2012_2_BIOL1040_s

Semester Two SAMPLE Examination, 2012 BIOL1040 Cells to Organisms

Page 1 of 20

This exam paper must not be removed from the venue

School of Biomedical Sciences

EXAMINATION

Semester Two SAMPLE Examination, 2012

BIOL1040 Cells to Organisms

This paper is for St Lucia Campus students.

Examination Duration: 90 minutes

Reading Time: 10 minutes

Exam Conditions:

This is a Central Examination

This is a Closed Book Examination - specified materials permitted

During perusal - write only on the rough paper provided

This examination paper will NOT be released to the Library

Materials Permitted In The Exam Venue:

(No electronic aids are permitted e.g. laptops, phones)

Calculators - Casio FX82 series or UQ approved (labelled)

Materials To Be Supplied To Students:

1 x Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

Rough Paper

Instructions To Students:

Students are required to write their Name and Student Number on the front cover and each new section of the examination paper, as well as the MCQ marking sheet.

Venue ____________________

Seat Number ________

Student Number |__|__|__|__|__|__|__|__|

Family Name _____________________

First Name _____________________

For Examiner Use Only

Question Mark

Total ________


Page 2 of 20

Instructions for Completing your MCQ Answer Sheet

1. The computer answer sheet must be handled with care. [Do not curl, crease, fold, staple or pin.]

2. Use only HB or B pencils. Press firmly. [Do not use any H-grade pencil, ball-point pens, or ink pens.]

3. Print your surname and initials (without full stops) in the line of large boxes under the headings "SURNAME" and "INITS".

Shade in completely the corresponding box beneath each letter. [If your surname consists of two or more words, is hyphenated (-), or has an apostrophe ('), shade the blank

box above the A at the top of the surname area.]

Repeat this procedure for "STUDENT NUMBER".

4. Complete, in the space provided: "COURSE CODE" and "DATE".

5. Complete the answer boxes by shading the appropriate box completely. Do not extend the shading

outside the box area.

6. Do not leave any questions out. If you are unable to respond to a question (or you are advised to ignore a

question during the examination), shade the box marked with a "?" to the right of the answer area.

7. Take care when making

corrections. Erased marks must

be completely erased.

8. Ask for a new answer sheet if

you have made too many

erasures.

Check List

Have you completed the "Surname" and indicated at least

one initial?

Is your "Student Number" indicated correctly?

Have you indicated the "Course code" and the "Date" in the

space provided?

Have you shaded ONE response only to every multiple-choice

question on your exam paper?

Have you completely erased all unwanted marks?

Good Luck!

S

A

M

P

L

E

O

N

L

Y


Page 3 of 20

.......... .... ..

Student Number Surname Initials

SECTION A MULTIPLE CHOICE

Recommended time = 66 minutes

Number of questions = 40

_______________________________________________

Only ONE correct response is possible for each question

For each question indicate your answer (A E) in the corresponding numbered space on the computer answer sheet

If you DO NOT know the answer, mark the ? box on your answer sheet to gain 0.33 marks

Each question carries equal marks

1 Which of the following statements about cell membranes is CORRECT? [1.65 marks]

A Unsaturated phospholipids cause increased viscoity of the membrane

B At body temperature, cholesterol increases the fluidity of membranes

C Saturated phospholipids result in reduced membrane fluidity

D Unsaturated phospholipids are less kinked than saturated lipids

E Because of its ordered structure, cholesterol always decreases the fluidity of the membrane

[36081]

2 Which type of amino acid would most likely be present in the transmembrane domain of an

integral membrane protein? [1.65 marks]

A a charged amino acid like lysine

B an amino acid that causes kinks in protein structure like proline

C a polar amino acid like serine

D no particular type, as any amino acid prefers the transmembrane domain

E a hydrophobic amino acid like valine

[37208]

3 Which of the following statements about second messengers is INCORRECT? Second

messengers [1.65 marks]

A are used by many hormones and neurotransmitters to produce their effects in cells

B are produced after activation of the signal transduction pathway of a G-protein coupled

receptors

C are important for carrying out the action of steroid hormones on their target cells

D are produced when some hormone receptors interact with heterotrimeric G proteins

E result in amplification of the signal when a neurotransmitter, such as noradrenaline,

stimulates its receptor

[34113]


Page 4 of 20

4 Which of the following statements about ion channel-linked receptors is INCORRECT? They

[1.65 marks]

A may allow influx of Cl- ions into a neuron

B allow active transport of cations

C result in a faster action in cells than G protein-coupled receptors

D may allow influx of Na+ ions down their concentration gradient

E are also known as ligand-gated ion channels

[37206]

Background for Q5 and Q6

Digoxin is used in an experiment to investigate neuronal function using a toad sciatic nerve

preparation. Digoxin is a drug that is used to treat heart failure and it acts by blocking the

action of Na+/K

+-ATPase.

5 Answer this question based on the background information above. Which ONE (1) of the

following statements about Na+/K

+-ATPase is INCORRECT? It [1.65 marks]

A uses energy from ATP breakdown

B allows active transport of cations

C works with the Na+-glucose cotransporter for active uptake of glucose

D transports Na+ ions down their concentration gradient

E functions as an electrogenic pump

[36090]

6 Answer this question based on the background information above. Which of the following

would you NOT expect to occur in the neurons when digoxin is added to the sciatic nerve

preparation? [1.65 marks]

A Na+ ion gradient gradually disappears

B resting membrane potential is reduced

C intracellular negative charge is decreased

D K+ ion gradient gradually disappears

E Cl- ion gradient gradually disappears

[36091]

7 In an action potential, voltage-gated Na+ and K

+ channels [1.65 marks]

A cause hyperpolarisation of neurons when they are activated

B increase intracellular K+ concentration

C both cycle through three conformations during their activity

D are both activated by depolarization of the neuron

E are both activated rapidly

[37210]


Page 5 of 20

8 Which of the following statements about myelin is INCORRECT? Myelin [1.65 marks]

A facilitates conduction of action potentials

B is found in clusters of cell bodies in the grey matter

C is found in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord

D sheaths form around both central and peripheral neurons

E forms protective and insulating layers around axons

[36094]


The release of noradrenaline from a presynaptic neuron stimulated postsynaptic -adrenoceptors. This caused an influx of Ca

2+ ions and stimulated the postsynaptic neuron.

9 Answer this question based on the background information above. The scenario in the

background is an example of [1.65 marks]

A direct synaptic transmission

B hyperpolarization

C an amino acid acting as a neurotransmitter

D Ca2+

acting as a second messenger

E a response mediated by ligand-gated sodium channels

[36092]

10 Answer this question based on the background information above. Removal of noradrenaline

from the synaptic cleft [1.65 marks]

A occurs slowly by diffusion

B is increased by antidepressant drugs

C involves metabolism by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase

D is mediated by reuptake into the presynaptic neuron by a transporter

E requires rapid uptake into postsynaptic neurons by -adrenoceptors

[36093]

11 Which of the following is a CORRECT association of function with the named region of the

brain? [1.65 marks]

A Speech with only one region of the cerebral cortex

B Higher order functions that distinguish humans from other species with the brainstem

C Movement with the basal nuclei embedded deep in the cerebrum

D Long term memory with the hypothalamus

E Communication between the cerebral cortex and lower areas of the brain with the

corpus callosum

[32223]


Page 6 of 20

12 Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about locomotion in a fluid environment?

[1.65 marks]

A Streamlining of the body is important when operating at relatively high Reynolds numbers

B Swimbladders of sharks are constant volume structures that helps them achieve near

neutral buoyancy irrespective of the diving depth

C Rowing behaviours tend to use lift-based mechanisms

D Many bony fishes store low density lipids within their livers to help them achieve

neutral buoyancy

E Sharks use their pectoral fins to generate forward thrust

[33908]

13 Considering bone, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT? [1.65 marks]

A Haversian systems are secondary structures in compact bone

B Osteocytes within compact bone communicate with their neighbours via cytoplasmic

extensions that pass through canaliculi

C Trabecular bone and compact bone are composed of the same material

D Osteoblasts produce osteoid that mineralises to become bone

E Trabecular bone does not remodel

[32200]

14 The osteological features that allow osteocytes to communicate with each other are called

[1.65 marks]

A T-tubules

B lacunae

C chondrocytes

D primary osteons

E canaliculi

[33113]

15 We use a nearly straight-legged posture when load-bearing during walking because it

[1.65 marks]

A reduces the muscle moments about the knee joint making walking energetically

economical

B allows us to utilise our tendons in the legs as springs to offset the costs of walking

C allows the centre of mass to travel horizontally, reducing the energetic costs of

locomotion

D maximises the moment arm of muscles that flex the knee joint, minimising joint

compressive forces

E allows us to walk at speeds in excess of about 3 metres per second

[33903]


Page 7 of 20

16 During the process of skeletal muscle contraction, energy released by the hydrolysis of

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is required for [1.65 marks]

A altering the conformation of tropomyosin molecules

B release of the bound myosin heads from actin molecules

C generating the powerstroke to slide myofilaments relative to each other

D converting the myosin heads from their low-energy configuration to their high-energy

configuration

E attaching myosin heads to actin binding sites

[32198]

17 Which one of the following statements about blood flowing into the right atria is

INCORRECT? [1.65 marks]

A It is entering the atria during diastole

B It is about to flow into the right ventricle

C It is oxygen-poor

D It comes from the vena cava

E It is exiting the pulmonary circuit

[35724]

18 Damage to the atrioventricular node would [1.65 marks]

A increase blood flow from the vena cava to the right atrium

B increase the force of ventricular contractions

C disrupt the rhythm of ventricular contractions

D increase cardiac output

E decrease the rate of atrial contractions

[35725]

19 The pulmonary artery takes blood from the [1.65 marks]

A right ventricle to the lungs

B left ventricle to the right ventricle

C lungs to the right ventricle

D lungs to the left ventricle

E left ventricle to the lungs

[35728]

20 Which ONE (1) of the following statements about electrical activity in the heart is

INCORRECT? [1.65 marks]

A The rate of contraction can be controlled by the autonomic nervous system

B Impulses are delayed at the atrioventricular node

C The ventricles and atria contract simultaneously

D Cells in the sinoatrial node set the rate and timing of cardiac contraction

E Impulses travel from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node

[35730]


Page 8 of 20

21 Comparing foetal with maternal haemoglobin, O2 saturation [1.65 marks]

A is lower for the foetus than the mother at all PO2 values

B is slightly higher for the foetus than the mother

C is the same for the foetus and mother

D is higher for the foetus than the mother, only at high PO2 values

E allows the transfer of O2 from the foetus to the mother

[36089]

22 In the stages of cell signalling, the signalling molecule (e.g. hormone or neurotransmitter) is

directly involved in [1.65 marks]

A transduction

B amplification of the signal in the cell

C producing the second messenger in the cell

D activation of the cellular response

E reception

[37205]

23 Secreted molecules diffuse locally through the extracellular fluid, triggering a response in

neighbouring cells. What is this a description of? [1.65 marks]

A neuroendocrine signalling

B endocrine signalling

C autocrine signalling

D paracrine signalling

E synaptic signalling

[34100]


Your friends mother has symptoms of losing weight and feeling hot and sweaty. It has been found that the symptoms are due to overactivity of her thyroid gland.

24 The thyroid hormone is an example of [1.65 marks]

A a neurotransmitter

B an insoluble amine hormone

C a steroid hormone

D a water soluble peptide hormone

E a lipid soluble amine hormone

[35762]

25 How does overactivity of the thyroid gland relate to these symptoms? Thyroid hormone

[1.65 marks]

A stimulates metabolism

B is required for a tadpole to develop into a frog

C is released in response to stress

D receptors are found only on the hypothalamus

E is important in embryonic development

[35764]


Page 9 of 20

26 What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis? [1.65 marks]

A To produce energy-rich glucose from carbon dioxide and water

B To produce NADPH used in respiration

C To produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and NADPH

D To use adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to make glucose

E To convert light energy to the chemical energy of guanosine triphosphate (GTP)

[37153]

27 Which of the following is CORRECT about secondary growth in plants? [1.65 marks]

A Secondary growth is a common feature of eudicot leaves

B Flowers may have secondary growth

C Secondary growth is produced by both the vascular cambium and the cork cambium

D Plants with secondary growth are typically the smallest ones in an ecosystem

E Primary growth and secondary growth alternate in the life cycle of a plant

[37154]

28 What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the

top of a tree? [1.65 marks]

A osmosis in the root

B active transport of ions into the stele

C atmospheric pressure on roots

D evaporation of water through stomata

E the force of root pressure

[37155]

29 If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of kilometres away, which of

the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants' environment? [1.65 marks]

A CO2

B gibberellic acids

C auxin

D cytokinins

E ethylene

[37157]

30 Which of these conclusions is supported by the research of both Went and Charles and

Frances Darwin on shoot responses to light? [1.65 marks]

A Agar contains a chemical substance that mimics a plant hormone

B Light stimulates the synthesis of a plant hormone that responds to light

C A chemical substance involved in shoot bending is produced in shoot tips

D Once shoot tips have been cut, normal growth cannot be induced

E When shoots are exposed to light, a chemical substance migrates toward the light

[37156]


Page 10 of 20

31 A long-day plant will flower [1.65 marks]

A if the duration of continuous darkness is less than a critical length

B if the duration of continuous darkness exceeds a critical length

C if the duration of continuous light is less than a critical length

D if it is kept in continuous heat

E if the duration of continuous light exceeds a critical length

[37158]

32 The Agrobacterium Ti plasmid [1.65 marks]

A contains phytohormone synthesis genes

B contains opine biosynthesis genes

C contains the T-DNA that is transferred to the plant genome

D can be used to transfer foreign genes into plants

E all of the above

[37159]

33 If you pseudotype a virus, you [1.65 marks]

A substitute its replication (rep) genes

B alter its coat (capsid) protein

C replace its GAG genes

D change its long terminal repeat sequences (LTRs)

E modify its capacity to integrate in the nucleus

[31553]

34 In the timeline of gene therapy development, 1970 saw which landmark event? [1.65 marks]

A the coining of the term 'Gene Therapy'

B the first injection of recombinant virus into a patient

C the use of adenovirus and adeno-associated virus

D a detailed understanding of the retroviral lifecycle was obtained

E the discovery of retroviral reverse transcriptase

[31552]

35 What will happen if you place red blood cells from a sheep into a solution of 200 mM NaCl

solution? Water will [1.65 marks]

A leave the cells, leading to crenation

B enter the cells, leading to haemolysis

C leave the cells, leading to haemolysis

D enter the cells, leading to crenation

E enter and leave the cells in equal proportions

[34071]


Page 11 of 20

36 You have 200 ml of a 4 M NaCl stock solution. What volumes of stock and distilled water

must you add together to create 8 ml of a 250 mM working solution? [1.65 marks]

A 5.2 ml of stock and 2.8 ml of distilled water

B 0.5 ml of stock and 7.5 ml of distilled water

C 0.125 ml of stock and 7.875 ml of distilled water

D 2 ml of stock and 6 ml of distilled water

E 7.5 ml of stock and 0.5 ml of distilled water

[34072]

37 When examining the effect of a local anaesthetic on a nerve bundle, which of the following

could be used as a valid positive control? [1.65 marks]

A A positive control is not possible for this experiment

B The response produced after anaesthetic and cold shocks are both applied

C The first response produced after anaesthetic is applied

D The response after anaesthetic has taken full effect

E The response produced before anaesthetic is applied

[34073]

38 Which is the correct order of events between stimulation of the sciatic nerve and contraction

of the gastrocnemius muscle? [1.65 marks]

A propagation down the sciatic nerve, excitation-contraction coupling, crossing the

neuromuscular junction

B propagation down the sciatic nerve, crossing the neuromuscular junction, excitation-

contraction coupling

C crossing the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, propagation down

the sciatic nerve

D crossing the neuromuscular junction, propagation down the sciatic nerve, excitation-

contraction coupling

E excitation-contraction coupling, propagation down the sciatic nerve, crossing the

neuromuscular junction

[30735]

39 The duration of a compound action potential is defined as [1.65 marks]

A the time between applying the stimulus and the fastest travelling individual action

potential passing under the second recording electrode

B the time between the fastest individual action potential passing under the first recording

electrode and the fastest travelling action potential passing under the second recording

electrode

C the time between applying the stimulus and the fastest travelling individual action

potential passing under the first recording electrode

D the number of individual action potentials passing under the first recording electrode

E the time between the fastest individual action potential passing under the first recording

electrode and the slowest travelling action potential passing under the second recording

electrode

[34075]


Page 12 of 20

40 Which of the following are two biological processes which can increase the force of a muscle

contraction? [1.65 marks]

A mechanical summation and increasing acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular

junction

B recruiting more motor units and increasing acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular

junction

C mechanical summation and recruiting more motor units

D recruiting more motor units and decreasing sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+

stores

E mechanical summation and decreasing sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+

stores

[30803]


Page 13 of 20

SECTION B SHORT ANSWER

Recommended time for this section is eight (8) minutes

[JK] .............................................................. TOTAL

Student Number Surname

1 Total Q1: [8 marks]

You are working for a food company developing a new sports drink. You have been asked to

investigate the effect of extracellular osmolarity on red blood cells. In your experiments, you

expose human blood cells (which have an osmolarity of around 300 mOsm l-1

) to a range of

extracellular osmolarities and measure the haematocrit (Hct) of whole blood. The results are

presented in the table below:

Osmolarity of

extracellular

fluid

(mOsm l-1

)

Haematocrit of

sample 1

(% RBC)

Haematocrit of

sample 2

(% RBC)

Haematocrit of

sample 3

(% RBC)

Mean

haematocrit

(% RBC)

0 0 0 0 0

40 0 0 0 0

80 0 0 0 0

120 0 1 0 0

160 3 7 5 5

200 14 15 16 15

240 35 33 37 35

280 55 58 52 55

320 51 50 49 50

360 45 45 45 45

400 40 35 30 35

(a) Graph the mean data to illustrate the effect of extracellular osmolarity on red blood cells,

using the grid below and suitable scale axes. (3 marks)

(b) Label the axes (with units) and provide a professional, descriptive figure legend. (3 marks)

[32186]

/8


Page 14 of 20

(c) Given your understanding of osmosis and cell biology, explain the physiological basis for the

relationship shown in the graph between extracellular fluid osmolarity and haematocrit.

(2 marks)

[32189]


Page 15 of 20

SECTION C SHORT ANSWER


[TP] .............................................................. TOTAL



Background

Ryan Runner is a UQ track athlete who has recently been selected to compete at the 2010

Commonwealth Games. At rest, his heart rate is 50 beats per minute, and his stroke volume is

110 mL. During competition, Ryans heart rate increases to 200 beats per minute, and his cardiac output increases 6-fold.

(a) Calculate Ryans cardiac output at rest, and his stroke volume whilst racing. (2 marks)

[33680]

(b) Explain how the distribution of cardiac output to the skeletal muscle changes during intense

exercise, and the mechanism by which this occurs. (1 mark)

[33874]

(c) Briefly explain how the O2 levels in Ryans muscles change during a race. What mechanisms does the body use to meet this altered demand for O2 during exercise? (2 marks)

[33875]

/8


Page 16 of 20

(d) Its the day of the 800m final at the Commonwealth Games. Ryan is nervous about the upcoming race, causing his adrenal glands to increase their secretion of adrenaline. Which

receptor subtype binds adrenaline at the liver? (1 mark)

[33876]

(e) Name TWO (2) effects this would have on the liver. (2 marks)

[33877]


Page 17 of 20

SECTION D SHORT ANSWER


[LL] .............................................................. TOTAL



Background

Plants and animals need to transport water, gases, ions, and nutrients between different parts

of their anatomy. Answer the following questions which focus on the routes used for short

distance transport in plants and animals.

(a) Briefly describe the THREE (3) short distance transport routes that are present in plants.

Support your answer with a drawing showing the pathways. [5 marks]

[32857]

/8


Page 18 of 20

(b) Identify which of the short distance transport routes in plants also occurs in animals. (1 mark)

[33295]

(c) Name and list the key features of TWO (2) examples of the short distance transport pathway

that you identified as occurring in animals. (2 marks)

[37211]

END OF PAPER


Page 19 of 20

ROUGH WORK

This page is provided for rough working ONLY; it does not form part of the assessment.

DO NOT answer any part of your question paper here. Additional paper is available on request from the Supervisor if the space provided is insufficient.


Page 20 of 20

COMMENTS This page is available for you to make any anonymous comments or constructive criticisms of

questions in this test. It will be detached before the paper is marked.

DO NOT answer any part of your question paper here. Additional paper is available on request from the Supervisor if the space provided is insufficient.

BIOL1040_SAMPLE_EOS_TitlePageBIOL1040_Formatted_SAMPLE_EOS_Exam

Date post:	25-Nov-2015
Category:	Documents
Upload:	galex-yeve
View:	182 times
Download:	3 times

2012_2_BIOL1040_s

Documents