Set]\" o. 1 Question Booklet No. 00996

12P/207/31 (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ball-point pen)

Roll :>io.1 L-~-L~ __ ~-L~ __ ~~

Roll ;0(0. (Write the digits in words) .. " ............................................................................................ .

Serial No. of Answer Sheet ............................................. . . ......................................... . Day and Date ..........•......................................................... ( Signature of Invigilator)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Cse only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) 1. Within 10 minutes afthe issue ofthe Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it

contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In caSe of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the SuperintendentJlnvigiiators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet.

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3. A ,fJepar4te Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provitle{i. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated.

4. Write your Rol1 Number and Serial Number ofthe Answer Sheet by pen in the space prvided above. 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at

the top and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number anti the Set Number in appropriate places.

6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries oj Roll No., Question Booklet no. and Set no. (if any) on OMR sheet and Roll No. and OMR sheet no. on the Quel'ton Booklet.

7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unjairmeans.

8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate eircle in tl,e corre~ponding row oj tlte Answer Sheet, by pen as mentioned in tIre guidelines given on the first page oj the Answer Sheet.

9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect.

10. Note that the answer once jilted in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave afl the circles in the corre~pol1dil1g row blank (such question will he awarded zero morks).

11. For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet.

12. Deposit only OMRAnswer Sheet at the end of the Test. 13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14. If a candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as

the University may determine and impose on him/her.

Total No. of Printed Pages: 48

12P/207/31 No. of Questions: 150

~qfr~:150 Time : 2 Hours

W1<I:2 ~

Full Marks: 450

9,OIFj; : 450

Note: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three I marks. One mark will be deducted/or each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question.

31f~>jq; m 'lit Q('I q;f.\ "" w:!M q;tl ~ ~ 3 (<iR ) aiq; "" ~I )1m.., 7J'Mff ~ ci; fffl!: ~ 3i<I; cnr.;r "'Iii'll 1 ~ 3lj"Rd ~ ""

~ I '<I i 'li l'F' WTlI (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to

the correct answer. choose the closest one.

"lIfi:: ll:'l>Tf>jq; ~'lif04'li ~ <m ~ '4;- f.f<R: mfi<I -.iT, <it foj'liGdQ <m ~ ~I

Ol. Which planet has the largest number of satellites?

( 11 Jupiter (2) Saturn (31 Mars (4) Neptune

mt "!!O '4;-~ 'lit ~ ~ 31f>jq; ~ ?

(1 ) 'l~f1lfd (2) 'IIf.r (3) *"" (4) m;crr

02. What is the orbital period of Venus?

(1) 88 days (2) 365.25 days

(3) 225 days (4 ) 108 days

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12P/207/31

WI> ,.;r ,"aWl 31'If>l 'I<!T ~ ?

(1) 88 fi::I (3) 225 fi::I

(2) 365.25 fi::I (4) 108 fi::I

03. Which one of the following is the monistic concept of the earth's

origin?

(1) Gaseous hypothesis

(3) Tidal hypothesis

(2) Planetesimal hypothesis

(4) Binary Star hypothesis

f.r<;j i! it q;'j-;, ~"'" ,.;r ~ ,.;r 31hct'll~ fi'h<"111 ~ ?

(1) '11~o'Hlfill QR'h<"1'11 (2) ~ QR'h<"1'11

04. Who propounded the Nebular hypothesis for the origin of the earth?

(1) Chamberlin

(3) James Jeans

(2) Kant

(4) Laplace

~ ~"'" ,.;r ~ "tl H€iIR'h1 QR'h<"1'11 QRlQif.;ct ill;<u ?

(1) 4~{r<'H (2) q;J1lC (3) ~ ~ (4) <.'11«.11<1

05. Who conceived of the Continental Drift Theory ?

(1) Lowthian Green

(3) F.B. Taylor

( 1 ) eitf'<'R >fA (3) -q:q; 0 oil 0 Zz;n:

(2) Alfred Wegener

(4) Lord Kelvin

(2) ~~

(4) "<.'ITi 4; "'" '1

4

12P/207/31

06. Who gave the idea of 'Level of compensation' with reference to the

concept of Isostacy ?

(1) Pratt

(3) George Airy

(2) George Everest

(4) Heiskanen

*1 'WI '1 <tt (iili04i1 I i\; ~,f. i! f<Rf.\ '~ "1R'!' 'liT ~ ~ ?

( 1 ) >!R (2) "Il"f Il!« R

(3) "Il"f ~ (4) ~lWH'1

07. Which one of the following is organically· formed sedimentary rock?

(1) Sandstone

(3) Limestone

(2) Chalk

(4) Shale

f.r"'! i! ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ f.!fitr 31'l*1It;l *"r i ?

(1) "l1<jilil'l<'R (2) ~ ~

(3) 'ft 'liT 'l<'R (4) -00

08. Which one of the following is a metamorphic rock?

(1) Gabro (2) Basalt

f.r"'! i! ~ ~ ilil~I'dRd *"r i ?

(1) i\;it (2) ~*1Ii"e

(3) Loess

(3) ~

09. Among the following, mark out the A-zonal soil :

(1) Podzal (2) Chernozem

(3) Alluvium (4) Rendezina

(4) Gneiss

(4) -;fRj

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(1) Qls"lIM

(3) 31<§'1"1Q (~!l!ziI)

(2) i"H;\\"IQ

(4) {osc1l11

10. Which one of the following is said to be an active vo1carw ?

(1) Visuvius (2) Krakatoa (3) Koh Sultan (4) Stramboli

f.!>:! it -« fl!;B ~/"'I1l!<! "cll<?ll'l@ 'I® "ffiIT i ?

(1) f'l\jf'l"lB (2) lIil'hlild1T (3) ~ W"\H (4) ~1","<.'1l

11. Mark out the date & year of the occurrence of Bhuj (Gujarat)

earth -quake?

(1) December 11, 1967

(3) October 20, 1991

(1) 11 RW'''H, 1967

(3) 20 di'I~:'H, 1991

(2) January 26, 2001

(4) March 29, 1999

(2) 26 "I1'H1, 2001

(4) 29~, 1999

12. Which one of the following is a block mountain?

(1) Applacian (2) Ural

(3) Siera Nevada (4) Appenine

R"lf<'lf<ld it -« <li1'I '<'!l'h (omm.n) '!ifu i? (1) 310iFiI"l1 (2) '[Uct (3) ftrro m (4) ditl'lI,Oj

6

12P/207/31

13. Which one of the following is a Caledonian mountain?

(1) Altai (2) Carpathian (3) Dinarik (4) Kunlun

f.r"'I i! ~ 'lit.; ~<!lilr1l11 (wl "") "*' t? (I) ~ (2) ~'l'"I"1 (3) r~1IR'" (4) <t:i1<j'1

14. Who gave the idea of 'Median Mass' in his theory of mountain build­

ing?

(1) Jeffreys

(3) Kober

(2) Daly

(4) A. Holmes

:;1'f.t "*' R'lfur i\; r~<GHl i! ~ 'll»ll'lu:g' "" fcr<!R fl:<lT? (1) ~ (2) ~ (3) ~ (4) 11;0 mm

15. Patagonia plateau is a good example of .......... :

(1) Intermounation Plateau (2) Piedmont Plateau

(3) Continental Plateau (4) Domal Plateau

&<!l'ilRlIl "" 'lOR ...................... "" 1l:if> ~ d~l6<ul tl (1) al'<1(Qcfdlll 'lOR (2) IiIRQ~ 'lOR

(3) ~~I4J<illi 'lOR (4) !l'4~I"'R 'lOR

16. Who first presented the periglacial cycle of erosion?

(1) Peltier

(3) L.C. King

(2) Strahler

(4) Chorley

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12P/207/31

wru ~ fi.n<:R qfU%'11'11 ~ '"'" "" ~<1!<11",(OI 1%«<?

(1) qR'<!~( (2) "SW'l(

(3) ll:<'l0~o f<i;11 (4) mj-.it#

17. Who has the most known critic of Davisian cycle of erosion?

(1) Krickmay

(3) L.C. King

(2) Walter Penk

(4) Hack

~ it; ~ '"'" "" wru 3U'f<!; ~ ("IRT "Tf.t <WIT) "11 (11 "'" m "IT?

(1) flI;q;it (2) ~ iA;

(3) 1,lJ1'o~o f<i;11 (4) ~

18. Indus and Brahmaputra present the examples of ............... .

(1) Consequent drainage system

(2) Subsequent drainage system

(3) Antecedent drainage system

(4) Superimposed drainage system

~ 1l:'i OliWI~ (~) .......... ~ $I "" ~~I~(OI ~ W il

(1) ~ (2) 'R'«ff (3). 'Lcj~ffi (4) 31vmiMct

19. Which one of the following is an erosional land form by river?

(1) Sand bank

(3) Alluvial cones

(2) Natural Levees

(4) Meanders

8

20.

(I) ~I<jilil <rc

(3) ~~

(2) ~Iq;f<j'h f'lft!

(4) ~ flru<f

12P/207/31

Mark out the depositional land form :

(I) River terrace (2) Peneplain

(3) Flood plain (4) Hogback

f.ioilQI«1'h fI!l(1<i"Q qit ~ "'lr"1~ :

(I) ~ ~rS'h1 (2) '141«11 (+l~~I~ ~)

(3) "'!fil" "" ~ (4) 'Il'M'hc'h

21. To which one of the following categories, does the Nile river delta

belong?

(I) Estuarine (2) Arcuate (3) Bird Foot (4) Truncated

(3) 4"11'hi( (4) ~fii6d

22. Which one of the following is DOt an erosional Karst landform?

(I) Lapies

(3) Cave pillars

(2) Blind Valley

(4) Karst window

f.p:;j if "it <oR :31 Q{~11«1'h W {<I (1 M 'Itt~?

(I) ~ (2) ~

(3) ~"fd"Pli

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23. Mushroom rock is a landform created by _ .... ., ...

(1) River (2) Undergr.ound -NateT

(3) Seawater (4) Wind

(1) ~ (4) '-T'I'l

24. What would be the appr'Jxim.atE length of Gangotri glacier?

(1 ) 25 Km (2) 72 KIn (3) 11 Km

'm 'dfill~, qij WI"'! "'''''i~ '!'IT 1ttft ) (1 ) 25 f<l><Il (2) 72 fil;l:.'\ (:3) 11·~

25. Highest Salinity is fOU:.ld i::1 :

(1) Bering Sea (2) Red Sea 13) B9.ltic Sea

wID'1<li MqOldl fi:lillfi -g : ( 1) ~nll'R it

(3) ~"'~ it

(2) <'IT(1 ~ if

(4) <ih WR if

26. Mark out the lOGation of Diatom ooze:

(1) Shallow seawater (2) Coastal region

(3) Deep seawater (4 ) Sea bottom

<;1'101 "3>iif qij Wlfu ~ Of>1f;;ril :

(1 ) ~ "11'1(1~ "f<"1 (2) <rWl1\R!~~

(3) l]"O-"{ "" Rl '1 "f<"1 (4 ) 'l'l;i!l dMoil

10

(4 ) 40 Knl

(4) 40~

(4) China Sea

12P/207/31

27. Isohalines are the lines showing the distribution of.. ........ .

(1) Rainfall (2) Salinity

(3) Wind pressure (4) Cloudiness

'3U.<:iI~<1I.;;g' ............... "'" fqd(OI ~ qrffi ~ tl

(1) q'If (2) <1,!oldl (3) '!I~I," (4) Q'lI'609I<;1

28. When did Columbus undertake his first voyage?

<iI<1~~ ~ ~ ~ ~ '!BlT ~ 'lit? (1) 1452 (2) 1498 (3) 1506 (4) 1492

29. Which one of the following seas has the highest salinity?

(1) North Sea

(3) Dead Sea

(2) Black Sea

(4) Japan Sea

f.!<:! ~ i:i f<f;~q,'1 <1,!oldl ~ aU,""," i? (1) ~ m'R (2) "%1T m'R

(3) 'Ff m'R (4) 0f1'lR m'R

30. Who postulated the stationary wave theory of tides?

(1) Newton (2) W. Whewell

(3) Laplace (4) Harris

"'1T>:-'10 "'" ~fllil> <WI f~4iHI f'I;Wt ~fctqlf'::d f<o<rr?

(1) "'{G1" (2) ~o ~

(3) <11'<.11~ (4) ~

11 P.T.O.

12P/207/31

31. Mark out the normal lapse rate of temperature per krn :

( 1) 4.5° C (2) 6.4°C (3) 8° C (4)

>Ifu ll!><ft ~lq'1H '1ft ai1ml; (11'11'"1 ~I(I~, M ,"If",~ :

(1 ) 4.50 ~o (2) 6.4° ilo (3) 80 ~o (4)

32. Which one of the following is known as greenhouse gas?

(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen

(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Hydrogen

f.n:;j1J il ~ ~ft~'l~ i\-B i\; ~ il ;;rr;n -;;mn i ?

(1) '11~~1"1'1

(3) 'IiT'A ~31f<ffiI;;S (2) 311%1"1'1

(4) ~I~"'l"l'l

33. The last Great Ice Age was in existence in :

(1) Miocene period (2) Pliocene period

(3) Triassic period (4) Pleistocene period

3!Rr'1 "ffil Fi;'1TI a1ful<q 1J 'IT :

(1) '11~l<i1'1 'liR'l i\ (2) «11~l<i1'1 'liR'l1J

(3) ~1'lfB'h 'liR'l1J (4) «"flRl<il'l 'liR'l1J

9.5° C

9.5° ~o

34. At which approximate height, the geostationary satellites orbit the

earth?

(1) 25 Km

(3) 85 Km

(2) 35,000 Km

(4) 1,000 Km

12

12P/207/31

(1) 25 f<I;1jj

(3) 85 f<I;1jj

35. Sargasso Sea is located in :

(1) South Atlantic Ocean

(3) South Pacific Ocean

':H' II \fI "ffi1R "1 <1 R>!(f * : (1) GO 3lc(1lfiicq, ~"llill'l< iI' (3) GO W/TR[ ~"ml'l{ iI'

(2) 35,000 f<I;1jj

(4) 1,000 f<I;1jj

(2) North Pacific Ocean

(4) North Atlantic Ocean

(2) "00 W/TR[ ~"llill'l{ iI' (4) "00 "1c(1lfiiN ~"llill'l{ iI'

36. Which one of the following is primary consumers?

(1) Green plants

(3) Carnivores

(2) Herbivores

(4) Omnivores

f.r"1 iI' "it '!i'R m"ifi:r<l; ~~ *? (1) ~ -q'\~ (2) ~1Iq,lg'(j (3) ~ilill"l(l (4) lil<1\" 1(1

37. Who coined the term ·Peneplain ?

(1) Peltier (2) Lawson

(3) C.H. Crickmay (4) W.M. Davis

"l1I,,;I1' 'II'<; q;j f.r>:!fuT ~ WIT ?

(1) ql0!~{ (2) "<1TB"'l

(3) "ill 0 '<"I 0 flI;<:f;it (4) ~o 11:'1 0 ~

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38. Who first used the term 'permafrost' for permanently frozen ground?

(1) Sparks

(3) S.W. Muller

(2) L.C. King

(4) W. Penk

~ ~ -B -;;ril ~ 'ffiiffi 'if; ~ 'Q4UIR' ~ q;J m wtr'l"! flr;"if.l fil;<lJ?

(I) ~ (2) "QJ'loWo m (3) ~o~o ~ (4) ~o ~

39. Who first observed the growth of the river Nile delta by annuall1oods?

(I) Herodotus

(3) Ptolemy

(2) Strambo

(4) Eratosthenese

wtr'l"! flr;"if.l <nfi1q; 'Wi\" 'if; &IU -;ffi;j -;¢\ 'if; ~ 'if; f"ilill."l q;J f.rtl~ fil;<lJ?

11) ~ililll."l (2) $it (3) ~ (4) ~~ilfY1;ft"l

40. Which one of the following is known as ·Ringed planet'?

(1) Jupiter (2) Uranus (3) Saturn (4) Pluto

f.p:;[ ii -B m '<§&\GR lljl"' 'if; ~ ii""lR1 -;;mIT t? (1) 'i6{>lfu (2) 3WU1 (3) ~ (4) ~

41. Who propounded the radioactivity hypothesis of mountain building?

(1) Jeffreys (2) Daly (3) A. Holmes (4) Jolly

-q<f<; f.r4fuJ <tt '{f.s<!ll."lfsMdl \iili0HI %<R ~fuQIfG<1 <ttl

(1) ~ (2) m.ft (3) V:o ~ (4) ~ (~)

14

12P/207/31

42. Which diagram shows the distribution of earth's solid surface at

elevation above and depth between Sea level?

(1) Histogram (2) Hypsomctric curve

(3) Cartogram (4) Polygraph

-,;;R -m 31it&/Thnfif> ~(f,"."'"J.'R 3i1, ~ ~ :dh 'ffi'Tt Ti 'l"'ll if; im ~ 'liT r'l(l{UI ~ ,j)

(1) fi:RI~lq (2) fi;q{J~r~", q;<f (Glon)

43. Which one of the following is not a cold ocean current?

(1) . Karnari (2) Bengula ( 3) Falkland

f.p:;j Ti B -,;;R cui\ ,,[ll iF:! 'lm 'nff t? (1 ) 'I>'!Rl (2) if':l."n (3) Q;(,!>0us

44. Hot & dry wind blowing in Australia is known as :

(1) Bora

(3) Brick fielder

(2) Har mattan

(4) Mistral

"11~r<'l~1 Ti ~ qrc.,ft '[If .31'1<: W'l' 0'11 q;tft "Wll t : (1) oitu (2) m l121

(4) 1l1~

45. Which one is a depositional land fo~·m by Sea water?

(4)

(4)

(1) Coastal Cliff

(3) Spit

(2) Wave cut platform

(4) COVe

15

Brazil

<!roll<'!

P.T.O.

12P/207/31

(1) oil<! fw!;

(3) ~

(2) mm;ru~

(4) <"1W'l~~tiht

46. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(I) Chinook (2) Kilmanjaro

(3) Foehn (4) Sirocco

f.tl:;j it' -B 'lit.! 'I'l/~ -B lO114P<re "It\' ~?

(I) ~ (2) f<l><"1Ii"lttl (3) 'fiR

47. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?

(I) Questa & Hogback

(2) Bridge & window

(3) Cave pillars

(4) Tarn

H8f<1f@~ it' -B 'lit.! WtR1~ "It\' ~?

(1) ~ o~ 'Il'Mih<!'h

12) :!<"1 o~ f@{\iI>l

(3) ~"@"!

(4) m

16

Sea water

Wind

Underground water

Glaciers

12P/207/31

48. There are Four Components of Biospheric ecosystem, given below,

which one acts as Intermediary in between them?

(1) Physical or Non-bioelements

(2) Producers

(3) Consumers

(4) Decomposers

~qlOjog<1lq 4IRW<qfct'fi <Br i'f; 'lR = ~!\:it '!it %', ~ ~ <!iR fi'f.i1f<1QI "'fiT

'Wf -..mrr i? (1) ~ 31'l'U 31<J1fq'fi (f(q

(3) ~"11<Rrr

(2) "t<lIG'fi

(4) fi141"l'fi

49. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred in the year:

(1) 1996 (2) 200 I (3) 1980

50. Ozonosphere is a part of .... , .............. .

(1) Troposphere

(3) Mesosphere

(2) Stratosphere

(4) Thermosphere

41"o1IOjog'1 ............... "'fiT Wrn ("IT'll il

(1) ~'1lOjug'1

(3) lJ"1lOjog'1

(2) "IOj(l1440g'1

(4) (l141Ojog'1

17

(4) 1984

P.T.O.

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51. Who first defined geography as humanology?

(I) Hettner

(3) Carl Sauver

(2) H.K Barrows

(4) Huntigton

"om ~ ~ ~ct <1>'; 'lFf#~ if; ¥'l i\ -m'llf'm f'I><n?

(1) ~ (2) ~o~o ~

(3) 'liffi <WR (4) Wi'R'!

52. Who wrote the book --, 'Influences of Geographic Environment'?

(1) F. Ratzel (2) Le Play

(3) E.C. Semple (4) A. Hacckel

'~'1'RjQ:'!l:01 31i'li wiI~fi:I;ij; Wllol"U;o' -~ ~ ftomi\?

(1) ll;!>o ~ (2) fct ~

(3) tomo m~ (4) ~o m

53. Who propounded 'the Zones and Streta Theory' of the evolution of

human races?

(1) I. Bowman (2) G. Taylor

(3) D. Whittlesey (4) G.T. Trewartha

1lR'l ~"IIRpji" if; <fi!l f<"1'W{ 'f1 'c;;f~ ll:"i «R f\1;;;:HI' ~ ~Rlqlf~d f'I><n?

(1) amo -.ltlR (2) emo ~

18

12P/207/31

54. Who is known as the father of human geography?

(1) Ritter (2) Humbolt (3) Blache (4) Ratzel

~ ~ if; ~ if; ""l -q * "IRI ""'" t? (I) 1m (2) ~«ilR (3) 0<ffi1I[ (4) ~

55. Mark out the year of the beginning of Census taking in India?

'lffi<! -q cij1'1°1'11 q;j 'lP"311O '<iT q1f ~ ,,,If''l~ :

(I) 1891 (2) 1857 (3) 1881 (4) 1872

56. Which one of the following does indicate the decadal growth of popu­

lation in India during 1991-2001 census?

f.r<:! -q"il * 1991-2001 011'1 01'11 if; llU! 'lffi<! -q cij1~~1 <f.1; '<iT G~lil"l

3RR~t?

(1) 23.85% (2) 24'.66% (3) 21.35% (4) 24.80%

57. Who presented the Demographic Transition Theory of population

growth ?

(1) F.W. Notestein

(3) P.R. Cox

(2) G.T. Trewartha

(4) C.P. Blackar

cij1~~1 <f.1; '<iT cij1if",,,,1"l ~Sf;4ol f{lOlil'<l ~ ~ f<Ii<lr?

(1) ~o~o ;fli!~11 (2) o!\oito ~'1l

(3) <l\o 3!Ro ~ (4) mo<l\o ~

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58. In which stage, birth rate and mortality rate both become high?

(1) Low stationary stge

(3) Late expanding stage

(2) High stationary stage

(4) Early expanding stage

f<Rl _ it "I"1~< W '1<$< <iJ;if ~ m ~? (I) f.r<;{~ _ (2) ~~_

59. Which one of the following has the lowest population as per 2001

census?

(1) Andman & Nicobar (2) Daman & Div

(3) Laksh Deep (4) Dadra & Nagar Haveli

2001 'liT "11'1 0 1'11 if; ~ f<f;B'f>l ~ <li11 ~ ~?

(I) 31 0 ,,411 W f1'f>1 .. R (2) GJlR W f<;q

(3) <'!~ (4) <;IG<T W 'fll{ ~

60. Mark the State with highest density as per 2001 census:

(I) U.P. (2) W. Bengal (3) Kerala (4) Bihar

"11'1 0 111 2001 if; ~ ~ W""' "I1~&l1 ~ ~ ~ <it ~ 'f>lf"l~ :

(I) 'Lo<i\o (2) '[0 ~ (3) m (4) Rm

20

12P/207/31

61. Which one of the following States has the lowest Sex ratio as per

2001 census?

(1) Sikkim

(3) Haryana

(2) Punjab

(4) Uttar Pradesh

,"'1'1 01'112001 it~. R""l i! it f<I><l"U"'l 'liT fCi'":l'll(f ~ q;l1 %7

(1) f<:1f'l'hl1 (2) -q;;jj'I

(3) ~f(~101l (4) "3m: ~

62. Which one of the following has the highest Sex ratio as per 2001

Census?

(1) Chhattisgarh

(3) Tamil Nadu

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(4) Odisha

,"'1'1 01'112001 it~. R""l i! it f<I><l"U"'l 'liT fCi'"i4Id ~ 3TI'l<Ii %7

(1) 0J\WI,. (2) r~qli1<;l ~

(3) dfA<;l'lI\i (4) ~

63. In how many agricultural regions was the world divided by Whittlesey?

(1) Four (2) Five (3) Ten (4) Thirteen

(1) <!R (2) -.iR (3) <;B (4) ~

64. Which one of the following is not a nomadic herding region?

(1) Pampas in S.America

(3) Dry desert in Africa

(2) Tibetan plateau

(4) Khirgistan

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WI it ~ 'lit.! 'l<?iql\"ll q'tl"lROI I$l/>Rw -:m t? (1) <;0 aii'lf{ifil it ~ (2) ~ "" 'lOR

(4) PiHfiR<lH

65. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?

(1) N.E. India - Jhooming

(3) Malaysia - Nagasu

(2) Sri Lanka - Chena

(4) Rhodesia - Milpa

WI it ~ 'lit.! \iiWctd -.w t? ( 1 ) "30 'io 'If<<[ - <lfl'rT (3) 4Mf.iI~1 - "l1ll1l

(2) ~-~

(4) {t~f.iI~1 - 1li<"lT

66. Per head production of milk is highest in .......... .

(1) Holland (2) Denmark (3) Belgium

~RlOl4fil<1 ~ (~,,) "" d(qI~1 .............. it ~ 31f'lifi tl

(4) France

(1) ~14os (2) ~1'11<t (3) i'1f0ot~4 (4) ;om

67. Which is the most important iron ore from commercial point of veiw?

(1) Siderite (2) Hematite (3) Limonite (4) Magnetite

22

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68. Which one of the following countries has the largest iron ore re­

serves in the world?

(I) India (2) Brazil (3) Russia (4) U.S.A.

F-1"1F<'If€ld iT tt m ~ "i'iiT <iffct cfu;~li f~ it ~ 31f>]q;~?

(I) "!Ril (2) on~ (3) <"B (4) '!o"""o1l,v

69. Mark out the second largest producer of iron ore in the world?

(I) China (2) Canada (3) Brazil (4) Australia

~ it <[ffi ~ 'iito 3ffi<'I; ~ (~) 'lit ~ q;{ :

(I) -.:iR (2) ,,,"'If:sT (3) ~ (,.) 311~F<1'l1

70. Which one of the following iG the l<?rg.;:-st coal producing region of

India?

(I) Mahanadi Basin

(3) Son Basin

(I) 'l~I'I~ <nil

(3) "BR <nil

(2) Damodar Basin

(4) Godawari Basin

(2) <;1'11<;1. 'l1i1

(4) 'n<;I<"Rl <nil

71. Which one of the following has the largest coal reserve in Russia?

(I) Ural region (2) Moscow- Tula Region

(3) Kuznetsk Region (4) Donetsk Region

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R8 if i! "'" q;r ~ 31f% ~ q;r ~ 'fUm ~ %7

(1) ~ ~ (2) ~-¥" ~

72. Which is the largest petroleum producing country of the world?

(1) V.S.A. (2) Saudi Arabia

(3) Russia (4) Iran

~ q;r wrtf% ~ ift;r ili'MiIi ~ * %1

(1) 'l,01l:B01l;0 (2) ~ ~

(3) "'" (4) ~

73. Where is Dubai located?

(1) Saudi Arabia

(3) lraque

~ ~ 3iqf+>q(j %7

(1) ~~

(3) "fuq;

(2) Kuwait

(4) V.A.E,

(2) -¥o (4) ~~wlRra

74. Which one of the following is the highest potential for Hydel power?

(1) S. America (2) N. America

(3) Africa (4) Asia

R8 if i! f<li{1'l>l ''1<'lfq'il'l 'Ilf<Rl 'Ii\ ili'1IG1 a:fI1(IT ~ 31f% %7

(1) <;0 3iQR"li1 (2) -ao 3iilR"li1

(3) ~ (4) v:Wn

24

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75. Which country is the largest producer of hydel power?

(1) U.S.A. (2) Canada (3) Brazil (4) Russia

~ 'iI<.1f'-lI!l'l WI<! 'liT 00 ~ 3<'11<;q) ~ t? (1) 'l.oll:Bo1l;o (2) 'tHlsl (3) .. 141<.1 (4) """

76. Which one of the following industries is mostly market - localized?

(1) [ron & Steel (2) Sugar

(3) Paper and pulp (4) Cotton textiles

H'"'1f<'lf@(I "WriT i\ it ~ 3lf'lq)i~l(I: OIT"IR ,"u:flq>(I t? (1) ~-~cW1 (2) <iR\cW1

(3) "'fillT"! '-"" ~ cW1 (4) '!1ii om! cW1

77. The largest number of cotton textile mills are found in :

(1) Tamil Nadu

(3) Gujarat

(2) Maharashtra

(4) U.P.

'!1ii om! ~ "\1c!If'lq) q) R @ ~ fJ!ffi\ % : (1) (lfA<.1'111 i\ (2) ~~RI~ i\ (3) TiI{I(I i\ (4) 'l.o'=i\o i\

78. Where is Port Sayeed located?

(1) On the North Side of the Mediterranian

(2) On the Bank of Red Sea

(3) On the North End of Suez Canal

(4) On the South End of Suez Canal

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<iii ~ %T 31C1R><ld t? ( 1 ) 'Pl"l \"II' I ( ~ oWl f<ti"'fR 'R

(2) "('![('f ~ ~ <R: 'R

(3) m "10( ~ oWl M 'R

(4) m "10( ~ <;f~ -,m 'R

79. When was the Panama Canal inagurated?

(1) 1919 (2) 1914 (3) 1956

80. Which is the second largest railway line of the world?

(1) Canedian Pacific Railway

(2) Transsiberian Railway

(3) Australian Transcontinental Railway

(4) Northern Transcontinental Railway of USA

m '1>'\ ~ ~ ~ '(C'l<'l1$1 n<'lAI'f) ~ t? (1) q;~r,M1 ~r{lf4;q; {<'IAl'f

(2) {1@I;;ilR~1 {<'IAI'f

(3) 311~r<1~1 {iMIR:~""cl {clAl'f

(4) 'L0~o1l:0 q;r oWl {1\"Iq;IR:~""cl {clAI'f

(4) 1969

81. Gold mining towns of Kalgoorli and Kulgardi are located in :

(1) Canada (2) Australia (3) India (4) South Africa

26

12P/207/31

Bl"f d<'@ii 'l'R 'hIM'[ffl l(Ci j1M'aif 3jCjR"ld €- : (1) 'hiFsl it (2) 311<?r<1~1 it

(3) ;;ras~1 it (4) <;f~ ~ it

-82. Which one of the following comes nearest to Modern Man in

evolutionary order?

(1) Java Man

(3) Neanderthal Man

( 1 ) "lTCiT liR"'I

(3) r"~as('l<1liR"'1

(2) Cromagnon Man

(4) Peking Man

(2) "'14'1li liR"'I

(4) ~ liR"'I

83. Kroeber's classification of races is primarily based on :

(1) Cephalic Size

(3) Colour

( 1 ) ftR 711 q;lffi'\ <i> 3lf6f>R 'R

(3) t>1 711 quj 'R

(2) Nasal Shape

(4) Cranial capacity

(2) ilf\1'h1 qi\ ~ 'R

(4) ~ 'l1furr 'R

84. Dr. B.S. Guha classified races in India into ... « ............ groups.

"if 0 on 0 ll;B 0 'lm 'I 'lffil il ~ "11 RI>i1 <.fit . . . . . . . .. .. ~ il 'I' Tf'l' d f<li<n * 1

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 6

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85. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?

(1) India - Gond (2) Kalahari - Bushman

(3) Cangi Basin - Semang

f.r<;r it it '!it.! fli1r<.1d "ltf ~? (1) "IR(j - ~

(3) 'litrit itftR - WWr

(4) Amezan Basin - Bora

(2) q>1(11~1(1 -~

(4) ~ itftR - o!tU

86. Which one of the following is suitably matched?

(1) Tharus - Chhota Nagpur Plateau

(2) Santhal - M.P.

(3) Bhil - Gujarat/Rajasthan/M.P.

(4) Joda - Nagaland

R"1f<.1f(5ld it it '!it.! -mT flilf<.1d t? (1) '1m! - <WI ~ '1OR

(2) W'lf<'f - l1"l ~

(3) oft<1 - 2"1{1dj{l"lfl'fR/l1"l ~

(4) ~ - '11'1I8os

87. The highest number of Buddhists are found in :

(1) Sikkim (2) Arunachal Pradesh

(3) V.P. (4) Maharashtra

~ 'l~f'l(1fkt4r qij ~ aTI"I'I> <l&rr ~ t : (1) f{ifqq;~ i'j

(3) 'i0-q)o i'j

(2) 31~oll"l(1 ~ i'j

(4) ~~I(le i'j

28

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88. Mark out the native place of Coffee:

(1 ) Brazil (2) S.W. Asia

(3) Ethiopia (4) Latin America

~ 'l>T 'i\'f>$r f.Ifu!: ",If''l4 :

(1 ) jlloil <'I (2) ~o '10 ~

(3) .~ (4 ) ~ 31ilR'li1

89. Hawai Islands constitute the part of:

(1) Polynesia (2) Australasia

(3) Micronesia (4) Melenesia

~ lftq ~ .................. it 'IT'T (W'!i") t : (1) qlf,"~RI~1

(3) ~I$,"I~RI~I

(2) 311~clRI~1

(4) ilf,"~RI~1

90. Mark out the year when the latest National Population Policy was

undertaken?

~ qq 'lit f.Ifu!: ",If"'l4 "I'l '1<4l'1d~ ~ ,,'1BMI -;j\fu f.r'lfftl 'lit <r<ft : (1) 2004 (2) 1978 (3) 2000 (4) 2009

91. Mark out the country which is an important steel producing region

based on its imported iron ore and Coal:

(1) France (2) England (3) Japan (4) Brazel

~ ~ 'lit ~ ",If''l4 ;;it ~ ~ am ~ it = 'l1: 311"lTft! foRq 'l>T

ll:'I' ~ <; i'CI '1'" f ~ d (q I ~'Ii >$r t : (1) >OR! (2) ~lICiu$ (3) "IT'!R (4) jlloil<'l

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92. Who first used the terminology - 'Sequent - Occupance' ?

(I) Hartshorne

(3) 1. Bowman

(2) B.J.L. Berry

(4) D. Whittlesey

~ ~ ~ '~ 3lfmr~' (ffl'!<lc 3l1~&'fl) ~liiGlq01 q;r wWT fi!;<rr ?

(I) ~lbil4 (2) <ftoiro~o ilU

(3) ~o ~ (4) ito ,.lRMfiI

93. Which one of the following is the third largest country of the world?

(I) Russia (2) China (3) U.S.A. (4) Canada

(I) ~ (2) '<1l1 (4) 'l>'lmT

94. India accounts for .......... ...... of the total surface area of the world.

'lmf mer it ~ 'W<li'1 q;r .............. 'lJTI ~ 'li«lT t : (I) 1% (2) 3% (3) 2% (4) 4%

95. The era of Liberalization - Globalization and Privatization begin in

India since:

(I) 1981 (2) J 985 (3) 200 I (4) 1991

96. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on the river ......... .

(I) Sutlej

(3) Luni

(2) Narmada

(4) Tapti (Tupi)

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"\R~n: mTcn: on'l .,. .......... ~ 'R f.!fit! il ( I) f! MNI (2) -;p:fr,r

(3) 'flT

97. Which one of thE" following Soils is locally called -Regur'?

(1) Alluvial Soil

(3) Red Soil

(2) Black Soil

(4) Laterite Soil

f.!P ~ iI' fi<;il ~4 ~ it 'tT:' q;m"IT<IT i? (1) q;fq ~ (2) 'liT<'il ~ (3) "t'1T0 ~ (4) &(I><! ~

98. Tungabhadra is a join~ river project of :

(I) Kerala - Tamil Nadu

(2) Kerala - Karnataka

(3) Karnataka - Andhra Pradesh

(4) Andhra Pradesh - Tamil Nadu

~'ll;[ l:('l> .,.,......,. '1ill:('l> ~ ~ q fi: 41 "I '11 i : (1) ~«'f - nf~<"HIi3 (2) m - 'lHk.,

(3) .,'1k", - 3TIll ~ (4) 31Rl ~ - (1f4<"1'1Ii3

99.. Which State has the highest proportion of Scheduled Caste popula­

tion to total population as per 2001 Census?

(1) Bihar

(3) Uttar Pradesh

(2) W. Bengal

(4) Punjab

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200 1 qi] '" '1 , I a H I i);- 3J1BR f'Rl \l""I 'liT ~ '" '1 G&ll i'l 31 :JWil d "<iITf<! 'liT

~ wrft 3lf~ i ?

(1) fim< (2) ~o -;;j"1jm (3) 6<R ~ (4) t<iII'I

IOO.Mark the month and year when Tsunamis hit the India Coasts:

(1) March, 2001

(3) April, 2005

(2) Decembber 2004

(4) November, 2003

'ffi'HJ aih: '1'1 ~ ",lr"l~ "'" p if 'llUil>! dccr<il 'l1'iT'Iit 31lit>f'ld W<r ''IT:

(1) lJI<f, 2001 (2) r~{lkH, 2004

(3) ~,2005 (4) '1cr14(, 2003

101. How many days does a lunar year have?

(1) 360 (2) 365 1

(3) 365 4 (4) 354

102. Which one of the following is called 'a country of farmers for forty

centuries'?

(1) India (2) Egypt (3) China (4) Greece

f.il:;j i'l if cr;R ~ 'ill01{l ~IiIIFo<; <ii if ~ 'liT ~' q;m onnr i ?

(1) 'lffil (2) fi:r!Jl (3) <fA (4) Jim

103. Who first attempted to divide U.S.A. into agricultural regions?

(1) Hartshorn & Dicken

(3) Jonasson

(2) Baker

(4) Kostrowicki

32

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00 ~ m:R ~ = ~~ft<1i1 '!it ~ ri i! f<!'1'RI <m "" >rOO fon<n? (1) elbiH am: ~ (2) im (3) 'i\l~~1 (4) qii0i)f'l'hl

104. Which one of the following is the iargest exporter country?

(1) U.S.A. (2) China (3) Japan (4) Germany

f.p::j i! -,'t em 00 ~ f.jQjct<1i ~ i? (1) 'i0~01l:0 (2) <fA (3) "fT'!R (4) ~

105. Which refinery is established by Reliance Petroleum Ltd.?

(1) Koyali (2) Kochin (3) Jamnagar (4) Haldia

em ~'l"<1i <1iR@111 ftMlq'B q?)f<'lq~ rno s:ro <:>11~ct i ?

(1) qiiqlMl (2) qiiilH (3) "1I~1'1( (4) ~f0;ql

106. Which is the second largest fish producing country?

(1) Japan (2) USA (3) India

em ~ ~ l1w:l a(tll~,*, ~ i? (1) "fT'!R (2) ~oUo :o1~ft<1i1

(3) '1ffif (4) <fA

107. Broad nose is a salient characteristic of:

(1) Mangolian race

(3) Nordic race

~ 1If~<1i1 1l:'I> ~ f'l~qctl i ; (1) 4,ilf<'l'l1 ~ '!it (3) 11~<1i ~ '!it

(2) Negroid race

(4) Caucasian race

(2) -;fuj)~ ~ <tt (4) <1iI<!;~lq1 ~ <tt

33

(4) China

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108. Who first divided India into Four Natural - Geographical regions?

(1) L.D. Stamp

(3) Q.S. Ahmed

(1) 11,('foi\o ~

(3) "'!0'QJI0 3W'lG

(2) Pithawala

(4) O.H. K Spate

(2) Ridl'!I<.11

(4) aito11;'lo","o ~

109. Select the odd item in the following group:

(1) Luni

(3) Raj Mahal

(2) Ghaghghar

(4) Wegai

H"'lR1f61d ~ if ~ 'l<: q;r ~ ifilf",~ :

( 1 ) <'l:ft (2) "11"R

(3) U""i~<.1 (4) ~

110. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(1 ) Hohululu (2) New Guinea

(3) Folk Iseland (4) Celebes

f.I"'I if ~ "1ft'! ~ it ~ "" f.'>f<r "Itf t? (1)

, ~lffl (2) "i,m

(3) -q;fq;- 3i I.~ o:s (4) fi<'l<il"1

34

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111. Which Indian scholar observed first that Earth rotates around its axis?

(1) Varahmihir

(3) Brahmagupta

(2) Aryabhatt

(4) Bha~karacharya

~ 'lmirl ~ 'I ~ ~ f<I; 'F.cft 31'l'ft 3/., 'R '{'lffl~?

(1) '1l{lllr~fu( (2) awl~

(3) ,nwltct

112. Who contributed most to the evolution of population geography as a

special brand of geography?

(1) W. Zelinsky

(3) K. Davis

(2) G.T. Trewartha

(4) I. Clarke

~ q,'\ 1l:'Ii = f<.;i)q ~ i\ "l'Hi&11 ~ it rCj<t>I~ i\ ~ ~ 31f'1<t> O:(I'I~1'l f<;1lr ?

(1) ~o OjrOR<",l

(3) ito ~ (2) ~oito~.n

(4) ~o~

113. Who edited/ authored the book - "Geography in the 20'" Century' ?

(1) G. Taylor

(3) Jean Brunches

(2) E. Huntigton

(4) O.H.K. Spate

';;<itMI'l>l .., c: ",i1;oll{I!f~' - 'l,«I<t> ~ fW;fi/~llllrG~ q,'\?

(1) ~o ~ (2) ~o llRn1

(3) ~ ~ (4) a1Iol(Cloito ~

35 P.T.O.

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114. What is Angora?

(1) a type of goat

(3) a type of fruit

al>Tm 'I<IT %?

( 1 ) ~ ll'!>R q,') 'f'IiU

(3) ~ ll'!>R q;r '"'"

(2) a type of horse

(4) a type of gril-in

115. What would be the approximate - area of Antarctica?

(1 ) 90,00,000 Sq. Km (2) 115,00,000 Sq. Km

(3) 135,00,000 Sq. Km (4) 150,00,000 Sq.Km

3l'i!I<!;f~"'1 q;r ~ WT'l'T 'I<IT;irrr ?

(1 ) 90,00,000 or! %>lI (2) 115,00,000 or! %>lI

(3) 135,00,000 or! %>lI (4) 150,00,000 or! %>lI

116. On 23rd September Sun is vertically over:

(1 ) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn

(3) Equator (4) Prime Meridian

23 f,w'i{ q,') ~ <'1k1'1d m % : (1) q;<!;- WI 'R (2) 'l'R WI 'R

(3) f<l!'j'1C{ WI 'R (4) '5!'IR ll~ WI 'R

36

12P/207/31

ll7. Young Folded Mountain was formed during:

(I) Pleistocene Period (2) Tertiary Period

(3) Cretaceous Period (4) Carboniferous Period

"¥T Ii'I$GI( "t[ifffi' <tl f.rqfu] ~31T :

(1) 1'<10f11'i"TT if (2) -mraru"TT if (3) f"'~ffl~fI"TT if (4) ifilolff1q,U1"TT if

ll8. 'Golden Quadrilateral' is the name given to the:

(I) New Development Corridors (2)

(3) Supernational Hiway Network (4)

Special Economic Zones

New Rail Lines

, fCI fITl G 'lTI:f;r' - 1T<I fu:'lT 7J<IT ~ :

(I) -;;it f'lifilfi ifi'ffl:il4 qij

(3) f!q(~~I;kl mf<l ~m<t qij

(2) mm ~ >$iT qij

(4) -;;it m l1I'lf qij

ll9.Mark out the correct R.F. for a map showing two places with a

distance of 15 em :

<it ~ qij IS -wn qft ~ U ~ ~ GHf'l'1 <tl ~ ~G~iifi f'i>l ~ ",If''l~ :

(I) I: 1,000,000

(3) 1,00,000

(2) 1,500,000

(4) 1,50,000

120, Which does Dot belong to the group?

(I) Redial Method

(3) Resection Method

(2) Intersection Method

(4) Cross Section Method

37 P.T.O.

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'It.! ww /wf "\'t BklR«! '%f ~? (I) '{m>lM f<If>T

(3) f{flillll1 f<If>T

(2) $'i!{flilliH f<If>T

(4) <Pm fl i.ffi 1 f<If>T

121. Which one of the following is considered as unproductive use of land?

(I) Fishing (2) Hunting (3) Housing (4) Grazing

f.I"! if"\'t 'It.! 'WI ~ 3ljNIGili aq""1 l!RT ;;mrr ~?

(1) ~-lfflUT (2) ~ (3) W/3lTW! (4) ~

122. Which one of the following is not suitably matched?

(I) U.S.A. - Intensive Farming

(2) New Zealand - Dairy Farming

(3) S.E. Asia - Plantation Agriculture

(4) Bangladesh - Substensive Farming

f1"lf<.1flild i:i "\'t <.fi'R \"l~f0d ~ ~? (I) • ~ 3lilf{ilil - 1f6'! ~

(2) "{oll4lo,; - ~ Q'i!QIM1 ~

(3) ~ 0 '1.0 lJ,fuqr -qpmjl~

(4) "i'MI~~1 - r+'1f~'L(1ili ~

123. "Indira Point' is located roughly on :

(I) 4' North Lat. (2) 6' N. Lat. (3) 8' N. Lat. (4) 10' N Lat.

(I) 4' (2) 6' (3) 8' (4) 10'

38

12P/207/31

124. Which is the oldest city?

(1) PI ayag (Allahabad)

(3) Mayapuri (Haridwar)

'fiR ~ "lI'J"i'iR 'I'R %?

(1) ';f'lJTf (~n;I~I~)

(3) TjI~13n (ffi&R)

(2) Kashi (Varanasi)

(4) Patliputra (Patna)

(2) ~ (qRIUIBi)

(4) %,.f<'l9>~ ('IZ'lT)

125. Which has the largest share as a component of Soil?

(1) Organic Matter

(3) Soil Solutions

(2) Minerals

(4) Soil Atmosphere

'FO it BQ<!ih it ~ if f"'MI fumr ('ll'T) ~ aU'f'l; %?

(1) $rq; <Iii'.f (2) ~ '1GT'f

(3) '>GT ~

126. Which one does not belong to the group?

(1 ) Population Ecology (2) Community Ecology

(3) Autecology (4 ) Biome Ecology

'li'R Wjj: 'IT qlj it W~Ptrn ~ %?

(1 ) ~ qlftWifd<f>l (2) fI'!G1'I qlftWifu<f>l

(3) fCI q I ftWi fu<f> 1 (4) ~ ('If'irT) qlftWifu'f>l

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127.Merkali Scale is used to measure:

(1) Intensily of Earthquake (2) Eruption of Volcano

(3) Frequency of Landslides (4) Quantum of water flow

Jj('I>I01llT'Fl> 'liT m ,,','"'"",', of; 'IT'R %g W:n -;;mn t : (1) ~ qij <fi<rnT (2) """fllli@) ~

(3) 'i rufl'l qij '1I(141(dl

128. Which lypes of environmental hazards are Floods & Droughts?

(1) Planetary jTerrestrial

(3) Anthropogenic (4)

(2) Atmospheric

Cumulative atmospheric

ow; 31R ~ ~ "lI"f>R" it q~fq( un ~ writ'! ~'? (1) m'rij~ (2) ClI~Jjus01~

(3) 'lHCI"1Hd (4) ~ q~I'I(on~

129. 'Operation Flood' iS'related with:

(1) Green Revolution

(3) BlueRevolution

(2) White Revolution

(4) Yellow Revolution

(1) ~ 'llilRI (2) ~ 'llilRI (3) -;fiffi 'llilRI ( 4 ) <mr 'llilRI

130, Mark the location of Red Basin?

(1) Japan (2) China (3) Taiwan (4) Myanmar

40

12P/207/31

~ ~ '1ft ~ ~ "'lrcij~ : [1) "fTl1R (2) <lR (3) ~W111 (4) R1i"ll(

131. Which of the following soils is predominantly formed under Taga

Forests?

[1) Chernozem

(3) Laterite

[1) 'Roil "I 4

(3) ~l(I~~

(2) Podzol

(4) Brown Soils

(2) QI,,;;il(1

(4) ~~

132. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(1) Netherland

(3) Sweden

(2) Denmark

(4) Norway

f-1"1f<:1r@~ if ii 'fiR-<lT ~ <rl 'IT ~ ii ~ "IW i? [1) 41«~u" (2) il"414; (3) ~ (4) '!lif

133. Which of the following industrial regions does belong to Great

Britain?

(1) Saar-Lorren

(3) Midlands

(2) Flanders

(4) Rhur

41 P.T.O.

UP/207/31

f.i"1 if <nR afleilfllq; mr "ilz ~ ~ 1'I'4f.'«<T i? (1) m\-<'iI't! (2) <M<;lf

(4) ""

134. Where does lie the Karaganda Coal basin?

(1) Russia

(3) Ukraine

(1) ~

(2) Kazakhastan

(4) Georgia

(2) q;"lI@«1I'f (3) ~ (4) "llm~1

13S.Mark out the industrial region where Yakohama-Kawasaki are lo­

cated?

(1) Kwanto Industrial Region (2) Nagoya Region

(3) Kinki Region (4) Kita-Kyusher Region

~ aflwfllq; mr <liT ~ q,lfci1~ .m ~1<il~141-q;IClII'II",1 3lCllf<4d i? (1) <i<li<it afI,,"fllq; mr (2) "'1'W!r mr

(3) fii;"q,l mr (4) fil>ffi-<PFR mr

136. When was the 'Open door' policy adopted in China with reference to

its economic development?

(1) 1952 (2) 1966 (3) 1980 (4) 1991

42

12P/207/31

137. Mark out the year of the organization of ASEAN (Association of South

East Asian Nations) :

(1) 1960 (2) 1967 (3) 1970 (4) 1985

138. Kumaun Himalaya spreads in between:

(I) Kali and Tista rivers (2) Indus and Sutlej rivers

(3) Tista & Brahmputra rivers (4) Sutlej and Kali rivers

~ f%'1I(1~ q;r r'H<lR ................. ~ ~ 1I~ ~I

(1) q;rffi afu: f<ffiIT (2) fu":! afu: (\i\(1'"

139. Which one of the following is the oldest real mountain range of

India?

(2) Aravali range (1) Vindhyan range

(3) Satpura range (4) Meghalayan rang

f.Il;r iI it ~ 'lffi! qft ~ltft1i1'1 '11<:<114'1; -q<fu ~ t? (1) f<p.zj ~ (2) a!,Ii!('1] ~

(3) (\d~'i>1 ~ (4) q'lI(1~ ~

140. Mark out the number of SARe nations?

"'* ~ qft ~ ~dl~il :

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

43 P.T.O.

12P/207/31

141. Mark the correct location of Golan Heights:

(1) Israel (2) Syria (3) Jordon (4) Egypt

liiffi ~Ik*i 'lit tfflt W!f<r ~ ",,)f,"a :

(I) ."HI~(1 (2) -mR<rr (3) ~ (4) I'll)!

142. Mombasa is the greatest port city of :

(1) Tanzania (2) Somali (3) Keniya (4) Ethiopia

Iil«ll*il ............... q;r wm ~ 'l'R "f1T{ tl

(1) d'"If.!~1 (2) «I~lcll (3) ",,)f.!~1

143. Which one of the following country is the most industrialized?

(1) Arjentina (2) Brazil (3) Mexico (4) Columbia

(2) ~1;sft(1 (4) "'1(1~~1

144.Mark out the country with Centrally Planned Economy?

(1) Japan

(3) Britain

(2) North-Korea

(4) Indonesia

<t1tl~ f.!~lr'"d ar,q01!'1{>l1 mB ~ 'lit ~ ",')r,"~ :

( 1 ) '<iIT"!R (2) -aWl '" 111: ~ I (3) f.it1

44

12P/207/31

145. Which one of the following country does not belong to the group?

(1) Austria (2) Russia (3) Ukraine (4) Armenia

f.r8i(~~~~/wf~~W~?

(2) ~ (3) ~ (4) 3l1iIR~1

146. Which is the largest city of Canada?

(1) Ottawa (2) Taranto (3) Montrial (4) Vankuvar

~ <or w.rn 'W 'I'R ~-m ~?

(1) aim<!! (2) i)(;i\ (3) qjR~IM (4) ~3T{

147. Mark out the location of Angel's Waterfall and Marakaibo lake:

(1) Chile (2) Peru (3) Ecuador (4) Venezuela

~ = 1J}i ~1{1q;I~oii ~ oil ff:>lfu ~ ",lfOlq :

(1) m (2) -m<: (3) ~i"f4~\

148. What would be the approximate length of the Great Barier Reef of

Australia?

(1) 1500 Km (2) 2000 Km (3) 2500 Km (4) 3000 Km

3l1f{f<1~1 oil 11m "5[C{R'f -m'AiT (it< ~ -t\q;) oil ~ <'flT'fIT 'F!1 m? (1) 1500 flI;tft (2) 2000 flI;tft

(3) 2500 flI;tft (4) 3000 flI;tft

12P/207/31

149. Which country was previously known as 'Pearl of the Orient'?

(1) India (2) Sri Lanka (3) Malaysia (4) Myanmar

'If>t.I-m ~ ~ '~ q;r -.mil' "*'1ldl "'?

(1) 'lmI (2) ~ (3) ",<'If.lI~1 (4) "'Ii",,,

ISO. Which country do you consider with fuJI of diversities?

(1) Malaysia (2) Philippines(3) Thailand (4) Indonesia

(1) ",<'If.lI~1

46 2,500

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1. Jm' ~ffiiq;1 flR'rit if; 10 flRz if; 3R\ m ~ zit f<l; ~ ii ri '1'8" ~ ~ 3W: <ili Jm' ~ 'l'@tl ~ffiiq;1 <it",,!'" 'lJ'l! "I1'l 'q,: ~ ~ ffi'ffi1 'lX\l-~ 'litw ~ ~ q;[ <;,mt ~rfi1q;1 = '"' ziti

2. m 'l'I'! ii (RIb'lbl $ll'ffl-w ~ JlfitfiiJiI, fu<m'IT m<;T <ili m 1%ffi q;J"1fjf m9!

ii 'I "('fJ'i! I

3. ""'-W3/1'ffT it if,.,,,,,,, il p7 ,,1ft '"1' 3iIr" tt ~ q;f, iJI'T o;rr- w 'fitf;,,,, .rrit'TTI 1/;>m o;rr - W ." tt ~""i'h'I ffnl/T."itrrr I

4. 3l'RT 3J'l,.~iq; i1'IT 3m-'1'f "ihT jfi'<!jq; lI'm 3lJq(Uj-'1'8" '« it'! "il ~ l>!T'I '« fffiYl

5. ""'- w ~ "flIT{ ~ '" iFr it 3I'RT 3I!J ... i .. f.mffirl f'!{f'f '" fffii'1rI!ff ;f/W ~ ¢ ..r """ iIIT (I .,.,-.,., 3114 • ., .. tt >ffl' ".." -qIM .. , ." /I'il1fq; rr." iIG "" """ offrrr 'f1!IT:it' '" fffiNI

6. 3i'I. '?'7' 3!T7:. W '" 3I!J,nqi .. ~ "'fIjm. .. 1 ifIsiIlT " iIG ifIsiIlT (~ ..rt tt) rr'" ""Sm. .. , '" 3I!Jih qj.. 3iIr 3i'I. '?'7' 3!T7:. W ifIsiIlT '-1fI .fiith'!' ,1' dqli He'" '-1fI J13'dir 'fit'il

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= "" rI'itrr 1If'1T .";p,, I

8. "..,,-SIMi., if JIfiI>n ".." ~ <m' iI .. fiiil .. o;rr ~ rrit ii JIfiI>n ".." ~ iI .. fiiil .. "'" ~ ~ JmT<it o;rr-w '-1fI" .. f.irn >ifi;r ~.mW ~ rrit ~..r o;rr-w ~ "flIT{ ~ '" ~ >Til tmft' ~ JI3Ii7' iFr it """ q;ro t I

9. wil'I; Jm' if; 3m if; f<'l'll: ~ 1l,'li m ~ 'lit lJT'IJ <R I 1l,'li "il 3lfuq; ¥t 'lit lJT'IJ q;f.r '« 3WIT 1l,'li ~ 'lit 3J1jUf ~-f.t '« 'Il' 3m Tfffi1 'lRT ;mit1rr1

1 O. .."" (fiI; ~ 'Iff 'PlIif/ imT 3ifiI;rr o;rr """" 'fit' "IT 'fTiFIfT i I ~ 3TTfl fiImI ".." "" o;rr 'fit ~ .",.;t t; 1ft mifiTrl' >ifi;r ~ mW ~ >Til "til ¢..r wffl ~ (I >iii mi' '" 'I'J."I' Jiq; ~ .".rit I

11. <Gi 'liT'! if; ~ Jm'-~I«Iq;1 if; :!"'~" if; *' 'lIffi '1'8" i1'IT 3m-~I«Iq;1 if; :;ifim '1'8" "ihT m <RI

12. m if; ~ Wm 3i'I '?'7 3fT7: o;rr -w m 'l'I'! ii WlT '1h>: ;; I

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~ "ihT/q;[, IJT1ft ~iMil