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General Awareness Question

1.Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of uniform civil code in

India? A. Article – 41

B. Article – 42 C. Article – 44 D. Article 43

Ans. C

Sol. • Article 41 deals with Right to work, Right to education and Right to public

assistance. • Article 42 deals with provision for just

and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. • Article deals with Uniform Civil Code.

• Article 43 deals with- Secure a living wage, a decent standard of living and

social and cultural opportunities for all workers. • All the four article comes under part

IV, DPSPs.

2.Which of the following rivers does NOT drain into the sea? A. Godavari

B. Narmada C. Banas

D. Ganga Ans. C

Sol. ● The Banas river does not drain

into the sea. ● The river originates in the Khamnor

Hills of the Aravalli Range, near Kumbhalgarh in Rajsamand. ● It is a river which lies entirely

within the state of Rajasthan in western India.

● It is a tributary of the Chambal River.

3.A column member of length l which cannot sway has a rigid foundation at

its bottom. Its top is held with heavy beams. The effective length of the

column is A. 1.5 l B. 1.0 l

C. 0.8 l D. 0.65 l

Ans. D Sol. A column member with a rigid

foundation at bottom and held by heavy beams at top will behave as a

column with both ends fixed.

Hence,

4.Southernmost point of the Peninsular Plateau is marked by which of the following hills?

A. Velikonda B. Girnar

C. Nilgiri D. Anaconda

Ans. C Sol.

● Southernmost point of the Peninsular Plateau is marked by

Nilgiri hills. ● This plateau consists of two broad divisions

1) Central Highlands 2) Deccan Plateau

● The Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau of India and Ladakh plateau is the highest plateau of

India.

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5.Who was the first National Security Advisor of India?

A. Pankaj Singh B. Manmohan Singh C. Prof. Rajinder Khanna

D. Brajesh Mishra

Ans. D Sol. ● Brajesh Mishra was the first

National Security Advisor of India. ● The post was created on 19

November 1998 by the Government of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. ● Ajit Kumar Doval is the 5th and

current National Security Advisor to the Prime Minister of India.

6.Bathukamma festival is celebrated in which state of India?

A. Punjab B. Telangana

C. Uttar Pradesh D. Maharashtra

Ans. B Sol.

● Bathukamma is a floral festival celebrated predominantly by Telangana and some parts of Andhra

Pradesh. Every year this festival is celebrated as per the Satavahana

calendar for nine days . 7.Which of the following is NOT a

coastal landform? A. Moraines

B. Sea Cliff C. Sea Caves

D. Sea Stacks Ans. A

Sol.

● A moraine is a material left behind by a moving glacier. This material is

usually soil and rock. Hence, Moraines are glacial landforms. Moraines are divided into four main categories:

lateral moraines, medial moraines, supraglacial moraines, and terminal

moraines. ● Sea cliffs, sea caves, and sea stacks are coastal landforms. The

Coastal Landforms are formed by the constant action of the waves, tides,

and currents. 8.The largest inhabited riverine island

is located on which river. A. Brahmaputra

B. Godavari C. Ganga D. Krishna

Ans. A

Sol. ● Majuli is the world's biggest inhabited riverine island located on the

Brahmaputra river, Assam, India. In 2016, it became the first island to be

made a district in India. ● The island is inhabited by Mising, Deori, and Sonowal Kachri tribes. It

covers an area of around 352 sq km.

9.Which of these is the famous art form Karnataka that combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up and stage

techniques to create a unique experience?

A. Yakshagana B. Kalaripayettu

C. Kathakali D. OttamThullal

Ans. A Sol.

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• Yakshagana is a traditional Indian theatre form, developed in Dakshina

Kannada, Udupi, Uttara Kannada, Shimoga and western parts of Chikmagalur districts, in Karnataka.

• It combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and stage

techniques with a unique style and form. • It is believed to have evolved from

pre-classical music and theatre during the period of the Bhakti movement.

10.In which city of India is the multi-art complex called Bharat Bhavan

located? It was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi in

1982. A. Lucknow B. Bhopal

C. Bangalore D. Pune

Ans. B Sol.

• Bharat Bhavan is an autonomous multi-arts complex and museum.

• It is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. • It was established and funded by the

Government of Madhya Pradesh. • The institution was inaugurated on

February 13th, 1982 by then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi.

11.Second Backward Classes Commission is also known as _______.

A. Mandal Commission B. Tendulkar Commission

C. Nehru Commission D. Ambedkar Commission

Ans. A Sol.

• The Government of India appointed the Second Backward Classes

Commission in 1979. • It was also known as Mandal Commission.

• It was established in India on 1st January 1979 by the Janata Party

government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai. • It was headed by the late B. P.

Mandal.

12.Son River which is one of the longest southern tributaries of Ganga originates in which state?

A. Assam B. West Bengal

C. Uttar Pradesh D. Madhya Pradesh

Ans. D Sol.

• Son River is the second largest of the Ganges' southern tributaries after Yamuna River.

• The Sone originates near Amarkantak in Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh.

• It is 784 kilometres long. 13.‘Lessons Life Taught Me

Unknowingly’ is an autobiography of which actor?

A. Sunil Shetty B. Amitabh Bachchan C. Anupam Kher

D. Sanjay Dutt

Ans. C Sol.

• ‘Lessons Life Taught Me Unknowingly’ is an autobiography of Anupam Kher. • It was published on 5 August 2019 by

Penguin Random House.

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• He is also author of the best-selling book ‘The Best Thing about You Is

You!’. • He was awarded Padma Sri in 2004 and Padma Bhushan in 2016.

• He also served as chairman of FTII from Oct 2017 to Oct 2018.

14.Which of the following sport has NOT been played at the Olympics since

1990? A. Cricket

B. Badminton C. Hockey D. Archery

Ans. A

Sol. • Cricket has been a sport at the modern Summer Olympic Games.

• It has not been played at the Olympics since 1990.

• The only time it has been played was at the 1900 Summer Olympics with only a men's contest when Great

Britain won the gold medal.

15.PietraDura, the inlay technique of architecture can be found in which of the following monuments?

A. Taj Mahal B. India Gate

C. Char Minar D. Gateway of India

Ans. A Sol.

o Pietra Dura, the inlay technique of architecture can be found in Taj Mahal.

o Pietra Deora technique is used in cut and fitted highly polished coloured stones to create images. It is

considered as a creative art.

o Taj Mahal was commissioned by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in 1632.

o It was commissioned to house the tomb of his favourite wife, Mumtaz Mahal and it also houses the tomb of

Shah Jahan himself.

16.The ........ is A . major iron ore belt in India A. Tamil Nadu-Chhattisgarh belt

B. Gujarat-Rajasthan belt C. Uttar Pradesh-Bihar belt

D. Odisha-Jharkhand belt Ans. D

Sol. o The Odisha-Jharkhand belt is a major

iron ore belt in India. o North Eastern Peninsular Belt:- o The area comprising the Chhota

Nagpur plateau and the Odisha plateau which covers the states of West

Bengal, Jharkhand, and Odisha. o This region accounts for the India’s 84% of coal production and 93 %

of iron ore production. o Manganese, copper, bauxite,

coal, iron ore, mica, kyanite, chromite, beryl, apatite etc. are found in this area.

17.Jean Jacques Rousseau was A.

famous ............ A. Philosopher B. Painter

C. Doctor D. Monarch

Ans. A

Sol. o Jean Jacques Rousseau was a famous philosopher.

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o He was born in 1712 in France and contributed in progress of the

enlightenment though out Europe. o He wrote famous literature- o Discourse on Inequality

o The Social Contract o His other important works are-

o The New Heloise o Emile or on education o Confessions

o Age of sensibility o He gave the famous theory of

‘General Will’. 18........... is the first Indian woman to

swim across the English Channel. A. Shivani Kataria

B. Shikha Tandon C. Sania Mirza D. Aarti Saha

Ans. D

Sol. o Aarti Saha is the first Indian woman to swim across the English Channel.

o Arati Saha was an Indian Bengali long-distance swimmer.

o On 29 September 1959, she is best known for becoming the first Asian woman to swim across the English

Channel. o Aarti Saha became the first Indian

sportswoman to be awarded the Padma Shri in 1960. o The Department of Posts celebrated

Aarti’s conquest by bringing out a postage stamp of Rs. 3 denomination in

1999.

19............. was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India A. Pratibha Devi

B. Meira Kumar C. Rama Devi

D. Nirmala Sitaraman

Ans. C Sol. * V. S. Ramadevi was the first woman

Chief Election Commissioner of India, she was also the first female Governor

of Karnataka. * Pratibha Patil was the first woman President of India (From 2007 to 12).

* Meira Kumar was the first woman Lok Sabha Speaker of India from 2009 to

2014. * Nirmala Sitharaman is a famous politician and a member of the

Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), She currently serves as the Finance Minister

of India. 20.The book ‘The Origin of Species’ was

written by ........... A. Louis Pasteur

B. James Watson C. Charles Robert Darwin D. Jane Good will

Ans. C

Sol. * Charles Darwin-He was a British naturalist and biologist who formulated

the ‘Theory of Evolution’ in 1858.His most famous book ‘The Origin of

Species’, published in 1859. * James Watson-He was a famous American geneticist who first

proved that DNA affects hereditary traits. He achieved important

success in the discovery of the molecular structure of

deoxyribonucleic acid. * Louis Pasteur- He developed the first vaccines for anthrax and

rabies. He was a French microbiologist

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who created the process of pasteurization.

Reasoning Questions 1.If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer

figures is the right image of the given figure?

A.

B.

C.

D. Ans. B

Sol. Here, the correct mirror image of the given question figure is as shown

below:

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

2.In the following question, select the figure which can be placed at

the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Ans. C Sol. Logic: The element triangle and

circle will increase in vertical and column wise. Also the previous triangle and circle image will be shaded.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

3.In a certain code language, ‘RAPID’ is written as ‘LUJCX’. What is the code for

‘STARE’ in that code language? A. MNULY

B. NOULY C. MMULY

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D. NPULY

Ans. A Sol. The pattern is:

Similarly,

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

4.By interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct?

6 + 9 × 2 - 3 ÷ 4 = 8 A. – and ÷

B. – and + C. + and ÷ D. ÷ and ×

Ans. A

Sol. By checking option A: Given expression is-

6 + 9 × 2 - 3 ÷ 4 = 8 After interchanging-

6 + 9 × 2 ÷ 3 - 4 = 8 Solve now, 6 + 9 × 2 ÷ 3 - 4

= 6 + 6 - 4 = 12 - 4 = 8

8 = 8 (L.H.S = R.H.S) As we got the correct option, so we do not need to check more options.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

5.Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is

related to the first number. 16 : 9 :: 36 : ?

A. 17 B. 19 C. 23

D. 25

Ans. B Sol. As, (16/2)+1=8+1=9

Similarly, (36/2)+1=18+1=19 Hence, option B is the correct answer.

6. |||Common||| In the following

question below are given some statements followed by some

conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all

the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given

statements.

|||End||| Statements: 1. No T is K.

2. All L are K. Conclusions:

I. Some K are L II. Some K are T.

III. No K is L. A. Both conclusion II and III follows B. Neither conclusion follow

C. Only conclusion II follows D. Only conclusion I follows

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Ans. D

Sol. Minimum Possible diagram is-

Conclusions: I. Some K are L.(It follows because all

L are K.) II. Some K are T. (It does not follow as no T is K.)

III. No K is L. (It does not follow as all L are K.)

So, only conclusion I follow. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

7.Five boys J, K, L, M and T are standing in a queue one after the other

not necessarily in the same order. There is only boy between K and J. There is only one boy between K and L.

There are four boys behind J. T is three places ahead of L. How many boys are

ahead of M? A. 3

B. 0 C. 2 D. 1

Ans. A

Sol. There are four boys behind J. There is only boy between K and J. There is only

one boy between K and L. T is three places ahead of L.

Final Arrangement is:

So, 3 boys are ahead of M.

Hence, option A is the correct answer. 8.By interchanging which two

numbers, the value obtained after solving the given equation will be

‘13’? 7 + 8 ÷ 4 × 3 A. 8 and 3

B. 8 and 4 C. 7 and 3

D. 3 and 4 Ans. A

Sol. By checking option A:

Given expression is- 7 + 8 ÷ 4 × 3 After interchanging-

7 + 3 ÷ 4 × 8 Solve now,

7 + 6 = 13 (correct) As we got the correct option, so we do

not need to check more options. Hence, the correct answer is option A.

9.Six cameras G, H, P, S, K and I are placed in a row facing towards

north Not necessarily in the same order. S is placed second to the left of I. H is placed second to the right

of G. K is placed third to the left of G. which of the following

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statements is correct about camera I?

A. I is not the immediate neighbor of H B. I is between G and S C. P is third to left of I

D. I is to the immediate left of G

Ans. C Sol. S is placed second to the left of I.

S _ I ________(1) H is placed second to the right of G.

G _ H _________(2) K is placed third to the left of G. K _ _ G __________(3)

From 2 and 3, K _ _ G _ H _________(4)

From 1 and 4, K _ S G I H Now only one place is vacant which will

be filled by P. So, final arrangement is:

Now check options-

A) I is not the immediate neighbor of H(false) B) I is between G and S(false)

C) P is third to left of I(true) D) I is to the immediate left of G(false)

Hence, option C is the correct answer. 10.A piece of paper is folded and

punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given

answer figure, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Ans. D Sol. As given in the figure, we need to fold

it in a book folding manner and option (D) would appear when unfolded.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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11.In the following question, select the number can be placed at the

sign of question mark ? from given alternatives.

5 1 3

9 9 4

6 ? 7

29 22 18

A. 5 B. 3

C. 6 D. 4

Ans. B Sol.

Logic is: Column 1:

5 + 6 + (2 x 9) = 29 Column 2: 1 + 3 + (2 x 9) = 22

Column 3: 3 + 7 + (2 x 4) = 18

Hence, option B is the correct answer. 12.If a mirror is placed on the line

AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the

given figure?

A.

B.

C.

D. Ans. B

Sol. In a plane mirror, a mirror image is a

reflected duplication of an object that appears almost identical, but it is reversed in the direction perpendicular

to the mirror surface. As an optical effect it results from reflection of

substances such as a mirror or water.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

13.A series is given with one term

missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones

that will complete the series. ROD,XUJ, DAP, JGV, ?

A. PMB B. QNC

C. QMB D. PNB

Ans. A Sol. Logic: Add 6 into place value of

letter.

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R +6 = X; X +6 = D; D +6 = J; J +6 = P

O +6 = U; U +6 = A; A +6 = G; G +6 = M D +6 = J; J +6 = P; P +6 = V; V +6 =

B Hence, option A is the correct answer.

14.Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among

the given classes.

Pentagon, Hexagon, Figure

A.

B.

C.

D. Ans. A

Sol. Pentagon and Hexagon are two

different polygon. And both are figure.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

15.In the following question, select

the number which can be placed at The sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

9 3 7 6 2 8

4 5 3 38 20 ?

A. 72 B. 36

C. 54 D. 18

Ans. B Sol.

Logic is: Column 1: (9+6+4)*2=19*2=38

Column 2: (3+2+5)*2=10*2=20

Column 3: (7+8+3)*2=18*2=36 Hence, option B is the correct answer.

16.If a mirror is placed on the line

AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A.

B.

C.

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D.

Ans. B Sol.

In a plane mirror, a mirror image is a reflected duplication of an object that appears almost identical, but it is

reversed in the direction perpendicular to the mirror surface. As an optical

effect it results from reflection of substances such as a mirror or water.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

17.In the following question, select the figure which can be placed at

the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A.

B.

C.

D. Ans. B

Sol.

After carefully observing the figures given in the question, it is very clear

that the answer figure(d) will be the next figure. Logic:

J is moving two place clockwise in each step.(shape of J and its mirror image

appear alternately.) 7 is also moving two place clockwise in each step.

R is also moving two place clockwise in each step.

T is moving two place clockwise in each step.(shape of T and its water image appear alternately.)

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

18.Study the given pattern carefully and select the figure that

will complete the pattern given in the question figure.

A.

B.

C.

D. Ans. A

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Sol. After carefully observing the figures

given in the question, it is very clear that the answer figure(a) will be the missing figure.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

19.Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in

the following series. 16, 17, 21, 30, 46, ?

A. 81 B. 77 C. 71

D. 63

Ans. C Sol. Logic is:

16 + 1×1 =17 17 + 2×2 = 21

21 + 3×3 = 30 30 + 4×4 = 46

46 +5×5 = 71 Hence, option C is the correct answer.

20.After interchanging the given two numbers, what will be the value of 6 +

7 × 3 – 8 ÷ 4? 3 and 6

A. 43 B. 41

C. 42 D. 38

Ans. A Sol.

Given expression is- 6 + 7 × 3 – 8 ÷ 4 After interchanging-

3 + 7 × 6 – 8 ÷ 4 Solve now,

3 + 7 × 6 – 8 ÷ 4 =3 + 42 – 2=3+40=43 Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Quant Questions 1.A sum of money becomes double of

itself in 50 months when invested on simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A. 26% B. 25%

C. 20% D. 24%

Ans. D Sol.

Let Sum = P It is given that a sum of money becomes double of itself in 50 months

when invested on simple interest. This means P becomes 2P in 50

months. Interest obtained in 50 months = 2P – P = P

Here, Time = 50 months = 4 years 2

months = years

2.If A is 200% more than B, then B is

how much percentage less than A? A. 33.33%

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B. 50% C. 100%

D. 66.67% Ans. D

Sol. If A is 200% more than B.

Let B = 100 Hence, A =

⇒ Difference between A and B = 300 –

100 = 200

Required Percentage =

3.The cost price of a cycle is Rs.24000. If the profit is 30%, then what will be

the selling price? A. Rs.34100

B. Rs.33400 C. Rs.30800

D. Rs.31200 Ans. D

Sol. Cost Price of a cycle = Rs. 24000

Profit = 30%

Profit = Selling Price = Cost price +Profit = 24000 + 7200 = Rs.31200

4.The proportion of the number of students in three classes is 1 : 2 : 3. If

20 students are included in each class, then the proportion becomes 3 : 5 : 7.

What was initially the total number of students in the three classes? A. 200

B. 280 C. 220

D. 240

Ans. D Sol. Given, The proportion of the number of

students in three classes is 1 : 2 : 3 Let, The number of students in three

classes are x, 2x and 3x. According to the question, x + 20 : 2x + 20 : 3x + 20 = 3 : 5 : 7

⇒ (x+20)/(2x+20) = 3/5

⇒ 5(x + 20) = 3 (2x + 20)

⇒ x = 40

∴ The total number of students in the

three classes initially = 40 + 2×40 + 3×40 = 240

5.Marked price of an article is Rs. 2600, which is 30% more than the cost price.

If the profit is 45%, then what will be the selling price of the article?

A. Rs. 3100 B. Rs. 3900 C. Rs. 2700

D. Rs. 2900

Ans. D Sol.

Let C.P be Rs. x. M.P. = Rs. 2600 Profit = 45%

According to the question, x(1 + 30/100) = 2600

⇒ x = Rs. 2000 = C.P.

∴ S.P. = 2000(1 + 45/100) = Rs. 2900

6.The cost price and the selling price of a shirt are Rs. 960 and Rs. 1392

respective. If by way of bargaining a customer can bring the selling price

down by 10% of the cost price, then what is the profit percentage? A. 55%

B. 35%

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C. 30% D. 45%

Ans. B Sol.

C.P = Rs. 960 S.P = Rs. 1392

According to the question, After bargaining, New S.P = 1392 – 10% of 960 = Rs. 1296

Profit% = [(1296 - 960)/960] × 100 = 35%

7.What is the value of 2 of 16 ÷ 48 × 12 + 4 ÷ 8 × 16 + (7 - 2) × 25 ÷ 15?

A. 73/3 B. 59/3

C. 49/3 D. 56/3

Ans. A Sol.

2 of 16 ÷ 48 × 12 + 4 ÷ 8 × 16 + (7 - 2) × 25 ÷ 15 = 32 ÷ 48 × 12 + 4 ÷ 8 × 16 + 5 × 25

÷ 15 = (32 ×12)/48 + (4 ×16)/8 + (5

×25)/15 = 73/3 8.What is the value of:

A. 3/2 B. 1/2

C. 1 D. 5/2

Ans. C Sol.

=

=

= = 1.

9.What is the largest two-digit number which when divided by 6 and 7 gives

remainder 3 and 4 respectively? A. 81

B. 94 C. 83 D. 84

Ans. A

Sol. Check all the given options one by one: 81 ÷ 6 gives 3 as remainder

81 ÷ 7 gives 4 as remainder

∴ 81 is the correct answer.

Alternate Method: Here, (6 – 3) = 3 and (7 – 4) = 3

Thus, Required number = LCM of (6, 7)k – 3, where “k” is a constant number.

= 42k – 3 If k = 1 then number will be 39.

If k = 2 then number will be 81. 10.E, F and G together can complete a

work in 12 days. If E and F together can complete the same work in 30 days,

then in how many days can G alone complete the same work? A. 18 days

B. 20 days C. 12 days

D. 24 days Ans. B

Sol. Formula: If A and B together can

complete a work in “b” days and A alone can complete the work in “a”

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days then number of days taken by B alone to complete the work = a×b/(a-

b) G alone can complete the work = (30×12)/(30-12) = 20 days

11.Piyush alone can complete a work in

8 days and Arun alone can complete the same work in 14 days. If they both get Rs.44000 to complete the work,

then what is the share of Piyush? A. Rs.24000

B. Rs.16000 C. Rs.28000 D. Rs.21000

Ans. C

Sol. Piyush alone can complete a work in 8 days

Arun alone can complete the same work in 14 days

Let Total Work = LCM (8,14) = 56 unit

Efficiency of Piyush = unit

Efficiency of Arun =

Share of Piyush =

12.The difference in selling prices of an article when sold at 15% profit and 17% loss is Rs. 96. If it is sold at 10%

profit, then what is the selling price? A. Rs. 345

B. Rs. 360 C. Rs. 315

D. Rs. 330 Ans. D

Sol. Let C.P be Rs. a.

According to the question,

a(1 + 15/100) - a(1 - 17/100) = Rs.96

⇒ 115a/100 – 83a/100 =96

⇒ 32a/100 = 96

⇒ a = Rs. 300

∴ Required S.P = 300(1 + 10/100) =

Rs. 330

13.A sum of Rs. 2000 is invested on simple interest for three years at the

rate of 10% per annum, then the amount will be:

A. Rs. 2900 B. Rs. 2600 C. Rs. 2300

D. Rs. 2500

Ans. B Sol. S.I = (P ×R×T)/100 =

(2000×10×3)/100 = Rs. 600

∴ Required Amount = 600 + 2000 = Rs.

2600

14.A train with 72 km/h speed crosses a stationary pole in 35 seconds. How much time (in minutes) does it take to

cross a 1.1 km long bridge? A. 2.5

B. 3 C. 2 D. 1.5

Ans. D

Sol. Speed = Distance/Time

⇒ Distance = 0.7 km

∴ Required time = min = 1.5

min

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15.The average weight of 18 boys in a group is 35 kg. If four new boys of

weights 20 kg, 22 kg, 26 kg and 28 kg are added to the group, then what is the average weight of the newly formed

group? A. 34 years

B. 32 years C. 35 years D. 33 years

Ans. D

Sol. Formula: Average = (Sum of observations)/(Total no. of

observations) Sum of weight of all 18 boys = 18 × 35

= 630 Kg.

∴ Average of all 22 boys =

(630+20+22+26+28)/22 = 33 years 16.The speed of a boat in still water in

6 km/h. Time taken by the boat to cover a certain distance upstream is 3

hours more than the time taken to cover the same distance downstream. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/h,

then what is the total distance, upstream and downstream, covered by

the boat? A. 72 km B. 24 km

C. 48 km D. 36 km

Ans. C Sol.

Let, the distance covered (upstream) = distance covered (downstream) = x km

Time = Distance/Speed According to the question,

⇒ x/(6-2) - x/(6+2) = 3

⇒ x = 24 km.

∴ Required distance = 2 × 24 = 48 km

17.60% of a number is 168, then what

is the number? A. 280 B. 320

C. 240 D. 200

Ans. A Sol.

Let the number be ‘x’. 60% of x = 168

⇒ 60x/100 = 168

⇒ 3x/5 = 168

⇒ 3x = 168 × 5 = 840

∴ x = 280

18.Ravi’s age is 3/5 of Shyam’s age.

After x years the ratio of the ages of Ravi and Shyam becomes 5 : 7. If initially the sum of their ages is 32,

then what is the value of x? A. 2

B. 4 C. 8

D. 7 Ans. C

Sol. Let, Shyam’s age = 5a years

⇒ Ravi’s age = 3a years

⇒ 5a + 3a = 32

⇒ a = 4 years

According to the question,

(3a+x)/(5a+ x) = 5/7 ⇒ (12+x)/(20+ x) = 5/7

∴ x = 8 years

19.A sum of Rs. 1000 is invested on

compound interest (compounding annually) for three years. If the rate of

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interest is 10% per annum for the first two years and 50% per annum for the

third year, then what will be the interest? A. Rs. 612

B. Rs. 655 C. Rs. 815

D. Rs. 756 Ans. C

Sol. Amount in CI:

A = P[1 + R1/100]T1[1 + R2/100]T

2 A = 1000(1 + 10/100)2(1 + 50/100) A = 1815

∴ Interest = 1815 – 1000 = Rs. 815

20.What is the ratio of the mean proportional between 24 and 150 and

the third proportional of 12 and 6√5? A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2

C. 1 : 4 D. 4 : 1

Ans. D Sol.

Let, the third proportion of 12 and 6√5 is x.

If 12, 6√5 and x will be in continuous proportion. Then, 12/(6√5) = (6√5)/x

⇒ 12x = 6√5 × 6√5

= 12x = 36 × 5

⇒ x = 15

Mean proportional between 24 and 150

= = 60 ∴ Required ratio = 60 : 15 = 4 : 1

Science and Technology Questions

1.Har Gobind Khorana was awarded Nobel Prize in the field of ____.

A. Medicine B. Literature C. Physics

D. Peace

Ans. A Sol. • Har Gobind Khorana was awarded

Nobel Prize in the field of Medicine. • He shared the Prize with Marshall W.

Nirenberg and Robert W. Holley. • Khorana and Nirenberg were also awarded the Louisa Gross Horwitz

Prize. • He was successful in constructing the

first ever artificial gene in 1972. 2.How many elements are there in the

periodic table such that for every element name there is a single

alphabet that symbolically represents it (for example, B-Boron, C-Carbon etc.)? A. 10

B. 17 C. 7

D. 14 Ans. D

Sol. ● There are 14 elements in the

periodic table such that for every element name there is a single alphabet that symbolically

represents it. ● The Names of these 14 elements are

Hydrogen, Boron, Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Fluorine, Potassium, Yttrium, Iodine,

Tungsten, Uranium, Sulfur, Phosphorus, and Vanadium.

● There are a total 118 elements have been identified.

3.What is the S.I. unit of Energy? A. Joule

B. Newton C. Hertz

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D. Pascal

Ans. A Sol. ● Joule is the S.I. unit of Energy.

● The CGS unit of energy is erg. ● Energy is the quantitative

property that must be transferred to an object in order to perform work on, or to heat, the object.

4.Which of the following pairs

represents a parasitic relationship? A. Algae – Coral reefs B. Ticks on Dog

C. Remora Fish – Sharks D. Cattle Egrets – Livestock

Ans. B Sol.

● Ticks on Dog represents a parasitic relationship.

● The parasite lives on or in the body of the host. ● A parasitic relationship is one in

which one organism, the parasite, lives off of another organism, the host,

harming it and possibly causing death. 5.Which of the following is NOT a type

of Fungi? A. Agarics

B. Penicillium C. Gonyaulax D. Aspergillus

Ans. C

Sol. ● Gonyaulax is not a type of fungi. It

is a type of algae which inhabits marine, fresh, or brackish water. Several gonyaulax species are toxic

and are sometimes abundant enough

to colour water and cause the phenomenon called red tide.

● Fungus is a kind of living organism. The fungi are a separate kingdom of living things, different from animals

and plants.

6.Exchange of gases occurs through which part of the plant tissue? A. Phloem

B. Stomata C. Xylem

D. Midrib Ans. B

Sol. ● Exchange of gases in plants occurs

through the tiny pores present on the surface of leaves. These pores are surrounded by guard cells. Such pores

are called stomata. It allows the plant to take in carbon dioxide and gives

out oxygen for photosynthesis. ● Transportation of food nutrients such as glucose and amino acids is

carried out by the phloem tissues and water and soluble mineral nutrients are

transported by xylem. 7.Which of the following organisms has

a 2-Chambered heart? A. Human beings

B. Sparrows C. Monkey D. Fishes

Ans. D

Sol. • The 2-chambered heart is an

interesting form of the primary circulatory organ and exists primarily in animals that use gills

for breathing. • It is mainly found in fishes.

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• Fish have a single circuit for blood flow.

8.Dendrites and Axon are parts of which cell?

A. Neuron B. Nephron

C. White blood cell D. Red blood cell

Ans. A Sol.

• Dendrites and Axon are parts of Neuron cell. • Nervous system cells are called

neurons. • They have three distinct parts,

including a cell body, axon, and dendrites.

9.What percent of energy is transmitted from one trophic level to

another in a food chain? A. 0.1 B. 10

C. 15 D. 20

Ans. B Sol.

On average, only about 10 percent of energy stored as biomass in a trophic

level is passed from one level to the next. This is known as “the 10 percent rule” and it limits the number of trophic

levels an ecosystem can support.

10.'At constant temperature , the solubility of a gas in a liquid is

proportional to the partial pressure of the gas collected above the surface of the liquid or solution'. What is this law?

A. Henry's law B. Boyle's law

C. Charles's law D. Newton's law

Ans. A Sol.

● Henry's law states that at a constant temperature, the

solubility of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas.

● This law was formulated by the English chemist William Henry.

● The proportionality factor is called Henry's law constant.

11.Which of the following is the instrument used in submarines to view

objects above sea level? A. Odometer B. Pyrheliometer

C. Hypsometer D. Periscope

Ans. D Sol.

• Periscope is the instrument used in submarines to view objects above sea

level. • Odometer is an instrument for measuring the distance travelled by a

wheeled vehicle. • A pyrheliometer is an instrument for

measurement of direct beam solar irradiance. • A hypsometer is an instrument for

measuring height or elevation.

12.What is the peculiarity of the compound Yttrium Barium Copper

Oxide (YBCO)? A. It is a highly radioactive material B. It is a high temperature

superconductor

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C. It is an almost 100% transparent ,material

D. It has got very high malleability and ductility

Ans. B Sol.

● The peculiarity of the compound Yttrium Barium Copper Oxide is that It is a high temperature

superconductor. ● Yttrium barium copper oxide is a

family of crystalline chemical compounds and has the general formula YBa2Cu3O7.

● There is no singularly recognised theory for high-temperature

superconductivity. 13.Which metal was earlier called

Wolfram? A. Tungsten

B. Molybdenum C. Zinc D. Radium

Ans. A

Sol. ● Tungsten was earlier called Wolfram.

● It was first isolated in 1783 from the mineral wolframite.

● It is the heaviest element known to be essential to any living organism. ● It has the highest melting point.

14.Atoms of different elements with

different atomic numbers, having the same mass number, are known as

_____________. A. Isobars B. Isohalines

C. Isotopes D. Ion

Ans. A

Sol. ● Isobars are atoms of different chemical elements that have the same

number of nucleons (protons + neutrons). Isobars differ in atomic

number (or number of protons) but have the same mass number. ● Isotopes are various forms of an

element that have the same number of protons but a different number of

neutrons. Isotopes differ in mass number but have the same atomic number.

15.The commonly used Vitamin B

Complex consists of how many vitamins? A. 8

B. 12 C. 10

D. 6 Ans. A

Sol. ● Vitamin B complex is composed of

eight B vitamins:

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16.Which of the following is known as

energy currency of the cell? A. Adenosine Diphosphate B. Adenosine Triphosphate

C. Glycine Triphosphate D. Adenosine Phosphate

Ans. B Sol.

● Adenosine TriPhosphate (ATP) is known as the energy currency of the

cell. ATP molecules provide energy for various biochemical processes in the body. These molecules are composed

of the phosphate groups, adenine, and the sugar ribose.

● The ATP molecule was discovered in 1929 by German chemist Karl Lohmann. ATP molecules are

synthesized by Mitochondria, therefore it is called the powerhouse

of the cell. 17.What is the chemical name of Dry

Ice? A. Oxidane

B. Nitrogen Oxide C. Sulphur Dioxide D. Carbon Dioxide

Ans. D

Sol. • Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide.

• It is used primarily as a cooling agent. • It is often referred to by its formula

CO2.

18.Mirror used by dentist to see large images of teeth of patients is _________.

A. ZigZag Mirror B. Plane Mirror

C. Convex Mirror D. Concave Mirror

Ans. D Sol.

• Concave mirrors are used by dentist to view the tooth larger.

• Concave mirrors are used to form optical cavities, which are important in laser construction.

• Concave mirrors reflect light inward to one focal point. They are used to

focus light. 19.Which among the following is the

lowermost plants of the plant kingdom? A. Thallophyta

B. Pteridophyta C. Phanerogamae D. Bryophyta

Ans. A

Sol. ● Thallophyta is the lowermost plant of the plant kingdom.

● Some common examples are Ulothryx, Cladophora, Spirogyra,

Ulva, Chara, Batra, Polysiphonia. ● They are usually found in moist or wet places.

20.Talonite is a combination of cobalt

and ________. A. Chromium B. Zinc

C. Copper D. Iron

Ans. A

Sol. ● Talonite is a combination of Cobalt and Chromium.

● Cobalt alloys have good magnetic properties, corrosion resistance, wear

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resistance, and high temperature strength.

● Chromium is used to harden steel, to manufacture stainless steel and to produce several alloys.

Railway Questions 1.In which of the following States

India's first Green Rail Corridor was recently launched A. Karnataka

B. Maharashtra C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu Ans. D

Sol. The India’s first Green Rail Corridor was launched on the 114-km long

Rameswaram-Manamadurai stretch by Union Railways’ Minister Suresh Prabhu in Tamil Nadu.

2.What is the name of India’s first all

women main line railway station? A. Gandhi Nagar, Jaipur B. Chandragiri, Triputi

C. Phirangipuram D. Banaswadi, Bengaluru

Ans. A Sol.

• Jaipur’s Gandhi Nagar became India’s first all-women railway

station. In a step towards women empowerment, the Indian Railways has handed over

the Gandhi Nagar railway station to an all women crew.

• The station is fully operated by 28 women employees, including

ticket checkers, RPF, operations staff and reservation and booking supervisors.

3.Lifeline Express (LLE), the World’s first ‘Hospital on Train’, went on its

maiden journey on A. July 16, 2000 B. July 16, 1993

C. July 16, 1991 D. July 16, 1992

Ans. C Sol.

* Lifeline express (or Jivan Raksha Express) is a hospital train that runs in

India. * It started on 16 July 1991. * It was a collaboration between

Impact India Foundation, Indian Railways, and Health Ministry.

* It was started to provide on the spot diagnostic, medical and advanced surgical treatment.

4.India's First Solar-Powered Miniature

Train has been launched in which of the following states? A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra C. Karnataka

D. Kerala Ans. D

Sol. • India's First Solar-Powered

Miniature Train has been launched in Kerala. • The miniature rail has all the features

of a fully- equipped rail system, including a tunnel, station and a ticket

office. • The train has three bogies that can

accommodate around 45 people at a time. • The total cost of this project is about

₹10 crore.

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5.The first non-stop air-conditioned ‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off

between A. Sealdah - New Delhi B. Mumbai - Howrah

C. Bangalore - Howrah D. Chennai - New Delhi

Ans. A Sol. Duronto Express is a category of

long-distance nonstop trains run by the Indian Railways. These trains do not

have any ticketing stops between the origin and the destination. Duronto Express services connect the several

metros and major state capitals of India. These trains are faster than or as

fast as Rajdhani and Shatabdi trains. The first non-stop air-conditioned

‘DURANTO’ train was flagged off between Sealdah - New Delhi.

6.Nine ‘Sewa Service’ trains were flagged off by which of the following

ministers? A. Suresh Prabhu

B. Piyush Goyal C. Narendra Singh Tomar D. Amit Shah

Ans. B

Sol. • Union Railway Minister Piyush Goyal flagged off nine sewa service

trains. • As per the Ex - Railway Minister, the

nine Sewa service trains were launched without any additional investment by

the railways and it was an example of optimising resources. • Of the nine "Sewa Service" trains,

those between Delhi and Shamli, Bhubaneswar and Nayagarh town,

Murkongselek and Dibrugarh and Coimbatore and Palani will run daily.

7.Indian Railways celebrates the anniversary of first ‘ladies special’ train

of the world on 5th May, every year. This train was started by which zone of

Indian Railways? A. Western Railways B. Northern Railways

C. Eastern Railways D. Southern Railways

Ans. A Sol. 1) It was May 5 in 1992 that the

Western railways had introduced the first 'ladies special' train in the world to

ferry only women passengers between Churchgate in Mumbai and Borivali stations.

2) Talk-back System is a new security measure introduced by Western

Railways in 2017 to establish a two-way communication between a commuter in any of the ladies coach

and the guard of the train in the event of any emergency by pressing a button

on the unit. 8.Vivek Express trains were started to

commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru B. BR Ambedkar C. Swami Vivekananda

D. Mahama Gandhi

Ans. C Sol. Vivek Express trains were started

to commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda. The one Vivek Express train from

Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari is the

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longest route on the Indian Railways network.

9.Which is the only train which runs between Kolkata and Dhaka?

A. Dosti Express B. Maitree Express

C. Bangla Express D. Padma Express

Ans. B Sol.

• The first modern international passenger train service connecting Bangladesh and

Indian West Bengal is the Moitree Express or Maitree

Express. • It means the Friendship Express,

train service with the aim to

enhance foreign relations between India and Bangladesh.

• Before the partition of India, the train services between two countries existed. In 2017 a

second service, the Bandhan Express, was inaugurated

connecting Kolkata with the Bangladeshi city of Khulna, recreating the previous Barisal

Express route.

10.Which of the following banks was the first bank to tie up with Indian Railways to sell rail tickets through

their website? A. ICICI Bank

B. State Bank of India C. Punjab National Bank

D. HDFC Bank Ans. A

Sol.

● ICICI was the first bank to tie up with Indian Railways to sell rail

tickets through their website in 2015. ● It is the largest private sector

bank on the basis of consolidated assets.

● The Indian railway is the world's second largest network operated under a single management.

11.Which one of the following

contributes the maximum earning in Indian Railway? A. Passenger earning

B. Goods traffic earning C. Sundry earning

D. Other Coach earning Ans. B

Sol. Goods traffic earning contributes the maximum earning in Indian

Railway. 12.In India, the first Metro Rail service

was inaugurated on 24th October 1984 in ______.

A. Bangalore B. Kolkata C. Hyderabad

D. Mumbai

Ans. B Sol. • Lord Dalhousie is called as the

father of Indian Railways. • On April 16, 1853, the first

passenger train in India ran between Bombay and Thane.

• In India, the first Metro Rail service was inaugurated on 24th October 1984 in Kolkata

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13.____________ scheme by the Central Government states that an

insurance of 10 lakhs will cover each passenger traveling by Indian Rail while booking a ticket if an amount of

49 paise is paid. A. Gangajal Delivery Scheme

B. Mission Bhagiratha In Telangana C. National Apprenticeship Promotion D. Railway Travel Insurance

Ans. D

Sol. Railway Travel Insurance scheme by the Central Government states that an insurance of 10 lakhs will cover each

passenger traveling by Indian Rail while booking a ticket if an amount of

49 paise is paid. The scheme is applicable only for Indian Citizens who book their e-ticket through NGeT

Website Application only. Citizen of foreign countries are not eligible for

this scheme. 14.In which of the following year, the

railway board was constituted? A. 1901

B. 1905 C. 1902 D. 1906

Ans. B

Sol. • In 1901, Sir Thomas Robertson

Committee examined the

administration and working of the railways and advised

constituting a railway board. • In 1905, A railway board was

constituted. • The Board was placed under the

Department of Commerce and

Industry of the British Indian Government.

15.When was the first train steamed off

in India ? A. 1848 B. 1853

C. 1875 D. 1880

Ans. B Sol.

• The first commercial train journey in India between Bombay and

Thane on 16 April 1853. • It was a passenger train hauled by

a steam engine.

• Lord Dalhousie is known was the father of Indian Railways.

16.Indian railways is working with which organization to make trains

safer? A. DRDO

B. ISRO C. NALSAR D. ICAR

Ans. B

Sol. ● Indian railways is working with ISRO to make trains safer.

● It is the largest rail network in Asia.

● ISRO is the space agency of the Government of India and Its headquarters in Bangalore,

Karnataka.

17.‘Industry 4.0’ is a complex cyber-physical system which synergies

production with digital technologies. The Ministry of Railways and the Department of Science and Technology

have joined hands in partnership with

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which institution for taking up a unique project on ‘Industry 4.0’?

A. IIT Madras B. IIT Bombay C. IIT Delhi

D. IIT Kanpur

Ans. D Sol. ● The Ministry of Railways and the

Department of Science and Technology have joined hands in partnership with

IIT Kanpur for taking up a unique project on 'Industry 4.0'. ● Industry 4.0, commonly referred to

as the fourth industrial revolution, is a name given to the current trend of

automation, inter-connectivity and data exchange in manufacturing technologies to increase productivity.

● A pilot project for ushering in Industry 4.0 in the country has been

launched at the Modern Coach Factory in Uttar Pradesh's Raebareli district.

18.Which was the first hill passenger railway opened in India in 1881?

A. Kalka Shimla Railway B. Matheran Hill Railway C. Nilgiri Mountain Railway

D. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

Ans. D Sol.

• The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

was the first, and is still the most outstanding, example of a hill

passenger railway. • The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway,

also known as the DHR or Toy Train, is a 2 ft (610 mm) narrow-gauge railway based on zig zag

and loop-line technology which runs between New Jalpaiguri and

Darjeeling in the Indian state of West Bengal. Built between

1879 and 1881, with six zig-zags and five loops, the railway is about 88 km (55 mi) long.

19.Which of the following train of India

was voted 4th luxurious train in the World in 2010? A. Maharaja Express

B. Golden Chariot C. Palace on Wheels

D. Daccan Odyssey Ans. C

Sol. The Palace on Wheels was voted the 4th luxurious train in the world in

2010. It is a luxury tourist train. It was launched by the Indian

Railways in association with Rajasthan Tourism Development

Corporation to promote tourism in Rajasthan. The train service was refurbished and relaunched in August

2009 with a new decor, itinerary and cuisine.

20.On March 27, 2021, a new passenger train named "Mitali Express"

was launched between India and_______.

A. Nepal B. Pakistan C. Sri Lanka

D. Bangladesh E. None of the above/More than one of

the above

Ans. D Sol. * On March 27, 2021, a new passenger

train named "Mitali Express" was

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launched between India and Bangladesh.

* It was jointly inaugurated by the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh

Hasina. * The train will run between Dhaka

Cantonment and New Jalpaiguri in West Bengal via Chilahati, a border railway station in Bangladesh.

* This is the third passenger train after Maitree Express (Dhaka-Kolkata) and

Bandhan Express (Khulna-Kolkata). 21.Which express train was flagged off

by The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi between Varanasi and Vadodara

in honor of Pt. Shri Madan Mohan Malaviya? A. Varanasi Kranti express

B. Varanasi – Vadodara superfast express

C. Mahamana express D. Amravati express

Ans. C Sol. This train is named after and in

honor to Pt. Shri Madan Mohan Malaviya(Mahamana), a freedom fighter & an educationist who

established Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi, which is one of the Asia's

largest residential universities. The first Mahamana Express train, Varanasi - New Delhi - Varanasi was

flagged off by Shri. Narendra Modi, the Prime Minister of India on January 22,

2016 from Varanasi Junction through video conferencing.

The purpose of this train service is to provide passengers a much comfortable travel experience and

connect metro cities to those small cities & stations under Indian Railways

network which have less number of train services.

22.India's first indigenous semi-high speed train named ‘Vande Bharat

Express' connects which of the following two cities?

A. Lucknow and Delhi B. Varanasi and Delhi C. Mumbai and Delhi

D. Delhi and Bhopal

Ans. B Sol. The Vande Bharat Express is also known as Train 18.

• The Vande Bharat Express covers the distance between Delhi and

Varanasi. • Train 18 has been named the Vande Bharat Express in recognition of the

“vandaniya” work done by Indian Railways.

• The ‘Make in India’ Vande Bharat Express has been designed and developed in a record time of 18

months by ICF Chennai at a cost of Rs 97 crore.

23.World’s first double-stack long-haul container train was inaugurated on

which of following routes? A. New Attari in Punjab to New

Kathgodam in Uttarakhand. B. Rewari in Haryana to Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh.

C. New Ateli in Haryana to New Kishanganj in Rajasthan.

D. Belgaum in Karnataka to Kochi in Kerala.

Ans. C Sol.

The world’s first double-stack long-haul container train was flagged off from

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New Ateli in Haryana to New Kishanganj in Rajasthan.

One train carries 360 10-feet container equivalent units (TEU), which is equivalent to 270 high capacity trailer

trucks, a rail ministry statement said. The corridor is expected to boost

farming and allied businesses in Haryana and Rajasthan and impart new energy into cities like Mahendragarh,

Jaipur, Ajmer and Sikar.

24.India's first underwater train will be operational under_______. A. Hussain Sagar lake, Hyderabad

B. Hooghly River, Kolkata C. Brahmaputra River, Guwahati

D. Apollo waterfront Bunder Area, Mumbai

Ans. B Sol.

* India's first underwater train will soon get started in Kolkata under the Hooghly river.

* This train will bring ease to the people of Kolkata and pride to the people of

India. * The 16-kilometre long Kolkata Metro project will connect Salt Sector 5 with

Howrah Maidan.

25.On 14th January 2020, with which Indian bank did the South-Central Railways sign an MOU to implement

door-step banking at 585 railway stations?

A. Punjab National Bank B. HDFC

C. Syndicate Bank D. State Bank of India

Ans. D Sol.

● Indian Railways’ South Central Railway (SCR) zone has signed an

MoU with the State Bank of India for ‘door-step banking’. The signed MoU will help in the direct pickup of

earnings covering all 585 Railway stations over SCR Zone.

● Indian Railways divides its operations into zones, which are further sub-divided into divisions, each having a

divisional headquarters. There are a total of 18 zones.

26.Under the leadership of which finance minister, the Railway Budget

was merged with the Union Budget of India?

A. P. Chidambaram B. Arun Jaitley C. Nirmala Sitharaman

D. Piyush Goyal

Ans. B Sol. * In 2017, then Finance Minister

Arun Jaitley became the first one to present a combined Union budget.

* Mamata Banerjee became the first women Railway Minister of India in 2000 and the first female Minister to

present the Railway Budget. * Suresh Prabhu is the last Railway

Minster to present the separate Railway Budget.

27.Which of the following destroys ozone?

A. Sulphur B. Carbon

C. Chlorine D. Silicon

Ans. C Sol.

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● Chlorine destroys ozone. ● 100,000 ozone molecules can be

destroyed by 1 chlorine atom before it is removed from the stratosphere. ● It is second-lightest in the

halogens and It has the highest electron affinity.

● A highly reactive gas composed of three oxygen atoms is called Ozone. ● It is present in two layers of

atmosphere which are Troposphere and Stratosphere.

● The unit for measuring total ozone is The Dobson Unit.

28.Which of the following is NOT A. part of the endocrine system?

A. Pineal gland B. Salivary gland C. Thymus

D. Adrenal gland

Ans. B Sol. o A gland is a functional unit of cells

that works together to create and release a product into a duct or directly

to the bloodstream. o Two principal types of glands exist: exocrine and endocrine.

o Exocrine glands secrete substances into a ductal system to an epithelial

surface. o For example-sweat, salivary, sebaceous, mucous gland.

o Endocrine glands secrete products directly into the bloodstream.

o For example- pituitary gland, ovaries, testes, thyroid gland, adrenal glands.

29.Sodium hydroxide is NOT used for ...........

A. making soap B. making newspapers

C. degreasing metals D. preserving pickle

Ans. D Sol.

* Sodium hydroxide is a highly versatile substance used to make a

variety of everyday products, such as paper, aluminum, commercial drain and oven cleaners, and soap and

detergents.

30.The study of viruses is called ........... A. biology

B. pathology C. paedology

D. virology Ans. D

Sol. * Virology is the study of viruses and

virus-like agents, including, but not limited to, their taxonomy, disease-producing properties, cultivation, and

genetics. Virology is often considered a part of microbiology or pathology.

* Martinus Beijerinck is often called the Father of Virology. * Pathology is the study of disease.

It is the bridge between science and medicine.

* Biology is a natural science concerned with the study of life and living organisms.

* Pedagogy refers to the study of teaching approaches and how they

affect learners.

31.The small pores on the lower surface of the leaf are called .......... A. Pore

B. Opening C. Cilia

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D. Stomata

Ans. D Sol. * Stomata is a small pore, tiny

openings found on young stems and the epidermis of leaves and are

typically located on the lower surface of leaves. * Stomata help for the gas

exchange. * The stomata is bordered by a pair of

parenchyma cells called guard cells. * Guard cells are responsible for regulating the size of the stomatal

opening. * Atmospheric air enters the plant

through stomata by gaseous diffusion. * The lengths of stomata is ranging from 10 to 80 µm and width ranging

from a few to 50 µm. * Cilia are small hair-like

protuberances on the outside of eukaryotic cells.

32.Substances said to be biodegradable:

A. Can be broken down by physical process B. Can be broken down by chemical

process C. Can be broken down by biological

processes D. Cannot be broken down at all

Ans. C Sol.

● Substances that can be broken down by biological processes are

called Biodegradable. ● The things which can be decomposed by the action of

microorganisms are also called Biodegradable.

● Some common examples of Biodegradable things are Food

waste, Paper waste, Human waste,Manure, Sewage etc. ● Non Biodegradable substances

are those substances which can not be broken down by natural

processes. ● Some common examples of non biodegradable items are metal,

aluminium cans, plastic bags, plastic containers and plastic water

bottles. 33.Ag is the chemical symbol of an

expensive, soft, white and lustrous metal which commonly known as

............ A. aluminium B. nickel

C. mercury D. silver

Ans. D Sol.

* Silver is a chemical element with the symbol Ag and atomic number 47.

* A soft, white, lustrous transition metal, it exhibits the highest electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity, and

reflectivity of any metal. * Silver is produced as a byproduct of

copper, gold, lead, and zinc refining. * The metal is found in the Earth’s crust in the pure, free elemental form

(“native silver”), as an alloy with gold and other metals, and in minerals such

as argentite and chlorargyrite.

34.Which of the following are NOT a part of the circulatory system? A. Capillaries

B. Villi C. Veins

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D. Arteries

Ans. B Sol. * The circulatory system consists of the

heart, blood, blood vessels, lymph, and lymphatic vessels.

* A network of tiny capillaries connects the arteries and veins. Though tiny, the capillaries are one of the most

important parts of the circulatory system because it’s through them that

nutrients and oxygen are delivered to the cells.

35.The procedure to remove waste products and excess fluid from the

blood when the kidneys stop working properly is called ............ A. circulation

B. filtration C. purification

D. dialysis Ans. D

Sol. * Hemodialysis is a treatment to filter

wastes and water from your blood, as your kidneys did when they were healthy.

* Hemodialysis helps control blood pressure and balance important

minerals, such as potassium, sodium, and calcium, in your blood.

36.Which of the following reacts with water?

A. Silver B. Copper

C. Lead D. Calcium

Ans. D Sol.

* The metals which react with cold water are; sodium, calcium and

potassium. * Magnesium does not react with cold water.

* Metals like aluminium, iron and zinc do not react either with cold or hot

water. * Metals such as lead, copper, silver and gold do not react with water.

Marketing Questions 1.By installing

_____________________________ the search for new product ideas will be always systematic rather than

haphazard. A. Idea generation

B. Idea management system C. Idea screening D. Innovating ideas

E. None of these

Ans. B Sol. By installing Idea management system, the search for new product

ideas will be always systematic rather than haphazard.

2.PLC in marketing represents two main challenges. 1st an organization

must be good at developing new product to replace old ones and 2nd it

must be good at _________________. A. Functioning B. Managing the marketing

environment C. Selling the new product

D. Adapting its marketing strategies E. Testing if the product works in the

market Ans. D

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Sol. The firm should be good at "Adapting its marketing strategies"

based on the needs of its new product 3.What is mean by Delivery Channels?

A. Sales Outlets B. Channel Finance

C. Purchased Goods D. Product Shelf – life E. Courier Person

Ans. A

Sol. The delivery channel refers to the environment where the audience or consumer of the content will discover

and access it. Audiences, as the ultimate end-users of content, will rely

on services, platforms, or devices to access content, which could be a web browser, a mobile app, a kiosk, or a

speaker, among other options.

4.What is the name of the segmentation that was based on the gender of the customer?

A. Geographic Segmentation B. Demographic Segmentation

C. Lifestyle-based Segmentation D. Psychographic Segmentation E. Socio-Cultural Segmentation

Ans. B

Sol. Demographic segmentation refers to the categorization of the target market

based on specific variables like age, education, and gender. It is a type of

market segmentation that helps businesses to understand their

consumers better and meet their needs, effectively.

5.To do mass communication with the potential customers, usually through

paid public media which is known as_____.

A. Brand Building B. Public Relation C. Advertising

D. Sales Promotion E. Publicity

Ans. C Sol. An advertisement (often shortened

to advert or ad) is the promotion of a product, brand or service to a

viewership in order to attract interest, engagement and sales.

6.Which of the following is required for Effective Segmentation?

A. Measurability B. Easy Accessibility C. Substantiality

D. All of these E. None of these

Ans. D Sol. Effective segmentation should be

measurable, accessible, substantial, differentiable, and actionable. When a

company has segmented their market accordingly, there is a higher chance that it will become more profitable and

successful in the long run.

7.Which of the following statements is/are true with reference to ‘Diversification Marketing’?

A. Marketing in new and diverse countries

B. It is used only for transactions with foreign countries

C. Marketing in new and diverse companies D. Making new and diverse products

E. All of the above

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Ans. D Sol. Diversification is a corporate

strategy to enter into a new products or product lines, new services or new markets, involving substantially

different skills, technology and knowledge.

8.Which concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the

most quality, performance or innovative features?

A. Product B. Selling C. Holistic marketing

D. Production E. Marketing

Ans. A Sol.

The Product concept holds that consumers will favour those products

that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features. The product concept proposes that

consumers will prefer products that have better quality , performance and

features as opposed to a normal product.

9.The Tradition Marketing style involves:

A. Tele Marketing B. Digital Marketing C. Indirect Marketing

D. Direct Marketing E. All of these

Ans. D

Sol. Ans. D The traditional marketing style involves direct marketing.

10.____ is the acquiring or merging with firm in the same or

complementary industries to get economies of scale or scope? A. Merging

B. Empowering C. Outsourcing

D. Globalizing E. Accelerating

Ans. A Sol. A merger occurs when two firms

join together to form one. The new firm will have an increased market share, which helps the firm gain economies of

scale and become more profitable. The merger will also reduce competition

and could lead to higher prices for consumers.

11.Which of the following components does the Howard Sheth model of

buying, include? (i) Hypothetical constructs (ii) Exogenous variables

(iii) Response outputs (iv) Stimulus inputs

(v) Distinctive variables A. Only (i) B. (ii) and (v)

C. (i), (iii) and (iv) D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

E. All of these Ans. D

Sol. The Howard Sheth model of buying has four major components, namely,

stimulus inputs (input variables), hypothetical constructs, response

outputs (output variables) and exogenous variables.

12.To 'close a call' means A. To close the shop

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B. To end the conversation C. To clinch the sales deal

D. To shut down the business E. To walk out on a customer

Ans. C Sol. To 'close a call' means to clinch the

sales deal, practically meaning is that to settle the deal for business or sale of any particular with customer with

proper negotiation along with term and condition.

13.A 'Buyers Market' means A. Sellers are also buyers

B. Buyers are also sellers C. Demand exceeds supply

D. Supply exceeds demand E. Demand equals supply

Ans. D Sol. A market which has more sellers

than buyers. Low prices result from this excess of supply over demand. It is also called soft market.

14.‘Benchmark' means

A. Performance standards of the DSAs B. Bench in bank branch. C. Pure selling quotients

D. Standards for comparison E. Area of operation

Ans. D Sol. Benchmarking is the process of

comparing one's business processes and performance metrics to industry

bests or best practices from other companies. Dimensions typically

measured are quality, time and cost. 15.A Target Group means

A. Group of customers who need to be attacked

B. A group of Sellers C. A group of customers to whom sales

should be focused D. Existing customers E. Unhappy customers

Ans. C

Sol. A target group is a group of customers a business has decided to aim its marketing efforts and ultimately

its merchandise towards. A well-defined target market is the first

element of a marketing strategy. Product, price, promotion, and place are the four elements of a marketing

mix strategy that determine the success of a product or service in the

marketplace. 16.Market segmentation means

A. Segmentation of sales teams B. Territory allocation

C. Selling arrangements D. Segmentation of customers as per their wants

E. Market place

Ans. D Sol. Market segmentation is a marketing strategy which involves

dividing a broad target market into subsets of consumers, businesses, or

countries that have, or are perceived to have, common needs, interests, and priorities, and then designing and

implementing strategies to target them.

17.More calls to the same customer,

alternate marketing, and surrogate marketing all can be done in case of ___________________.

A. Commercialization B. Market penetration

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C. Business analysis D. Adapting

E. Continuous improvement Ans. B

Sol. Market penetration

18._________________is one of the challenges presented by the Product Life Cycle for a product.

A. Product development B. New product development

C. Product testing D. Poor margins E. More products

Ans. B

Sol. New product development 19.If VonAir, a hairdryer manufacturer,

is focusing on customer satisfaction; it will find that what consumers really

want is: A. More watts B. More speed

C. Higher heat settings D. Attractive hair

E. More hair Ans. D

Sol.

20.In marketing ________________________introduces new product so radically that it

changes the way people live. A. Marketing strategy

B. Quality function deployment C. Discontinuous innovation

D. Differentiation strategy E. None of these

Ans. C

Sol. In marketing discontinuous innovation introduces new product so

radically that it changes the way people live. Marketing Questions

1.To develop superior products company must understand

A. Consumer B. Market C. Competitors

D. All of these E. None of these

Ans. D Sol. All of these

2.Which Economic Survey was also

called ‘Pink Economic Survey’? A. Economic Survey 2017-18 B. Economic Survey 2015 – 16

C. Economic Survey 2016-17 D. Economic Survey 2018-19

E. None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans. A Sol.

● The Economic Survey 2017-18 was also called the Pink Economic Survey.

● It was printed in pink colour to underline the importance of gender

issues to the economy. 3.What is Nominal Gross Domestic

Product (GDP)? A. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

that is calculated in terms of crypto currency.

B. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) that is calculated by taking a base year as a determinant.

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C. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) that is calculated at the current market

price. D. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) that excludes all exports and imports in

the calculation.

Ans. C Sol. ● The Nominal Gross Domestic

Product is The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) that is calculated at

the current market price. ● Nominal differs from real GDP in that it includes changes in prices

due to inflation, which reflects the rate of price increases in an economy.

● Gross domestic product is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced.

4.The percentage of deposits which a

bank must keep as cash reserves with RBI is known as _______. A. Liquidity Reserve Ratio

B. Statutory Liquidity Ratio C. Capital Output Ratio

D. Cash Reserve Ratio Ans. D

Sol. ● Cash Reserve Ratio is a percentage

of demand and time liabilities that every bank has to retain in cash with the RBI.

● A reduction in CRR leads to more liquidity in the system as the banks

have to park fewer funds with the Central Bank. Also, under inflationary

conditions, a reduction in CRR leads to more money in the system.

5.Costs are high, demand has to be created, customers have to prompted

to try the product, slow sales volume starts and makes no money at this

stage are the characteristics of which stage in PLC. A. Saturation stage

B. Decline stage C. Mature stage

D. Introduction stage E. Growth stage

Ans. D Sol. Costs are high, demand has to be

created, customers have to prompted to try the product, slow sales volume starts and makes no money at this

stage are the characteristics of the Introduction stage in PLC.

6.Who is the Chairman of Monetary Policy Committee?

A. Finance Minister of India B. President of India

C. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India D. Prime Minister of India

Ans. C

Sol. • The Governor of Reserve Bank of India is the chairperson ex officio

of the Monetary Policy Committee. • The committee comprises six

members - three officials of the Reserve Bank of India and three external members nominated by the

Government of India. • The Monetary Policy Committee is

responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India.

• The meetings of the Monetary Policy Committee are held at least 4 times a year and it publishes its decisions after

each such meeting.

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7.The Mahalanobis Plan of development was adopted during

which Five Year Plan? A. Third B. Fourth

C. First D. Second

Ans. D Sol.

• The Mahalanobis Plan of development was adopted during the Second Five

Year Plan (1956-1961). • The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development

model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra

Mahalanobis in 1953. • The Second Plan focused on the development of the public sector and

"rapid Industrialisation".

8.On which date did the NITI Aayog replace the Planning Commission? A. 1st of January 2017

B. 1st of January 2014 C. 1st of January 2016

D. 1st of January 2015 Ans. D

Sol. ● The NITI Aayog replaced the

Planning Commission on 1st Jan 2015. ● The NITI Aayog or National

Institution for Transforming India is a policy think tank of the

Government of India. ● Arvind Panagariya served as first

vice-chairman of NITI Aayog. 9.Sugam Tax is related to:

A. Income Tax B. Custom Duty

C. Excise Duty D. Commercial Tax

Ans. A Sol.

● Sugam tax is related to Income Tax.

● It is an Income Tax Return form available for taxpayers. ● The tax paid by individuals

directly to the government basis your income or profit is called

Income Tax. ● The tax imposed on the goods when they are transported across

the international borders is called Customs Duty.

● The tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing and sale is called Excise Duty.

● The tax that is levied on locally manufactured and imported goods

and services is called Commercial Tax.

10.Which of the following is not the targeted popular industry by the

Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (IOCD) for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?

A. Real Estate B. Chemical and Plastic Manufacturing

C. Telecom D. Business Services

Ans. D Sol.

The industry targeted by the Organization for Economic Cooperation

and Development (OECD) for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is: • Real estate, rental and business

activities o Real Estate

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• Financial intermediation • Transport, storage and

communication o Telecom • Hotel and Restaurant

• Trade and Repair • Manufacturing -

o Rubber and plastic products • Mining and Quarrying • Agriculture and fisheries

11.Which of the following indicators is

not a forecast but only confirms a long-term trend A. Encapsulation indicator

B. Revised Estimate Indicator C. Coincident indicator

D. Key Indicators Ans. A

Sol. • Key indicators are an alert for

economists and investors who anticipate trends. • The encapsulation indicator is a

financial signal that becomes apparent only after a large shift.

• An encapsulation indicator is an observable or measurable factor that correlates with change at some time

after an economic, financial, or commercial change.

• An encapsulation technical indicator is one that detects the price action of an underlying asset, and traders use it

to generate transaction signals or to confirm the strength of a given trend.

Examples of encapsulation indicators are gross domestic product (GDP),

consumer price index (CPI), and trade balance.

12.Any deal in which the property is transferred to one person and payment

is made by another person is called a ……….

A. Hawala B. Anonymous Transaction C. money laundering

D. Black Money

Ans. B Sol. • Social insurance, a public insurance

program that provides protection from various economic risks.

• Social insurance is considered as a type of social protection and in fact the two terms are interchangeable.

• Any transaction in which the property is transferred to one person and

payment is made by another person is an anonymous transaction.

13.Which department is the nodal department for overseeing the public

financial management system in Central govt. of India? A. Department of Expenditure

B. Department of Revenue C. Department of Financial Services

D. Department of Economic Affairs Ans. A

Sol. • Department of Expenditure is the

nodal department for overseeing the public financial management system in Central govt. of India.

• The Department of Economic Affairs is the nodal agency of the Union

Government to formulate and monitor country's economic policies and

programmes. • Dept. of Revenue exercises control in respect of matters relating to all the

Direct and Indirect Union Taxes

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through two statutory Boards namely, CBDT and CBIC.

• The Department of Financial Services covers Banks, Insurance, and Financial Services provided by various

government agencies and private corporations.

14.Which of the following statements is correct about financial matters?

A. This means that the issuance of banknotes is not supported by gold.

B. This means that the issuance of banknotes and coins is not supported by government securities.

C. This means that bank notes and coins are backed by government

securities and gold. D. None of these

Ans. C Sol.

Bank notes and coins are backed by government securities and gold. • All notes issued by the RBI are backed

by assets such as gold, government securities and foreign currency assets

as defined in Section 33 of the RBI, 1934. • Bank notes issued by RBI are of low

value o Dominations of two rupees, five

rupees, ten rupees, twenty rupees, fifty rupees, one hundred rupees, one thousand rupees, five thousand rupees

and ten thousand rupees or such other denominations as the Central

Government may specify, on the recommendation of the Central Board,

in its behalf but this cannot be more than ten thousand rupees.

15........... is the primary sector of the Indian economy.

A. Banking B. Information and Technology

C. Agriculture D. Judiciary

Ans. C Sol.

o Agriculture is the primary sector of the Indian economy. o Activities are undertaken by directly

using natural resources in Primary sector of Indian economy.

o Agriculture, Fishing, Mining, Forestry, Dairy etc. are examples of Primary sector.

o Most of the natural products we get are from dairy, agriculture, forestry,

fishing, hence it is also known as Agriculture and allied sector. o Different sectors of economy are as

follows- o Primary – Extraction of raw

materials – Mining, Farming, Fishing etc. o Secondary – concerned with

producing and manufacturing – Construction, Electricity etc.

o Tertiary – concerned with offering intangible goods and services to consumers. Ex. IT Services.

o Quaternary – Knowledge based activities.

16.Which of the following Steel plants of India does NOT come under the

Public Sector? A. TISCO

B. Rourkela Steel Plant C. Bhilai Steel Plant

D. Durgapur Steel Plant Ans. A

Sol.

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* Jamshedpur steel plant is a private sector industry. It was started by

Jamshedji Tata. It comes under the management of TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel Company).

* All public sector undertakings market their steel through the Steel Authority

of India Ltd.(SAIL). * Bhilai, Durgapur, Rourkela, and Bokaro steel plants are public sector

industries so these come under the management of SAIL.

17.......... are receipts of the government which are non-

redeemable. A. Tax receipts

B. Direct receipts C. Revenue receipts D. Indirect receipts

Ans. C

Sol. * A receipt is an acknowledment that a person has received money following

a sale or other transfer of goods or provision of a service.

* Receipt can be produced manually or generated electronically. * The receipt that cannot be reclaimed

from the government. * Receipts are classified into two

types: Revenue receipts and Capital receipts. * Capital Receipts are receipts of the

government, which create liability or reduce financial assets.

* Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-

redeemable. * Revenue receipts are again classified into tax and non-tax

revenues.

* The Tax receipt is an acknowledgment received when the tax

payment is done as a reference and record. * Non-tax receipts are government

revenue not generated from taxes.

18........... capital refers to the variety of raw material and money in hand during the production.

A. Fixed B. Working

C. Human D. Physical

Ans. B Sol.

* The raw materials and money in hand are known as working capital, which is used for the production of

commodities. It is also called as current capital.

* Physical capital is the variety of inputs required at every stage during production. It includes fixed capital and

working capital. * Fixed capital is defined as the stock

of tangible, durable fixed assets owned or used by resident enterprises for more than one year. This includes

plant, machinery, vehicles and equipment, installations and physical

infrastructures, the value of land improvements and buildings. * Human capital is an intangible asset

or quality not listed on a company’s balance sheet. It can be classified as

the economic value of a worker’s experience and skills. This includes

assets like education, training, intelligence, skills, health.

19.The green revolution did NOT include:

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A. Use of a well-developed irrigation system of irrigation.

B. Upgradation of the roads of the village. C. Use of advanced technology in

farming. D. High-yielding varieties of seeds.

Ans. B Sol.

● ‘Upgradation of the roads of the village’ was not included in the Green

Revolution. ● The basic approach was the development of high-yielding

varieties of cereal grains, expansion of irrigation infrastructure,

modernization of management techniques, distribution of hybridized seeds, synthetic

fertilizers, and pesticides to farmers.

● M.S. Swaminathan has been called the “Father of Green Revolution in India” for his role in introducing and

further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India.

20.Which of the following are NOT Trade Barriers?

A. Subsidies B. Embargo

C. Export Security D. Tariff Barriers

Ans. C Sol.

● Trade barriers are government-induced restrictions on international

trade. Man-made trade barriers come in several forms, including tariffs, non-tariff barriers, import licenses,

export licenses, import quota, subsidies, voluntary export

restraints, embargo, etc. Hence, export security doesn’t come under

the trade barrier. ● In theory, free trade involves the removal of all such barriers, except

perhaps those considered necessary for health or national security. In

practice, however, even those countries promoting free trade heavily subsidize certain industries, such as

agriculture and steel.


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