYP 3A4D. CYP 2A1E. CYP 450

25. Smoking induces the following Cytochrome enzyme:


26. Which enzyme does glucourdiation reaction:

A. UDPGAB. .C. .D. .E. .

27. What characteristics of an organic compound allow it to undergo conjugation with glutathione?

A. Electrophilic functional groupsB. C. D. E.

28. Amino acids conjugation involve the following group:

A. Amino acid and glycinB. Amino acid and glutamineC. Amino acidD. Activated amino acid


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E. Amino acid and glutamine

29. Glutamine Conjugation very important in preventing toxicity of variety of drugs, toxic products are excreted as:

A. S-adonozyl transferaseB. Glutamic acidC. Mercaptoric acidD. Amino acidE. Sulfadryl groups

30. which of the following statements about drugs metabolism correct:

A. drug metabolizing enzyme are found only in liver

B. all metabolites are pharmacologically inactive

C. phase I metabolite can cross cell membrane

D. all drugs are catalyzed by cytochromeE. commonly one metabolite is excreted for

each drug administered

31. Imidazoline ring present in the following class of structure:

A. Thiazide diureticsB. COX II inhibitorsC. Direct 2 agonist (Clonidin)D. Direct 1 agonistE. Direct 2 antagonist

32. the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to antihypertensive daiazoxide:

A. ChlorothiazideB. FurosemideC. MannitolD. SpironolactoneE. .

33. The above reaction is :

A. OxidationB. HydrolysisC. ConjugationD. ReductionE. Sulforation

34. To protect integrity of the cell. Which of the following is most important:

A. PhospholipidsB. CYT P 450C. CYT P 410D. Lysosomal EnzymeE. Non of the above

35. Metabolism is enhanced by:

I. Passive reactionII. Excretion

III. Tubular secretion


36. Indol ring:

I. HistamineII. Serotonin

III. Tryptopahn


37. conversion of histidine to histamine is catalyzed be:

I. L.Histidine DecarboxylaseII. L.Histidine Carboxylase

III. L.Histidine Hydoxylase

A. I Only


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B. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above

38. H1 Receptors function on the following symptoms:

I. AllergiesII. Gastric secretion

III. Bronchodilation


39. the following drugs are contraindicated in first trimester of pregnancy:

I. MeclizineII. Cyclazine

III. Cetirizine


40. The following groups are essential for antihistamine pharmacological activity:

I. Aromatic and heteroaromatic rings structure

II. Tertiary amine in structure III. Chain of alkyl group in structure


41. All of the following are side effect of Atropine EXCEPT:

A. Dry mouthB. Urinary retentionC. ConstipationD. Blurred visionE. Diarrhea

42. which of the following drugs decrease stomach acid secretions, Mechanistically blocking of H2 Histamine receptors:

A. Hydroxyzine B. CetrazineC. FluxazineD. OmeprazoleE. Ranitidine

43. Serotonin

A. HistidineB. TryptophanC. DopaD. EpinephrineE.

44. Sumatriptan are medication used in migraine therapy is act on the following receptors;

A. 5HT 1DB. 5HT T2C. 5HT T3D. 5HT T4E. 5HT T5

45. What is HT , 5 HT receptors:

A. Hydroxyl amineB. 5-hydroxyl tryptamineC. 5-hydroxyl tryptophanD. E.


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46. Which of the following is COX II inhibitor:

A. AspirinB. IbuprofenC. CelocoxibD. NalaxoneE. Naltraxone

47. Aspirin is :

I. COX I inhibitorII. COX II inhibitor only

III. COX I and COX II inhibitor


48. All the following re correct side effect of Aspirin EXCEPT:

A. SalicylismB. HemorrhageC. HypoglycemiaD. NauseaE. GI irritation

49. All the following re correct side effect of enteric coated Aspirin EXCEPT:

A. SalicylismB. HemorrhageC. HyperglycemiaD. NauseaE. GI irritation

50. Misopristol CYTOTOEC is used for prevention of NSAID induced ulcers, is classified as:

I. PG III. PG IIIII. PGE1


51. What is the prevention for NSAID induced GI ulcers:

A. OmeprazoleB. ZantacC. MisopristolD. CetrizineE. Calcium hydroxide

52. The following drug is indicated to induce cervical ripening in pregnancy:

A. Latanoprost (Xalatan)B. Travoprost (Travatan)C. Bimatoprost (Lumigan)D. Misopristol (Cytotec)E. Dinoprostone

53. Which of the following PG inhibitors indicated in treatment of open angle Glaucoma?

A. Latanoprost (Xalatan)B. TimololC. Bimatoprost (Lumigan)D. Misopristol (Cytotec)E. Dinoprostone

54. PG Structure contain the following fragment in the structure:

I. Cyclopentane ring contain carbonyl and hydroxyl group

II. Long chain alkyl groupIII. Keto and hydroxyl position indicate

subscript of PG analogs

A. I OnlyB. III Only


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C. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above

55. Which of the following is mechanism of action fro Tylenol (acetaminophen):

A. Revisable PG synthesisB. Inhibits COX I synthesisC. Inhibit COX II synthesisD. Inhibit central PG synthesisE. Irreversible inhibits PG Synthesis

56. Which of the following preparation require only written prescriptions:

A. Tylenol 1B. Tylenol 2C. Tylenol 3D. Tylenol 4E. Tylenol 3 and 4

57. Which of the following preparation require prescriptions:

A. Tylenol 1B. Tylenol 2C. Tylenol 3D. Tylenol 4E. Tylenol 2, 3 and 4

58. Which of the following drugs does not have sulfa allergy?

A. CelecoxibB. AspirinC. SulfamethoxazoleD. HydrochlorothiazideE. Cortimoxazole (TMP/SMX)

59. Which is the mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair)

A. Leukotrines inhibitorsB. LTC4 and LTD4 inhibitorsC. Cyclooxygenase inhibitors

D. 5HT1D inhibitorsE. Antihistamines

60. Nitroglycerines are classified as:

I. NitratesII. Nitrites

III. Nitro group


61. All of the following are propionic acid derivatives EXCEPT:

A. NaproxenB. IbuprofenC. KetoprofenD. Aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid)E. Caprofen

62. Pyrazole ring is present in the following structure:

A. AspirinB. AcetaminophenC. CelocoxibD. IbuprofenE. Ketotofen

63. All the following conditions are essential for thiazide structure:

I. Sulfonamide group benzene ringII. Chloro or trifluromethyl group on

position 6III. Double bond on position 3 and 4

a. I Onlyb. III Onlyc. I and II Onlyd. II And III Onlye. All Of the above


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64. All the following drugs contain sterol in their structure, EXCEPT

A. SpiranolactoneB. EstrogenC. ProgesteroneD. AndrogenE. Stilbesterol

65. Cholesteramine is a:

A. Bile acid resinB. Water insolubleC. Water solubleD. HydrophobicE. Bind to the bile acids in the intestine

66. All of the following are LMWH EXCEPT:

A. EnoxaprinB. DalteprinC. TinzaparinD. AdreparinE. Heparin

67. Which of the following molecular structure contain quinoline structure:

A. WarfarinB. HeparinC. LMWHD. Vitamin KE. Niacin

68. Which phase I Metabolism reoccur in stomach:

A. HydroxylationB. HydrolysisC. OxidationD. ReductionE. Demethylation

69. What is similarity between hemoglobin and Cytochrome P450:

I. HemeII. Same proteins

III. Prophyrin ring


70. All of the following are antiplatelets agent EXCEPT:

A. AspirinB. TiclopidineC. Fab FragmentD. ClopidogrelE. Warfarin

71. Which of the following is produced by biotechnology methods:

I. Fab FragmentII. AltiplaseIII. tPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activators)


72. Which of the following parenteral iron dose form:

A. Ferrous SulfateB. Ferrous GluconateC. Ferrous FumarateD. Iron DextranE. Elemental Iron

73. In the oral treatment of Iron Deficiency anemia, choice of administration of iron is:

I. Elemental IronII. Iron complex form

III. Ferrous Iron


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74. The correct statements about Vitamin B12 :

I. Contain prophyrin ringII. Contain cyanide ion

III. Tetravalent cobalt ion


75. An antienemic agent folic acid contain the following nucleus that bonded to folate enzyme:

I. Pteridine nucleusII. PABA

III. Glutamic acid


76. Folic acid absorbed in:

A. LiverB. GI tractC. TissueD. KidneyE. Colon

77. Folic acid deficiency Causes:

I. Megaloplastic anemiaII. Nurologic impairment

III. Microcytic anemia


78. Lack of cyanocobalamine causes:

I. Megaloplastic anemiaII. Deficiency of Vitamin B12

III. Intrinsic factor


79. Which of the following cardiovascular medications chemically classified as glycoside:

A. DigixinB. WarfarinC. NitratesD. NitritesE. Cholesteramine

80. Avoid the following vitamin while anticoagulants medication:

A. Vitamin AB. Vitamin BC. Vitamin CD. Vitamin DE. Vitamin K

81. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin has the following properties:

I. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II, VII, IX and X

II. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor I, II, IX and X

III. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II, VII, IX and X


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82. Which of the following prolonged the clotting time of both in vivo and in vitro

I. HeparinII. LMWH

III. Warfarin


83. Protamine sulfate is an anticoagulant of heparin because:

A. Chelating actionB. Acid base interactionC. Plasma protein binding displacementD. Inhibits GI absorption of heparinE. Prothrobin like activity of protamine

84. A 38 years old bus operator with history of arrhythmias suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the following is the best choice for his condition:

A. MeclizineB. FexofenadieC. FamotidineD. DiphenhydramineE. Dimenhydrinate

85. Which of the following drug decrease pain associated with GERD without appreciably changing gastric pH:

A. RanitidineB. OmeprazoleC. Any H2 Antagonist

D. CisparideE. Fexofenadine

86. Which of the following bind to Carbonmonoxide

I. HemoglobinII. Myoglobin

III. Cytochrome oxidase


87. Vitamin A is a mixture of :

I. RetinolII. Retinal

III. Retinoic acid


88. The following is precursor of vitamin A:

I. RetinalII. Retinol

III. Carotenoids


89. Which of the following drugs is the isomer of vitamin A:

I. Retinoic acidII. Retinol

III. Isotrentinoin


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90. Type I error (Falls Positive error):

A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is Falls

B. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is true

C. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is falls

D. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is true

91. Influenza season in Canada:

A. Start in November to AprilB. Start in December to AprilC. Start in October to AprilD. Start in September to AprilE. Start in August to April

92. Epidermology studies are carried out in the following categories:

A. Hospital patientB. Certain population and defined

geographical areaC. Pharmacy and patients of defined

geographical areaD. Certain hospital and their patientsE. Hospital doctors and infected

populations

93. All the following activities meet the criteria of primary prevention Except:

A. Tetanus vaccination for teenagersB. Measles / Mumps / Rubella (MMR)

vaccination for first timeC. Pap smear screening D. Sex educationE. .

94. 5 subjects given a single oral dose of drug have the following elimination half lives 4,5,6,6 and 9 hours, the mean half life is :

A. 5.4B. 5.0C. 4.5D. 6E. 10

95. In given data 3,5,7,9 and 7 what is the median:

A. 6B. 7C. 3D. 9E. 5

96. Normal population 99% of values fall within:

A. 3 standard DeviationsB. 2 standard DeviationsC. 1 standard DeviationsD. 4 standard DeviationsE. 5 standard Deviations

97. 5,3,8,5 and 9 days, calculate the mean:

A. 5B. 6C. 7D. 8E. 9

98. For the above Question Median is:

A. 5B. 6C. 7D. 8E. 9

99. For the above question the mode is:

A. 5


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B. 6C. 7D. 8E. 9

100. What is the standard deviation of the following numbers 3,5,4 and 8:

A. 5B. 2.1C. 8D. 51E. 10

101. 20, 23, 24, 26 and 28 standard deviation is 5 what is the percent of coefficient variation

A. 24B. 21C. 23D. 28E. 29

102. IF the standard deviation of an experiment is 2 and sample size is 8 what is the standard error of mean:

A. 0.81B. 0.71C. 0.61D. 0.51E. 0.41

103. Type II error ( error)

A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false

B. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is false

C. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is True

D. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is true

104. Correct decision:

A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false

B. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is false

C. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is trueD. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is

true

105. All of the following are statistical test except:

A. Student t testB. F distribution testC. Chi-Square testD. Distribution testE. ANOVA analysis of variance

106. The 4 groups A, B, C and AB were studied to compare the quantitative hematological differences among their hemoglobin structure. The most appropriate statistical test to make determination is:

A. Paired t TestB. F test (ANOVA) (Quantitative)C. Regression analysisD. Student t testE. Chi-Square Test

107. In the clinical trial at Toronto Hospital conducted over 4 years, a specific serious side effect with a therapy X is seen in 0.5 % of the study sample in patients who receive a newly discovered drug Y. Only 0.45 % experiences the same side effects. Based on results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of the side effect in at least one patient is:

A. 1000B. 2000C. 3000D. 4000E. 5000


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108. In clinical trials conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome with a new drug is achieved in 25 % of the study sample. In the patients who received a placebo, only 15 % obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the period is:

A. 50%B. 100%C. 40%D. 10%E. No difference

109. When standard error compared with standard deviation (SD)

A. Its smaller than SDB. Its Bigger than SDC. Equal To SDD. Non of the above

110. Healthy human volunteers are tested in the following phase of clinical trials

I. Preclinical trialsII. Phase I testing

III. Generic drug development for ANDA submission


111. A product line extension contain the new drug and :

I. New therapeutic indicationII. New dosage strengths

III. New dosage form

A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II Only

D. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above

112. For patent expired brand drug product can be marketed as generic drug product if:

I. Therapeutically equivalentsII. Same amount of drug and same

dosage formIII. Different strengths


113. The generic product may differs with brand product:

I. ShapeII. ColorIII. Type of excipients in tablet only


114. A generic product must have the same as brand name product:

I. BioequivalentII. Rate of absorption

III. Extent of absorption


115. A test measures what it was originally designed to measure is said to have:


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A. ReliabilityB. PrecisionC. ValidityD. AccuracyE. Specificity

116. In choosing an instrument to measure the health related Quality of life, attention should be paid to the following:

I. Length of instrument (life time)II. Sensitivity and specificity of

instrumentIII. Reliability and validity of

instrument


117. A pharmacist did not counsel patent about side effect of drug, considering that patient may not take this drug, which of the following ethical principle has been violated?

A. VeracityB. BeneficentlyC. FidelityD. AutonomyE. Nonmaleficiency

118. At a significance level of p < 0.01, the null hypothesis states:

I. Null hypothesis says there is no difference between experimental and observed values

II. Null hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values

III. Alternate hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values

A. I Only


119. The loading dose of drug always based on:

II. Apparent volume of distribution and desired plasma concentration

III. Plasma concentration curveIV. Fraction of free drug excreted in

urine


120. The time it take to infuse drug to reach plasma steady state concentration (Css) depends on:

I. Elimination half life of the drugII. Fraction of free drug excreted in

urineIII. Plasma concentration curve


121. A 40 years old patient weight 70 Kg needs IV infusion of amoxicillin. The desired Css of drug is 19 mg/dl.

The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours. Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L.What rate of IV is recommended for this patient? (No loading dose was given)

A. 135 mg/hrB. 936 mg/hr


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C. 1000 mg/hrD. 333 mg/hrE. 400 mg/hr

122. What is recommended loading dose in the above patient:

A. 1350 mgB. 1200 mgC. 1.350 mgD. 13.50 mgE. 135.0 mg

123. Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of drug:

A. Tripling the rate of infusionB. Quadrupling the rate of infusionC. Doubling the rate of infusion D. Doubling the concentration of infused

drug and rate of infusionE. Doubling loading dose

124. Which of the following most closely describe as clearance rate of drug that is infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in plasma

A. 1200 ml/minB. 667 ml/minC. 300 ml/minD. 132 ml/minE. 67 ml/min

125. Which of the following statements is correct:

A. A competitive antagonist increase ED50B. The greater the efficacy and greater the

potency of drugC. If 10 mg of drug A produces the same

response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A is more effective than B

D. Variation of response in different individual occurs with drug showing a large therapeutic response

E. In selecting drug, a drug potency is more important than efficacy

126. A drug with half life of 12 hours is administrated by continuous intravenous infusion. How long will it take for drug to reach 90 % of final steady state level

A. 80 hrsB. 20 hrsC. 40 hrsD. 100 hrsE. 24 hrs

127. Drugs that show zero order elimination kinetics is:

A. Show a constant fraction of drug elimination per unit of time

B. Decrease concentration exponentially with time

C. Have half life independent of doseD. Show plot of drug concentration versus

time, that is linearE. Zero order kinetic are more common

than first order kinetic

128. Non linear pharmacokinetic do not depend on the following

I. First order kineticII. Concentration and time

III. Michels Menten kinetics


129. Drug that show non linear model pharmacokinetics have which of the following properties:

A. All doses follow first order elimination


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B. Michels Menten kinetic are used in non linear kinetic

C. AUC increase indirectly proportional to dose

D. At steady state drug concentration increase with direct proportion to dosing rate

E. A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the dose increase

130. If aspirin pH 6.5 and pKa 6.5 what is the ionization of drug is unionized?

A. 100B. 0C. 50D. 40E. 30

131. Atropine (base) solution pH is 4.5 and pKa 5.5 what percent of solution is unionized?

A. 90 %B. 91 %C. 9 %D. 1 %E. 99 %

132. Aspirin (acid) solution pH is 4.5 and pKa 5.5 what percent of solution is unionized?

A. 90 %B. 91 %C. 9 %D. 1 %E. 99 %

133. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of dug:

A. Large intestine B. StomachC. Small intestineD. EsophagusE. Mouth

134. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of drugs

A. Large intestine B. DuodenumC. JejunumD. Ileum

135. Ficks law describe the following:

I. Predicts the rate of moments of molecules across membrane

II. Predicted the percent of ionized and unionized drugs

III. Predict the absorption of drugs in epithelial cells


136. Determine the F value of a capsule AUC 20 mg / dl / hrs with 50 mg dose when I.V. of the same drug AUC is 25 mg/dl/hr with 100 mg dose :

A. 20 %B. 60 %C. 40 %D. 80 %E. 100 %

137. The following drugs are bioequivalent:

I. Drugs with the same bioavailabilityII. Drugs with same AUC

III. Drugs with same rate of absorption



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138. The following factors effects the drugs that cross into breast milk

I. Plasma protein bindingII. Partition coefficient

III. Membrane permeability


139. Albumin is major plasma protein and has strongest affinity to the following protein:

A. Acid drugsB. SC. SD. SE. S

140. Plot of log of concentration against time produces a straight line with a:

A. Slope of K/2.303B. Slop of K/t1/2C. Slope of K0D. Slope of K/2.303E. Slope of K/0.693

141. 100 mg a drug with 2 hr of half life, to eliminate 90 mg of it take how many hours?

A. 7.7B. 5.6C. 6.6D. 4.6E. 2.6

142. A drug was found to have Zero order kinetics 100 mg after 6 days 99 mg

How long it will take to eliminate the entire drug from the body?

A. 100B. 200C. 300D. 600E. 900

143. A dose was given, after 2 hrs, the plasma concentration was 64 mg, t1\2 =0.7 hr, after 7 hours from the initial dose, what is the drugs concentration?

A. 0.0 mgB. 1.0 mgC. 2.0 mgD. 3.0 mgE. 4.0 mg

144. Which of the following is used as standard to measure GFR:

A. InulinB. CreatininC. GlucoseD. InsulinE. Fructose

145. Renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of:

A. Active renal secretionB. Effective renal blood flowC. Rate of renal drug excretionD. GFRE. Intrinsic renal activity

146. Renal clearance of Creatinin is used as a measurement of:

A. Active renal secretionB. Effective renal blood flowC. Rate of renal drug excretionD. GFRE. Intrinsic renal activity

147. Which of the following forms of nitroglycerine that are minimally affected by the first pass effect include?


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I. SublingualII. Transdermal Patches

III. Intravenous


148. Which of he following likely t increase in elderly (Geriatric) Patients:

A. Plasma protein albumin levelB. Enzymatic metabolismC. Vd of water soluble drugsD. Vd of lipophilic drugsE. Hypervolimia

149. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidney, one must have some idea of the patient renal function. Which of the following pharmacokinetics parameter gives the estimate of renal function:

A. BUN B. Serum CreatininC. Urine CreatininD. Creatinin clearanceE. Free water clearance

150. if the rate of elimination of drug is reduced because renal insufficiencies, the effect on drug half life and Css will be:

A. Half life and Css decreaseB. Half life and Css increaseC. Increase in Half Life and Decrease in CssD. Decreasing in Half Life but increase in

CssE. No change in both

151. Which of the following statement are correct?

I. Increase Vd increase CssII. Increase loading dose increase Css

III. Decrease in Vd increase Css


152. The difference between peak and trough concentration is greater when a drug is given at dosing intervals

A. Equal to half life of drugB. Longer than half life of drugC. Shorter than half life of drugD. Equal to CssE. Equal to half life serum creatinin

153. Lethal dose LD50 is classified as

I. Dose cause 50 % of toxic response in tests

II. Dose cause 50 % of effect response in tests

III. Dose cause 50 % of death response in tests


154. The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by:

A. Comparing AUC`s and total drug urinary excretion

B. Comparing plasma concentration and total drug urinary excretion

C. Comparing elimination and plasma concentration

D. Non of the aboveE. sss


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155. The excretion of weakly acidic drug will become more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because:

A. The drug will exist primarily in ionized form which cannot easily reabsorbed

B. QC. QD. QE. Q

156. The following are bioequivalent in

Canada:

I. Same color, physical appearanceII. Same dose and same dosage form

III. Same rate and same extent


157. Sumatriptan is mainly used in migraine treatment acting as:

A. 5HT1D / 1B agonistB. GABA AC. B2 1D. EnkephelinE. Dopamine

158. The following is /are catechole amine neurotransmitter:

I. DopamineII. Nor epinephrine

III. Epinephrine


159. The following are the amino acid and neurotransmitters:

I. Glutamic acidII. Tryptophan

III. Glycine


160. All of the following are side effects symptoms of isoflurophate EXCEPT:

A. ConvulsionB. Increase HRC. MiosisD. Skeletal muscle paralysisE. Increase bronchial secretion

161. All of the following Are neuromuscular blockers EXCEPT:

A. SuccinylcholineB. Pancuronium C. AtracurimD. NicotineE. Mivcurium

162. All of the following drugs have diarrhea as side effect EXCEPT:

I. NeostigmineII. Bethanechol

III. Atropine


163. Which of the following is used in long term treatment of myasthenia Gravies

A. Neostigmine


19

B. AC. AD. AE. A

164. All of the following drugs can be used in open angle and closed angle Glaucoma:

I. TimilolII. Methyldopa

III. Pilocarpine


165. Chemical mediator that is released from the end nerve of parasympathetic system :

I. AdrenalinII. Nor adrenalin

III. Acetylcholine


166. The following products can be used in smoking cessation:

I. Nicotine GumsII. Zyban

III. Buspirone


167. The following statements are correct about smoking cessation:

I. Stop smoking from the day when start using nicotine products

II. Can continue smoking for 1 to 2 weeks when non nicotine (Zyban) products

III. Start 21 mg of nicotine patches and slowly taper the dose to 14 mg after 4 -6 weeks


168. Mary 33 years old pregnant woman she smokes 1 pack a day, she is seeking your help in quitting her smoking habits, which of the following would be your recommend?

I. Suggest to use non pharmacological steps to reduce smoking habits

II. Suggest nicotine patches, to use every day

III. Suggest Zyban oral drug smoking cessation


169. Pancuronium is :

A. Ganglionic blockerB. Depolarizing NMJ blockerC. Non depolarizing NMJ blockerD. Cholinergic antagonistE. Anti cholinesterase

170. The following drug most closely resembles atropine in its pharmacological action EXCEPT

A. Acetylcholine


20

B. BenzotropineC. ScopolamineD. IpratropiumE. Tropicamide

171. Which of the following drugs does not produce miosis:

A. ScopolamineB. CarbacholeC. PilocarpineD. NeostigmineE. Isoflurophate

172. Which of the following drugs with little change in heart rate but increases cardiac output. This drug indicated in CHF does not increase O2 demand.

I. IsoproteronololII. Methyldopa

III. Dobutamine


173. The following medications are used is asthma emergencies

I. AlbuterolII. Ipratropium

III. Salmeterol


174. Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetic 1 in 100,000 parts for the following effect of epinephrine

I. VasoconstrictionII. Reduced distribution of local

anesthetic in blood flowIII. Increase the localized effect


175. The action of acetylcholine in motor endoplate and in the celiac ganglia is described as:

A. Nicotinic stimulationB. Muscarinic stimulationC. Dopaminic stimulationD. Adrenergic stimulationE. Serotonin stimulation

176. Drug commonly used with local anesthetic to decrease the absorption and increase the time of action of anesthesia include:

A. Epinephrine B. Adrenaline SCC. IsoproterenolD. AminophilineE. Salmeterol

177. Which one of the following in characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation

A. Increase Heart rate B. Contraction of sphincter urinary

bladderC. Inhibition of bronchial secretionD. Miosis effect contraction of irisE. Decrease intestinal motility


21

178. Which of the following statement

about the parasympathetic system is correct

A. The parasympathetic system control the secretion of adrenal medulla

B. The parasympathetic system involved in movement of food and urination and accommodation of near vision

C. Parasympathetic system uses nor epinephrine as neurotransmitter

D. Post Ganglionic fiber of parasympathetic system are long compared to sympathetic system

E. Aa

179. Which of the following is the correct action of sympathomemitic

I. Increase the drainage of aqueous humor in the eye

II. Decrease in aqueous humor in the eye

III. Increase of IOP Intra Ocular Pressure


180. adrenergic blockers causes syncope as a side effect, in order to manage syncope effect, the following precaution should be taken:

I. Take medication at bed timeII. Reduce first dose to one fourthIII. Take medication with full glass of

water

A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III Only

E. All Of the above

181. Which of the following is atenolol side effect:

I. HypotensionII. Tremor

III. Visual disturbance


182. A patent currently on Blockers and sildenafil which of the following side effect can be seen

I. HypotensionII. Tremor

III. Visual disturbance


183. Nitrates and sildenafil cannot be used together because

I. Enhance hypotension effect of nitrates

II. Enhance hypotension effect of sildenafil

III. Enhance hypertension effect of nitrates


184. A patient currently on phenelzine Nardil for his depression disorder, he


22

should avoid all of the following food EXCEPT

A. Age old cheeseB. WineC. YogurtD. OrangeE. Margarine

185. A patient currently on phenelzine Nardil for his depression disorder, he should avoid all of the following Medication EXCEPT

A. FluoxetineB. SertarlineC. FluoxamineD. MeperidineE. Amoxicillin

186. Serotonin involved in all EXCEPT:

I. Sleep disorderII. Motor activity (physical Activity)

III. Mood disorder


187. Which of the following statement are correct about Lithium

I. Lithium effect seen after two weeksII. Before lithium has effect, patient are

treated with benzodiazepine for manic depression

III. Lithium is drug of choice for manic depression


E. All Of the above

188. Mary, 33 years old pregnant woman, requiring about the safer drug for hypotension condition, which of the following she can use:

I. MethyldopaII. Hydralazine

III. Labetolol


189. All of the following are the side effect of blockers EXCEPT:

A. Lower heart rateB. Lower blood pressureC. Higher blood pressureD. FatigueE. Avoid driving after medication for a few

hours

190. Mr. Brown 55 years old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination wakes us several time in night. His blood pressure indicate 160/95 mmHg. Which of the following medication would be appropriate to treat Mr. Brown condition

A. AcebutololB. LabetololC. HydralazineD. DoxazocineE. Yohimbine

191. All of the following are side effect of antagonist EXCEPT

A. AB. A


23

C. AD. Sexual dysfunctionE. Urinary retention

192. The following drugs can be used to reduce male impotency

I. SildenafilII. Yohimbine

III. Phentolamine


193. Which of the following statements are correct about TCA`s

I. TCA shows immediate effectsII. Orthostatic hypertension is common

side effectIII. All TCA shows similar therapeutic

effects


194. The following drugs can be used with caution to correct internal sphincter of bladder bed wetting

I. AmitriptylineII. Thixamine

III. Imipramine


195. The following are common side effect of TCA`s and MAO inhibitors

I. Serotonin syndromeII. Psychological and physical

dependenceIII. Postural hypotension


196. All of the following are side effects have observed in patients using antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT

A. Orthostatic hypotensionB. ConstipationC. Increase blood pressureD. Sexual dysfunctionE. Change in endocrine hormone function

197. Second generation antipsychotic such as resperidone have the following advantage over traditional antipsychotics:

I. Have high extrapyrimidal side effects than traditional antipsychotics

II. Have less weight gain side effect than traditional antipsychotics

III. Have less EPS than traditional antipsychotic


198. The following is protype of opioid

A. MorphineB. AC. A


24

D. AE. A

199. The following narcotic active metabolite exhibit analgesic activity

A. MeperidineB. GlucuronideC. FentanylD. MorphineE. Codeine

200. Activation of witch of the following principal opioid receptor does NOT cause significant respiratory depression

I. MuII. Delta

III. Kappa


201. Witch of the following is / are the most common side effect of opioids:

I. ConstipationII. Respiratory depression

III. Sedation


202. Which of the following opioid has toxic metabolite that may accumulate in renal dysfunction:

A. MorphineB. MeperidineC. Methadone

D. CodeineE. Fentanyl

203. Parkinson patients are characterized by:

I. Increase ratio of dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum

II. Most commonly occurs in elderly over 40 years of age patients

III. Decrease ratio dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum


204. All of the following are withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT:

A. AnxietyB. InsomniaC. Intestinal crampsD. RestlessnessE. Craving

205. Opioid overdose presents with the following symptoms

I. Pinpoint pupilII. Coma

III. Respiratory depression


206. The following anesthetics produce paraaminobenzoic acid PABA upon metabolism :

I. General anesthetic


25

II. Amide type of local anestheticsIII. Ester Type of local anesthetics


207. All of the following statement about Methadone are correct EXCEPT:

A. It is effective by oral administrationB. Has longer half life than morphineC. Has less analgesic activity than

morphineD. Has greater action on mu receptorsE. Methadone used in opioid withdrawal to

reduce withdrawal symptoms

208. Witch of the following have metabolic acidosis as side effect:

I. Carbonic anhydrase diureticsII. Potassium sparing diuretics

III. Thiazide diuretics


209. All of the following causes metabolic alkalosis EXCEPT:

A. HydrochlorothiazideB. AcetazolamideC. FurosemideD. BumetanideE. Chlorithalidone

210. Thrombocytopenia is side effect of the following drugs:

I. Hydrochlorothiazide

II. AcetazolamideIII. Furosemide

A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All of the above

211. All of the following correct about spironolactone EXCEPT:

A. It renders with distal tubular aldosterone mediated sodium, potassium exchange

B. Cause alkaline urineC. Cause hyperkalemiaD. Cause gynecomastia and menstrual

irregularities E. The principle site of action is at thick

ascending loop

212. All of the following are correct about Furosemide Except:

A. The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending loop

B. It is useful in treating pulmonary edema and ascites

C. Useful in reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure

D. Cause metabolic alkalosis E. Cause ototoxicity

213. What are the following

characteristics of mannitol are correct:

I. Freely filtered, limits the tubular reabsorption of water

II. Useful in treatment of brain tumorIII. Cause hyperkalemia



26

214. All of the following are the withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT:

A. AnxietyB. InsomniaC. Intestinal crampsD. Restless E. Craving

215. Rhabdomyolisis is the side effect of all of the following EXCEPT

A. SimavastatinB. LovastatinC. GemfibrozilD. ColestipolE. Atrovastatin

216. Which of the following is mechanism of action of ezetimibe

A. Lowering LDL,TG and increase HDL with anti-inflammatory effect

B. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of cholesterol

C. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist that inhibit platelet aggregate

D. HMG Co A inhibitorsE. Anion exchange resin

217. Which of the following can be used in treatment of DVT

I. Warfarin II. Streptokinase

III. Heparin


218. All of the following are anti platelet agent EXCEPT

A. Fab fragments B. TiclopidineC. ClopidogrelD. AspirinE. Warfarin

219. Which of the following are produced

by biotechnicological methods:

I. Fab fragmentsII. Ateplase

III. tPA


220. Which of the following medication can be used in pulmonary edema and DVT

I. HeparinII. Warfarin

III. Streptokinase


221. In order to measure effectiveness of warfarin therapy the following monitoring test are used

I. INR must be 2-3II. Prothrombin test (PT)

III. aPTT



27

222. Which of the following is / are the ischemic heart disease

A. MIB. AnginaC. ArrhythmiasD. CHFE. A and B only

223. Pulmonary edema causes Because of

I. Left sided heart failure II. Right sided heart failure

III. Ischemic condition


224. Which of the following drugs has lowering LDL, TG and increase HDL with anti inflammatory effects

A. SimavastatinB. ClopidogrelC. EzetimibeD. TicofibanE. Enoxapril

225. Which of the following side effect associated wit nitroglyceride

A. HypertensionB. Trobbing headacheC. AnemiaD. BradycardiaE. >>>

226. All of the following are used in digitalis toxicity except

A. PhenytoinB. Lidocaine

C. Fab fragmentD. QuinidineE. Potassium supplement

227. Which of the following drugs or disease induce arrhythmias

A. DiabetesB. DigitalisC. QuinidineD. LidocaineE. Hypertension

228. Which of the following not appropriate with potassium sparing diuretics:

I. CaptoprilII. Enalopril

III. Bezopril


229. All of the following statement are correct about nitroglycerin EXCPT:

A. It can cause postural hypotensionB. It can cause reflex tachycardiaC. It has first pass metabolismD. It has IV formulations and sprayE. It significantly decrease AV conduction

230. A patient with megaloblastic anemia requires Vit. B12 supplement. Which of the following is true about Vit. B12 supplement?

I. 50 mg of oral B12 supplements helps to recover his anemic condition

II. Folic acid supplement helps to acquire Vit. B12

III. Vit. B12 IV supplement helps to recover his anemic condition


28


231. A patient with constipation condition may require the following ant acids:

I. Calcium anti acidsII. Al (OH)3 Anti acids

III. Mg (OH)2 Anti acids


232. Which of the following anti acids have cathartic side effects

A. Al (OH)3B. Mg (OH)2C. CaHCO3D. Sodium bicarbonateE. Non of the above

233. Alginic acid is used in the following condition:

A. Heartburn symptom reliefB. Heartburn prophylaxisC. Heartburn treatmentD. Peptic ulcer treatmentE.

239. All of the following asthmatic medications are useful in pregnancy EXCEPT:

A. 2 AgonistB. Coromolyn C. Inhaled corticosteroidsD. ThyophyllinE. Zafirlukast

240. Emphysema is characterized by:

I. Permanent enlargement of small sacs in lungs

II. Permanent damage of alveolar in lungs

III. Shortness of breath


241. All of the following pituitary hormones secreted from anterior pituitary gland EXCEPT:

A. LHB. FSHC. MSHD. ADHE. ACTH

242. All of the following statement are correct about hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT:

I. Causes deficiency of Vit. DII. Decrease Ca ion in blood

III. Increase Ca ion reabsorption from renal tubules


E. All Of the above

243. Ipratropium bromide in COPD is more effective when combined with:

I. adrenergicII. Has less side effect tat atropine

III. When administrated inhalation


244. Which of the following condition limit the use of Thyophyllin in treatment of COPD:

A. Peptic ulcer diseaseB. All ageC. CHFD. DiabeticsE. All of the above

245. Corticosteroids are used in the treatment of COPD:

I. In patient who have the response to bronchodilator therapy

II. In patient with no wheezing effectIII. Before maximum Thyophyllin

therapy received


246. In hyperparathyroidism condition,

the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

A. HypercalcimiaB. High production of PTHC. Hyperphosphetemia


30

D. Muscle acheE. Muscle atrophy

247. Which of the following is not the correct match:

A. Hypothyroidism --- HypocalcemiaB. Hpoparathyroidism

---HyperphosphetemiaC. Hyperparathyroidism ---

HypercalcimiaD. Hyperparathyroidism --- cause

deficiency phosphatesE. Hyperparathyroidism --- cause

deficiency of Ca ions

248. Hypocalcimia occurs in the following condition:

I. VomitingII. Hypoparathyroidism

III. Vit. D deficiency


249. Which of the following drugs does not cause hypoglycemia

A. MetforminB. RepaglinideC. AcarboseD. GlyburideE. Chlorpropamide

250. Which of the following hormones play important rules in male reproductive system?

I. FSHII. LH

III. TSH

A. I Only


251. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Protamine is added to insulin to decrease the rate of absorption

B. Protamine is added to insulin to increase the rate of absorption

C. Insulin can be administrated orallyD. Insulin administered IV onlyE. Insulin administrated IM only

252. Which of the following statement about oral hypoglycemic is / are correct

A. Chlorpropamide blocks insulin receptors

B. Glipizide increase glucagons secretion C. Sulfonylureas increase release of insulin

and increase sensitivity of target tissuesD.

C. TestosteroneD. LH and FSHE. GnRH

255. Hormone that increase water permeability in collecting tubules:

I. VasopressinII. Oxytocin

III. Spironolactone


256. Hormone that sustained after pregnancy:

I. EstrogenII. Progestin

III. Androgen


257. Hypothyroidism is related to the following:

I. Graves diseaseII. Hashimoto syndromeIII. I131 treatment


258. Osteoporosis is a condition of skeletal muscle fragility due to:

I. Progressive loss of bone mass

II. It occurs mainly in post menopausal women

III. Is characterized by frequent bone fractions


259. Do not lay dawn for 30 after taking aldendronate that may cause:

I. Esophageal ulcersII. Mouth ulcers

III. Stomach ulcers


260. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:

I. CorticosteroidsII. Menopause

III. Graves disease


261. Osteoporosis is characterized by loss of bone mass and may predispose by the following factors:

I. RaceII. Family history

III. Smoking



32


262. Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland which stimulate the release of Calcitonin?

A. HypercalcimiaB. HypocalcemiaC. HypophosphetemiaD. HyperphosphetemiaE. High concentration of Vit. D

263. The following estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) increase women bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer:

I. MisopristolII. Tamoxifen

III. Ralaxifen


264. Which of the following drugs are classified as receptor modulator (SERM):

I. MisopristolII. Tamoxifen

III. Ralaxifen


265. All of the following require monitoring for methotrexate therapy EXCPT:

A. Chest X-RayB. Creatinin level

C. CBCD. Leukotrienes countsE. Liver function test

266. E Coli is the most common causative microorganism for UTI, classified as:

A. Gram +ve cocciB. Gram ve cocciC. Gram +ve bacilliD. Gram ve bacilliE. Non of the above

267. Which of the following is / are viral infection:

I. RabiesII. PoliomyelitisIII. Legiomores disease


268. Chloramphenicol is one of the drugs of choice in all EXCEPT:

A. TyphoidB. Salmonella infectionC. Meningitis when a lactam antibiotics

cannot be usedD. Rectisial infection responding to

tetracycline or in which tetracycline cannot be used

E. S. aures infection

269. Metronidalzole is first choice in all EXCEPT:

A. Bacterial infectionB. Clostridium difficile colitisC. TrichomaniasisD. Typhoid


33

E. Only anaerobic bacteria

270. What is true about influenza treatment:

I. Amantadine indicated in influenza A and B

II. Rimantadine indicated in influenza A only

III. Oseltamivir indicated n influenza A and B


271. Lyme disease commonly occur in Mississippi river valley, this infection caused by:

A. Tick biteB. Mosquito biteC. Dog biteD. Human biteE. Cockroach bite

272. Which is not correct about trepenema palladium

A. Treated by penicillin GB. Causative organism of syphilisC. Spread by lymphaticD. Causative organism of typhoidE.

278. Metronidalzole indicated in the following EXCEPT:

A. C. difficileB. GiardiasisC. TrichomaniasisD. S. aureusE. Anaerobic infection only

279. All of the following are DNA virus EXCEPT:

A. AdenovirusB. Papilloma virusC. PoxyvirusD. OrthomyxovirusE. Poliovirus

280. German measles:

A. MumpsB. RubellaC. EndocarditisD. VericellaE. Zoster

281. All of the following are penicillin resistant ( lactamase ) antibiotics EXCEPT:

I. AmoxicillinII. Methicillin

III. Naficillin


282. Which of the following is acid sensitive and lactamase resistant antibiotic:

A. Amoxicillin

B. Penicillin GC. MethicillinD. OxacillinE.

A. VancomycinB. ,,C. ,,D. ,,E. ,,

287. Gonorrhea infection in male treated by:

A. VancomycinB. MetronidalzoleC. Ceftrixone IMD. Penicillin GE. Cotrimoxazole

288. Pregnant woman have UTI infection, what is the oral antibiotic?

A. AmpicillinB. TetracyclineC. CotrimoxazoleD. ClotrimazoleE. Cefadroxil

289. Aminoglycosides are indicated in:

I. Gram +ve bacterial infectionII. Gram ve bacterial infection

III. Prophylaxis in preoperative procedure


290. Sulfonamide are indicated in:

I. Gram +ve and certain gram veII. Gram ve and certain gram +ve

III. Mainly a typical bacteria



291. All of the following are anti DNA viral agent EXCEPT:

A. RimantadineB. AcyclovirC. RibavirinD. FoscarnetE. Famciclovir

292. Acacia is classified as:

A. Suspending agentB. Natural emulsifying agentC. Semi synthetic emulsifying agentD. Flocculating agentE. Tablet filler

293. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use approximately weight:

A. 10 gramB. 5 gramC. 2 gramD. 1 gramE. 0.5 gram

294. In a dispensing pharmacy, pharmacist usually mix active powder with large amount of diluents by:

A. LevigationB. Geometrical dilutionC. TiturationD. SifingE. Pulverization

295. The shell of soft gelatin capsule may made by addition of plastic-like substance:

A. Polyethelenglycol PEGB. Povidone


36

C. LactoseD. SorbitolE. Methyl cellulose

296. Which is the smallest size of capsule

A. 5B. 10C. 0D. 1E. 000

297. In extemporaneous preparation of suspensions, Levigation is used:

A. Reduce particle sizeB. Reduce viscosityC. Increase practical sizeD. increase sedimentation rateE. reduce sedimentation rate

298. Sterility or sterile

I. Pyrogen freeII. Particulate free

III. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free )


299. Sterile preparations of parenteral solution:

IV. Pyrogen freeV. Particulate free

VI. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free )


300. Aseptic technique include decontamination of:

I. Undesirable particlesII. Decontamination of pyrogen

III. Decontamination of pathogen


301. A vertical laminar flow hood is the best choice when preparing solution of:

A. PenicillinB. DoxacillinC. Cytotoxic agentD. Nicotine formulationE. Aminoglycosides

302. The size of HEPA used in Laminar air flow hood is:

A. 0.22 micronB. 0.33 micronC. 0.44 micronD. 0.55 micronE. 0.66 micron

303. What is the suitable form of water can be used in parenteral preparations;

I. Sterile water for injection USPII. Water for injection USP

III. Purified water USP


304. Which of he following id the output of Albuterol inhalation aerosol:


37

I. Dry mistII. Wet mist

III. Stable foam


305. RXPhenol 0.5 %Cimetidine HClWater for injection USP

What is the rule of phenol in this script?

A. PreservativeB.

A. MethotrexateB. SulfasalazineC. Organic Gold compoundD. SulphapyrazoneE. Penicillamine

313. Which statement are right regarding Calcitonin

I. Its secretion stimulated during feeding, particularly of high calcium meals

II. Prevents Hypercalcimia by inhibiting the transport of calcium into extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of Calcitonin

III. It is a vitamin D derivative


314. The level should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol:

I. Mercapturic acidII. Theophyllin

III. Anticoagulants


315. Uricosuric agent used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid reabsorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of uricosuric agent is:

A. AllopurinolB. SulphinpyrazoneC. IndomethacineD. PenicillamineE. Methotrexate

316. Oral chelating agent that used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:

A. AllopurinolB. SulphinpyrazoneC. IndomethacineD. PenicillamineE. Methotrexate

317. In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:

A. Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement

B. Specifically reverse the cause of diseaseC. Provide only analgesic effectD. Are effective because they are uricosuric

agentsE. Are more effective when given with

allopurinol

318. Importance of Vit. D in osteoporosis:

I. Increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine

II. The best Vit D analog to treat osteoporosis Calcitonin

III. Ant acids containing Al and Mg interfere with proper activity of Vit D


319. Drug that inhibit xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6-mercaptopurine:

A. SulphinpyrazoneB. AllopurinolC. PenicillamineD. PurinethilE. Celecoxib


39

320. Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by:

I. Syonvial cells proliferation inside of a joint

II. Normally occurs in patients with Rheumatoid arthritis

III. An immunologic complication


321. Gout characteristics include:

I. Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints

II. The joints inflammation caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals

III. It is a type of osteoporosis


322. Al of the following are Allopurinol side effects, EXCEPT:

A. Increase PTB. Hypersensitivity rashesC. GIT intoleranceD. Peripheral neuritisE. Necrotizing vasculitis

323. The use of estrogen in osteoporosis;

I. Enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss

II. Useful in treatment of osteoporosis associated to menopause

III. Not effective at increased bone mass that has already been lost


324. Ant malarial drug used in the treatment o rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA drug

A. ChloroqineB. QuinineC. SulfasalazineD. HydroxychlorquineE. Primaquine

325. Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis include:

A. With mealB. In empty stomachC. With plenty of waterD. With orange juiceE. Before bed time

326. Asthmatic patient with RA with Aspirin sensitivity. The drug of choice is:

A. IbuprofenB. AcetaminophenC. Gold therapyD. AzathioprineE. Cyclophosphamide

327. Diflunisal is most likely to prescribed for the treatment of:

A. Wilsons diseaseB. Rheumatoid arthritisC. CystinuriaD. PsariasisE. Hansens disease


40

328. The anti body with longest serum half life is:

A. IgAB. IgGC. IgDD. IgEE. IgM

329. T cells that are released from thymus gland into circulation are:

I. Memory B cellsII. TH cells

III. T virgin cells


330. Which type of anti bodies (immunoglobulin) can enter fetal circulation

A. IgAB. IgGC. IgDD. IgEE. IgM

331. The oxidative release of which of the following substance causes formation of toxic hypochlorous acid :

I. H2O2II. Peroxidase

III. Oxygen


332. An example of type IV hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by IgE :

I. CytotoxicityII. Bronchial constriction

III. Contact dermatitis


333. Preventive vaccine available for the following condition

I. Hepatitis BII. Influenza A

III. Influenza B


334. As a result of zwitter ion amino acid solution. In solution zwitter ion exhibit the following properties :

I. AnionicII. Cationic

III. Ampiphilic


335. DNA contain the following fragment:

A. Nucleotide with deoxyribose (sugar)B. Nucleoside with deoxyribose (sugar)C. Nucleoside with RiboseD. Nucleotide with ribose


41

E. Non of the above

336. HIV viruses has special enzymes that form DNA in host, which of the following is that enzyme:

A. c DNAB. recombinant DNAC. reverse transcriptaseD. restrictive endonuleaseE.

I. Perform gastric lavageII. Administration of activated charcoal

III. Administration flumzenil, a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist


344. Salicylates toxicity of drug are treated by alkaline diuresis because:

I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Increase absorption of salicylates

because acid and base make neutral solution

III. Enhance salicylates excretion


345. Salicylates toxicity of drug are

treated by alkaline diuresis because:

I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Decrease re absorption

III. Enhance salicylates excretion


346. What is not found in deoxyribose nucleic acid

A. UracilB. AdenineC. CytosineD. GuanineE. Thyamine

347. What are the common storage land of most biotechnological products such as tPA, Streptokinase, and lyrokinase

A. Cool pace 2-8 C

348. Glycoproteins are linked to:

I. InsulinII. Gonadotropin

III. Interleukin


349. Most common antibody:

A. IgMB. IgDC. IgGD. IgEE. IgA

350. All of the following are biotechnological products EXCEPT:

A. AlteplaseB. AbciximabC. Interleukin-3D. Beta serumE. Warfarin

351. Enzyme that clears DNA at a specific site called:

I. TyrosineII. Restrictive ribonuclease

III. Restrictive endonuclease



43


352. Which is recombinant DNA:

I. R-DNAII. C-DNA

III. rDNA


353. Km (Michael menton constant) lower that V max:

A. First orderB. Second orderC. Zero orderD. Second order kineticE.

360. Which of the following can form free radical:

I. H2O2II. O2

III. OH


361. Which of the following vitamins contain aminolone

I. Vit. B12II. Vit. C

III. Vit. K


362. All of the following are immune system related organs EXCEPT:

A. LymphB. ThymusC. ThyroidD. AppendixE. Spleen

363. A patient with inflammation and infection his WBC count is:

A. < 4000 to 11000B. > 4000 to 11000C. Equal to 400 to 11000D.

C. LeasingD. CooperativeE.

A. TVB. RadioC. BillboardsD. FlyersE. Direct mailing

379. Drugs that are converted to salt form

I. Alter drug bioavailabilityII. Alter pharmacological effects

III. Increase potency


380. Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant agent (FK506 or Prograft), main side effects:

I. NephrotoxicityII. Nuerotoxicity

III. Osteoporosis


381. In which type of seizure there is break in the action of patient activity for long period:

A. Tonic clonicB.

II. HumerousIII. Scapula


397. What is azotemia?

I. Excess of BUN in bloodII. Excess of creatinin clearance

III. Decrease of BUN


398. The following pathogens commonly cause travelers diarrhea:

I. E coliII. Shigella sp.

III. Bacteroid fragillis


399. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea

I. Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclinII. Cotrimoxazole

III. Erythromycin


400. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea:

I. Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclinII. CotrimoxazoleIII. Pepto - Bismol

A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above

401. Which of the following most common causative organism for traveler diarrhea

A. E coliB. Aeromonas Sp.C. Salmonella Sp.D. Shigella Sp.E. Vibro cholera

402. The following unsafe food could cause traveler diarrhea

I. Cooked and unpeeled fruitsII. Fresh soft cheese

III. Fresh vegetable salad


403. Preferred laxative used in elderly patients?

I. Doucsate sodium (emollient laxative)II. Lactulose

III. Glycerin suppositories

A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III Only


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E. All of the above

404. What is the advantages of antacids over H2 Antagonists:

A. Longer duration of actionB. Antacids are indicated for treatmentC. Antacids have faster onset of actionD. Antacids have better absorptionE. Antacids have slower absorptionF. Antacids have more effectiveness

405. Which of the following counseling for permethrin 5%, indicated in scabies treatment:

I. Thoroughly, massage into skin from head to soles of feets

II. Remove cream by washingIII. Use for all family members


406. Which of the following factors aggravate osteoporosis:

I. RaceII. Estrogen use oral contraceptive

III. Estrogen deficiency


407. In pharmacoeconomics considerations, the following aspects is the most important:

A. PharmacistB. DoctorC. Patient

D. HospitalE. Society

408. Which is include in standard data:

I. Coefficient of varianceII. Range

III. Standard deviation


409. When standard error of the mean decrease:

A. The size of the sample increaseB. The size of the sample decreaseC. The size of the sample does not changeD. Non of the above

410. The visual impulse is associated with photochemical transformation of:

A. RetinalB. RetinolC. Retinoic acidD. RhodopsinE. Non of the above

411. Pharmacist advice the patient with eye problems to see the doctor in which of the following case:

I. Red eyeII. Blurred vision

III. Ocular pain



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412. Patient taking diphenhydramine as a sleep help should be advised :

I. To take tablet every dayII. To take 30 min before bed time

III. Increasing the dose will increase the induction of sleep


413. When concerning the parents of a 10 years old child with a prescription for Bacterioban to treat impetigo, all should be said EXCEBT:

A. Impetigo is common among children in this age

B. S. Pyrogen is one of the agents that cause impetigo

C. Impetigo is very communicableD. Oral medication do not work in impetigo

treatment

414. A prescription contains a drug, which gives side effects to a patient. Pharmacist does not inform the patient regarding it and continue to dispense the prescription. What are the following ethical principle violated:

A. AutonomyB. BeneficencyC. JusticeD. VeracityE. Honesty

415. Ethical principal of nonmaleficiency requires:

A. Act with truthfulnessB. Act with honestyC. To do good

D. To do no harmE. Act with fairness

416. If a pharmacist dispensed a drug with different brand name than the prescription, what ethical principle is violated?

A. AutonomyB. BeneficencyC. JusticeD. VeracityE. Honesty

417. All of the following pharmacoeconomics methods used to assess in term of cost and consequences EXCEPT:

A. Cost benefit analysisB. Cost utilizing analysisC. Cost minimization analysisD. Cost of illnessE. Cost effective analysis

418. Ampicillin prescription changed to amoxicillin by doctor, this substitution is called:

A. Generic substitutionB. Pharmaceutical substitutionC. Therapeutic substitutionD. Pharmaceutical alternateE. Brand name alternate

419. a420. a421. a422. a423.


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112012077 2005 Evaluation Questions

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