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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 19
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 200 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
http://insightsonindia.com
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014
http://insightsonindia.com Page 2
1. Which of the following are the
circumstances under which an elected
Member of Parliament may be disqualified
on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his
membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting
contrary to any direction issued by his
political party without prior
permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than
the party on whose ticket he contested
and got elected
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
2. Which of the following statements
regarding judiciary in India are correct?
1. Supreme Court of India is free from
the control and influence of
legislature and executive
2. Subordinate courts are at the head
of the judicial hierarchy of the state.
3. The Chief Justice and other judges
of the High Court are appointed by
the Governor in consultation with
the Chief Justice of India
4. A High Court can withdraw a case
from a subordinate court and can
deal with the case itself if it is
satisfied that the case involves a
substantial point of constitutional
law
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
3. In which of the following case(s), the Chief
Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible
to vote in the Presidential election?
1. If he himself is a candidate
2. If he is yet to prove his majority on the
floor of the Lower House of the State
legislature
3. If he is a member of the Upper House of
the State legislature
4. If he is a caretaker Chief Minister
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) 2 and 3
4. Which of the following was/were the
demands of the Home Rule Movement
started by Tilak?
1. To overthrow the British government
2. Education in vernacular languages
3. Formation of linguistic states
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
http://insightsonindia.com Page 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) Only 1
5. Convertibility of the rupee implies:
a) being able to convert rupee notes into
gold
b) allowing the value of the rupee to be
fixed by market forces
c) freely permitting the conversion of
rupee to other major currencies and
vice versa
d) developing an international market
for currencies in India
6. Which of the following statements
regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court are correct?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to
give its opinion on any matter referred
to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme Court
hears any reference made to it under its
power of advisory jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme
Court on a reference under advisory
jurisdiction is not binding on the
government.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 3
7. Which one of the following statements
regarding Exit Poll is correct ?
a) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a
post-election survey of voters
regarding the candidate in whose
favour they had exercised their
franchise
b) Exit Poll and Opinion Poll are one
and the same
c) Exit Poll is a device through which
results of voting can be most exactly
predicted
d) Exit Poll is an administrative device
made recently by the Chief Election
Commissioner to prevent
impersonation
8. Consider the following statements about
the Komagata Maru incident in September
1914:
1. Thousands of Indians were killed by the
Canadian authorities when they tried to
enter into the national boundaries of
Canada.
2. This incident was one of the reasons for
the fuelling of the Ghadr Movement.
3. The incident evoked a sharp response
from the Indian revolutionaries because
people from almost all parts of India
were onboard the Komagata Maru ship.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 2
9. Consider the following statements
1. This river rises on Brahmagiri Hill of
the Western Ghats in
southwestern Karnataka state
2. In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice,
forming the sacred islands of
Srirangapatnam and Sivasamudram
To which of the following rivers, the above
statements refer to?
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a) Sharavati
b) Kabini
c) Kaveri
d) Netravati
10. The principal reason why national,
economic planning is still being pursued
inspite of embracing a market economy
since 1991 is that:
a) It is a Constitutional requirement
b) The vast quantity of capital already
deployed in the public sector needs
to be nurtured
c) Five-Year Plans can continue to
provide a long-term perspective to
the economy in market-friendly
fashions
d) The market economy is mainly
confined to industry and commerce
and central planning in agriculture is
necessary
11. Which of the following electoral systems
have been adopted for various elections in
India ?
1. System of direct elections on the basis of
adult suffrage.
2. System of proportional representation
by means of the single transferable vote.
3. List system of proportional
representation.
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
12. The basic reason for the extraordinary
sparkle of a suitably cut diamond is that
a) it has a very high transparency
b) it has a very high refractive index
c) it is very hard
d) it has well-defined cleavage planes
13. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts
because
1. It has a high boiling point
2. It has a high dipole moment
3. It has a high specific heat
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) Only 2
14. Who among the following have the right to
vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha ?
a) Elected members of the Lower House
of the Parliament
b) Elected members of the Upper House
of the Parliament
c) Elected members of the Upper House
of the State Legislature
d) Elected members of the Lower House
of the State Legislature
15. With reference to the Financial Sector
Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC)
recommendations, consider the following
statements
1. The Commission has recommended a
seven-agency structure for the financial
sector
2. The FSLRC report emphasizes financial
consumer protection.
http://insightsonindia.com Page 5
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
16. Agricultural income-tax is assigned to the
State Governments by
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Inter-State Council
4. The Constitution of India
Choose the correct answer using the codes below;
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) Only 4
17. As an alternative to the partition of India,
Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he
a) Postpone granting of independence
b) Invite Jinnah to form the government
c) Invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the
government together
d) Invite the army to take over for some
time
18. Consider the following statements
1. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to
the Nilgiri Hills and the southern
portion of the Western Ghats
2. The Nilgiri Tahr is categorized as
Endangered species under IUCN list
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
19. An air bubble in water will act like a:
a) Convex mirror
b) Convex lens
c) Concave mirror
d) Concave lens
20. Most of the desert plants bloom during
night time because
a) their blooming is controlled by
low temperature
b) they are sensitive to the phases of
moon
c) the desert insects eat away flowers
during day time
d) the desert insects are active during
night time
21. In the Indian context the term De-notified
tribes refers to
a) tribes which are aboriginals
b) nomadic tribes
c) tribes practising shifting cultivation
d) tribes which were earlier classified as
criminal tribes
22. With reference to the Coriolis Force,
consider the following statements
1. It is most apparent in the path of an
object moving longitudinally.
2. An object moving from equator towards
the pole will undergo apparent
deflection to the right in the Northern
Hemisphere
3. This rightward deflection is because of
Earths eastward rotation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
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23. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts
in an administrative capacity, he is subject
to
a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the
other judges of the High Court
b) Special control exercised by the Chief
Justice of India
c) Discretionary powers of the Governor
of the state
d) Special powers provided to the Chief
Minister in this regard
24. Which of the following professional (s) are
more likely to run the risk of a permanent
change in their cells DNA ?
1. Researchers using carbon-14 isotope
2. X-ray technician
3. Coal miner
4. Dyer and Painter
Select the correct answer by using the codes given
below :
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
25. When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake
rises to the top, it will
a) increase in size
b) decrease in size
c) maintain its size
d) flatten into a disk-like shape
26. A British citizen staying in
India cannot claim Right to
a) Freedom of trade and profession
b) Equality before the Law
c) Protection of life and personal liberty
d) Freedom of religion
27. Consider the following statements
regarding the National Human Rights
Commission of India:
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief
Justice of India.
2. It has formations in each state as State
Human Rights Commission.
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in
nature.
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a
member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
28. Which of the following was/were the
difference(s) between the moderates and the
extremists?
1. Boycott of legislative councils
2. Boycott of government Institutions and
strikes
3. Self-government for India
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
29. Which of the following was/were the parts
of the Ghadr Programme during the First
World War?
1. Assassinate government officials
2. Work among Indian troops abroad and
raise funds
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3. Bring about a simultaneous revolt in all
colonies of Britain.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
30. The Speaker can ask a member of the
House to stop speaking and let another
member speak. This phenomenon is known
as
a) decorum
b) crossing the floor
c) interpellation
d) yielding the floor
31. With reference to Antarctic region, consider
the following statements
1. It is governed in accordance with
the international legal regime of
the Antarctic Treaty System
2. Polar bear is a major wildlife found in
the region along with few endemic
birds
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
32. Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find
application in
1. Space travel
2. Surgery
3. Magnetic levitation
4. Telemetry
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
33. Consider the following statements
1. The Indian Monsoon Current refers to
the seasonally varying ocean
current regime found in
the tropical regions of the
northern Indian Ocean
2. During summer, the flow of the upper
ocean is directed westward from near
the Indonesian Archipelago to
the Arabian Sea
3. During the winter, the direction
reverses, with eastward flow extending
from Somalia into the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
34. Which of the following are the regulative
functions of the forests?
1. Absorption, storage and release of vital
gases like oxygen, carbon dioxide etc.
2. Conservation of soil and water
3. Prevention of drought
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) Only 1
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35. Consider the following statements about
social forestry and agro-forestry?
1. Agroforestry is a collective name for
land-use systems involving trees
combined with crops and/or animals
on the same unit of land.
2. Social Forestry is the forestry outside
the Conventional Forestry that aims at
providing continuous flow of goods
and services for the benefit of the rural
people by managing forests of their
choice.
3. Social Forestry has manifold targets
like timber, fuelwood, fodder, wild
vegetables, fruits, water to cover
almost all the needs of the people.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
36. Which of the following were the
outcome(s) of the Lucknow Session of
Indian National Congress and Muslim
League n 1916?
1. A joint scheme of constitutional
reforms by the two parties submitted
to government
2. Return of some extremists to Congress
3. Congress accepted separate electorates
for Muslims
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
37. Consider the following statements about
the Attorney-General of India :
1. He is appointed by the President of
India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as
are required for a Judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of
Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by
Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
38. Sunspot is a
a) A spot on the Sun where lowest
radiation is recorded
b) A vortex of gas on the surface of
the Sun associated with strong local
magnetic activity.
c) A spot on the Sun where extreme
temperature is recorded once in a year
d) None of the above
39. Consider the following features of newer
models of motor cars :
1. Radial tyres
2. Streamlined body
3. Multipoint fuel injection
4. Catalytic converter with exhaust
Which of these features make the newer models of
motor cars more fuel efficient?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
40. Which of the following are parts of the
Gandhis technique of Satyagraha?
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1. Never bow before the evil/wrong-doer
2. Love the evil-doer
3. Accept suffering in his struggle against
the evil as love for truth
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
41. The Princely states in India were:
1. Not a part of British India as per the
Montague declaration of 1917
2. Were sovereign in all matters except
foreign policy
3. Were subject to all legislations passed
by the British government
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
42. A small pouch containing silica gel is often
found in bottles of medicine in tablet or
powder form because silica gel
a) kills bacteria
b) kills germs and spores
c) absorbs moisture
d) absorbs all gases present inside the
bottle
43. Consider the following statements
1. The MaddenJulian oscillation, or
(MJO) is a ocean phenomenon that is
observed in deep waters of the Pacific
Ocean
2. The MaddenJulian oscillation has an
effect on Indian monsoon
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
44. Consider the following functionaries:
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence
is
a) 3, 4, 2, 1
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
45. The Parliament can make any law for the
whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
a) with the consent of all the States
b) with the consent of the majority of
States
c) with the consent of the States
concerned
d) without the consent of any State
46. Which of the following is the major
producer of Earths magnetic field?
a) Ferrous elements present in the
interior of the earth
b) The geomagnetic dynamo
c) Suns magnetic activity
d) None of the above
47. Consider the following statements about
Dark matter:
1. The evidence for Dark Matter is that
the mass required to produce
gravitational force binding the fast-
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moving galaxies is far less than the
mass that has been observed by
scientists.
2. Dark matter does not emit any kind
of electromagnetic radiation.
3. It is estimated that about 80% of the
matter in the universe is Dark matter.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
48. Consider the following statements about
Radio- Frequency Identification (RFID)
Tags:
1. Radio-frequency waves are used to
transfer data, for the purposes of
automatically identifying and
tracking tags attached to objects in a
RFID tag.
2. The RFID tag does not necessarily
have to be in line of sight of the tag
reader.
3. The range of RFID tags is very short,
not more than around 10 meter.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
49. The Rowlatt Act provided for:
1. Stricter control of the Press
2. Arrests without warrant
3. Indefinite detention without trial
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
50. Which one of the following is not a feature
of the Government of India Act of 1935?
a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the
provinces
b) A bicameral legislature
c) Provincial autonomy
d) An All-India Federation
51. If in an election to a State Legislature
Assembly the candidate who is declared
elected loses his deposit, it means that
a) the polling was very poor
b) the election was for a multi-member
constituency
c) the elected candidates victory over
his nearest rival was very marginal
d) a very large number of candidates
contested the election
52. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use
ammonia as refrigerant while domestic
refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons.
Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquified at ambient
temperatures at low pressures.
In the context of the statements above, which is
true?
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a
correct explanation of A
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c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
53. Consider the following statements
1. Diatomic nitrogen forms the bulk of
the atmosphere composition
2. Amount of Argon present in the
atmosphere is more than the
amount of Carbon Dioxide present
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
54. The Communal award of McDonald
Ramsay provided for:
1. Separate electorates for Muslims,
Sikhs, Christians and Anglo-Indians
2. Special constituencies for depressed
classes
3. Election of women on communal
basis from special constituencies
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
55. Which of the following can be used for
cloud seeding?
1. Silver Iodide
2. Dry ice
3. Table salt
Choose the correct options from the codes below:
a) Only 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
56. In what way does the Indian Parliament
exercise control over the administration?
a) Through Consultative Committees of
various ministries
b) Through Parliamentary Committees
c) By making the administrators send
periodic reports
d) By compelling the executive to issue
writs
57. Which among the following movements in
the freedom struggle of India were abruptly
withdrawn due to eruption of violence?
1. Civil Disobedience Movement
2. Non-Cooperation movement
3. Quit India movement
Choose the correct options from the codes below:
a) Only 2
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
58. With reference to Ultraviolet radiation,
consider the following statements
1. Most of the ultraviolet radiation in
sunlight is absorbed by oxygen in
Earths atmosphere, which forms
the ozone layer of the lower
stratosphere
2. UVA (400315 nm), also called black
light, never reaches the Earths surface
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
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d) None
59. In which one of the following areas does
the State Government NOT have control
over its local bodies?
a) Citizens grievances
b) Financial matters
c) Legislation
d) Personnel matters
60. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and
paste together DNA molecules at will,
regardless of the source of the molecules.
Reason (R): DNA fragments can be
manipulated using restriction
endonucleases and DNA ligases.
In the context of the statement above, which is
true?
a) Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R
is NOT a correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
61. Consider the following statements about
Induced Pluripotent Stem (iPS) Cells:
1. It is artificially achieved from a non-
pluripotent cell.
2. It resembles natural pluripotent
cells.
3. In the future they may be used to
regenerate missing or damaged
body parts.
Choose the correct options from the codes below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
62. What is edge effect in the context of
ecology?
a) The tendency of increased variety
and density of some organisms at
the community orders.
b) The tendency of abundance of a
certain variety of terrestrial species
at the edge of water bodies.
c) The stratification from surface to
bottom in a lake which results in
inefficient use of nutrients and
oxygen by the organisms.
d) None of the above.
63. As succession reaches its climax in an
ecosystem, which of the following
community functions are observed?
1. Complex food chains and food web
2. High energy use efficiency
3. Low nutrient conservation
Choose the correct options from the codes below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
64. Consider the following statements:
1. In aquatic systems, productivity is
generally limited by light, which
decreases with increasing water depth.
2. In deep oceans, nutrients often become
limiting for productivity.
3. Nitrogen is regarded as the most
important nutrient limiting productivity
in marine ecosystems.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
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a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
65. The Sholas found in mountain regions of
South India are
a) Large tracts of tall rainforest trees
b) Tracts of grasslands at the foothill of
Western Ghats
c) Patches of stunted tropical montane
forest found in valleys amid rolling
grasslands on hill tops
d) None of the above
66. Arrange the following ecosystems in
decreasing order of the organic matter
decomposition that microorganisms can do
within a certain amount of time:
1. Tropical desert
2. Tropical rainforest
3. Steppe
Choose the correct order from the codes below:
a) 2>1>3
b) 2>3>1
c) 3>2>1
d) 3>1>2
67. The Financial Stability Board (FSB) was
established in 2009 under the aegis of which
of the following groupings?
a) G-8
b) G-20
c) APEC
d) None of the above
68. Which one of the following duties is NOT
performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) of India ?
a) To audit and report on all
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India
b) To audit and report on all
expenditure from the Contingency
Funds and Public Accounts
c) To audit and report on all trading,
manufacturing, profit and loss
accounts
d) To control the receipt and issue of
public money, and to ensure that the
public revenue is lodged in the
exchequer
69. Consider the following statements
1. Black soils are derivatives of trap lava
in India
2. Black Soils have high clay content
3. Black soils are very rich in humus
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) None
70. Who among the following are appointed by
the President of India ?
1. The Chairman, Finance Commission.
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning
Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
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71. Which of the following factors determine
the outcome of global competition of India?
a) There is adverse tax treatment of
non-resident participants
b) Markets in India are not open at all
hours
c) There are bureaucratic and
procedural overheads
d) All the above
72. Which of the following is/are among the
functions of the Election Commission of
India ?
1. Conduct of election for the posts of the
Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok
Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya
Sabha.
2. Conduct of election to the Corporations
and Municipalities.
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes
arising out of the elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below.
a) I and 2
b) I and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) None of these
73. How is the word Swadeshi different from
boycott, as far as the Indian freedom
struggle is concerned?
1. Swadeshi was essentially economic
movement, boycott was not.
2. While Swadeshi attracted the lower
strata of Indian society, Boycott
attracted the higher strata.
Which of these is/are true?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None of the above
74. Consider the following statements about
Conservation tillage:
Assertion (A): In this method, the organic matter of
the soil is increased to enhance its productivity.
Reason (R): Residues from previous crops are left
on the field before sowing the next crop.
In the context of the statements above, which of
these is true?
a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation for A.
c) A is incorrect but R is correct.
d) A is correct but R is incorrect.
75. According to RBI, Banks will now be
required to classify Special Mention
Accounts (SMA) into three sub-categories:
SMA-0, SMA-1 and SMA-2. This measure is
to
a) Increase the transparency
b) Recognize and check stressed assets
c) Provide quicker loans
d) None of the above
76. Which of the following factors is not an
influencing factor in bringing monsoon
rains to Indias landmass?
a) Heating of Tibet plateau in summer
b) Inverted triangular shape of the Indian
peninsula
c) Presence of jet streams over India
d) High pressure in Northwestern India
during summer
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77. Which of the following come under the
definition of Non-banking financial
institutions (NBFI) in India?
3. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM)
4. National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development (NABARD)
5. Small Industries Development Bank
of India (SIDBI)
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
d) All
78. Which of the following is not true about the
recommendations of Nachiket Mor
committee on on Comprehensive Financial
Services for Small Businesses and Low-
Income Households?
a) It has recommended to focus more on
large generalist institutions to bring
financial inclusion in the country
b) Providing Universal Electronic Bank
Account while providing Aadhar
number
c) Strengthening existing regional banks
before creating new ones
d) Subsidies to be channelled as direct
benefit transfers (DBTs) rather than as
subventions or waivers
79. Consider the following statements
1. RBI has powers to supersede any bank
board that acts in rogue fashion, and
appoint an administrator for managing
the bank for up to one year
2. Out of many applicants for opening a
new bank, only three were given
licenses recently
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
80. Rationalization of withholding tax (WHT)
on FIIs for G-Secs and corporate bonds was
one of the measures taken by the Ministry
of Corporate Affairs to improve the
regulatory regime and stimulate the growth
of the corporate bond market. What is a
withholding tax?
a) Requirement to withhold a percentage
of that payment of the employee and
pay the amount withheld to the
government as tax
b) Withholding payment to pay for
corporate social activities
c) Withholding payment of the employee
and pay it to finance infrastructure fund
d) None of the above
81. Consider the following statements
1. Secondary Market refers to a market
where securities are traded after being
initially offered to the public in the
primary market and/or listed on the
Stock Exchange
2. In the Secondary market, securities are
offered to public for subscription for the
purpose of raising capital or fund
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
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82. The K M Chandrasekhar Committee was
constituted by the SEBI to
a) To suggest measure to improve
efficiency of public sector banks
b) To suggest measures to simplify
foreign investment norms
c) To suggest measures to better
regulate secondary markets
d) None of the above
83. One of the major achievements of the
Swrajists was that they defeated the Public
Safety Bill in 1928. What was the bill about?
a) Empowering the government to
deport undesirable and subversive
foreigners
b) Empowering the government to
shoot anti-social elements on sight
who were propogating seditious
ideas
c) Empowering the government to
deploy heavy armed forces both in
the interior and exterior of India, the
funding of which was to come at the
expense of Indian taxpayers
d) None of the above
84. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw
a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly
to show protest against which of the
following?
1. Public Safety Bill
2. Trade Disputes Bill
3. Rowlatt Act
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) None of these
85. Consider the following statements about the
Nehru report, 1928:
1. It was the first major attempt by Indians
to draft a constitutional framework for
the country.
2. The report was published by a sub-
committee chaired by Jawahar Lal
Nehru.
3. The report did not aim for complete
independence of India and instead
envisaged only a dominion status.
Choose the correct statements from the codes given
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) None of these
86. Consider the following statements about
Bio-fertilizers:
1. It increases the availability of natural
soil nutrients and builds soil organic
matter.
2. It can also protect the crop against
drought and soil-borne diseases.
3. It works slower than conventional
chemical fertilizers.
Choose the correct statements from the codes given
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
87. Consider the following about Breeding and
Recombinant DNA technology:
1. The change in genotype can be precisely
controlled in Recombinant technology,
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whereas change occurs in multiple traits
in breeding.
2. Recombinant technology can recombine
DNA across biological kingdoms too,
but in breeding it cannot be.
Which of these is/are true?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None of the above
88. Which of the following can be the harmful
effects of transgenic crops?
1. Toxicity
2. Allergic reaction
3. Anti-biotic resistance in micro-
organisms present in alimentary canal
of humans
Choose the correct options from the codes given
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
89. The RBI recently launched guidelines for
establishing Small and Payments Banks to
further the goal of financial inclusion.
Consider the following statements about it.
1. Small banks will offer deposits as well
as loans.
2. Payments bank will not accept deposits.
3. Small banks will not be allowed to
invest in sophisticated and risky
financial products.
4. For a payments bank, the access point
can be its own branch, business
correspondents (BCs) or other network
partners.
5. Inter alia, mobile telephone companies,
supermarket chains, companies, real
sector cooperatives and public sector
entities are allowed to start a payments
bank.
Choose the correct statements from the codes given
below:
a) All except 5
b) All except 2
c) All except 2 and 3
d) All except 1 and 5
90. In January 2014, Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) constituted an Expert Committee,
under the Chairmanship of Shri P.J.Nayak,
to review Governance of the Boards of
Banks in India. The committee has
submitted its report recently. Which
amongst the following are its
recommendations?
1. Scrapping of Bank Nationalisation Acts,
SBI Act and SBI (Subsidiary Banks) Act.
2. Converting all Public Sector Banks
(PSBs) into Companies under the
Companies Act.
3. Formation of a Bank Investment
Company (BIC) under the Companies
Act and transfer of all Shares held by the
Central Government in PSBs to the
newly formed BIC.
4. Controlling authority/power of the
Central Government over PSBs to the
transferred to
BIC which would, in turn, hand over the
same to respective Boards of the PSBs.
5. Reduction of Governments share-
holding to 40%.
Choose the correct ones from the codes given
below:
a) All except 2 and 5
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b) 1 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 5
91. Consider the following statements about
White Label ATMs, a device to achieve
financial inclusion, recently announced by
the RBI:
1. It can be opened by any non-bank
entity, and not just NBFCs.
2. There is a provision for compulsory
establishment of such ATMs in rural
areas for every such ATM established in
urban/semi-urban areas.
3. The money in this ATM will be
provided by the sponsor bank.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) All of the above
d) Only 2
92. Consider the following statements about
Sarojini Naidu, who was a member of the
constituent assembly of India:
1. She was the first Indian to become the
governor of an Indian state.
2. She was the first Indian woman
president of the Indian National
Congress.
3. In 1931, she participated in the Round
table conference with Gandhi
and Madan Mohan Malaviya.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
93. Consider the following statements about
the Trade facilitation Agreement signed
between the WTO member nations at Bali
Ministerial conference:
1. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
contains provisions for faster and more
efficient customs procedures in the
context of trade in goods.
2. It also contains provisions for technical
assistance and capacity building for
trade facilitation and customs
compliance issues.
3. India has not ratified the TFA because
the TFA is discriminatory in nature and
benefits the developed nations more
than the developing nations.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 2
94. Consider the following statements about the
New Development Bank to be established
as per the agreement in the latest BRICS
summit:
1. It will only focus on development
finance and will not assist member
countries in case of financial
emergencies.
2. Every member nation has equal voting
rights in the proposed bank.
3. Every nation will contribute equally for
the banks capital base.
Choose the correct statements from the codes
below:
a) Only 2
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b) 2 and 3
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 2
95. The Essential Commodities Act (ECA) was
enacted by the Central Government in 1955
to control and regulate trade and prices of
commodities declared essential under the
Act. Some items have been added to the list
recently. Consider the following statements
about The Essential Commodities Act
(ECA):
1. The Act empowers the Central and state
governments concurrently to control
production, supply and distribution of
certain commodities in view of rising
prices.
2. The measures that can be taken under
the provision of the Act include, among
others, licensing, distribution and
imposing stock limits.
3. The governments also have the power to
fix price limits, and selling the particular
commodities above the limit will attract
penalties.
4. The Drug Price Control Order (DPCO),
2013 has been issued under the powers
of the ECA.
5. The Act covers important commodities
like petroleum, iron, steel, fertilizers,
Jute and textiles.
Choose the correct options from the codes below:
a) All except 4 and 5
b) All except 1 and 5
c) All except 1 and 3
d) All except 5
96. What is Financial Repression?
a) Financial repression refers to a set of
governmental policies that keep real
interest rates low or negative and
regulate or manipulate a captive
audience into investing in government
debt.
b) It refers to discontinuous financial
recessions which affect the security
markets very deeply and thus affect
the private sector savings.
c) It refers to the recession caused by a
massive hoarding of funds by the
private sector which is not being
invested anywhere.
d) None of the above
97. What is tax buoyancy?
a) It is the increase in tax revenue of
the government with increase in
GDP of the nation.
b) It is the decrease in tax revenue of
the government with increase in
GDP of the nation.
c) It is the total tax avoided by
multinational due to loopholes and
lack of retrospective amendments to
tax them.
d) It is the loss of tax income to the
government due to major tax
exemptions given to corporate.
98. Consider the following statements
1. This biosphere reserve in India has a
remnant population of the Red panda
2. Along with Balpakram, this biosphere
reserve is a hotspot of biodiversity
To which of the following Biosphere Reserves, do
the above statements refer to?
a) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
b) Nicobar Islands
c) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
d) Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
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99. With reference to Himalayas, consider the
following statements
1. The mountain-building process that
created the range is still active.
2. Namcha Barwa peak is the western
end of the Himalayas
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
100. With reference to seismic waves,
consider the following statements
a) P wave or primary wave is the
fastest kind of seismic wave, and,
consequently, the first to 'arrive' at a
seismic station.
b) S wave or secondary wave can only
move through solid rock, not
through any liquid medium.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
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