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3 | COMPETITIVE ZEAL | DECEMBER 2012

COMPETITIVE ZEAL

FIRST PAGECompetitive Zeal for Latest Update

Dear Readers,

Heartiest thanks to all of you for your faith and support for“Competitive Zeal”, for quite a long time. It has been the privilegeof I.B.S. to cater to the needs of our students in pursuit of their goalto success in their exam/competitions. I.B.S. has always been knownfor its innovation and student centric teaching approach as we verywell understand that exams are getting tougher will the fast changingtimes. In order to build an edge in the competition, one has to workwith self confidence, perseverance and hard work. Infact life is likea battle, one has to fight if fearlessly. Fight with confidence, positiveattitude, right aptitude and with determined efforts to achieve thesuccess ultimately. One who tries, has a chance of victory.

It is our confidence that boosts the morale and createsdetermination to attain a goal. It should always be remembered, aquitter can never be a winner. Please don’t give up, never getfrustrated by the odds and failures of the path, till the goal is reached.One step at a time and that will take you to the grandest height. Sorejuvenate and re-energize yourself for your coming exams.

Here again we request our dear reader for their wisesuggestions and contributions to this magazine.

With Regards

Jiwan Bansal

Associate Editor

Competitive ZEAL

EditorRahul Dev

Associate EditorJiwan Kumar Bansal

AdvisorsAjay Singh GuleriaRajeev Kumar

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Institute of Banking Services Pvt. Ltd.SCO 108-109, Sector 8C, Chd.

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First Page

CONTENTS

“Obstacles are those frightful things; you see when you takeyour eyes off your goal” – HENRY FORD

1. The Vice President of India 2

2. London Olympics – India an 4Under Achiever

3. News: National/International 6

4. Commonly Used Terms 11

5. Test Your Knowledge 14– An Exercise

7. Current General Knowledge 15

8. SSC Compendium 16

9. FCI-Special "Recent 19Appointments & Meetings"

10. One Word Substitution 26

11. Reasoning Kapsule 28

12. Vocab Funda 32

13. Crossword Puzzle 33

14. SBI Exam -7th Oct, 2012 34

15. IDBI Exam Paper 48

16. AAO Exam Paper 60


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THE Vice President of India is thesecond highest dignitary of India,only next to President of India.Though no formal functions areattached to the office of VicePresident but still he performssome functions. The Vice Presidentis elected by the members of anElectoral College consisting of all790 members of both houses ofParliament (545 of the Lok Sabhaand 245 of Rajya Sabha). Unlike inthe Presidential election, the nominated members of bothhouses- “Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are also eligible toparticipate in the election for the post of Vice President.

The election of the Vice President, like that of Presidentshall be indirect and in accordance with the system ofproportional representation be means of the single transferablevote. But the election of Vice President is infact different fromthat of the President as the State Legislature have no part in it.The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consistingof the members of both Houses of Parliament. The voting is bysecret ballot and voters rank the candidates in order ofpreference:-1. Recording “1” opposite the name of the candidate who is

their first choice.2. “2” to their second preference and so on. The votes should

be recorded in numerals, not in words.3. During the counting, the numbers of first preference votes

secured by each candidate is ascertained. The numbers soascertained are added up. The total is divided by two andone is added to the quotient disregarding any remainder.The resulting number is the quota sufficient for a candidateto secure election.

4. In case no candidate is successful to obtain the requirednumber of first preference votes then the candidate gettingleast number of first preference votes will be eliminatedand 2nd preference votes of such candidate will betransferred to the respective remaining candidates forwhom such second preferences have been marked.

5. The process will be repeated till a candidate gets therequisite number of votes.

Vice President Of India

Qualifications:-A person, in order to be elected as Vice President must be:-

1. Citizen of India.2. Has completed 35 years of age.3. Must not hold any office of profit under Union, State or

Local Authority in their meaning of Article 66 of IndianConstitution.For a person to be elected as President, he must be qualified

for election as a member of the House of People. Similarly inorder to be Vice President, he must be qualified to be elected asa member of the Council of States. The purpose behind thisprovision is that the Vice President is normally to act as Chairmanof the Council of the State. Here it is pertinent to add that thereis no bar to a member of the Union or State Legislature beingelected President or Vice President but a person cannot holdtwo offices. But once he is elected President or Vice President,he will be deemed to have vacated his seat in that House of theLegislature to which he was a member.

Term of Office:-The term of the Vice President is 5 years. His office may

terminate earlier to this term of five years, either by resignationor by removal.

Removal:-Within the meaning of the Article 67, Provision (b), a formal

impeachment is not required for the removal of Vice President.He may be removed by a resolution of the Council of Statespassed by the majority of its members and agreed to by theHouse of People.

Re-election:-Though there is no specific provision for re-election of

Vice President but the Explanation to Article 66 of IndianConstitution suggests that the sitting Vice President may gofor re-election. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was re-elected VicePresident in 1957.

Functions of Vice President:-The function of the Vice President may be discussed as

under:-a) The normal function of the Vice President is to act as the

ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.

“Man is by nature a political animal”“Man is by nature a political animal”“Man is by nature a political animal”“Man is by nature a political animal”“Man is by nature a political animal” ———AristotleAristotleAristotleAristotleAristotle


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b) If there occurs any vacancy in the office of the Presidentby reason of his death, resignation, removal or otherwise,the Vice President will act as President until a new Presidentis acted and enters upon his office.

c) The Vice President will discharge the functions of thePresident during the temporary absence of the Presidentor any other cause by reason of which President is unableto discharge his functions. Here it is quite interesting tonote that there is no mechanism under the Constitution todetermine as to when the President is unable to dischargehis duties. Historically speaking it was in 1960, the VicePresident Dr. S.Radhakrishnan, for the first time was giventhe opportunity of acting as President owing to the“inability” of the President Dr. Rajendra Prasad to dischargehis duties as he (then President) was on 15 day visit toRussia. Second time in May 1961, when Dr. Rajendra Prasadbecome seriously ill and incapable of discharging hisduties, himself suggested that the Vice President should

discharge the functions of President until he resumed hisduties.In the event of the occurance of vacancy in the office of

both the President and the Vice President by reason of death,resignation, removal etc. the Chief Justice of India or in hisabsence the senior most judge of the Supreme Court availablewill discharge the functions of President until a new Presidentis elected. In 1969, Chief Justice Sh. Hidyatullah discharged thefunctions of the President when on the death of Dr. ZakirHussain, the Vice President Sh. V.V.Giri resigned.

Emoluments:-When the Vice President discharges the functions of the

President, the Vice President shall not perform the duties of theChairman of Rajya Sabha and shall not entitled to receive thesalary of the Chairman. During this period he is entitled for thesalary and privileges of the President of India.

FORMER VICE PRESIDENTS OF INDIA

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan Dr.Zakir Hussain Sh. V.V. Giri Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak

Sh. B.D.Jatti Sh. M. Hidayatullah Sh. R. Venkataraman Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma

Sh. K.R. Narayanan Sh. Krishan Kant Sh.Bhairon Singh Shekhawat


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India, the world’s largest democracy, second largest countryin the world by population (fast catching up with China though),has been under -achiever at London Olympics. With apopulation of over 1.2 billion and just 6 medals and none isgold. A total of six medals for India averages to one medal forroughly every 207 million inhabitants. Compare to that to Chinawith one medal for every 15.5 million people (for a total of 87medals). With an annual GDP of £ 1.848 trillion, India is world’s10th largest economy according World Bank Data 2011. Yet itsnumber of medals is far lower than that of countries with smallereconomies. Here we may also take an example of Russia, with amarginally larger economy than India, is having won 87 medalsat this Olympics. This is all disturbing for all Indians. It will besimply wrong to guess that India does not care about competingin the Olympics. We have, infact eagerly followed the gameswhile cheering the athletes. Ironically, the question of India’spoor performance at Olympics arises only when the games areon, for only about two weeks every four years and we do notcare about them for the rest of three years and more.

We are torn between feeling proud for six athletes of Indiathat brought us the medals, our best ever medal tally, and thefeeling of disappointment at seeing India finish at a poor 55th

rank. This rank reflects not only the state of sports infrastructurein India but also our state of mind as a country. Though wecannot deny the fact that we are a poor nation having a largemajority of Indians struggling for survival yet we have a greatpotential to rank in the top ten countries in the world.

Time has come now to build grass roots sporting culturein the country. The experts are of the view that there is lack ofinclusive sports growth policy for large sections of the Indianpopulation. So how can we count them as potential medalwinners in games/athletics. They are excluded by poorchildhood health, physical isolation by poor transportation fromthe athletic centers in the big cities or poor knowledge aboutthe modern preparatory techniques and requirements for theOlympics or other sports competitions. Infact we need a sportsinfrastructure and an overhaul of the current training system inIndia. We need to follow Chinese system of building sportingculture which is conducive to Olympic victory. Their rise insports has been phenomenal. Like them also we need moreinvestment in sports and the right kind of the commitment.Undoubtedly we have an abundance of talent and that talentsneeds to be nurtured right from a young age in a requisitetraining environment.

There is no denying the fact that the most of Indian parentsdo not value sports in their families and kids are neverencouraged to join and pursue sports. Parents in India playhighly significant role in children upbringing and the children

LONDON OLYMPICS – INDIA AN UNDERACHIEVER

are made to follow what parents wish, not caring what they(children) themselves desire. Sports are not considered at parwith other professions and are not taken as a career. Most parentsthemselves have no understanding of the sporting values andhave a experience of life time working to just survive. The Indian’spoor Olympic performance can’t be set right, only throughpouring more money in sports but there is every need to changethe mindset of the Indian parents. We should cultivate tasteand culture that values fitness and ruggedness as value. Thefact is that without a widespread adoption of sports withinfamilies, we have no hope for the talented kids to come forwardand whole heartedly adopt and pursue sports. Otherwise sportswould remain an individual pursuit and a personal choice andnot a national culture.

We are a nation has an obsession for cricket. The bigexception to India’s poor performance in sports, is undoubtedlythe cricket. But this is part of problem as we are so cricketobsessed that we have little place for other sports. Cricket hasbecome such a lucrative and beneficial game rather businessthat a successful player can accumulate money for even hisfuture generations but at the cost of other sports/game. Are wea one-sport nation? This is a big question. In India cricketersattract most of the fame in the society. Younger generationbelieves that cricket is quickest way to make quick money andget the fame. No importance is paid to the other sports. Even iftoday we ask an educated matured person to name all the sixIndian Olympics medalists, hardly he would be able to do that.

If we analyze the Chinese policy of sports we find that theessential object of the policy is to win glories for their nationthrough international competition. To achieve this goal, Chinahas established an elite sports system and reformation of sportssystem is an unavoidable process for them. Mao Zedong, in1952 gave a slogan:

“Developing sport and promotingpeople’s physique”

This slogan has strengthened the sports system in China andgreatly contributes to establish the importance of sports inpeople’s lives. Development of elite sports system – “Juguotizhi” is originally a specific administrative system andmechanism of Chinese Sports. The essence of this is to utilizethe administrative channels to allocate social resources anddevelop the level of competitive sport in order to win glories forthe Chinese nation. China’s Olympic system demands that itsathletes give their all and should not expect much in return. It isa structured, planned and Government funded system especiallyto churn out winners. The athletic selection process beginswith little children through sports academies in every major city


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29 year old Mary Kom went downto Britain’s Nicol Adams 6-11 in awomen’s boxing semi-final boutto settle for a bronze in thewomen’s fly weight category.Mary, a five time world champion,fought gallantly but was clearlyout punched, much to the dismay

of a sizeable Indian crowd.

Gagan Narang opened India’smedal account at the 2012 LondonOlympics, bagging a bronze in the men’s10m Air Rifle. He shot 103.1 in a grippingten shot finals for an aggregate of 701.1after scoring 598 in the qualifying roundin which also he stood third.

Yogeswar Dutt won bronze,bouncing back in repechage. Hepulled off three successive wins inmen’s freestyle 60 kg wrestlingcompetition on Day 15. “I havedevoted 21 years of my life to thissport and this is the biggest day ofmy life.” He said as he went toreceive his medal.

Saina Nehwal won thebronze in women’s singlesbadminton, defeating Xin Wangof China 18-21, 01, the latterhaving retired hurt. The loneIndian shuttler to challengeChinese domination is hoping herbronze medal will inspire at leasthalf a dozen more to join her at the top.

and province. Olympics candidates are chosen from amongchildren as young as five years old, often based on physicalproportions alone. Tracked children later graduate to centralizedsports academies and finally finish their training programmes inone of many national sports camps which compete each otherfor the honour placing their graduates on an Olympic team.Anyone who bow out of the system, for example due to injury,is not usually cared much. Each of these specially honed athletesis dead serious about making the gold standard, his or her onlystandard for success. Thus the Chinese model of sports trainingis an efficient system of athletic development. Now we Indiansshould also formulate our own new and strong sports policywith a proper focus on nurturing the young talent from a rightage with world class coaching and world class infrastructure.Further the selectors should favor only the natural talent andcapability of a trainee and nothing else.

It is interesting to note that Chinese Gold Medal winnersget more enhanced infrastructure facilities from their governmentthan the allowance and gratitude. But in India, whenever anathlete or sportsman wins gold medal or any medal for thatmatter, he/she gets showered by money from all sides. Thewinner is given gifts worth of crores from different authoritiesbut if he/she fails to get any medal, such sports person is oftenforced to get out of the game to support himself or his family.Thus an athlete has to face harsh realities and feels demoralized.Under the circumstances we need an institutionalized approachto tackle various problems of sports building within the framework of a comprehensive and effective national sports policy.

India is definitely having an amazing talent and we need toundertake an arduous task of our sports construction withreformation of our existing sports system and process shouldstart from a village level talent to that of national level with agoal of India becoming world leader in the sports.

Indians at London OlympicWrestler Sushil Kumar won

India their sixth and final medal of thegames after settling for silver in thefinal of the men’s 66kg freestyle event.Sushil looked almost unstoppable tillJapanese Tatsuhiro Yonemitsu haltedhis charge, getting the better of him3-1 in the final.

26 year old Vijay Kumar took thesilver in the 25m Rapid Fire Pistol eventwith 30 out of 40 shots. He started witha perfect five, shooting his targets infour seconds in a final in which thereigning world champion Alexei Klimovwent medal – less.

THE MEDAL TALLY

COUNTRY GOLD SILVER BRONZE TOTALUSA 46 29 29 104CHINA 38 27 22 87G BRITAIN 29 17 19 65RUSSIA 24 25 33 82S. KOREA 13 08 07 28GERMANY 11 19 14 44FRANCE 11 11 12 34ITALY 08 09 11 28HUNGARY 08 04 05 17INDIA 00 02 04 06


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Goa topped the List of States with Highest Per Capita IncomeGoa topped the list of the states with highest per capita incomein the country with a total per capita income of `1, 92,652.Delhi with a total per capita income of ̀ 1.75 lakh in 2011-12secured second spot in the list, followed by Haryana with percapita income of `1,09,227. The national average wasestimated at ̀ 38,005 in 2011-12 against ̀ 35,993 in 2010-11.

The estimates are prepared as per methodology prescribedby the Central Statistical Organization on the basis ofprovisional data provided by it and other governmentsources.

Union Government decided to include Chit Funds under theChit Fund Act of 1982 in Six StatesThe Union government decided to include Chit funds, aninformal pooling of funds from individuals for lending underthe Chit Fund Act of 1982 in six states including Gujarat andKerala. The decision is meant to help people access thedispute settlement mechanism. Nagaland, Haryana, Tripura,and Arunachal Pradesh are the other states to come underthe Act, providing a cushion for small savers who are at themercy of local operators. Of the six states brought under thecentral ruling, only Kerala operates under the Kerala Chit Actof 1975. The other five states have no laws to regulate chitfund operators. Registered chit funds have to follow ruleslaid down by the Reserve Bank of India. Industry sourcessay the legislation will force several unregistered chit fundsto shut shop across the country.Given that the chit funds are not managed professionally,investors face difficulty in getting disputes resolved. As perthe estimates projected by the chit fund industry, over 12000registered chit funds manage in excess of `35,000 crore ayear. The share of unregistered funds is possibly 80-90 timesmore than registered funds. The move is expected to bringabout level playing field among registered and unregisteredchit fund operators and make chit funds a safer product forinvestors. A chit scheme generally has a pre-determined valueand duration. Each scheme admits a particular number ofmembers (generally equal to the duration of the scheme), whocontribute a certain sum of money every month (or everyday)to the ‘pot’. The ‘pot’ is then auctioned out every month.The person bidding lowest sum gets the bid amount. Theinitiative to bring chit fund operators under registration isbeing considered a positive move as it will set systems andprocesses in the chit fund industry. If chit funds are registeredand bound under a central Act, it will improve (legal) therecourse mechanism for investors.

NATIONAL / INTERNATIONALNEWS WATCH

News Watch

E-Challan and Receipt (ECR) facility launched by Employees’Provident Fund Organization (EPFO)Union minister of labor and employment has recentlyinaugurated the E-Challan and .Receipt (ECR) facility to bringtransparency and accessibility for employers in depositingmonthly Employees’ Provident Fund or EPF contributions oftheir workers. Employers under the ECR service would haveto register their organizations online and generate challansfor making monthly deposits. They can use these challan foreither electronically or physically depositing the ProvidentFund or PF contributions to the bank. After the bank confirmsthe deposit, the concerned regional office’s system would beautomatically notified and individual members’ accountswould get updated.The claim settlement process would become much easier asunder the new initiative, employee details will be added andupdated electronically. Also the need of annual accountspreparation at the end of the year can be done away withunder this system.

RBI directed Indian Banks to maintain Tier I Capital of atleast 7% of their Risk Weighted AssetsThe Reserve Bank of India has published guidelines forimplementation of the new global capital adequacy norms,called Basel III, by March 2018. Indian banks will have tomaintain Tier I capital, or core capital, of at least 7 per cent oftheir risk weighted assets on an ongoing basis. The objectiveis to strengthen risk management mechanism. As per theguidelines specified by the central bank, commercial bankswill have to maintain their total capital adequacy ratio at 9percent, higher than the minimum recommended requirementof 8 percent under the Basel III norms. It has been decidedthat scheduled commercial banks (excluding LABs and RRBs)operating in India will have to maintain a minimum total capital(MTC) of 9 percent of total risk weighted assets (RWAs) asagainst a MTC of 8 percent of RWAs as prescribed in BaselIII rules text of the BCBS (Basel Committee on BankingSupervision). Also banks are directed to keep a capitalconservation buffer of 2.50 percent. It essentially means thatbanks will have to set aside more capital as buffer to avoid a2008-like crisis again. On failing to set aside the mentionedcapital, the banks will not be able to pay dividend and bonus.The RBI tightened the norms to monitor banks’ investments,inter-connectedness and cross-holdings in the financialsector services which are beyond the active regulatorypurview of the central bank. Basel III requires banks to havea higher share of core capital - which is equity and reserves.Banks will thus require additional ̀ 1-1.5 lakh crore over the


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next six years for doing the same level of business. Theimplementation of the capital adequacy guidelines based onthe Basel III capital regulations will begin on 1 January 2013.Banks are to attain a minimum Tier I capital ratio of 4.5 percent by January 2013, 5.5 per cent by January 2014, and 6 percent by January 2015. The new capital regulations will befully implemented by 31 March 2018.Under the existing Basel II framework, banks are required tomaintain Tier I capital of at least 6 per cent of their riskweighted assets. Under Basel III, Tier I capital willpredominantly consist of common equity, defined as paid-upequity capital, share premium, surpluses arising from sale ofassets, other disclosed free reserves, and balance in the profitand loss account at the end of the financial year.

Competition Commission of India constituteded EminentPersons Advisory GroupThe Competition Commission of India (CCI) has formed anEminent Persons Advisory Group (EPAG). The group isconstituted to provide CCI inputs and advice on issuesimpacting markets and competition, among others. The groupcomprise Infosys founder N.R. Narayana Murthy, formerComptroller and Auditor General V.N. Kaul, former DeputyGovernor of Reserve Bank of India Rakesh Mohan, BioconChairman and MD Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, former Director, ofIIM-Ahmedabad Bakul Dholakia, former Chairman of CERCS.L Rao, former Vice-Chancellor of NLSIU, Bangalore N.LMitra. The Group will have interaction/meetings with theCommission two to three times a year.

Boosting Economy: _ RBI raises foreign investment limit ingovernment bondThe Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently announced aseries of measures, including raising limits for externalcommercial borrowings and government securities, that wouldhelp revive the battered currency and the economy.The Reserve Bank of India said in a statement that it hastaken measures in consultation with the government toliberalize capital account transactions. It has been decided toallow Indian companies in the manufacturing andInfrastructure sector and earning foreign exchange to availof external commercial borrowing merit of (EC3) for repayOutstanding rupee loans towards capital expenditure and/orfresh Rupee capital expenditure under the approval route,“The overall ceiling for such ECBs would be $ l0 billion,”“The existing limit for investment by Securities and ExchangeBoard of India (SEBI) registered foreign institutional investors(FIIs) in government securities (G-Secs) has been enhancedby a further amount of $5 billion. This would take the overalllimit for FII investment in G-Secs from $ 15 billion to $ 20billion.

In order to broad base the non-resident investor base for G-Secs, it has also been decided to allow long term investorslike Sovereign Wealth Funds (SWFs), multilateral agencies,endowment funds, insurance funds, pension funds andforeign central banks to be registered with SFBI, to also investin G-Secs for the entire limit of $ 20 billion. The sub-limit of$10 billion (existing $5 billion with residual maturity of 5 yearsand additional limit of $ 5 billion) would have the residualmaturity of three years.

Moonsoon’s impact on Indian economyThe Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecastan average monsoon in 2012, retaining its earlier forecast inApril. An average or normal monsoon means rainfall between96 and 104 percent of a 50-year average of 89 centimetersduring a four-month season from June, India’s weather officesays. Rainfall below 90 percent of the average is considereda drought.

ARRIVALThe monsoon season starts with the arrival of the rains onthe southern Kerala coast around June I. Its progress triggersplanting of summer crops.

PROGRESSAfter hitting the south coast, it takes about a week to coverthe coffee, tea and rubber growing areas of South India. Itspreads to the rice areas of eastern parts in the first 10 days.It usually covers half of the country in the first fortnight andenters the oilseed-producing areas of central India in the thirdweek of June. Cotton areas in the western region get rains bythe first week of July. It covers entire country by mid-July.Half of India’s farm output comes from crops planted duringthe first half of the June-September season. Here are somefacts on tile monsoon and its impact.

CROPSRICE: Farmers sow paddy at the start of the monsoon in Juneand the key areas are in the east and south. The crop is heavilydependent on rains for irrigation. A bumper harvest last yearled the government to lift a four year ban on exports andrainfall within the average will erase any chance of a return ofthe export ban for the world’s second largest producer of thegrain after China.

SUGARCANE:An average monsoon will help the world’s top sugar producerafter Brazil to keep its free export policy on sugar in the newseason from October l.

OTHERS:Corn, lentils, oilseeds and cotton important crops in westernand central India --have some dependency on the seasonal


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rains. India remains a net importer of lentils and cooking oilsand domestic out-put can alter overseas purchases. Anaverage rainfall could allow the world’s second biggestproducer of cotton continue with its free policy on overseassale.

ECONOMY AND MARKETS1. The monsoon rains are vital for farm output and

economic growth in India, the world’s second-biggestproducer of rice, wheat, sugar and cotton. Farm sectorshares for about 15 percent of India’s nearly $2 trillioneconomy, Asia’s third biggest.

2. India is largely Self-sufficient in major food grains suchas rice and wheat, but drought can send the country toglobal markets. In 2009, India had to import sugar, sendingglobal prices to record highs and pushing up inflation.

3. Higher farm output would rein in food prices and helpthe government to take steps to cut the fiscal deficit andfarm subsidies. India’s food inflation rose to 10.66percent in May from 10. 18 percent in April, latest figuresshow.

4. A stronger economic outlook can lift sentiment in equitymarkets, mainly of companies selling products in ruralareas, including consumer goods and automobiles.

5. Monsoon rains impact demand for gold in India, theworld’s top consumer of the metal, as purchases get aboost when farming incomes rise amid high crop output.

IRRIGATION, POWER1. Monsoon rains replenish reservoirs and lift ground-

water levels, allowing better irrigation and morehydropower output.

2. Higher rain fall can cut demand for subsidized diesel,which is used to pump water from wells for irrigation andmakes up for about 40 percent of India’s oil productsdemand.

European banking crisis can choke trade, FinanceIt has been observed that a crisis in the European bankingsystem can choke trade and finance and in the process globaleconomic growth.The sovereign debt crisis and the banking crisis, now on thehorizon, has grave implications not only for the Europeaneconomy, but also global economy as said by External AffairsMinister S.M Krishna . He further said that a crisis in Europeanbanking system can choke trade, finance and economic growthnot just in the Euro Zone but in the world at large. Europe isof particular concern as it accounts for a significant share ofthe global economy and is also India’s major trade andinvestment partner. There is a need to substantially expandthe resource base of Multi lateral development banks so that

they have the fire-power to help developing countries pursuetheir developmental goals.

Fitch revises India’s outlook to negative; affirms at ‘BB B-’Fitch Ratings has revised India’s Outlook to Negative fromStable in June 2012. Its Long Term Foreign and Local CurrencyIssuer Default Ratings ([DRs) have been affirmed at ‘BBB-’and Short Term Foreign Currency at ‘F3’. India’s CountryCeiling is also affirmed at ‘BBB-’. The Outlook revision reflectsheightened risks that India’s medium- to long-term growthpotential will gradually deteriorate If further structural reformsare not hastened, including measures to enhance theeffectiveness of the government and create a more positiveoperational environment for business and privateinvestments. The Negative Outlook also reflects India’slimited progress on fiscal consolidation and, in particular, onreducing the central government deficit despite improvementin the financial health of state governments.The rating affirmation reflects India’s diversified economyand its high domestic saving which reduce reliance on foreigninvestors for private investment and fiscal funding. TheIndian government is able to issue long-term debt at a lowcost in its own currency. Net external debt is very law and stillhigh Foreign exchange reserves of the Reserve Bank of India(RBI) provide a cushion against Potential external shocks.The underlying drivers of the last decade of rapid economicgrowth remain in place a fast growing pool of educatedworkers and an innovative private services sector.Fitch, however, notes that India faces an awkwardcombination of slowing growth and still--elevated inflation.Real GDP grew .just 6.5 percent yoy in FY2011-12(end-March2012), down from an 8.4 percent rise in FY2010-11. India alsofaces structural challenges surrounding its investment climatein the form of corruption and inadequate economic reforms.Fitch forecasts real GDP to raise 6.5 percent yoy in FY13,down from a previous projection or 7.5 percent. Headlinewholesale price index (WPI) rose 7.6 percent yoy in May2012, up from 7.2 percent yoy in April. Fitch is projecting WPIto rise by an average of 7.5 percent in FY2012-13 which,though lower than the 8.8 percent rise in FY2011-12, continuesto be higher and stickier than Fitch previously expected,diminishing scope for monetary policy flexibility.India’s public Finances are a key rating weakness comparedwith other ‘BBB’-rated sovereigns, which constrains scopefor Fiscal policy flexibility. Fitch estimated general governmentdebt stood at 66 percent of GDP at end-FY2011-12, againstthe ‘BBB’ median of 39 percent. Moreover India’s governmentrevenue in take is low at 19.4 percent of GDP. The centralgovernment fiscal deficit climbed to 5.8 percent of GDP inFY2011-12, against a target of 4.6 percent, largely reflectingan overshoot in subsidy spending. The government has


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

repeatedly delayed reforms to the tax and subsidy systems.The confluence of weaker economic growth and a largesubsidy bill means India will likely miss its 5.1 percent of GDPdeficit target for FY2012--13. Fitch expects it to be 5.6 percent5.9 percent of GDP. General elections due in early 2014 couldsee politically driven pressure to loosen fiscal policy, whichcould further weaken India’s public finances relative to peers.India’s external financial position remains a rating strength,although this is eroding as foreign exchange reserves havefallen (11 percent since August 2011) and net externalindebtedness is rising. Reserves remained at lJSD286bn as ofend-May 2012, equal to six months of current externalpayments, which still provides the sovereign with animportant buffer- during periods of elevated global riskaversion. The sovereign is a net external creditor to the tuneof 10.2 percent of GDP at end-FY2011-12, against the BBB’median of 3.3 percent of GDP or the ‘BB’ median of negative4.1 percent of GDP. Slowing growth should curb the currentaccount deficit and slow the weakening of the externalfinances, although oil prices pose a risk. Prolonged andintensified pressure on the Currency and/or foreign reserveswould be negative for the credit profile.A significant loosening of fiscal policy, which leads to anincrease in the gross general Government debt/GDP ratio,would result in a downgrade of India’s sovereign ratings. Inaddition, a material downward revision of Fitch’s assessmentof the India’s medium-term growth potential along withpersistent high inflationary pressure would hurt India’ssovereign creditworthiness. Conversely, an improvement inIndia’s investment climate, which supports greaterinfrastructure investment and a sharp sustained decline ininflation, would be supportive for India’s sovereign ratings.Fiscal consolidation and structural budget reform would alsoSupport the ratings.

Government flays Fitch rating action, defends banks are fullycapitalizedHitting out at global rating agencies for lowering credit outlookof Indian banks, the government has said that these entitiesare fully capitalized and there is no cause of “worry.” ‘Crisisof capital in the Indian banking system is highly over-rated.The government of India is fully behind public sector banks,whatever rating agencies may say. Public sector banks arefully capitalized, they shall Sufficiently capitalized during thisyear also. So there is no cause of worry. The government hasproposed to Infuse Rs 15,500 crore in the public sector banksduring, the current fiscal to enhance their financial strength.Infect Fitch has recently revised downward credit ratingoutlook of 12 financial agencies, including State Bank of India(SBI), ICICI bank, Punjab National Bank (PNB). Fitch’s ratingaction comes within days of it lowering the credit outlook ofthe India from stable to negative. The list of downgraded

entities include six PSUs and two private banks. These includeBank of’ Baroda (BOB) and its overseas subsidiary Bank ofBaroda (New Zealand), Canara Bank IDBI Bank and Axis Bank.Others to be affected by the rating action include Export-Import Bank of India, Hudco, IDFC and Indian Railway FinanceCorporation. Unimpressed with the rating observation, thefinancial services secretary has said that it is absolutelyabsurd for anybody to de-rate Indian institutions which arein better shape compared to their global counterparts.

Reserve bank of India leaves interest rates unchangedRBI (eaves interest rates unchanged

Mumbai: The Reserve Bank of India left interest rates and thecash reserve ratio for banks unchanged in its policydeclaration in June 2012, defying widespread expectationsfor a rate cut as it warned that doing so could worsen inflation.The Reserve Bank of India kept its policy repo rate unchangedat 8 percent and left the cash reserve ratio for banks at 4.75percent. Economists polled by Reuters had forecast a ratecut, most likely of 25 basis points, while some governmentofficials had also been calling for a rate cut.

Stop prepayment penalty on home Loans, RBI to coop banksThe Reserve Bank has recently directed state and central co-operative banks to stop levying penalty on pre-payment ofhome loans on floating interest rates with immediate effect. Ithas been decided that banks will not be permitted to chargeforeclosure charges /pre-payment penalties on home loanson the floating interest rate basis with immediate effect. Earlierthis month, RBI had also asked the commercial banks to stopcharging such penalties.RBI said that the removal of foreclosure charges or pre-payment penalty on home loans will lead to reduction in thediscrimination between existing and new borrowers andcompetition among banks will result in finer pricing of thefloating rate home loans. ‘Though many banks have in therecent past voluntarily abolished pre-payment 1penalties onfloating rate home loans, there is a need to ensure uniformityacross the banking system. RBI in its monitory policy for2012-13 had proposed that banks should not be permitted tolevy such charges with a view to bring uniformity across thebanking system in the home loan segment. The committee onCustomer Services in Banks under M Damodaran hadexpressed that foreclosure of charges levied by banks onprepayment of home loans was resented upon by home loanborrowers and the banks were hesitant in passing on thebenefit of lower interest rates to existing borrowers in a fallinginterest rate scenario. As such foreclosure charges are seenas a restrictive practice deterring the borrowers from switchingover to cheaper available source.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

RBI asks RRBs, coop banks to frame policy on unclaimedaccountsThe Reserve Bank has recently asked cooperative andregional rural banks to frame policies to locate customerswith unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts. RBI said ina circular that state and central cooperative banks or regionalrural banks are advised to put in place a board-approvedpolicy on classification of unclaimed deposits, grievanceredressal mechanism for quick resolution of complaints,record keeping, and periodic review of such accounts,RBI has given detailed instructions to these banks to dealwith unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts and hasadvised them to find the whereabouts of the customers ortheir legal heirs.The central bank has also asked them for an annual review ofsuch accounts. levy no charge for activation of inoperativeaccounts after due diligence.In order to identify owners of such accounts with duediligence of KYC (know your customer) norms, RBI has alsoasked them to display list of unclaimed deposits or inoperativeaccounts which were inactive or inoperative for ten years ormore on their websites by June 30, 2012. The first periodicreview of unclaimed deposits or inoperative accounts shouldbe put up to their respective banks boards by September 30,2012, RBI said.

Indian economy to grow at 6.9 percent in 2012-13: WorldBankThe Indian economy will grow by 6.9 percent in this financialyear (2012-13) notwithstanding problems like policyuncertainties, fiscal deficit and inflation, the World Bankprojected in its recent report “Global Economic Prospects”,while cautioning that developing nations will have to facetougher times. “India will see growth (measured at factor cost)increasing to 6.9, 7.2 and 7.4 percent in fiscal years 2012-13,2013-14 and 2014-15, respectively,” the World Bank has alsosaid in the report. Referring to developments in 2010-11, themulti lateral lending agency has said that growth in India wasparticularly weak due to monetary policy, stalled reforms andelectricity shortages. These factors, along with fiscal andinflation concerns, cut into investment activity. India’seconomic growth rate in 2011-12 slipped to a nine-year low of6.5 percent. The economy had expanded by 8.4 percent in thepreceding two years.For the current fiscal the government has pegged growth at

7.6 percent. Considering global uncertainties and domesticwoes, this growth rate could be tall order for the country.Growth in South Asia slowed to 7.1 percent in 2011, from 8.6percent in 2010, as headwinds from the Euro Area crisiscaused a steep deceleration in exports and a reversal ofportfolio inflows the report says. Meanwhile, the globaleconomy is expected to expand 2.5 percent this year.According to the World Bank developing nations shouldprepare for a long period of volatility in the global economyby re-emphasizing on medium term development strategies.Developing county growth will slow to a relatively weak 5.3percent in 2012, before strengthening somewhat to 5.9 percentin 201 3 and six per cent in 2014, has also said.

No-frills accounts rise over two-fold in last 2 yearsThe number of no Frills or zero balance account holders morethan doubled to 103.21 million in the year to March 31, 2012from 49.33 million in March 2010, RBI has said in its financialinclusion update. During March 2010-March 2012, totalnumber of banking outlets grew to 1, 47,534 from 54,258Outlets, the Reserve Bank said in the update on financialinclusion. The Reserve Bank (RBI) has launched the financialinclusion programme to provide financial services to peoplein banked areas. RBI’s approach to financial inclusion is aimedat connecting people with the mainstream financialinstitutions like banks, the apex bank said. Goal of financialinclusion is better served through mainstream bankinginstitutions as only they have the ability to offer the Suite ofproducts required to bring in effective meaningful financialinclusion. The number of Business correspondents (BCs),who carry out banking operations on behalf of banksincreased to 96,828 From 33,042. The number of hank branchesopened through banking outlets rose to 24,701 in FY12 from21,475 while number of banking Outlets opened through BCsrose significantly to 1,20,355 in FY 12, from 32,G84 in FY 10.Meanwhile, as many as 2.478 banking) Outlets were openedthrough other modes from just 99 outlets two years ago.During the period, total of 3,171 rural branches were opened.For effective dissemination of financial services, RBI hasallowed technology partners such as mobile companies topartner with banks in offering the services collaboratively.Also, it has permitted banks to freely open branches in tier 2to tier 6 centers, have mandated banks to open 25 per cent ofall new branches in unbaked rural centers and has relaxedknow your customer (KYC) norms for opening small bankaccounts.

“Facts are facts and will not disappear on account of your likes”. –Jawahar Lal Nehru


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Decentralization means the establishment of various unit ofthe same industry at different places. Large scale Organizationor Industry cannot be run at one particular place or territory. Inorder to increase the efficiency of the industry, various units atdifferent places are located.● Laissez Faire: It is a French word meaning ‘non

interference’. This doctrine was popularized by classicaleconomists who gave the view that government shouldinterface as little as possible in the economic activities ofthe individuals.

● Buoyancy: When the government fails to check inflation.It raises Income Tax and the Corporate Tax. Such a tax iscalled buoyancy. It concerns with the revenue from taxationin the period of inflation.

● Cheap Money: It refers to that money which is madeavailable to the borrowers at a low rate of interest. Itaccelerates the process of credit expansion by the banks.It is used as a measure to combat depression and revivethe economy.

● Diversification: It refers to the situation is which a firmstarts production of a new product without giving up theproduction of previous products. It is done with a view togrow faster and earn greater profit.

● Gresham’s Law: “When bad money drives out goodmoney from circulation. This statement was given by SirThomas Gresham, the economic advisor of queen Elizabeth.This law states that people always want to hoard goodmoney and spend bad money when two forms of moneyare in circulation at the same time.

● GEM: (Gender Empowerment Measure) is a compositeindex measuring gender inequality in three basic dimensionof empowerment – economic, participation and decisionmaking, political participation and decision making andpower over economic resources.

● Cost Push Inflation: It arise due to increase in theproduction cost. Such type of inflation is caused by threefactors. (1) An increase in wages, (2) An increase in theproject margin, (3) Imposition of heavy taxation.

● Dear Money: Dear money is that money which can onlythe borrowed at a light rate of Interest. In dear moneypolicy bank rate and other rate of interest are light and asa result borrowing becomes expensive. Dear money policyis a deliberate policy which is adopted by the monetaryauthorities to check inflation in the economy.

● Death Duty: It is a direct tax which is imposed on theestate of deceased person. Death duly or death tax is aform of personal tax on property which is levied whenproperty passes from one person to other at the time of

COMMONLY USED TERMS

death of the former.● Credit Squeeze: Monetary Authorities restrict credit as

and when required. This credit restriction is called creditsqueeze. Monetary Authorities adopt the policy of creditsqueeze to control inflationary pressure in the economy.

● PQLI: PQLI is known as physical quality of life Index whichis used to assess the level of social development. Thisindex was developed by Jim Grant. PQLI is calculated byusing indices of (1) Adult Literacy Rate (2) IMR (3) LifeExpectancy.

● Ad-Valorem Tax: Ad-valorem tax is a kind of Indirect Taxin which goods are taxed by their values. In the case of ad– valorem tax, the tax amount is calculated as the proportionof the prices of the goods. VAT is an Ad -Valorem Tax.

● Autarchy: if a country is self sufficient, it doesn’t requirethe imports for the country. Autarchy is an indicator of selfsufficiency. It means that the country itself can satisfy theneeds of its population without making Imports from othercountries.

● Marxism: is the name given to socio-economic theoriesput forward by Kar l Marx, a German born Jew and hisfriend Friedrich Engels. According to them, feudalism isdethroned by capitalism. In turn capitalism yields place tosocialism and a classless society. They held that changesin the social order are caused by technical and economicprogress, because the poor are always trying to improvetheir lot. They favored state ownership of land, industry,banking, transport and other means of production.

● May Day: the day of workers of the world celebratedthroughout the world on the 1st May every year with theslogan “Workers of the World, Unite”.

● A mid-term poll: is an election held out of schedule as aresult of the dissolution of a state legislature before it hasbeen in existence for its normal span of life.

● Mixed Economy: is that system of economic planningunder which both private as well as public sectors areafforded adequate opportunities of self-growth within theirrespective spheres.

● Monrce Doetri: A principle of American policy decliningany European in entervention in political affairs of theAmerican continent, outlined by President Monroe in 1823.

● Motel: is type of a hotel built for touring motorists. Itprovides individual al self-contained sleeping quarters withbath, toilet facilities and garage, the meals being generallyobtainable at a nearby restaurant.

● Naxalites: The term has come into use recently to describe


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

radical communists who believe in the type of revolutionpreached by Mao Tse-Tung of China.

● Need-based Wages: means wages determined so as to coverthe basic needs Need-based of wage-earners asdistinguished from wages determined having regard purelyto availability of labour productivity and profitability.

● Net Aid: The term “foreign aid” is used to describe goods,services or money made available by one country to anotheron non-commercial terms. Out of such aid the recipientcountries have to pay interest on loans obtained in thepast and other debt-servicing charges. The balance offoreign aid left in hand for actual utilization after suchcharges have been defrayed is referred to as net aid.

● NON-aggression Pact: an agreement between countriesnot to wage war with each other in case of any aggressionfrom outside

● Nuclear Umbrella:- means protection or guarantee ofprotection against nuclear attack.

● Open-door Policy: the policy according to which tradewith a country should be open on equal terms to all nations.

● Open University: differs from the regular university in thatentry into the former is open o everyone whether or not hehas had any formal education. India’s Education Ministryrecently set up a working group to consider the feasibilityof establishing an open university in this country. Such auniversity will provide opportunities for under graduateand post graduate education to all who were preventedfrom finishing their formal schooling.

● Ordinance: a measure promulgated by the head of a Statein his own authority of to meet an emergency.

● Pentagon: Government offices in Washington (thelargest in the world), housing many thousands ofmilitary and civilian workers in the War Department ofthe United States (Army, Navy and Air Force).

● Plebiscite: direct vote by all electors of a state on acontroversial question.

● Police State: when citizens of a particular state aredeprived of the basic civil liberties like freedom ofthought, expression and belief, they are said to be livingin a police state.

● Poverty line: is to be found at the level of income atwhich a person or a family can barely subsist. Anyonehaving an income below that level is said to be belowpoverty line.

● Power Politics: In the game of power politics, theplayer’s sole aim becomes acquisition of power to theexclusion of every other object e.g., the welfare of themasses, the good of the country etc. Every move oftheirs is inspired by a desire to capture power somehow.

● Preamble: Preliminary or introductory part of theConstitution of a country embodies a brief statementof the need and advisability having a particularconstitutional law passed.

● Preference share: are shares which are entitled to afixed dividend before any distribution of profits can bemade amongst the holders of ordinary shares.

● Preventive detention: an act providing measures by whichan undesirable person may be without trial.

● Price Index: A figure which discloses the relative changeif any of prices, cost or some similar phenomena betweenone period of time and some other period of time selectedas the base year is called index number. The base year orperiod is assigned the index number of 100. If a comparisonis drawn between the cost of living of-one period with thatof another, the resultant, figure will represent the cost ofliving index number. If it represents the wholesale or retailprices, the index number obtained will be so designated.

● Previlege Motion: is a motion moved by an M.L.A. or anM.P. as the case may be, if he feels that a Minister hascommitted a breach of privilege of the House bywithholding the facts of a case or by giving a distortedversion of facts etc.

● Privy Purses: These were certain privileges and annualpayments granted by the Indian Government to Rulers(hereditary monarchs or Princes) of states in India beforeindependence. These Princes had agreed to surrender theirstates to the Indian Union in return for Privy Purses. Therewere nearly 280 former princes receiving Privy Pursesranging between Rs. 5 lakhs to Rs. 26 lakhs per annum.These Privy Purses and Privileges have been abolishedvide the Constitution (26th Amendment) Act, 1971.

● Prize Court: is a court which adjudicates upon ships orgoods captured by one of the parties to a war in the courseof the fighting. The prize court can either release orcondemn the prize. In the latter case, the property isvested in the captor thereof.

● Prohibition: a measure barring the sale and consumptionof alcoholic drinks.

● Proportional Representation: in the context of electing aPresident of India is the system under which a college ofvoters represents the wider base of the electorate, eachmember of the college commanding a number of votes inproportion to the number of electors he represents.

● Protocol: the first draft of a diplomatic document usedespecially in treaties and agreements before their definitivesignature.

● Public Debt: The money which is invested with thegovernment of a country by her people in the shape ofdifferent funds, it is a government funded debt.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

● Public Sector: All undertakings financed and controlledby the Government.

● Quarantine: period of isolation imposed on travelers orships etc. which may possibly become a source ofspreading contagious or infectious disease.

● Quorum: minimum essential of members to be present inorder to constitute a house to transact proceedings.

● Red Tapes: official formality or routing delay or obstruction.● Referendum: When there is a controversial question

requiring opinion of the general messes, that question isput to vote for deciding the opinion of the people.

● Repatriation: to restore or return to the native land.(Generally used in the case of prisoners of war)

● Republic; a political community which is not governed byany king and the -supreme authority is vested m therepresentatives elected by the people.

● Secular State: state which treats alike all communitiesinhabiting its territory an in-which all citizens have equalrights without distinction of caste, creed, sex and race.

● Sine die: postponed without a day appointed orindefinitely.

● Sjt down strike: is a form of strike in which workers do notabsent themselves from work but do nothing and sit idle.It is also called “pen-down strike”.

● Socialistic Pattern of society: even distribution ofeconomic power or reduction of inequalities m income andwealth in a country. The resolution for a “Socialistic Patternof Society” was adopted at the Avadi Session of the IndianNational Congress.

● Stars and Stripes: it signifies U.S.A,’s flag showing 13stripes and stars equal to the number of states in the U.S.A.

● Time Capsule: The term has been used to describe metalliccylinders filled with memorabilia and buried deep in theearth so that after a few thousand years, if somebodydiscovers such a capsule, he should be reminded of whatlife and times were like when the “time capsule” had beeninitially buried.

● Trade Mark: a distinctive mark or sign, or, a name given toa product which is register in order to safeguard themanufacturer’s rights. Trade mark cannot be copied byanyone under the law.

● Universal Suffirage: right of vote for all withoutdistinction of caste, creed, religion, se-place of birth.

● Yeto: right of the executive head to refuse to approve any

legislation.● War Crimes: The victorious allies in the second world

war viz, the Soviet won, the S.A, Britain and France hadsigned on August 8, 1945 an agreement setting up anInternational Military Tribunal to try major war criminalsamong Axis prisoners. The charter setting out thejurisdiction and functions of the Tribunal set out offencesfor which an individual could be considered responsible.Among these offences were “murder, extermination,enslavements, deportation and other inhuman actscommitted against any civilian population before or duringthe war or persecution on a political racial or religious basis,whether or not in violation of domestic laws”. It was agreedthat the plea of having acted on orders from superiorscould only be treated as an extenuating circumstance butnot as a complete defense.

● Wealth Tax: It is a tax levied on wealth possessed by anindividual or by a Hindu Undivided Family in excess ofcertain prescribed limits. The object is to keep evendistribution of wealth in society.

● Whip: (in the legislature) an M.P. responsible to his partyfor the organization of the members to carry the, votethrough.

● White Flag: a sign of surrender in a battle by any of theopposing armies.

● Women’s Liberation Movement: or Women’s Lib is amovement which has originated in the U.S.A. as a revoltagainst what is referred to as male chauvinism or the mythof male superiority in any and every sphere of humanactivity.

● Yellow Journalism: Any newspaper giving sensationalnews or features with lavish use of pictures or pseudoscientific articles is said to be divulging in “yellowjournalism”.

● Yoga: literally means “union” (or in unison with the divinespirit) a Hindu Discipline which teaches a technique offreeing the mind from attachment to the senses, so thatonce freed the soul may become fused with universal spirit(Atman or Brahman) which is its goal.

● Young Turks: youthful dissidents and hardliners in a partyare sometimes referrers to as Young Turks.

● Zero Net Aid: means a stage where a country becomesself-reliant so that it does no need any foreign aid, orreaches a situation where the foreign aid it receives justcovers its liabilities and no part of such aid actually comesinto play in its economy.

“The memories of tomorrow depend on your attitude today” . – Dave Weinbaum


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

1. The missile defence shield developed by ___________can destroy an incoming ballistic missile with a range of2000 kms.

2. ________ is the Capital of Myanmar.

3. ___________ is celebrated as “World Press Freedom Day”.

4. A variety of ancient artifacts have been discovered recentlyin the village ________ of Tamil Nadu.

5. GSPA stands for ______________.

6. ___________ has announced its plan to setup 1000 ATMs.

7. World’s top milk producer is ____________.

8. ____________ Central Public Enterprises have been given“Maharatna Status”.

9. SIM stands for _________.

10. CRAR stands for ____________.

11. _________ is the Parliament of Maldives.

12. _________ is the most intelligent and deadliest commandoforce of U.S.A that killed Osama.

13. _________ is a Railway Magazine.

14. ___________ is the highest battle field of the world.

15. ________ is the new name of West Bengal.

16. _________ is known as “Mozart of Madras”.

17. “Grammy Awards” are given in the field of ___________.

18. _________ International Women day was celebrated on8th March 2012.

19. _________ was the Chief Guest at Republic Day.

20. Recently Railways has launched _______ to trackmovements of trains.

21. _________ is the writer of the famous short story “TobhaTek Singh”.

22. ___________ State has signed a MOU with MizuhoCorporate Bank, Japan to attack investment from JapaneseCompanies.

23. ___________ is the flagship employment generationprogramme of Government of India.

24. Govt. has decided to amend the ________ to provide forlife time royalty to song writers, artistes and performers fortheir work.

25. ________ is the currency of Myanmar.

26. ___________ is the tallest residential building of the world.

27. ____________ is the Obese capital of the world as half of

TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE – an exerciseits population is considered fat.

28. __________ addressed the first Parliament on May 13,1952.

29. China has recently allowed import of _________ from India.

30. __________ is the Head quarter of International Court ofJustice.

31. In ________ Indian banks have opened largest number ofbranches.

32. SHADE stands for ____________.

33. _________ is the organization which issues Aadhar cards.

34. Dhanbad express Train, introduced in October, 2011 isIndia’s first __________.

35. International Kite Flying Festival was recently held in____________.

36. __________ is a para-military force to guard the frontiersin peace time and assist the Govt. in the maintenance ofinternal security.

37. The branch of science that deals with tumours is known as__________.

38. ____________ is the study of Epidemic diseases.

39. The science dealing with life or possibility of life existingbeyond the earth is called__________.

40. The shape of earth is _________.

41. The first Governor General of Free India was ___________.

42. Article 370 of Indian Constitution is related to __________.

43. _____________ is the minimum age required for an Indiancitizen to become a member of Lok Sabha.

44. Indian Constitution abolishes ___________ in every from.

45. ___________ was the first and the last Indian to be theGovernor General of India.

46. ___________ was the first Indian Commander in Chief ofIndia.

47. _________ is called the father of Indian Renaissance.

48. India celebrates National Science Day on _________ tocommemorate the day on which Sir CV. Raman discoveredthe “Raman Effect” – a phenomenon is spectroscopy in1928.

49. 15th world Sanskrit Conference was held in _________ on5th January 2012.

50. ___________ is the official slogan of the London Olympics.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Current General Knowledge1. SARFESI act related with.2. SDR is a term related with.3. The Annual world economic summit on India will be

held in.4. The 11th Pravasi Bhartiya Divas will be held at.5. Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Puraskar 2012.6. Who has won the International title of Miss Asia pacific

2012.7. Highest Authority in India for Indirect Taxes.8. World blood donor day observed on.9. Moody’s is a credit Rating agency from which

country.10. Jet Airways tied up with which Bank & launched credit

cards.11. Syed Nasim Ahmed Zaidi Appointed as the new.12. Which company bagged UN award for world business

development.13. Venue of the Non Aligned Movement (NAM) Summit

2012.14. The 14th International Braille chess association chess

Olympiad 2012.15. PMEAC pegged India’s growth at what % in the year

2012-13.

16. New wise president of Rajya Sabha.17. Who in the new head of Khel Ratna awards committee.18. Parimarjan Negi in a famous player of which game.19. What in the percentage share capital of the sponsored

bank in its own gramin bank.20. Senkaku Islands became the bone of contention

between.21. Fourth International junior shotgun cup held at.22. What is Lakshya 1.23. What is the Rank of Sonia Gandhi in forbes list.24. In the context with Agriculture 2012 is being launched

as the year of.25. Who among the following has won the best actor award

in the 59th National Film Award.26. Which committee is related with Railway Modernization.27. Saina Nehwal begged the Bronze after which Chinese

opponent conceded the match due to knee injury.28. RBI has recently revamped the FAIR PRACTICES CODE

for which of the following companies.29. Who is appointed as the new chairman of CBDT.30. Which company was the sponsor of Indian contingent

in London Olympics 2012.

1. NPA’S2. IMF3. Gurgaon4. Cochin5. D. R. Metha6. Hinangini Singh7. CBEC (Central

Board of Exise &customs)

8. 14 June9. USA10. HDFC11. E l e c t i o n

Commissioner12. ITC13. Tehran (Iran)14. Chennai15. 6.7%16. PJ Kurean

Answer for Current GeneralKnowledge

17. RajyawardhanSingh Rathore

18. Chess19. 35%20. China & Japan21. Finland22. Pilotless Aircarft23. 6st

24. Horticulture25. Girish Kulkarni26. Sam Pitroda

Committee27. Xin Wang28. None Banking

F i n a n c i a lCompanies

29. Poonam KishoreSaxena

30. Samsung

1. DRDO2. Naypydaw3. 3rd May4. Kodumanal Distt.

Erode5. Gas Sale

PurchaseAgreement

6. Department ofPost

7. India8. 59. Subscriber

Identity Modules10. Capital to Risk

Weighted AssetsRatio

11. Majlis12. SEAL-Team 613. Rail Bandhu14. Saichen

ANSWER FOR TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE

15. Paschim Banga16. A R Rehman17. Music18. 100th

19. Ms YingluckShinawatera, PMof Thailand

20. Simran Project21. Sadat Hassan

Manto22. Karnatka23. MGNREGS24. Copyright Act25. Myanma Kyat26. Princess Tower,

Dubai27. Qatar28. Dr. Rajinder Prasad29. Basmati Rice30. Hague, Netherland31. U.K.

32. Shared Awarenessand Deconfliction

33. UIDAI34. Double Decker Train35. Ahmadabad, Gujarat36. Border Security

Force37. Oncology38. Epidemiology39. Exbiology40. An Oblate Spheroid41. Lord Mountbatten42. Jammu & Kashmir43. 25 Years44. Untouchability45. C. Rajgopalachari46. General Cariappa47. Raja Ram Mohan Rai48. 28th February49. New Delhi50 Inspire a Generation


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

History of India• Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyoti Rao Phule in –

1873 AD• The prominent leaders who were associated with the

formation of the swaraj party in 1923 included –Deshbandhu Chittranjan Daas and Motilal Nehru

• Which year is associated with Kheda Satyagraha ofMahatma Gandhi – Year 1918

• Gandhi ji recorded his initial thoughts in 1909 in – HindSwaraj

• The most well known and greatest of all Kushan Kingwas – Kanishk

• Ashoka the Great pronounces his policy of equal respectto all religious sects more clearly in – Rock Edict XII

• The period of early harrapan phase is – 3500-2600 BC• Defence of India regulation act was passed in – The year

1915• Who founded servants of India society in the year 1905 –

Gopal Krishna Gokhle• At independence in 1947 British India had – Seventeen

Provinces• In 1829 which important event took place - Lord William

Bentick abolished Sati Practice• The series of plans formulated between 1914 and 1917 to

initiate a pan indian rebillion against the British raj duringworld war 1 came to be known as – Hindu GermanConspiracy

Indian Polity and Constitution• In the table of the precedence , the Governor Occupies –

Forth Position• The Preamble to the constitution of India proclaims India

as – A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic• The Union Minister India are appointed by – The

President on the basis of the advice of the Prime Minister• The constituent assembly of India held its first meeting

on – December 19, 1946• Which amendment of the constitution made it mandatory

for the president to accept the advice given by council ofministers – 42nd Amendment 1976

• Which constitutional authority is responsible forconstituting the Finance Commission – President of India

• To whom should a notice is writing be given for raising ahalf an hour discussion in an house of parliament –Secretary General of the house

SSC COMPENDIUM• The constitutional article that defined the scheduled cast

and scheduled tribes – Article 341 & 342 respectively• From which the Indian constitution borrow the doctrine

of Judicial review – USA• Which amendment to the constitution deals with the

recognisation of states – 7th constitutional amendmentact 1956

• For a no confidence to be introduced in the Lok Sabha itmust have the support of at least – 50 Members

• The provision of Vote on Account has been mentioned in– Article 116

Geography• The Total forest area in India – 678333 sq.km. (20.64%)• Coal Mines in Jharkhand are located in – Jharia• Ozone Layer protects the earth’s surface from – High

Energy Radiations• Kaveri is the longest river of – Tamilnadu• Which State in India has the largest % of its geographical

area under forest cover – Mizoram• Tehri Dam is located on which River – Bhagirathi• Sea Cost of which state is the longest – Andhra Pradesh• Sardar Sarovar Dam is located on which River – Narmada• The cities situated on the banks of the Cauvery are –

Thiruchirapalli & Erode• Pochampat irrigation project lies on – The Godavari River• India ‘s First Marine National Park is located in – The Gulf

of Mannar• Singreni Coal Fields is located in – Godavari Valley

Indian Economy• The Planning Commission of India is – An advisory body

gives advice to the Government.• Central Statistical Office (CSO) New Base Rate – 1993-94• Production Function explains the relationship between –

Initial Inputs & Ultimate Outputs• An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is –

Credit Rationing• Laissez Faire is a feature of – Capitalism• The Central Nodal Agency for implementing the price

support operations for commercial crops – NAFED(National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federationof India Limited)

• The Growth Rate of Indian Economy during 2011-12 was– 6.9%


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

• Which State is the largest producer of Soya Bean in India– Madhya Pradesh

• Which are the two Nations , India’s largest trading partners, 1st & 2nd Respectively – UAE & China

• Aam Aadmi Bima Yojna (AABY) was launched in whichyear – 2007

• Maximum Share in India’s total external debt is of whichcurrency – US Dollar

• Which Service recently (2011) celebrated the GoldenJubilee – Indian Economic Service (Launched in 1961)

Science & Technology• The Value of acceleration due to gravity is - Minimum at

equator & Maximum at Poles• The ideal fluid which is hypothetical fluid should contain

– Zero viscosity & Zero Compressibility• A molecule is a smallest part of matter which possesses

all properties of all matter. A molecule is electrically –Neutral

• The Principal is used by bats – SONAR (Sound Navigation& Ranging)

• Full Form of LASER – Light Amplification by StimulatedEmission of Radiation

• The focal length of a concave lens is - Negative• Ohm is a unit of measuring – Resistance• Graphite , Carbon & Diamonds are – Allotropes• Bleaching Powder is a Compound of - Calcium• Sodium Alkyl Sulphate and Benzene Sulphate are examples

of – Synthetic Detergents• Cobalt Oxide is used to impart which color to glass – Blue• Calcium Magnesium Silicate is commonly called as –

Asbestos

Sports• International Olympics Committee Headquarters –

Lausanne (Switzerland)• Stanley Cup is associated with – Ice Hockey• Who made Fastest Hundred in 20-20 Cricket -Richard

Levi ( South Africa )• Who won French Open Men’s Single in 2012 – Rafel Nadal

( Spain )• Saara Irrani was defeated in finals by which Russian Player

in French Open 2012 – Maria Sharapova• Winter youth Olympics 2016 will be held in – Lillehammer

(Norway)• FIFA World Cup 2022 will be held in – Qatar• World athletic championship 2017 will be held in – London

• Asia cup Hockey 2013 will be held in – Malaysia• New President of ICC (International Cricket Council) –

Allan Issac (New Zealand)• Who won Chinese Grand Prix in 2012 – Nico Roseberg

(Germany)• Bula Chaudhary is related with which Sport – Swimming

Miscellaneous• It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial

quality of calcium through urine during space flight , Thisis due to – Microgravity

• If we sprinkle common salt on an earthworm , it die due to– osmotic shock

• Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyesbecause of the presence of – Sulphur in the cell

• The cat can survive fall from height much more than humanor any other animal. It is because the cat – Has elasticBones

• The Largest exporter of Rice in the world – Thailand• The distribution of fertilizers by aircraft is widely practiced

in – New Zealand• The material used for electrical fuse is an alloy of tin and

lead. This alloy should have – High specific resistanceand low melting point

• The idea of establishing Insurance Regulation Authoritywas suggested by – Malhotra Committee

• National Institute of Ocean Technology – Chennai• The oil and natural gas commission of India was set up in

– 1956• The first Indian women to reach south pole – Reena

Kaushal• SIMBEX is the Naval Exercise between – India &

Singapore• The human organs which is responsible for detoxication

of alcohol is – Liver• Angstorm is the unit for measuring the wavelength of –

Light• Renewable energy can be obtained from – Biomass• Largest flower in the world – Rafflesia• The opening up of direct communication between the two

countries is called – Hot Line• International Merlin Awards related with – Music• Heavy Water is used in – Nuclear Power• The original name of Mahabharatha – Jai Samitha


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Current Banking Awareness1. Which Bank of India has recently announced formation

of an Indias Mortgage Guarantee Company, India’s firstMortgage Gurantee Entity – National Housing Bank

2. Which banking giant of England was recently making newsin context with the LIBOR interest rate scandal – Barclays

3. Interest payble on saving bank accounts in India – NotRegulated

4. Locker Plaza Scheme is related with which bank – CanaraBank

5. Maximum FDI in private banks in India is allowed uptothe limit of – 74%

6. Which account requires either nil minimum balance or verylow mimimum balance – No Frills Account

7. The First Indian Bank to open a branch in Saudi Arabia –State Bnak of India

8. Full Form of WLA – White Label Automated TellerMachines

9. Central Bank of India launched a special scheme CENTVAYUSHAKTI for promoting – Defence Salary Package

10. Outsourced ATM services by banks in which the ATMname under a brand sponsored bank but ATM machinenot owned by the bank – Brown ATMs

11. A Service in which ATM not owned by the banks but byprivate ATM service providers – White ATMs.

12. A bank offers a low introductry rate in the beginning on ahome loan which increases after a certain period and higherthan the normal rate – Teasers Rate

13. The banking company has restrictions to sanction a loanto – Director of the Bank

14. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the Businessof – All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs.

15. What is the full form of DICGC – Deposit Insurance &Credit Gurantee Corporation

16. What is the full form of SWIFT – Society for worldwideinterbank financial telecommunication

17. A person had filled a complaint with Banking Ombudsmanbut is not satisfied with the decision . What is the nextoption before him for getting his matter resolved – File anappeal before the Banking Ombudsman again

18. In which circumstance Dear Money policy will be adoptedby RBI – Inflation.

19. The opportunity to buy an asset at a low price thenimmediately selling it on a different market for a higherprice – Arbitrage.

20. A scheme enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum

to bank customers to resolution of complaints relating tocertain services rendered by banks – Banking OmbudsmanScheme

21. Name of the capital in which the money is provided by anoutside investor to finance a new , growing or troubledBusiness – Venture Capital

22. Who decides the quantity of coins to be minted – TheGOI on the basis of indents received from the RBI .

23. Availability of cheap credits through appropriatelydesigned loans for poor and low income households andsmall enterpreneurs – Financial Inclusion

24. RBIs Long Term outlook on Interest Rate – Bank Rate25. In Banking Terminology what does write off means – Bad

and Uncollectable Loans26. A Bank normally does’t have to deal with an issue related

to – Intellectual Property Rights27. YH Malegam committee related to – Micro Finance

Institution28. Who is the head of the committee related with Customer

Services in Banks – M Damodaran29. How much percentage of new banks should be there in

unbanked rural areas with population not more than 9999as per RBI – 25%

30. Name the Banking System where no interest is being takenor given – Islamic Banking


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

FCI SPECIALAPPOINTMENTS

India’s Governor on the board of Governors of the African development bank P.ChidambaramAttorney General of India Goolam e vahanvatiMinister of Science and Technology (India) Vayalar raviChief Economist and senior vice President of World Bank Kaushik basuDirector General of Assam rifles Ranbir singhUN Deputy Secretary General Jan EliassonPresident of international cricket council Alan isaacChairman of SAIL C.S. vermaRevenue Secretary of Central Govt. Sumit boseUnion commerce secretary S R RraoChief justice of India Altamas kabirChief selector in the national selection committee of the BCCI Roger binnyChief of BCCI Senior Selection Committee Sandeep patilIndian Envoy to Canada Nirmal verma (former navy chief)Defence Minister of China General liang GuanglieNorway Cultural Minister Hadia TajikPresident of India Pranab mukherjeePresident of Mexico Enrique pena nie nietoPresident of Yemen Abd-rabbuh mansour hadePrime Minister of Yemen Mohammed basindwaSupreme leader of North Korea Kim jong unPresident of Germany Joachim gauckPresident of Galawi Joyce bandaPrime Minister of greece Antonis samarasFinance Minister of Greece Yannis stournarasPresident of Guyana Donald ramotarPresident of Nigeria Goodluck jonathanPresident of Russia Vladimir putinPrime minister of Russia Dmitry medvedevPresident of Albania Bujar nishaniPresident of Saiwan Ma ying jeouPresident of Syria Bashar al assadPresident of France Francois hollandePrime minister of France Jean maec ayraultPresident of Serbia Tomislav nikolicPresident of Egypt Mohammed mursiPrime minister of Egypt Hesham qandilPresident of Maldives Waheed hassanPresident of Iraq Jalal talabaniPrime minister of Iraq Nouri al-malikiPrime minister of Greece Antonis samaras


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

President, democratic republic of Congo Joseph kabilaPrime minister of Pakistan Raja parvez ashrafCM of Karnataka Jagadish shettarCM of Uttar-pradesh Akhilesh yadavCM of Uttrakhand Vijay bahugunaCM of Manipur Okram ibobi singhCM of Goa Manohar parikarCM of Punjab Parkash singh badalController General of Accounts (CGA) Jawahar thakurChairman of Indian bank’s Association Alok MisraChief election commissioner of India V.S. SampathHome Minister of India Sushil Kumar ShindeSecretary of President of India Omita paulGovernor of Goa B V VanchooGovernor of Andhra Pradesh Esl NarasimhanGovernor of Maharashtra K SankaranarayanGovernor of Rajasthan Margaret AlvaElection Commissioner of India Syed Nasim Ahmed ZaidiDeputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha P.J. KurienNew Chief Economic Advisory in Finance Ministry Raghuram rajanChief of Indian Navy Wef Sept-1 D.K. JoshiChief of Indian Army Gen. Bikram SinghHead of African union commission Nkosazana Damini-ZumalIndian bank’s Association-Chairman M.d. mallyaSEBI Chairman U.k. sinhaPresident of Asian development bank (ADB) Haruhiko KurodaAsean –Secretary-General Surin pitsuwanOpec Secretary General Abdalla salem el-badriChief prosecutor of internatonal criminal court Fatou bensoudaAttorney General of India Goolam e. vahanvatiCEO of international cricket council David richardsonChairman of cbdt Poonam kishore saxenaDirector of bhabha atomic research centre Shekhar basuJudge of Supreme Court Justice madan bhimarao lokurChairman of TRAI Rahul khullarBrand Ambassador of national sanitation compaign Vidya ballanJudge of international court of justice Justice dalveer bhandariCommunication Advisor in the Pmo Pankaj pachouriPresident of world Bank Jim yong kimUS ambassador to India Nancy j powellIndian ambassador to USA Nirupama raoPresident of Assocham Rajkumar dhoot


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Vijaya Bank BangaloreUnited bank of India KolkattaUCO bank kolkattaPNB New delhiPunjab and Sind bank New delhiCorporation bank MangaloreOBC bank New delhiCanara bank BangaloreIndian bank ChennaiIndian overseas bank PhennaiBank of maharastra Pune

Bank of baroda VadodaraAndhra bank HyderabadAllahabad bank KolkattaSyndicate bank ManipalUnion bank of india MumbaiSIDBI (est. in 1990) LucknowNabard (est. in 1982) MumbaiEXIM (est. in 1982) MumbaiIDBI (est. in 1964) MumbaiNHB(est. in 1988) New-delhiWHO Newyork

Summit of Non-aligned movement Tehran (Iran)World Hindi Conference JohannesburgG-20 summit Los Cabos (Mexico) St. Petersburg (Russia)G-8 summit Camp David, Maryland (United States) United KingdomAsean summit Phnom Penh (Combodia)Brics summit New -Delhi South AfricaSAARCH summit Male (Maldives) NepalOPEC summit LibyaRio+20 summit Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)RIC Wuhan city of ChinaEcowas summit YamoussoukroCommonwealth summit Perth (Australia)-2011 Hambantota (Sri-lanka)

(it held after every two years)Asia-Europe (Asem) summit Brussels (Belgium)-2010 (this organisation

have no specific time for summit)World future Energy summit UAE7th Asia gas partnership summit New Delhi

UNESCO ParisICC (International Criminal Court) Hague

(Netherland)United Nations NewyorkICC (Cricket) DubaiIMF WashingtonWorld bank WashingtonCERN GenevaILO (International Labour Organization) GenevaWTO (World Trade Organization) Geneva

ORGANISATON HEAD QUARTER



NAME MEETING VENUE 2012 NEXT MEETING VENUE

Senior Vice President and Chief Economist of World Bank Kaushik Basu39th Chief Justice of India Altamas KabirChief Justice of Panjab and Haryana High Court A.K. SikriChief Justice of Madhya Pradesh Sharad Arvind BobdeNew Chief Sec. of West Bengal Sanjay MitraChair man of ICC Cricket Committee Anil KumblePresident of Venezuala Hugo ChavezPresident of International Cricket council Alan IssacUN Deputy Secretary General Jan EliassonUnion Minister of Science and Technology Vayalar RaviChief Selector in National Selection Committee of the BCCI Roger BinnyChairman of National Selection Committee of Cricket Sandeep PatilAttorney General of India Goolam E. JahanvatiPresident of Somalia Hassan Sheikh Mohammed


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

NAME MEETING VENUE 2012 NEXT MEETING VENUEShanghai cooperation organisation summit BeijingMini Pravasi Bhartiya Divas-2012 DubaiInternational Conference on Afghanistan TokyaInternational’s Donors Conferenece TokyoIndia –Celac foreign Ministers Meeting New DelhiWorld Economic summit Gurgaon (Haryana)World Eonomic forum Davos, SwitzerlandArab League summit BaghdadBoard of Governer of Asian Development bank IndiaOlympics London (2012) Rio di Janeiro (2016)Cricket World Cup (ODI) India (2011) Australia (2015)Cricket World Cup T-20 Srilanka Bangladesh (2014)Commonwealth Games New Delhi 2010 (India) Glasgow 2014 (Scotland)Football World Cup South Africa (2010) Brazil (2014)Russia (2018)Qatar (2022)Euro Cup-2012 Poland and UkraineU-19 Cricket World Cup AustraliaSultan Azlan Shah Cup MalaysiaNAM SUMMIT Tehtran(Iran)FICCI MumbaiIMFF World Bank Tokyo (Japan)T20-Men’s World Cup SrilankaT20-Female’s World Cup SrilankaG-20 Summit 2015 Turkey

Lakshmi Sehgal Freedom fighter,an officer in the indian national army and a close associate of subhashchandra bose

Neil Armstrong American astonaut- first man to set foot upon the moon.Rajesh Khanna Famous fiilm star , first superstar of the bollywood.Dara Singh Wrestler turned actor. also known as Rustam-e-hind, Rustam-e-punjab, Ironman of indian

cinemaStephen R. Covey Famous writer. author of motivational books like the 7 habbits of highly Effective people,

First things first,the 8th habbit:from effectiveness to greatness,The speed of trust,the leaderin me.

Kartar Singh Duggal Famous punjabi writerWhitney houstan Singer actressA K Damadaran A noted scholar of foreign policy, writer and diplomatAkhlaq Mohd Khan ‘Shaharyar’ Noted urdu poetO.P. Dutta Bollywood filmmakerBhupen hazarika Indian lyricist,poet,musician and film makerMehdi Hasan Pakistani ghazal singer. also known as “kings of ghazals”.

ORBITUARY


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

AWARDSDadasaheb Phalke Award-2011 (highest award in Indian cinema) Mr. Soumitra ChattrejeeSaraswati samman-2011 A.A. Manavalan (Irama Kathaiyun Iramayakulum)Saraswati samman-2010 S.L. Bhyrappa (Mundra)Jnanpith Awards winner-2010 Chandrashekhara Kambara (Kannada)Banker of the year-2011 M.D. MallyaBanker of the year-2010 Vikram panditSydney peace prize Julian AssangeMan booker prize-2011 Julian BarnesMan booker international prize-2011 Philip RothWorld food prize Daniel HillelTempleton prize-2012 Dalai LamaNational medal of arts and humanities award (USA) Amartya Sen21 Vyas samman Kalidas Samman Prof. Ramdarash Mishra CV ChandrashekherOscar Awards

Best Picture- The artistBest Actor- Jean dujardinBest Actress- Meryl StreepBest Director- Michel hazanavicius

59th National film awardsBest Film Deool (Marathi) & Byari (Byari)Best Actor Girish KulkarniBest Actress Vidya BalanBest Director Gurvinder Singh54th Grammy awardsRecord of the year Rolling in the deepSong of the year Rolling in the deepGrammy award Steve Jobs (posth)65th Bafta awardsBest film The artistBest actor Jean DujardinBest actress Meryl StreepBest director Michel HazanaviciusDSC prize for South Asia literature-2012 Sheham karunatilakaPulitzer prize- 2012 Philadelphia inquirer

Jagjit Singh Indian ghazal singer. also known as ghazal kingProf P N Dhar An eminent economistHiren bhattacharya Assamese poetVshok Mehta CinematographerJoy Mukherjee Hindi film actorVilasrao Deshmukh Union minister for science and TechnologyA.K. Hangal Hindi film actorNikhat Kazmi Film critic


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

AWARDSGermany’s Order of Merit Sudhir kakkarRajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award-2012 Vijay kumar and Yogehswar duttRajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award-2011 Gagan narangWisden India Outstanding Achievement Award Sachin TendulkarSeoul Peace Prize-2012 Ban ki moonGandhi Peace Award -2011 Dr. Binayak and Balu imamNobel Prize in Physics 2012 Serge Haroche and David WinelandNobel Prize in Chemistry 2012 Robert Lefkowitz and Brian KolbikaNobel Prize in Medicine 2012 John Gurdan and Shinga YamanakaNobel Prize for Peace 2012 European UnionNobel Prize in Literature Mo Yon

Important History1. The Father of Ancient History is Herodotus2. Indus Valley Civilization is also known as Saraswati-

Sindhu Civilization and Harappan Civilization3. Atharva Veda deals with Music4. In Indus Valley Civilization, the script is Pictographic5. The ‘Great Batti’ was found at MohenJo-daro6. Channu-daro was the only city of Indus Valley Civilization

without Citadel7. The Rigvedic Name of River Ravi is Purushni8. Gayatri Mantra is contained in the third Mandala9. Fourth Buddhist council was held at Kashmir10. The first discipline of Vardhman mahavira was Jamali11. Tripitakas are sacred books of Buddhists12. The Pioneer of higher Education for Muslims in India was

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan13. First Council of Jainism was held at Pataliputra14. Nalanda University was founded by Kumaro Gupta-I15. First Instance of Sati Took place at Eran (MP)16. Doctrine of Laps was introduced by Lord Dal Housie17. First Round table conference was held in Nov 12, 193018. Who Laid the foundation of Qulab Minar- Qutab-ud-din-

aibak19. The English East India Company was formed in 159920. Jinnah Celebrated Pakistan day on March 27, 194721. Defence of India Regulations Act was Passed in 191522. The Madras Presidency was officially known as

Presidency of Fort .St.George23. The Harappan Culture belongs to Bronze Age24. Sindhu was the Rigvedic name of Indus River

25. The Emblem of Vardhman Mahovira is Lion26. Samudragupta was also called the Napolean of India27. Sun temple at Konark constructed by King Narsimhadeva28. The Old name of Myanmar was Suvarnabhumi29. Akbar was born at Amarkot in 154230. The first Viceroy of india was Lord Canning31. The Territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to

Alexander was Situated between the rivers of Jhelum andChenab

32. Under Akbar, the Miv Baksh was required look after –Military Affairs

33. Tribitakas are sacred books of Buddhists34. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after-

Non Cooperation Movement35. What is name of Fort Built by English Rulers in Kolkatta?-

Fort William36. ChandraGupta-II also known as – Vikramaditya37. First General Election held in India in 195238. Treaty of Amritsar was held in 1809 between Maharaja

Ranjit singh and Lord Minto39. Arya Samaj was found by –Swami Dayanand40. Which Governor General of India made English the medium

of higher Education in India – Lord William Bentick41. The old name of Combodia was – Kamboja42. Rigveda contains how many hymns – 1028 hymns43. The Somnath Temple located in the Kathiarwar region of

– Gujarat44. First Battle of Panipat was held in – 152645. A Ploughed field was found in which city of Indus valley

Kalibangan46. Which valley created the Indian Forest Department- Lord


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Lawrence47. Aligarh Movement was started by the – sir Syyed Ahmed

Khan48. Who was the first and the last Muslim woman ruler in

Medeival India – Raziya sulatan49. Battle of Hydaspas fought on the banks of Jhelum50. Jain Literature is in which language- Avdh Magadhi and

Prakrit dialects.

Important Geography1. The Shape of Milky ways galaxy is – Spiral2. If a stars is of sun size it becomes a – white Dwarf3. Venus is also known as – Earth’s Twin4. Mars is also known as – Red Planet5. Jupiter is also known as – Lord of the Heavens6. Earth is known as – Blue Planet7. Nearest position of earth to sun – Perihelion8. Furthest position of earth from sun – Aphelion9. India is located in – North Hemisphere10. Largest day on North Hemisphere – June 2111. Shortest day on North Hemisphere – 22 Dec12. The Dates when days and Nights are equal – Equinoxes13. The dates when difference between the length of days

and length of nights is largest - solstice14. The Earth Rotates from- West to East15. Outermost Layer of Earth is – Crust16. Sky Layer nearest to Earth’s surface- Troposphere17. Changing the Vapors to Liquid State is – condensation18. Smog is the combination of Smoke + fog19. Largest river of World is – Amazon20. Longest River of World is – Nile21. Largest lake of World is – Caspian Sea22. India’s Largest Lake – Chilka Lake23. Finland is also known as – ‘The Lord of Thousand Lakes’24. The US States of Minnesota is known as – “The Land of

Ten thousand Lakes”25. Area wise Biggest Country of World – Russia26. Areawise smallest country of World – Vatican City27. New York is situated on which river – Hudson28. Largest Island of India is - Middle Andaman29. The sorrow of Bengal is – Damodar River30. The Sorrow of Bihar is – Kosi31. City of Seven Hills- Rome32. Hwang Ho is known as China’s Sorrow

33. Eiffel tower is situated at – Paris34. Downing street is situated at – London35. The Largest sea of world is – Mediterranean36. The Largest Ocean of World of – Pacific Ocean37. The Rainiest Place of World is – Mausinram (Meghalaya)38. The Hottest Place of world is – Azizia(Libya)39. Maginot Line boundary is in between – France and

Germany40. 49th Parallel boundary is in between – USA and Canada41. The Biggest country of North America is – Canada42. Automobile Capital of the World is – Detroit (USA)43. The Largest (Areawise) State of USA is – Alaska44. Coffee Pot of the World is – Brazil45. The Country where Highest Death Rate and Minimum

Life Chances – Sierra Leone (Africa)46. Captain James Cook discovered the which country –

Australia47. The Largest Man-made Lake in India is – Indira Sagar

Lake48. Black Soil is also Known as – Regur49. The Largest National Highway of India – NH-750. Kaziranga Sanctuary is located at – Assam

Important Indian Polity1. Constituent Assembly of India was setup under which

Mission – Cabinet Mission Plan2. Chairman of Drafting committee- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar3. Total Number of Committees for Framing the constitution

– 134. The Supreme court of India is Established in – 17745. The Supreme court of India is Established at – Calcutta6. Indian Council Act 1909 is also known as – Morley Minto

Reforms7. Govt. of India Act, 1914 is also known as – Montaque –

Chamesford Reforms8. In which Amendment the words ‘Socialist, Secular and

integrity were added – 42nd Amendment9. India Borrowed the feature of Fundamental rights from

which Country – USA10. How many Schedules in constitution – 1211. Andhra Pradesh is formed in the year of – 195312. Goa was separated from the UT of Goa, Daman and Diu in

– 198713. The First Citizen of India is – President14. Only President who won the Election as an Independent

Candidate – V.V.Giri


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

15. The President who elected Unopposed – Neelam SanjeevaReddy

16. Financial Emergency is under which Article – Article 36017. Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha- Vice President of India18. Ex-officio Chairman of National Integration Council – PM

of India19. Maximum Strength of Lok Sabha – 55220. Maximum Numbers of seats of Lok Sabha is in which state

– UP (80)21. The Ist hour of every sitting in both houses is – Question

hour22. How many states of India have Bi-Camera States – Six23. Which State have the maximum Number of seats of

Legislature Assembly – UP(403 Seats)24. How many Seats of High Courts situated in India – 2125. The Judge who decide Civil Cases Known as – District

Judge26. The Retirement Age of CAG of India – 65 Years27. Highest Legal Officer of Union Govt –Attorney – General28. The chief Election commissioner is appointed by –

President of India29. National Song of India is – Vande Mataram30. Ratio of Width of Flag to its length – 2:331. The Idea of Lokpal is taken from –Scandinavian Countries32. Satyameva Jayata engraved on the Indian Emblem is taken

from –Mundakopanished33. The Name of the Lavvadive Minicoy and Admindivi island

was changed to Lakshadweep by an act of Parliament in1973

34. The member of the Rajya Sabha are elected by – Electedmembers of Legislative assembly

35. The members of Panchayats are – The electorates of the

respective territorial constituencies36. The present Lok Sabha is – 15th Lok Sabha37. The minimum age to qualify for election to the Lok- Sabha

is – 25years38. The Pension of High court Judge. Judge is charged to the

– Consolidated Fund of India39. The President addresses both the Houses of Parliament

assembled together – first session after each generalelection and the first session of each year.

40. The President can dissolve the Lok sabha on the adviceof – Prime Minister

41. The President can expend out of the contingency Fund ofIndia – without the approval of India

42. The member of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of – Sixyears

43. The office of President Vacant due to – Registration, Deathand Removal

44. The President can dismiss a member of the council ofminister on the recommendation of – Prime minister

45. The office of Prime Minister of India – has a constitutionalBasis

46. Preamble enshrines the ideas of Liberty, Equality, andFraternity- ideals inspired by the – French Revolution

47. The minimum no of members that must be present to holdthe meeting of the Lok Sabha is – One tenth of totalmembership of Houses

48. The Phrase ‘ Bicameral Legislature’ means- a legislatureconsisting of a lower and an upper chamber

49. The member of the UPSC are appointed for a term of – 6years or they attain 56 years of age

50. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is appointed bythe President

1. One who is out to subvert a government Anarchist2. Ore who is recovering from illness Convalescent3. One who is all powerful Omnipotent4. One who is present everywhere Omnipresent5. One who knows everything Omniscient6. One who is easily deceived Gullible7. One who does not make mistakes Infallible8. One who can do anything for money Mercenary9. One who has no money Pauper10. One who changes sides Turncoat11. One who works for free Volunteer

One Word Substitution

12. One who loves books Bibliophile13. One who can speak two languages Bilingual14. One who loves mankind Philanthropist15. One who hates mankind Misanthrope16. One who looks on the bright side of thingsOptimist17. One who looks on the dark side of things Pessimist18. One who doubts the existence of god Agnostic19. One who pretends to be what he is not Hypocrite20. One incapable of being tired Indefatigable21. One who helps others Good Samaritan22. One who copies from other writers Plagiarist


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

23. One who hates women Misogynist24. One who knows many languages Polyglot25. One who is fond of sensuous pleasures Epicure26. One who thinks only of himself Egoist27. One who thinks only of welfare of women Feminist28. One who is indifferent to pleasure or pain Stoic29. One who is quite like a woman Effeminate30. One who has strange habits Eccentric31. One who speaks less Reticent32. One who goes on foot Pedestrian33. One who believes in fate Fatalist34. One who dies without a Will Intestate35. One who always thinks himself to be ill Valetudinarian36. A Government by the people Democracy37. A Government by a king or queen Monarchy38. A Government by the officials Bureaucracy39. A Government by the rich Plutocracy40. A Government by the few Oligarchy41. A Government by the Nobles Aristocracy42. A Government by one Autocracy43. Rule by the mob Mobocracy44. That through which light can pass Transparent45. That through which light cannot pass Opaque46. That though which light can partly pass Translucent47. A sentence whose meaning is unclear Ambiguous48. A place where orphans live Orphanage49. That which cannot be described Indescribable50. That which cannot be imitated Inimitable51. That which cannot be avoided Inevitable52. A position for which no salary Is paid Honorary53. That which cannot be defended Indefensible54. Practice of having several wives Polygamy55. Practice of having several husbands Polyandry56. Practice of having one wife or husband Monogamy57. Practice of having two wives or husbands Bigamy58. That which is not likely to happen Improbable59. People living at the same time Contemporaries60. A book published after the death of its author

Posthumas61. A book written by an unknown author Anonymous62. A life history written by oneself Autobiography

63. A life history written by somebody else Biography64. People who work together Colleagues65. One who eats too much Glutton66. That which cannot be satisfied Insatiable67. One who questions everything Cynic68. A flesh eating animal Carnivorous69. A grass eating animal Herbivorous70. One who lives in a foreign country Immigrant71. To transfer one’s authority to another Delegate72. One who, is a newcomer Neophyte73. That which a lawful Legal74. That which is against law Illegal75. One who is unmarred Celibate78. A game in which no one wins Draw77. A study of man Anthropology78. A study of races Ethnology79. A study of the body Physiology80. A study of annuals Zoology81. A study of birds Ornithology82. A study of ancient things Archaeology83. A study of derivation of words Etymology84. Murder of a human being Homicide85. Murder of a father Patricide86. Murder of a mother Matricide87. Murder of an brother Fratricide88. Murder of an infant Infanticide89. Murder of self Suicide90. Murder of the king Regicide91. To free somebody from al blame Exonerate92. To write under a different name Pseudonym93. A thing no longer n use Obsolete94. A handwriting that cannot be read Illegible95. Words written on the tomb of a person Epitaph96. One who is greedy for money Avaricious97. One who doesn’t know how to read and write

Illiterate98. A person’s peculiar habit Idiosyncrasy99. An animal who preys on other animals Predator100.Violating the sanctity of a church Sacrilege101.One who can throw his voice Ventriloquist


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Direction for (1- 4): The HR department of a company has toselect two teams of its staff for the training for a month, oneteam will go to France in January and other to Germany in March.Teams must be selected from the only six qualified persons : A,B, C, D, E, and F. Each team must have exactly three members.● If E is selected for a team, F must also be selected for that

team.● For purposes of communication, the two teams must have

at least one member in common E and A refuse to go in thesame team.

1. Which of the following could be the members of the teams?Team 1 Team 2

(a) A, D, and E C, A, and B(b) F, A, and D B, C, and E(c) A, F, and E D, C, and F(d) C, E, and F F, A, and D

2. If A, B, and C make up one of the teams, and D, F and Bmake up the other, which member of either team couldgive up his position to E without violating any of therules?(a) D (b) F (c) B (d) C

3. If E and C are two members of one team, and if B is onemember of the other team, which of the following could bethe other two members of B’s team?(a) A and D (b) E and C (c) E and A (d) F and A

4. If D is the only person selected for both teams, and if bothE and A are selected as team members, all of the followingcould be true EXCEPT:(a) F and A serve on different teams.(b) C and E serve on different teams.(c) F is selected for the same team as A.(d) C is selected for the same team as A.

Direction for (5-10): A certain group of eight people is made oftwo women – S and T; Three Men – U, V and W; and threechildren – X, Y and Z. Each of the eight must be on one, andonly one, of the three teams being formed according to thefollowing conditions.(i) Each team must have either two or three members.(ii) Each team must have at last one child.(iii) “S” and “X” cannot be on the same team.(iv) V and W cannot be on the same team.(v) U and Y must be on the same team.

5. If one man is on each team, any of the following pairscould be together on a team except(a) S and T (b) S and W (c) T and U (d) T and W

6. If the two women are on a team together, which of the

Reasoning Kapsule - 2following must be on a team with only one other member?(a) U (b) V (c) W (d) X

7. If U is on the same team as V, which of the following pairsmust be on a team together?(a) S and Y (b) S and Z (c) T and W (d) T and Y

8. If S is on the same team as U, which of the following couldbe true ?(a) The two women are on a team together(b) Two of the men are on a team together(c) S is on a team with V(d) T is on a team with Z

9. If ‘S’ is on the same team as Y, which of the followingcould be true?(a) U is on a team with only one other member(b) T is on a team with only one other member(c) T is on the same team as V(d) Z is on the same team as U

10. If two of the men are on a team together, which of thefollowing must be on a team that has 3 members?(a) S (b) T (c) V (d) Y

Direction (11-15): A shopkeeper is preparing gift boxes ofcandy, Each box will contain exactly two kinds of hard candy tobe selected from F, G and H and exactly three kinds of softcandy to be selected from P, Q, R, S and T, with the followingrestrictions.(i) G cannot be in the same gift box as T,(ii) P cannot be in the same gift box as S.(iii) Q cannot be in the same gift box as T.

11. If G is included in a gift box, which of the following is akind of candy that must also be included?(a) F (b) H (c) P (d) Q

12. If H is not included in a particular gift box, any of thefollowing kinds of candies can be included except(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) T

13. Which of the following kinds of candies be included ineach of the gift boxes?(a) F (b) G (c) H (d) R

14. If T is included in a gift box, the box must also includewhich of the following kinds of candy?(a) F and G (b) F and H (c) G and H (d) P and R

15. In a gift box that contains an acceptable assortment ofcandies, which of the following substitutions will alwaysresult in another acceptable assortment?(a) P for S (b) Q for R (c) S for R (d) T for P


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Direction for (16-18): Ankur is both taller and older next toBalwinder. Chand is not as tall as Balwinder but he is taller thanDilip. The oldest child amongst them is the one who is theshortest. Dilip is taller than both Elisha and Fatima. Chand is onthird position if the students are standing either agewisee orheightwise in descending order. Elisha is older next to Ankurbut he is quite younger Fatima. The youngest child is on secondposition heeightwise, starting from the tallest16. Who is the tallest amongst all ?

(a) Balwinder (b) Elisha (c) Dilip (d) Ankur17. Who is the youngest amongst all ?

(a) Balwinder (b) Elisha (c) Dilip (d) Ankur18. Who among the following is at the third position if the

students are arranged in the ascending order of theirheights(a) Balwinder (b) Chand(c) Elisha (d) None of these

Direction for (19-22):● Pradeep, Rohit, Sahil, Tanvi, Uma, Varun, and Zenith are

all born on the same date in six consecutive years andrange in age from five years to ten years.

● Exactly one child is both a year older than Varun and ayear younger than Uma.

● Rohit is younger than Uma.● Exactly one child is both a year older than Uma and a year

younger than Pradeep.● Zenith is the twin of one of the other children, both on the

exact same day as that child.19. If Pradeep is ten years old, all of the following could be

true EXCEPT:(a) Rohit is five years old(b) Rohit is eight years old.(c) Sandeepis five years old(d) Sandeepis seven years old.

20. If Tanvi is both older than Varun, and younger than Uma,then Rohit could be how old ?(a) Only five years old (b) Only six years old(c) Only seven years old (d) Either five or six years old

21. Which of the following CANNOT be Sahil’s age ?(a) Five years old (b) Six years old(c) Seven years old (d) Eight years old

22. If Varun is Six years old, then all of the following could beZenith’s age EXCEPT(a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Eight

Direction for (23-25): All north-south streets are numberedconsecutively, starting at the westernmost streets as First Street.● All even-numbered streets are one-way going north.● All odd-numbered streets are one-way going south.● All east-west streets are named by consecutive letters of

the alphabet, starting at the northernmost streets as AStreet.

● M Street is one-way going east.● N street is a two-way street.● O street is one-way going west.● There are traffic signals at the intersections of Tenth and

O, Eleventh and O, and twelfth and N.● Drivers always obey the traffic laws.

23. A driver who is travelling west on an east-west streetcould not be at the intersection of(a) Tenth and O (b) Eleventh and M(c) Eleventh and N (d) Eleventh and O

24. A driver travelling west on an east-west street may makea right turn at any of the following intersections EXCEPT(a) Tenth and N (b) Tenth and O(c) Eleventh and O (d) Twelfth and N

25. A driver at the corner of twelfth and O could go to Tenthand M and pass through only one intersection with atraffic signal if she took which of the following routes ?(a) North on Twelfth and west on M(b) North on Twelfth and west on N, and north on Tenth(c) North on Twelfth, west on N, north on Eleventh, and

west on M(d) West on O, and north on Tenth

Reasoning Kapsule -2 SolutionANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10d a d c a d b d d d

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20d d d b a d a d b a

21 22 23 24 25b c b c c

Answer (1-4):Problem can be visualized with following diagram:-

Other restrictions are:- Rule I → EF ( in same team ofF only) andRule II → EA (not in same team)

Team 1 (T1) (France)

Six Persons (A,B,C,D,E,F)

Team 1 (T2) (Germany)

Common Member


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

1. (d) Option (a) & (c) is not possible because E and A can’tbe in same team. Option (b) does not have E and Ftogether. Only option left is (d) which could bepossible.

Team 1 Team 2A B C D F B

2. (a) As E and A are to in a same team so B and C couldnot be person who give up his position to E. Also A orF can’t given his position because if A or F give hisposition to E then E will be separated from F, henceviolating the rule (I). So could not be person who giveup his position to E.If E and C are two members of team 1. Third personof team 1 must be F.

Team 1 Team 2

E C F B

3. (d) E could not be the member of B’s team, because If Ethen F must be in that team.Option (a) is not possible, because both team shouldhave a common member. So F and A could be theother two members of B’s team

4. (c) Possible teams can be:-

Team 1 Team 2E F D D A –

Third person in team 2 can either be B or C. All theoption except (c) could be true.

Answer (5-10): Entities are:-(a) 2 women → S, T.(b) 3 men → U, V, W(c) 3 Children → X, Y, Z.Rules:(I) Team = 2 or 3 members.(II) Each team → at last one child(III) SX(IV) VW(V) UY

5. (a) M W CM W C

M - C

→ The two women must be on different teams. Option(a) is false because S and T must be on differentteams (from above table)

6. (d) M W C S T Z

M W C ⇒ V or W U Y

M - C W or V - X

∴ X is in team with one other member (V or W can betrue but not must be true)

7. (b) U, V, Y → one team

U V Y

X

S Z

As S is not with X; therefore S must be with Z.

8. (d) S, U, Y → one team

S U Y

V or W T X or Z

W or V - Z or X

∴ T is on a team with “Z” could be true.

9. (d) S, U, Y → One teamFrom the above figure, T is in the same team with ‘V’could be true.

10. (d) Two men on same team

U V or W Y

∴ Y must be on team with 3 members.Answer (11-15):

Entities : (a) 2 kinds – from hard candy – F, G, H (b) 3 kinds – from soft candy – P, Q, R, S, TRules: (i) GT (ii) PS (iii) OTAnalysis : Number of possibilities :

(a) Hard Candy : FG, FH, GH(b) Soft Candy : PQR, PQS, PQT, PRS, PRT, PST, QRS, QRT, QST RST

Total possibilies = ⎟⎠⎞⎜

⎝⎛ == 101x2x3

3x4x55C3

Applying conditions (ii) and (iii) the possibilities leftare PQR, PRT, QRS, RST.Combining two :

Applying condition (i), the possibilities left are∴ The possibilities are

⎪⎪⎪⎪⎪

⎭

⎪⎪⎪⎪⎪

⎬

⎫

SRQHG

RQPHG

TSRHF

SRQHF

TRPHF

RQPHF

SRQGF

RQPGF

PQRPRTQRSRST

FG

PQRPRTQRSRST

FH

PQRPRTQRSRST

GH


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

11. (d) if G is included, then

⎪⎪⎪

⎭

⎪⎪⎪

⎬

⎫

SRQH

RQPH

RQPF

SRQF

RQPF

are other’s.

∴Q and R must be included.

12. (d) if H is not included, then

⎪⎭

⎪⎬

⎫

SRQGF

RQPGF

are possibilities.

∴ Except “T” others can be included.

13. (d) R must be included in all.

14. (b) If T is included, then

⎪⎭

⎪⎬

⎫

RPHF

SRHF

must be included.

∴ F and H must be included.

15. (a) If P and S interchanged in the above possibilities,then we get possible assortments only.

Answer (16-18):Sr. Name Rank Rank NoteNo. (Agewise) (Heightwise)1. Ankur 2 6 (1) Agewise Rank2. Balwinder 1 5 1 → Youngest3. Chand 4 4 6 → Oldest4. Dilip 5 3 (2) Heightwise Rank5. Elisha 3 2 1 → Shortest6. Fatima 6 1 6 → Tallest

16. (d)17. (a)18. (d) Dilip is at the third position if the students are arranged

in the ascending order of their heights.

Answer (19-22): A very straight forward sequencing game inwhich are arranging six entities not in spacenumbered.“# 1–6 “ but in space “#5-10” (representing ages)Rule I :- V – U (exactly one child between V & U)Rule I :- R < U (R is younger than U)Rule I :- U _ P (exactly one child between U & P)Rule I :- “Z with another” (same age)We can combine Rule I & Rule III. Then we can addrule II to this combined rule by indicating that R mustcome to the left of U.

V __ U __ P← R

19. (b) If P is ten , then U must be eight & V must be six. R

must be younger than U, so R must be seven of fiveand not eight as the second choice says.

20. (a) If T is both older than V and younger than U then Tmust fill the place between V and U (Rule I). Therewe have the string :- V T U _ PAlso R is younger than V. and we have only one placefor R, before V

5 6 7 8 9 1 0R V T U _ P

Hence R age is five.

21. (b) Different possible arrangements are:-5 6 7 8 9 10V R U _ P __ V _ U _ P

RRule II tell is R must be 6 in option (I) & 5 or 7 inoption II. IN either of these option, there is no way forS to be 6 year old.

22. (c) If V is 6, U is 8 and P is 10. We know Z can’t be 7 can’tbe 7 or 9 because then two child would have to beexactly between V and U or U and P, violating rule I &III which says there is only one child between V & Uor U & P.

Answer (23-25): Draw the following diagram consistent withthe given conditions. Since the given data relate tothe streets M, N, O and 10, 11, 12, the diagram needcover only these streets.

Note that NN is a two-way streets along which onecan travel both eastwards and westwards. The circlesrepresent the traffic lights at the junctions.

23. (b) Since the M street is a one-way street going east, amotorist travelling west cannot be on this street. So,(b) is not possible. You can easily verify that all theother choices are possible.

24. (c) Since the 11th street is a one-way street going south,a person travelling on O westwards cannot take aright turn towards the north along the 11th street.

25. (c) You can easily see that (c) is the only route throughwhich one can reach form the junction of 12th and Oto the junction of 10th and O after passing throughonly one traffic signal.

10 11 12

10 11 12

M

N

O

M

N

O


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Vocab Funda1. adjunct (n) a thing joined or added, but subordinate or

not essentially a part2. adjure (v) command; direct3. adjutant (n) an officer who assists superior officers by

communicating orders, conductingcorrespondence

4. admonish (v) to warn; to reprove mildly5. adnauseam to the point of producing disgust

(phrase)6. adove (n) a sun-dried brick7. adore (v) to worship; to love or revere in8. adorn (v) to dress; to embellish; to decorate9. adroit (adj) dexterous; skillful; ingenious10. adulation (n) praise (excessive); worship11. adulterate (v) to debase by mixing with something inferior

(n: adulteration) or suprious12. advent (n) a coming or arrival13. adventitious (adj) additional; developed out of order

or place14. adversary (n) an opponent15. adverse (adj) contrary (with to); opposed; unfavourable16. adversity (n) hardship; misfortune; poverty17. advert (v) to turn one’s attention; to refer18. advocate (n/v) defender; attorney; lawyer; promote19. aegis (n) patronage; protection20. aeon (n) a vast age; eternity21. aerialist (n) a high-wise or trapeze artist22. aesthete (n) a person who has or professes to have a

special appreciation of beauty23. aesthete (adj) artistic; exquisite24. aesthetician a person versed in or devoted to aesthetics25. aestival pertaining to summer26. aestivate (v) spend the summer or dry season in a state

of torpor.27. aficionado a devotee of a sport or pass time28. affable (adj) courteous; pleasant or friendly29. affect (v) to infect or attack; to influence30. affidavit (n) a written declaration on oath31. affiliate (v/n) to attach as a member or branch; an

(n: affiliation) associate32. affinity (n) attraction; liking; proclivity33. affirmation (n) assertion; declaration

(v: affirm)34. affluence (n) abundance; wealth

(adj: affluent)35. affray (n) a brawl, fight or fray

36. agape (adj) with gaping mouth; dumbrounded37. agenda (n.pl) (a list of) things to be done; a programme

of business for discussion38. agglomeration (n) accumulation; collection; gather39. aggrandize (v) augment; increase40. aggregate (n/adj) to amount (to); total41. aggravate increase the gravity of (an illness, offence,

etc)42. aghast (adv) stupefied with horror43. agile quick moving, nimble, active44. agility (n) nimbleness; swiftness and suppleness45. agitation (n) tumult; turmoil; distraction (in work)46. agnostic (n) cynic; a sceptic47. agrarian (adj) agricultural; relating to land48. alacrity (n) briskness; cheerful readiness; promptness49. albeit (conj) whereas; although it be50. albino (n) a person with abnormally while skin and

hair and pink irises51. alchemy (n) the infant stage of chemistry, aimed towards

transmuting of other metals into gold, anddiscovering the the elixir of life

52. alga (n) the seasweeds and related forms53. alias (n/adv) otherwise known as; an assumed name54. alibi (n) the fact of being elsewhere; an excuse for

failure55. alienate (v) to estrange56. alimentary (adj)nutritive; pertaining to nourishment57. alimony (n) an allowance for support made by one

spouse to the other after their divorce orlegal separation

58. allay (v) to clam; to alleviate; to lessen or reduce59. allegory (n) symbol; symbolical narration60. alleviate (v) to lessen or reduce; to mitigate61. alliteration (n) the recurrence of the same initial sound in

words in close succession62. allude (v) to convey an indirect reference; to refer

without explicit mention63. allure (v) to entice; to bait; to seduce or attract64. alluvial (adj) soil deposited by rivers or floods with matter

transported in suspension65. aloft (adj) on high; on the top66. aloof (adv) detached; same way off (from); without

participation67. altercation (n) heated dispute; argument68. altruism (n) benevolence; humanitarianism;

munificence69. altruistic (adj) regard for others as a principle f action,

unselfishness, regard for other people


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

70. alumna (n) a former female pupil or student71. amateur (n/adj) beginner or dilettante; a novice72. amalgamate combine or unite to form one structure,

organisation, etc.73. amazon (n) a female soldier; a strong, vigorous or

aggressive woman74. ambidextrous (adv) able to use both hands equally well75. ambience (n) atmosphere; surrounding infleuence76. ambiguous (adj) doubtful; indistinct; having more than one

possible meaning77. amble (n) to move at an easy pace78. ameliorate (v) to make better; to improve79. amen (interjection) so let it be, (said at the end of a prayer)80. amenable (adj) agreeable; open

CROSSWORD PUZZLE

HINTSLeft to Right1. Quality which makes something what it is4. State of being wrong6. Past form of do9. Correct and revise written material13. Extreme fear

Top to bottom1. Cause to feel drained of energy2. Something that reduces guilty feelings12. Something that is superior to others3. Experience and cope with prolonged pain or difficulty5. Lowering and raising head, briefly to show agreement orgreeting signal7. Informal or formal sponse or partner8. Plant with edible leaves and root which can be usedinstead of coffee10. Wide track with a hard surface for vehicles to travel on11. Condense moisture taking spheres from the atmosphere inseparate drops.

Solution of Crossword Puzzle

(1)

(12)

(2)

(7)

(5)

(8)

(3)

(6)

(13)

(4)

(11)

(10)

(9)

(1)

E (12)

S (2)

S (7)

E (5)

N (8)

C (3)

E N N A X O H N

E O L (6)

D I D

R O V C U

V (13)

T (4)

E (11)

R (10)

R O R

A Y A O R E

T I A Y

(9)

E M E N D

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TEST -IGENERAL AWARENESS

1. Shri Mukul Roy who was inducted in the Union Cabinetbelongs to which of the following political parties?(1) Communist Party (M)(2) Samajwadi Party(3) All India Trinamool Congress(4) Congress (I)(5) Janata Dal

2. Providing bank finance to Self Help Groups (SHGs) isconsidered a part of(1) Micro Credit (2) Agricultural Finance(3) Mobile Banking (4) Rural Banking(5) None of these

3. Which of the following is a function of the Reserve Bankof India?(1) Issuing Kisan Credit Cards(2) Issuing Aadhar Cards(3) Acting as Banker’s Bank(4) Deciding the slabs of personal income tax(5) Issuing National Savings Certificates

4. “The only way Greece can survive is to dramatically boosttrade with Turkey” was the headline in a major newspaper.Why Turkey has to advice Greece like this?(1) Greece is passing through an economic crisis. Turkeywants to help it by more imports.(2) Turkey which is a powerful nation has attacked Greeceto settle a long pending border dispute with it.(3) Greece and Turkey are partners in a plan launched bythe IMF to rescue Greece from economic crisis.(4) Greece has refused to honour an old trade agreementwith Turkey. Hence Turkey is threatening Greece(5) Turkey’s survival depends on Greece

5. Who among the following represented India inConventional Indo-Russia Meet, organized in December2011?(1) Mrs. Pratibha Patil (2) Smt. Sonia Gandhi(3) Mr. S. M. Krishna (4) Mr. P. Chidambaram(5) None of these

6. Which of the following is the purpose of creating Eurozone Financial Stability Facility (EFSF) created byEuropean Union (EU)?(1) To provide financial aid to member countries in case ofcrisis(2) To ensure that the EURO does not get depreciatedagainst pound sterling and/or yen

SBI Exam - 7th October 2012(Based on Memory)

(3) To ensure that no non-euro member country entersinto any currency swap agreement with euro members.(4) To ensure that there is no shortage of essential goodsand food products in euro zone countries.(5) To pressurize UK to adopt Euro as its official currency

7. Which of the following countries had shown interest inpurchasing nuclear reactors from India?(The efforts are/were being made to finalize the deal)?(1) Russia (2) China (3) Turkey(4) Kazakhstan (5) Bangladesh

8. Which of the following countries has launched a newindex Comparative Rating, Index of Sovereigns (CRIS)?(1) USA (2) India (3) China(4) Japan (5) Britain

9. Which of the following is the literacy rate in India as pernew data released by the census commission? About ___(1) 60% (2) 68% (3) 70%(4) 75% (5) 83%

10. Which of the following countries in India’s neighborhoodhas agreed that Indians staying in the border areas will beallowed to visit up to 16 km inside its boundary withoutobtaining visa/permits?(1) Bangladesh (2) Nepal (3) China(4) Myanmar (5) Pakistan

11. Sheikh Hasina who was on a two day visit to Tripura inJanuary 2012 is the present(1) President of Bangladesh(2) Prime Minister of Bangladesh(3) President of Indonesia(4) Prime Minister of Indonesia(5) None of these

12. Who among the following is designated as the next ArmyGeneral of India and will take charge in July 2012?(1) Gen. V. K. Singh (2) Gen. Bikram Singh(3) Gen. Deepak Kapoor (4) Gen. Joginder J. Singh(5) None of these

13. Who among the following is the Minister of ForeignAffairs of India at present?(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) Shri Kapil Sibal(3) Shri Kamal Nath (4) Shri S.M. Krishna(5) None of these

14. India got Olympic 2012 berth in Hockey after defeatingwhich of the following countries in qualifying rounds heldin February 2012 ?(1) Pakistan (2) France (3) Spain(4) England (5) S. Korea


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

15. Who among the following won the Australian Open 2012Men’s Singles title?(1) David Ferrer (2) Rafael Nadal(3) Novak Djokovic (4) Leander Paes(5) Radek Stepanek

16. Who among the following won the Best Actress Award in57th Film fare Awards Function held in January 2012?(1) Vidya Balan (2) Priyanka Chopra(3) Parineeti Chopra (4) Rani Mukherjee(5) Neha Dhupia

17. Anup Jalota who was awarded Padmashri in 2012 is a wellknown(1) Industrialist (2) medical professional(3) social worker (4) playback singer(5) politician

18. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a periodof(1) 4 years (2) 5 years (3) 6 years(4) 2½years (5) till the age of 65

19. Who represented India in 17th Summit of South AsianAssociation for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) held inNovember 2011 in Maldives?(1) Smt. Pratibha Patil (2) Smt. Sonia Gandhi(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh (4) Shri Pranab Mukherjee(5) Shri P Chidambaram

20. Victoria Azarenka’s name was in news recently. She is awell known(1) Cine actress (2) Lawn Tennis Player(3) Author (4) Politician of Spain(5) Chess Player

21. Which among the following agencies/organizations willact as Regulator of Micro-finance Institutions in India?(1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) SIDBI(4) SEBI (5) IBA

22. The 3rd Summit of BRICS was organized in 2011 in(1) China (2) India (3) Brazil(4) South Africa (5) Russia

23. Which of the following days is observed as ‘WorldPopulation Day’ every year?(1) 11th March (2) 11th July (3) 11th August(4) 10th January (5) 10th July

24. The 38th Summit of ‘G-8’ is being organized in which ofthe following countries in May 2012?(1) Canada (2) Germany (3) China(4) France (5) USA

25. What is the Bank Rate at present?(1) 5% (2) 5.5% (3) 6%(4) 6.5% (5) None of these

26. Which of the following schemes/programmes is launchedto develop rural infrastructure in India?(1) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act(2) Bharat Nirman(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana(4) Total Sanitation Campaign(5) lndira Awas Yojana

27. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the field ofbanking and finance?(1) Real Time Gross Settlement(2) Special Drawing Rights(3) Ways and Means Advance(4) Amplitude(5) Open Market Operations

28. Who among the following is the winner of Pulitzer Prizefor literature in 2011?(1) Bob Dylan (2)’ Hank Williams(3) Janathan Deb (4) Lee C. Bollinger(5) Jennifer Egan

29. Who among the following is the Chief ElectionCommissioner of India at present?(1) Shri Navin Chawla (2) Shri S.V. Qurashi(3) S.hri Ajif Seth (4) Shri Vinod Rai(5) None of these

30. Which of the following is true about the Railway Budget2012-13 finally passed by the Parliament?(1) No hike in passenger fares up to 3rd AC(2) 30 new trains introduced on Delhi/Mumbai route(3) Three new Shatabdi trains introduced last yearwithdrawn(4) A new zone created as Central Railway divided in twozones South Central and Central Main(5) All of these

31. Which of the following countries is NOT a member ofOrganization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries(OPEC)?(1) Angola (2) Libya (3) Bangladesh(4) Venezuela (5) Qatar

32. Which of the following books is written by Vikram Seth?(1) The Golden Gate (2) A Peep into the Past(3) Between the Lines (4) City of Joy(5) Revolution 2020

33. Which of the following awards is given for contributionin the field of literature?(1) Kirti Chakra (2) Jamnalal Bajaj Award(3) S. S. Bhatnagar Award (4) Saraswati Samman(5) Kalidas Samman

34. Which of the following combinations of the States andtheir Chief Ministers (at present) is NOT correct?(1) Uttar Pradesh -Akhilesh Yadav


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(2) Rajasthan -Ashok Gehlot(3) Himachal Pradesh - Shanta Kumar(4) West Bengal - Mamta Banerjee(5) All are correct

35. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game ofcricket?(1) Bouncer (2) Hit wicket (3) Cover Point(4) Leg Spinner (5) Jockey

36. Which of the following is the Unit of work?(1) Ohm (2) Ampere (3) Coulomb(4) Newton (5) Joule

37. When the expenditure of the government exceeds therevenue, the difference of balance between the two iscalled(1) Balance of payment (2) Deflation(3) Devaluation (4) Budget deficit(5) Depreciation

38. What does the letter ‘C’ denote in the term ‘ECB’ as usedin the banking and financial operations?(1) Cartel (2) Credit (3) Control(4) Caution (5) Commercial

39. Who among the following is the Secretary of State(Foreign Minister) of USA at present?(1) M. Barak Obama (2) Mr. Jean Claude(3) Mrs. Hillary Clinton (4) Mr. David Cameron(5) None of these

40. Which of the following cups/trophies is used in the gameof Lawn Tennis?(1) Duleep Trophy (2) D C M Trophy(3) Ryder Cup (4) Merdeka Cup(5) Wimbledon Cup

TEST IIGENERAL ENGLISH

41-55. Read the following passage carefully and answers thequestions given below it. Certain words/phrases havebeen printed in bold to help you locate them whileanswering some of the questions.Princess Chandravati was very beautiful. She loved all

kinds of ornaments and always wanted to wear the mostprecious and lovely jewels. Once a jeweller came to the palaceand gifted the king a wonderful diamond necklace. It glitteredwith big and small diamonds. It was certainly a very expensivenecklace. The princess fell in love with it as soon as she saw it.So the king presented it to her.

From that day on, the princess always wore that necklace,wherever she went. One day before going for a swim in thepond, she took the necklace off and put in the hands of her

oldest and the most trustworthy servant. “Hold this and becareful. This is the most precious necklace in the whole world,”she said. The servant was an old woman: She sat under a tree,holding the ornament tightly and waited for the princess. It wasa hot afternoon and the servant was very tired so she dozed offunder the tree: Suddenly the servant felt that someone wastugging at the necklace and she woke up with a start. She lookedaround but no one was there and the necklace was gone. Scaredout of her wits, the old servant started screaming. On .hearingher scream the royal guards rushed to her. She pointed towardsthe direction in which the thief may have gone and the guardsran off that way.

There was a poor and dim-witted farmer walking on thesame road. As soon as he saw the royal guards running towardshim, he thought that they wanted to catch him and startedrunning. But he was not a strong man and could not outrun thehefty guards. The royal guards caught him in no time. “Whereis it? They demanded, shaking him. “Where is what?” the poorfarmer stammered back. “The necklace you stole!” thunderedone of the royal guards. The farmer had no idea what they weretalking about. He only understood that some precious necklacewas lost and he was supposed to have it. He quickly replied, “Idon’t know where it is now. I gave it to my landlord.”

The guards ran towards the landlord’s house. “Give usthe necklace right now!” the guards demanded of the fat landlordNecklace? I don’t have any!” the stunned landlord replied.“Then tell us quickly who does,” demanded the soldiers. Inorder to get the royal guards off his back, the landlord pointedtowards a priest who was walking by his house and said, “Hedoes.” The guards now caught hold of the priest who waswalking towards the temple and thinking about the lunch hehad just eaten. The priest was stunned when one of the burlyguards jumped on him and asked about the necklace. Heremembered that the minister, Bhupati, was at the temple. Hetook the guards to the temple and pointed towards the prayingminister, “I gave it to him,” he said. Bhupati too was caught andall four men were thrown in jail. The chief minister of the kingdomknew Bhupati well and was sure that Bhupati would never steal.He decided to find out who the culprit was. He hid near the jailwhere all four ‘men were put and heard them talking. First,Bhupati asked the priest, “Pandiiji, why did you say that yougave the necklace to me? I was quietly praying at the templeand now you have landed me in jail for no fault of mine.” Thepriest looked apologetic. He pointed towards the landlord andsaid, “I didn’t know what to say: He set the guards on me. I wassimply passing by his house and was on my way to the temple.”The land lord looked at the priest sheepishly. Then he turnedtowards the poor farmer and yelled, “You lazy good-for-nothingman! Why did you say that l had the necklace?” The farmer,trembling under the angry gaze of all three men, said, “I was justwalking home. The guards caught me and I did not know whatto say.” On hearing this conversation; the chief minister


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

understood that all the four men were innocent. He immediatelyordered the royal guards to search thoroughly, near the pond.The guards searched high and low till they saw somethingglinting on the tree. On the tree sat a monkey with the princessfavorite necklace around his neck. It took a lot of coaxing andbananas before the monkey threw the necklace on the ground.The king apologized to all the four men and gave them goldcoins as compensation. He requested his daughter to wear thenecklace only indoors.41. Why did the king present the diamond necklace to his

daughter?(1) She liked ornaments and had grown very fond of thediamond necklace(2) The king did not like ornaments and had no use of thenecklace(3) She had demanded the necklace from him(4) The king liked to give expensive gifts to his daughter(5) The king wanted to test the princess’ ability of handlingexpensive things

42. What did the old servant realize when she woke up?(1) That there were monkeys in the palace garden(2) That the princess’ necklace was missing from her hands(3) That a poor farmer had stolen the necklace(4) That the princess had snatched the necklace from herhands(5) That the princess had already left

43. Why did the poor farmer run?(1) He was in a hurry to reach home and hide the stolennecklace(2) He was worried that the guards would reach his housebefore him(3) He had stolen the necklace: and did not want to beinterrogated by the guards(4) He wanted to reach the landlord’s house before theguards reached there(5) He saw the royal guards running after him and thoughtthey would arrest him

44. Why did the landlord lie about the necklace?(1) He wanted to prove that the old servant was lying(2) It was a conspiracy between him and the poor farmer(3) He did not like the priest and wanted to get himpunished(4) Bhupati Had ordered him to lie about the necklace(5) He didn’t know anything about it and wanted to getrid of the guards

45. Why did the chief minister decide to intervene in the caseof the stolen, necklace?(1) He suspected that the old servant was the actual culprit(2) He knew that the poor farmer was dim-witted and thathe had created all the confusion(3) He knew that Bhupati was an honest minister and would

never do such a thing(4) He suspected that the landlord was the actual culpritand wanted to get him punished(5) He already knew that all four men were innocent

46. What did the chief minster do in order to find out who theactual culprit was?(1) He sent a spy and asked him to find out the actualculprit(2) He directly asked Bhupati if he had stolen the princess’necklace(3) He asked the soldiers to keep a thorough watch on theold servant(4) He hid near the jail and overheard the conversationamong the four men(5) He interrogated all the four men

47. Who among the following was the actual culprit?(1) The monkey(2) Bhupati, the minister(3) The poor dimwitted farmer(4) The old and trusted servant(5) One of the royal guards

48. Which of the following is true according to the passage?(1) The necklace-was made of big and small rubies(2) The royal guards did not hear the old servant scream(3) The royal guards were polite to all four men(4) The priest was on his way to the temple(5) None is true

49. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological orderas they occurred in the passage.(A) The landlord pointed towards the priest(B) The old servant dozed off(C) The monkeys were offered bananas(D) A jeweller visited the king(1) DBCA (2) DBAC (3) BDAC(4) DABC (5) BDCA

50. What did the king do after the necklace was found?(1) He rewarded the chief minister and thanked him(2) He rewarded the guards(3) He took the necklace away from the princess(4) He apologized to all the four men (5) Not mentioned in the passage

51-53. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar inthe meaning to the word/group of words “ printed in boldas used in the passage.

51. Dozed off(1) Waited (2) Dreamt (3) Slept(4) Nodded (5) Sat

52. Tugging(1) Tearing (2) Stealing (3) Cheating(4) Pushing (5) Pulling


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

53. Precious(1) Valuable (2) Best (3) Biggest(4) Ordinary (5) Worthless

54-55. Choose the word/group of words which is most oppositein meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold asused in the passage.

54. Caught hold(1) Nabbed (2) Picked up (3) Let go(4) Plunged (5) Slipped off

55. Trembling(1) Scared (2) Tensed (3) Calm(4) Quite (5) Shaking

56-60. Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicatingthat something has been omitted. Choose the set of wordsfor each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentenceas a whole.

56. They ______ invited all the members of the association_______ the inauguration.(1) had, by (2) has, at(3) can, in (4) have, for (5) want, by

57. They ______ their best, but were _______ to retrieveany data from that computer.(1) gave, sorry (2) showed, able(3) thought, happy (4) sent, unsuccessful(5) tried, unable

58. The ______ of rural schools is poor as ______ to theirurban counterparts.(1) functions, like (2) progress, unlike(3) condition, compared (4) state, matched(5) situation, contrast

59. She would prefer ______ travel early rather _________during peak hours.(1) for, to (2) to, than(3) in, so (4) not, if(5) at, about

60. Her purse was _______ at the bus stop so she ________a complaint at the nearest police station.(1) taken, did (2) stolen, filed(3) given, gave (4) left, register(5) sneaked, put

61-65. Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,will be in one part of the sentence. The number of thatpart is the answer. If there is ‘No error’ the answer is (5).(Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

61. He have started / making a note of / his appointments as (1) (2) (3)/ he tends to forget them. No Error (4) (5)

62. Ajay was adamant / on finishing the / work before leaving (1) (2) (3)/ by the day. No Error (4) (5)

63. His teacher was pleasantly / surprised when she learned /(1) (2)

that despite the all problems / he participated. No Error(3) (4) (5)

64. His brother is / not only a good / guitarist but also / a (1) (2) (3)good singer. No Error (4) (5)

65. The priest then request / all the wealthy men to / donate at (1) (2)least some money / for building a new temple. No Error (3) (4) (5)

66-70. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given belowshould replace the phrase given in bold in the followingsentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningfuland correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘Nocorrection is required’ mark (5) as the answer.

66. The painter never let anyone sneaks a peek at his workbefore it was finished.(1) sneak a peeks (2) sneak a peek(3) sneak and peek (4) Sneaking and peeking(5) No correction required

67. Came what may; she never missed a single sermon.(1) Come whatever may (2) Come what may(3) Come what maybe (4) Came what maybe(5) No correction required

68. Peter won the race fair and square.(1) Fare and square (2) fairly and square(3) fair square (4) fair not square(5) No correction required

69. He decided to play in time in the hope that the priceswould decrease.(1) play the time (2) played for time(3) play for time (4) play the timing(5) No correction required

70. Instead of going through the preliminaries we must get tothe heart in the matter.(1) Heart for the matter (2) heart that mattered(3) heart of matters (4) heart of the matter(5) No correction required

71-80. In the following passage there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed belowthe passage, against each, five words are suggested, oneof which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time a foolish brahmin (71) to Birbal with astrange request. He wanted to be (72) as ‘pandit’. Nowthe term ‘pandit’ (73) to a man of knowledge butunfortunately this poor brahmin was uneducated. Birbaltried to explain the difference to him saying that it was notcorrect to call an uneducated man a pandit and becauseof this very reason it would be improper to call him so. Butthe silly brahmin had his heart (74) on this title. Birbalcame up with a brilliant solution and said that as the brahminwas an uneducated man he should (75) abuses and stonesat anyone who dared to address him by the very sametitle. Then Birbal called all his servants and ordered themto call this brahmin a pandit. The brahmin was very pleased.But the moment the servants started calling out to him as`pandit’ he pretended to be very angry and (76) abusingthem loudly. Then he picked up a few stones and hurledthem in their direction. All this shouting and screaming(77) a crowd. When people realised that this brahmin waserupting every time someone called him ‘pandit’ they allstarted to (78) him. Over the next couple of days, he wouldconstantly hear the word ‘pandit’ wherever he went. Verysoon the whole town started referring to him as ‘pandit’much to his (79). The foolish brahmin never realised whypeople were calling him a pandit. He was extremely pleasedwith the result. He (80) Birbal from the bottom of his heart.

71. (1) came (2) got (3) reached(4) visited (5) asked

72. (1) call (2) referring (3) addressed(4) knows (5) written

73. (1) is (2) given (3) told(4) refers (5) said

74. (1) give (2) set (3) put(4) steal (5) broken

75. (1) hurl (2) give (3) stick(4) keep (5) say

76. (1) telling (2) finish (3) hit(4) push (5) started

77. (1) drew (2) selected (3) get(4) saw (5) scared

78. (1) remember (2) help (3) watch(4) tease (5) hurl

79. (1) plight (2) delight (3) happiness(4) sadness (5) indifference

80. (1) yelled (2) cursed (3) called(4) smiled (5) thanked

TEST IIIQUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

81-95. What value should come in the place of question mark(?) in the following questions?

81. (11)2 + (9)2 - (14)2 + ? = 32

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 1(4) 3 (5) None of these

82. 0.5 × 3.9 ÷ 1.3 = ? + 0.5(1) .01 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.2(4) 1.0 (5) None of these

83. 2(?)9

72918690

3115

=×÷

(1) ± 1 (2) ± 3 (3) ± 9(4) ± 6 (5) None of these

84. 81 % of 2300 - 34% of 596 = ?(1) 1060.63 (2) 1060.36 (3) 1660.36(4) 1006.63 (5) None of these

85. 3.1 × 2.6 × 1.5=?(1) 12.09 (2) 12.05 (3) 12.03(4) 12.07 (5) None of these

86. 9828

16144

×⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛

= ? + 325

(1) 530 (2) 535 (3) 505(4) 513 (5) None of these

87. 9352 - 2569 + 7153 = 13900 + ?(1) 9 (2) 81 (3) 25(4) 30 (5) None of these

88. 23% of 1630 = ?(1) 394.7 (2) 347.9 (3) 379.4(4) 374.9 (5) None of these

89. 73+238+14-71 =?(1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 13(4) 19 (5) None of these

90. 841576 + = ?(1) 53 (2) 41 (3) 51(4) 43 (5) None of these

91. 71 + 897 ÷ 13 × 3 = ?(1) 276 (2) 273 (3) 278(4) 271 (5) None of these

92. 190 × 38 ÷ 4 = ?(1) 1850 (2) 1508 (3) 1805(4) 1085 (5) None of these

93. 3558of

6330of

57

= ?

(1) 122 (2) 142 (3) 144


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(4) 128 (5) None of these94. 4.3 + 43.34 + 34.43 + 43.43 + 3.4 = ?

(1) 189.2 (2) 129.8 (3) 128.9(4) 182.9 (5) None of these

95. 249497of

73

of ? = 639

(1) 474 (2) 774 (3) 477(4) 747 (5) None of these

96-98. Study the following information and answer the questionsthat follow:A sum of Rs. 7,740/- is to be divided amongst A, B and Cin the ratio 7:5:8 respectively:

96. What is the difference between C’s and B’s share?(1) Rs. 387/- (2) Rs. 774/- (3) Rs. 1,021/-(4) Rs. 591/- (5) Rs. 1,161/-

97. What is the sum of 8’s and A’s share?(1) Rs. 4,931/- (2) Rs. 4,644/- (3) Rs. 5,580/-(4) Rs. 5,805/- (5) Rs. 5031/-

98. How much is A’s share?(1) Rs. 2,709/- (2) Rs. 3,096/- (3) Rs. 1,935/-(4) Rs. 2,851/- (5) Rs. 3,190/-

99. In how many different ways can the letters of the word‘FRANCE’ be arranged?(1) 2400 (2) 720 (3) 2005(4) 5040 (5) None of these

100. How much will a sum of Rs. 7,250 amount to in a span of 2years, at 6 p.c.p.a. rate of compound interest (Roundedoff to the nearest integer)?(1) Rs. 8,176/- (2) Rs. 8,146/- (3) Rs. 8,216/-(4) Rs. 8,170/- (5) Rs. 8,190/-

101. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 4,200% amount toRs. 6,216/- in a span of 8 years?(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 6(4) 4 (5) None of these

102. Cost of 20 pens and 17 pencils is Rs. 418/-. What is thecost of 60 pens and 51 pencils?(1) Rs. 1,251/- (2) Rs. 1,257/- (3) Rs. 1,227/-(4) Rs. 1,221 /-(5) None of these

103-107. Study the following table carefully and answer thequestions that follow.The table represents the total number of students studyingcourses P, Q, R, S and T, across eight institutes i.e. A, B, C,D, E, F, G and H.

Courses InstitutesA B C D E F G H

P 520 410 550 450 570 210 750 450

Q 410 540 610 580 380 550 570 310 R 430 210 590 530 730 510 530 480 S 350 280 570 320 410 480 610 460 T 370 480 380 250 180 370 590 660

103. What is the respective ratio between the total number ofstudents studying in institute A and the total number ofstudents studying in institute H?(1) 52: 59 (2) 52: 55 (3) 55: 59(4) 59: 61 (5) None of these

104. The number of students studying course Q in institute Bforms what percent of the total number of students ininstitute C?(1) 14 (2) 17 (3) 11 (4) 8 (5) 20

105. What is the total number of students who are studyingcourse T across all institutes?(1) 3480 (2) 3280 (3) 3420(4) 3840 (5) None of these

106. The number of students studying course P in institute Aforms what percent of the total number of students ininstitute A?(1) 27 (2) 23 (3) 25 (4) 20 (5) 29

107. What is the average number of students studying ininstitute D?(1) 446 (2) 426 (3) 540 (4) 454(5) None of these

108. What will be the average of the followings set of scores(Rounded off to the nearest integer)?46, 54, 62, 68, 56, 29, 58(1) 45 (2) 59 (3) 62 (4) 48 (5) 53

109. The area of a circle is 3850 square meters. What will be itscircumference?(1) 233 meters (2) 226 meters (3) 230 meters(4) 220 meters (5) 249 meters

110. The product of three consecutive numbers is 4080. Whatis the least number?(1) 17 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 16(5) None of these

111. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 180 meters and thedifference between the length: and the breadth is 8 meters,what is the area of the rectangle?(1) 2116 square meters (2) 2047 square meters(3) 2090 square meters (4) 2178 square meters(5) None of these

112. A and B together can complete a particular task in 6 days.If A alone can complete the same task in 10 days, howmany days will B take to complete the task if he worksalone?(1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 12


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(5) None of these

113-117. What should come in place of the question mark (?) inthe following number series?

113. 7 33 137 553 ? 8873(1) 1217 (2) 2217 (3) 2117(4) 2127 (5) None of these

114. 8 56 336 2352 14112 ?(1) 98874 (2) 98784 (3) 87894(4) 84672 (5) None of these

115. 5963 ? 5938 5913 5877 5828(1) 5932 (2) 5940 (3) 5951(4) 5954 (5) None of these

116. 2916 972 ? 108 36 12(1) 324 (2) 234 (3) 248(4) 391 (5) None of these

117. 9 15 27 45 69 ?(1) 109 (2) 99 (3) 91(4) 81 (5) None of these

118. The cost price of an article is Rs. 390%. If it is to be sold ata profit of 3.12 percent, how much would be itsapproximate selling price?(1) Rs. 410/- (2) Rs. 402/- (3) Rs. 417/-(4) Rs. 420/- (5) Rs. 442/-

119. 17 articles were bought for Rs. 3,910% and sold for Rs.4,590/-. How much was the approximate profit percentageper article?(1) 17% (2)12% (3) 9%(4) 21% (5) 25%

120. 12 years ago, the ages of A and B were in the ratio 15:13respectively. 19 years from now the respective ratio oftheir ages will be 23:22. What is the sum of their ages atpresent?(1) 57 years (2) 54 years (3) 52 years(4) 59 years (5) None of these

TEST IVREASONING ABILITY

121-125. In these questions, relationship between differentelements is shown in the statements. The statements arefollowed by two, conclusions.Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true:Give answer (5) if both, Conclusions I and II are true:

121. Statements : I = P < Q < A > RConclusions : I. A > I

II. R < P122. Statements : F > O = L < W = S

Conclusions : I. O < SII. L < F

123. Statements : S > P = O > T < R = BConclusions : I. B > O

: II. S > T124. Statements : K = F > R > O = M > T

Conclusions : I. O > K: II. F > T

125. Statements : G > N > O < P < Q = RConclusions : I. G > P

: II. R > N126-130. Study the following information to answer the given

questions:A, B; C, D, E, F and G are seated in a straight line facingNorth but not necessarily in the same order. Only threepeople sit between F and A. Neither F nor A sits at anextreme end of the line. Only two people sit between Aand G. E is not an immediate neighbor of either A or F. Esits third to left of B. B is not an immediate neighbor of A.E is not an immediate neighbor of C.

126. What is the position of E with respect to C?(1) Third to the left (2) Fourth to the right(3) Second to the right (4) Second to the left(5) Third to the right

127. Which of the following pairs represents persons seatedof the two extreme ends of the line?(1) D, E (2) B, G (3) B, C(4) E, G (5) C, E

128. How many persons are seated between B and A?(1) One (2) Two (3) Three(4) Four (5) More than four

129. Which of the following is true with respect to the givenarrangement?(1) Two people sit to the left of D(2) E sits to the immediate left of F(3) A and D sit between F and B(4) Only one person sits to the right of B(5) None is true

130. Who amongst the following sit exactly between A and G?(1) B, C (2) D, E (3) E, F(4) C, D (5) B, D

131-133. Four of the following five are alike in a certain waybased on the English alphabetical series and so form agroup. Which is the one that does not belong to thatgroup?

131. (1) TOQR (2) YTUV (3) KFHI (4) WRTU


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(5) OLNO132. (1) LOK (2) WZV (3) RUQ (4) DFC

(5) ILH133. (1) XZTV (2) OSMO (3) VXSU (4) FHBD

(5) MOIK

134-135. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way andso form a group. Which is the one that does not belong tothat group?

134. (1) Triumph (2) Win (3) Success (4) Growth(5) Victory

135. (1) Fast (2) Quick (3) Sudden (4) Rapid(5) Speedy

136-140. Study the following information to answer the givenquestions:In a certain code ‘lend me money’ is written as ‘ve ka ro’,‘money for him’ is written as ‘se ve di’, ‘for various matters’is written as ‘ba di la’ and ‘matters to me’ is written as ‘roba yo’

136. What is the code for ‘various’?(1) ba (2) di (3) la (4) yo(5) Cannot be determined

137. What does the code ‘ro’ stand for?(1) me (2) matters (3) money (4) lend(5) Either ‘to’ or ‘lend’

138. Which of the following may represent ‘money mattersmost’?(1) ve ba yo (2) ve se ba (3) ba zi di (4) ba ka zi(5) ba fe ve

139. What is the code for ‘lend’?(1) ve (2) ka (3) ro (4) di(5) Either ‘di’ or ‘ro’

140. What is the code for ‘to’?(1) ba (2) ro (3) yo (4) se(5) Cannot be determined

141-145. Study the following information carefully and answerthe given questions.L, M, N, O, P, O, R and S are sitting around a circular tablefacing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

• P sits third to left of M. P is an immediate neighbor of bothO and S.

• Only one person sits between O and Q.• R is an immediate neighbor of O. Only one person sits

between R and N.141. Who amongst the following sits exactly between R and

N?(1) L (2) M (3) O (4) P (5) O

42. Who sits third to the left of N?

(1) M (2) O (3) L (4) S (5) O143. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and

thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belongto that group?(1) M S (2) O M (3) OQ (4) RP (5) SO

144. M is related to R in a certain way based on the givenseating arrangement. In the same way P is related to M.To whom amongst the following is, L related to, followingthe same pattern?(1) N (2) Q (3) O (4) P (5) S

145. What is the position of L with respect to P in the abovearrangement?(1) Fifth to the left (2) Immediate left(3) Fifth to the right (4) Immediate right(5) Second to the right

146-150. In each question of below are two/three statementsfollowed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You haveto take the two/three given statements to be true even ifthey seem to be at variance from commonly known factsand then decide which of the given conclusions logicallyfollows from the given statements disregarding commonlyknown facts.Give answer (1) if only conclusion I followsGive answer (2) if only conclusion II followsGive answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion IIfollowsGive answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion IIfollowsGive answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion IIfollow

146. Statements : All lines are circles. Some circles aresquares.

Conclusions: I No square is a line.II Some squares are definitely not circles.

147. Statements : All kites are birds. No kite is a glider.Conclusions: I Some gliders are definitely not birds.

II At least some birds are kites.148. Statements : No fern is a plant. All roots are ferns.

Conclusions: I No plant is a root.II All ferns are roots.

149. Statements : Some planets are stars. Some orbits arestars.

Conclusions: I No orbit is a planet.II At least some stars are planets.

150. Statements : All solids are liquids. All liquids are gases.No gas is plasma.

Conclusions: I All solids are gases.II No liquid is plasma.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

151-160. In each of the questions given below which one of thefive answer figures on the right should come after theproblem figures on the left, if the sequence werecontinued?

Problem Figures Answer Figures

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

TEST VMARKETING APTITUDE /

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

161. Marketing has taken a prominent position during the lastdecade due to _________(1) Increased competition(2) Better literacy rate(3) Foreign compulsions(4) Government instructions(5) Reserve Bank of India Policy guidelines

162. Marketing is definitely required when __________(1) Demand exceeds supply (2) Supply exceeds demand

(3) Supply equals demand (4) Staff is in excess(5) There is monopoly

163. The traditional Marketing style involves __________(1) Door-to-door campaigns (2) Sending e-mails(3) Tele-marketing (4) SMS campaigns(5) Virtual marketing

164. Telemarketing campaigns are resorted to __________(1) Avoid face-to-face interactions(2) Avoid ‘buyer resistance(3) Reach a larger clientele(4) Increase cold calls(5) Reduce profits

165. The most essential quality of a good sales person is ____(1) Questioning skills (2) Goad appearance(3) Production skills (4) Good Communication skills(5) Curiosity

166. Direct Marketing means ________________(1) Seminars and Conferences(2) Face-to-face selling(3) Banners(4) Cold calls(5) Sales presentations

167. Selling process includes ____________(1) Publicity (2) Lead generation(3) Data collection (4) Product Designing(5) Product Re-designing

168. Web marketing involves _____________(1) Selling websites(2) Door-to-door canvassing(3) E-mail chatting(4) Browsing the Yellow Pages(5) Web advertisements

169. Marketing strategies mean ______________(1) Ideas for new employment(2) Techniques for mergers(3) Methods to improve marketing activities(4) More hits per ATM(5) Networking

170. The first step in Marketing is ____________(1) Production work (2) Planning work(3) Receiving feedback (4) Telephone calls(5) Sending e-mails

171. Good competition helps in ____________(1) Better technology (2) More market share(3) Rise in profits (4) Bigger branch network(5) Improved customer service

172. ‘Push’ marketing style requires ___________(1) Collective effort(2) Good pushing strength


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(3) Lengthy talks(4) Ability to identify the leads(5) Aggressive marketing

173. Communication skills in the case of a DSA means _______(1) Giving Lengthy speeches(2) Sending Good SMS messages(3) Being Talkative(4) Ability to convince the customer with the right choiceof words(5) Being Multi linguist

174. Effective selling skills depend on ______________(1) Good dress sense (2) Territory Allocation(3) Sales Call Planning (4) Good eye-contact(5) Past performance

175. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means _________(1) Buyer’s dislike for the product(2) Fight between buyer and the seller(3) Buyer’s hesitation in buying the product(4) Exchange of products(5) Buyer retracting the sale

176. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by(1) Good friendship between buyer and seller(2) Good after sales service(3) Good arguments(4) Good technology(5) Persuasive communication

177. ‘Benchmark’ means ____________(1) Sales performance measurement(2) Marks given to sales persons(3) Appraisal(4) Standard values for comparison(5) Automation

178. Innovation in marketing means __________(1) New technology(2) Globalization(3) Intense competition(4) New business models(5) Internal marketing

179. Marketing Opportunities mean __________(1) Scope for marketing(2) Proper and effective training(3) Market planning(4) Availability of sales outlets(5) Market data

180. The USP of a Current Account is ____________(1) No restrictions on transactions(2) Low TDS(3) High minimum balance(4) High interest payable(5) No need for KYC norms fulfillment

181. The advantage of a LAPIS ____________(1) Sharing peripherals (2) Backing up your data(3) Saving all your data (4) Accessing the Web(5) Automatic printing of data

182. ....of the 5 words listed below which one is the odd oneout?(1) Applications (2) Peripherals(3) Programs (4) Software(5) Operating System

183. What type of device is a computer printer?(1) Input (2) Input / Output(3) Software (4) Storage (5) Output

184. What is the biggest number you can get with 8 bits?(1) 256 (2) 128 (3) 1000(4) 255 (5) 124

185. What type of device is a digital camera?(1) Input (2) Output (3) Software(4) Storage (5) Input / Output

186. What is a mailing list?(1) (2) (3)(4) (5)

187. Hardware attached to a tower is known as;(1) CPU (2) Software (3) Peripheral(4) Storage (5) None of these

188. What is the format of text files?(1) JPEG (.jpg) (2) Bitmap (.bmp)(3) Word (.doc) (4) Text (.txt)(5) .xls

189. Which devices were used in first generation of computers?(1) Integrating circuit (2) processor(3) micro processor (4) vacuum tube(5) None of these

190. Which part of the hardware compensates the differencebetween the speed of CPU and peripheral?(1) Scanner (2) printer (3) video card(4) mother board (5) interface

191. Computers designed for specialized work and specificinstructions?(1) Mainframe computer (2) special purpose(3) portable computer (4) super computer(5) None of these

192. Which of the following is a portable computer?(1) Minicomputer (2) mainframe computer(3) desktop (4) workstation(5) None of these

193. Who manages for computer resources?(1) ALU (2) BUS(3) control unit (4) I/O unit


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(5) secondary memory194. Which of the following statement is right for RAM?

(1)(2)(3)(4) it is a peripheral(5) it means to Read Access Memory

195. What is the full form of MB?(1) Micro Bytes (2) Mega Bytes(3) Mini Bytes (4) Milli Bytes(5) Midi Bytes

196. Identify the fastest memory:(1) Hard disk (2) DVD ROMs(3) cash memory (4) RAM(5) None of these

197. To start a computer system, which memory is optional?(1) RAM (2) ROM (3) cash(4) secondary memory (5) RAM or ROM

198. Translator program used in assembly language is knownas;(1) Compiler (2) interpreter (3) translation(4) translator (5) assembler

199. Which part of the CPU co-ordinates all the activities ofthe computer system?(1) Cache (2) PROM (3) EPROM(4) SRAM (5) None of these

200. Which high speed memory co-ordinate with the speedgap between processor and main memory?(1) Cache (2) PROM (3) EPROM(4) SRAM (5) None of these

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 203 1 3 1 5 1 4 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 3 3 221 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 402 1 2 5 5 5 4 5 2 1 3 1 4 3 5 5 4 5 3 5

SECTION – I (GENERAL AWARENESS)

SBI Exam Evening PaperAnswer Keys

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 601 2 5 5 3 4 1 4 2 4 3 5 1 1 1 4 5 3 2 261 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 801 4 3 5 1 3 4 5 5 4 1 3 2 2 1 5 5 4 3 5

SECTION – II (GENERAL ENGLISH)

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 1004 4 3 3 1 5 4 4 4 1 3 3 5 3 4 5 2 1 2 2101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 1203 5 1 5 2 3 2 5 4 5 5 1 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 3

SECTION – III (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE)

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 1401 5 2 2 4 5 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 5 2 3141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 1605 4 4 2 5 4 5 1 2 5 4 5 3 5 2 3 5 2 4 4

SECTION – IV (REASONING ABILITY)

161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 1801 2 1 1 4 4 1 5 3 2 5 1 4 4 3 5 4 4 1 1181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 2001 2 5 5 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 5 3 3 2 3 2 5 1 1

SECTION – V (MARKETING APTITUDE/COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE)


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

SBI Exam Evening Paper Solutions

61. (1): “have” is replaced by “has”62. (4): “by” is replaced by “for”63. (3): despite all the problems64. (5): No Error.65. (1): “Request” is replaced by “Requested”66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (5) 69. (5) 70. (4) 71 (1) 72. (3) 73. (2)74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (5) 77. (5) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (5) 81. (4)82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86. (5) 503. 87. (4) 88. (4)89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (3) 92. (3) 93. (5); 124. 94. (3) 95. (4).


COMPETITIVE ZEAL


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

IDBI Exam Paper(Based on Memory)

TEST - IENGLISH LANGUAGE

1-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are -printed belowthe passage and against each, five words/phrases aresuggested, one of which fits the, blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word/phrase in each case.A mobile phone is no (1) a simple device to make calls. Ithas (2) the hub for all your activities, from e-mailing andbrowsing to paying bills and transferring money. Banksmay have been the first to (3) their feet into thistechnological pool, but telecom companies have (4) tocatch up. The RBI’s step, to remove the 50,000 cap that ithad (5)earlier on daily mobile transactions has alsoprovided the much-needed (6) to mobile banking.Mobile banking (7) in you to conduct financialtransactions on your phone just as you would at a bankbranch or through Net banking. Banks are now evolvingthis facility as they launch innovative products. For (8) aBank’s cash-to-mobile service (9) customers to transfermoney to anybody, including those who do not have abank account. A bank customer can download the bank’sapplication on his phone and then put in the phone numberof the person to whom he wants to send the money, alongwith the transaction amount: The bank will send a messageto the remitter and the beneficiary along with differentPINs to each. The remitter will have to message his PIN tothe beneficiary, who can then use both PINs and hismobile number to withdraw cash from the respective BankATM. The service is (10) but operator charges will apply.Also, the sender will need a Java-enabled handset.

1. (1) longer (2) much (3) anymore(4) doubt (5) sooner

2. (1) become (2) been (3) changed(4) made (5) transformed

3. (1) dip (2) stand (3) wash(4) touch (5) pick

4. (1) try (2) not (3) begun(4) made (5) soon

5. (1) sanctioned (2) festered (3) imposed(4) cooked (5) built

6. (1) breaking (2) fact (3) pushed(4) drop (5) boost

7. (1) forces (2) places (3) remits

(4) allows (5) makes8. (1) examples (2) instance (3) together

(4) now (5) today9. (1) permit (2) suggests (3) facilitated

(4) attempts (5) enables10. (1) expensive (2) there (3) costly

(4) free (5) inaccessible

11-15. Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicatingthat something has been omitted. Choose the set of wordsfor each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentenceas a whole.

11. For the last three months, the dengue _____ has putsouthern districts on high alert and has been Keepinglocal administrations and the health department ontheir ________.(1) outbreak -toes (2) fever - hinges(3) epidemic – feet (4) mosquito - ground(5) disease -beds

12. The new-age scooter is perfect __________ just as acommute option for women, but is functional enough formen _________.(1) vehicle - also (2) not - too(3) for – well (4) neither-nor(5) either-additionally

13. The police ________ a gang _________ in duping tele-banking customers and arrested 10 persons.(1) told - mastering (2) busted - specializing(3) seized – innovating (4) caught - dealing(5) arrested - setting

14. The arrested persons were _________ in court and________ in judicial custody.(1) demanded - persuaded (2) questioned - sentenced(3) taken –left (4) produced = remanded(5) sent - kept

15. All the school students___________ the vicinity will betaken to the nearby theaters _________the festival.(1) in -during (2) on -for (3) at - in(4) among -at (5) around – on

16-25. Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,will be in one part of the sentence. The number of thatpart is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5).(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

16. Although a doctor said that the test results / of five (1)


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

persons confirmed the disease, hospital authorities /did (2)

not give an official statement said / they were still awaiting(3) (4)

results of the rest of the patients. No error (5)

17. Lightweight and / easy to handle, / automatic scooters (1) (2) (3)have been / a godsend for women commuters. No error

(4) (5)18. The gang members has/confessed that they had been/

(1) (2)obtaining bank account details/of their victim from a

(3) (4)source based in Nigeria. No error

(5)19. Weather officials said that/there is likely to be/wide

(1) (2)spreading rainfall all over the region/over the next few

(3) (4)weeks. No error (5)

20. Police said that/the seized counterfeit currency notes (1) (2)looked/so genuine that /anyone could have been misled.

(3) (4)No error (5)

21. The committee has/asked for more information and/will (1) (2)again consider/the entries on the next meeting. No error

(3) (4) (5)

22. Looking for/a house on rent/in the city has/never been an (1) (2) (3) (4)easy job. No error. (5)

23. One could not/imagine striking / this kind of a bargain / (1) (2) (3)last year or the year early. No error (4) (5)

24. The monsoon showers and / the fell in temperature /have (1) (2)

brought a smile/on many faces. No error (3) (4) (5)

25. Schoolchildren in the city / were in for a surprise as they(1) (2)

were / treated to a feast of some children’s films / being (3)

screen in local theatres. No error (5)

26-40. Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it. Certain words/group of wordshave been printed in bold to help you locate them whileanswering some of the questions:Unemployment is the problem of every modern nation.Even industrialized nations are not able to ensure a jobfor everyone. Following the conventional strategy ofcreating employment, governments of many developingcountries try to attract employers (business houses/industrialists)by offering tax rebates and many otherfacilities so that they locate their upcoming plants on theirsoil, and thereby create industrial employment. But thereis a limit to what industry can bring. Also, industrial plantsoften create toxic waste which results in air and waterpollution and environmental problems which canoutweigh whatever employment benefit industrialemployment brings. In addition; they don’t bring assubstantial relief to the dwindling economy of the hostcountry as they seem to promise, as the profits of suchforeign investments are carried back to the parentcompany and foreign shareholders abroad.Self-employment has none of these drawbacks. Theproblem is that self-employment is not as obviouslyglamorous as a shiny new factory. But profits from self-employment remain in the country where they areproduced. It is too small to create environmental hazards.It also puts the poor Person in charge of his or her ownworking hours and conditions: The hours are flexible andcan adapt to fit any family situation. It allows people tochoose between running a business full-time or part-timewhen they face a crisis, or to put their business on holdand work full-time for a salary. Self employment is tailor-made for anyone who is street-smart and has manyacquired and inherited traditional skills, rather thanlearning acquired from books and technical schools. Thismeans the illiterate and the poor can exploit their strengths,rather than be held back by their weaknesses. It allows aperson to turn their hobbies into gainful employment. Itallows individuals who cannot work well in a rigid hierarchyto run their own show.Financing the poor to start their own little ventureselevates their sense of pride and self-respect. It offers away out of welfare dependency, not just to become wageslaves, but to open a store or start a manufacturingbusiness. It can help those who have found a job and arestill nonetheless poor. It gives the victims of prejudicewho would not be hired because of their colour or nationalorigin a chance to earn a living. The average cost ofcreating self-employment is ten, twenty or hundred times


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

lesser than creating industry based employment. It helpsisolated poor people gain self-confidence, step-by-step.Obviously self-employment has limits, but in many casesit is the only solution to help those whom economiesrefuse to hire and taxpayers do not want to carry on theirshoulders. The policy needed for the eradication ofpoverty must be much wider and deeper than the policyfor the provision of mere employment. The real eradicationof poverty begins when people are able to control theirown fate. Poor people are like bonsai trees. When youplant the best seed of the tallest tree in a flower-pot; youget a replica of the tallest tree, only inches tall. There isnothing wrong with the seed you planted; only the soil-base that is too inadequate. Poor people are bonsai people.There is nothing wrong in their seeds. Simply, societynever gave them the base to grow on. All it takes to getthe poor people out of poverty is for us to create anenabling environment for them. Once the poor can unleashtheir energy and creativity, poverty will disappear veryquickly.

26-28. Choose the word/group of words which is MOSTOPPOSITE in MEANING to the word/group of wordsprinted in bold as used in the passage.

26. RIGID(1) Unstructured (2) Flexible (3) Soft(4) Gentle (5) Calm

27. STEP-BY-STEP(1) All at once (2) In quick succession(3) In slow motion (4) In a nutshell(5) Once and for all

28. OFFERING(1) Stealing (2) Permitting(3) Refusing (4) Protesting(5) Questioning

29-31. Choose the word/group of words which is MOSTSIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bald asused in the passage.

29. REMAIN(1) Left-over (2) Stay(3) Stagnate (4) Continue (5) Linger

30. HIRED(1) Allowed (2) Rented(3) Authorized (4) Employed(5) Delegated

31. LIMIT(1) Maximum (2) Finish (3) Cap(4) Decrease (5) Barrier

32. Which of the following is a reason foreign investment do

not strengthen the economies of host nations?(1) The parent company pays all the profit as tax to its

nation.(2) The profit of such enterprises does not remain in the

host nation; rather it goes back to the share holdersand owners of the parent company.

(3) The employees of the parent company demand extrapay from profits that the companies earn from factoriesin another nation.

(4) The profit earned by such enterprises is too less toprovide for anything beyond the salaries ofemployees.

(5) None of these

33. What is the tone of the passage?(1) Offensive (2) Satirical(3) Analytical (4) Humorous(5) Speculative

34. Which of the following is an advantage that self-employment has over industry based employment?(A) The work timings are highly flexible:(B) Starting one’s own venture is an easy task and needs

no investment as financers are readily available.(C) Self-employment makes one a master of other people

and thus satisfies their need to control others.(1) Only (C) (2) Only (A)(3) Only (B) (4) Only (A) and (B)(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

35. Which of the following may be inferred about self-employment?(A)Self-employment slowly but steadily strengthens the

economy of the country(B) Self-employment checks unemployment.(C) As a strategy of providing employment, self-

employment is still unexplored.(1) Only (B) (2) Only (B) and (C)(3) Only (A) (4) Only (A) and (B)(5) Only (A) and (C)

36. What does the author indicate by the example of a bonsaitree?(A)When provided the right kind of financial help, poor

people can flourish.(B) The poor people are as capable as the well-to-do class.(C) Conventional (Industrial) employment can help the

poor people create their own base.(1) Only (A) (2) only (B)(3) Only (A) and (B) (4) Only (A),and (C)(5) Only (B) and (C)

37. The author claims that self employment is “tailor-made”for people with certain qualities. Which of the followingare the qualities of such people?


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(A) They have an unconventional approach to all things.(B) They are street-smart.(C) They possess many acquired and traditional skills.(1) Only (A) (2) Only (C)(3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (C)(5) Only (B)

38. Which of the following outweighs the employmentbenefits that foreign industrialists bring?(1) Huge industries set up by them cause environmental

pollution.(2) They employ more number of people belonging to

their native nations, than the host nations’unemployed.

(3) They evade many taxes that could be a source ofrevenue for the host nation.

(4) They manufacture products that have no market in thehost nation.

(5) They practice discrimination on grounds of genderwhen providing employment to host nations’ residents.

39. Which of the following may be an appropriate title for thepassage?(1) Addressing conventional employment in developed

nations(2) Varied strategies and approaches to eradicating

poverty(3) Limitations of industrial employment(4) How is poverty linked to conventional (industrial)

employment?(5) Role of self employment in battling unemployment and

eradication of poverty

40. Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage?(1) Self employment is beneficial only for developing

economies.(2) Self- employment is not as glamorous as conventional

(industrial) employment.(3) Finance for poor is readily available in the developed

nations of the world:(4) Small- scale industries produce as much toxic waste

as big industries.(5) None is true

41-43. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given beloweach sentence should replace the phrase printed in boldin the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If thesentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction isrequired’, mark (5) as the answer.

41. Cultivating good hobbies are an excellent way of reducingthe stress of daily living.(1) is an excellence way of (2) is an excellent way of(3) be an excellent way of (4) are excellent way for(5) No Correction required

42. The business group needs to reform not only its businessand marketing strategies, but also its organizationalstructure.(1) needed to reforming (2) needs to reforming(3) needs for reform (4) needed for reform(5) No Correction required

43. I challenged him to produce the authority letter which Iknew had not been issued to him.(1) was not been issued to (2) had not being issued to(3) had not been issued for (4) have not been issued to(5) No Correction required

44-45. In each of the sentences given below a phrase has beenunderlined. Which of the words / group of words (1), (2),(3) and (4) given below each sentence represents themeaning of the underlined phrase , as used in the sentence.If none of the words / group of words represents themeaning, give the answer (5), ‘None of these’.

44. The old woman lied about her husband behind his back.(1) in his absence (2) in his presence(3) in anyone’s absence (4) in everyone’s presence(5) None of these

45. He was called upon to iron out differences and bring aboutreconciliation between conflicting points of view.(1) settle (2) create (3) manipulate(4) vote out (5) None of these

46-50. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),(E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningfulparagraph, and then answer the questions given below :(A)Owing to these difficulties, the prospects of the

banking sector became very uncertain and causedrecession.

(B) A progressively growing balance sheet, higher paceof credit expansion, and focus on financial inclusionhave contributed to making Indian banking vibrantand strong.

(C) However, amidst all this chaos India’s banking sectorhas been amongst the few to maintain resilience.

(D) Indian banks have already begun to revise their growthapproach to take advantage of these newopportunities.

(E) In the recent times the world economy has witnessedmany serious difficulties, the prominent of these beingcollapse of banking & financial institutions.

(F) The way forward for the Indian banks is to innovate totake advantage of the new business opportunities andat the same time ensure continuous assessment ofrisks.

46. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentenceafter the rearrangement?(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) F (5) B


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

47. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentenceafter the rearrangement?(1) E (2) F (3) D (4) C (5) A

48. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentenceafter the rearrangement?(1) C (2) A (3) F (4) D (5) B

49. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)sentence after the rearrangement?(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) E (5) F

50. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentenceafter the rearrangement?(1) D (2) F (3) C (4) E (5) A

TEST - IIQUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

51-55. What should come in place of question mark (?) in thefollowing questions?

51. 85% of

74

of 6755 = ? + 1687

(1) 1586 (2) 1592 (3) 1594(4) 1582 (5) None of these

52. (5568 ÷ 87)1/3 + (72 × 2)1/2 = (?)1/2

(1) 256 (2) 4 (3) 2(4) 16 (5) None of these

53. 222 (?)107)3(42813 =+−÷+

(1) 2 (2) 16 (3) 256(4) 4 (5) (256)2

54. (0.49)4 × (0.343)4 ÷ (0.2401)4

= (70 ÷ 100)? + 3

(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4(4) 7 (5) None of these

55. 45% of 2025 ÷ 0.01 = (?)2 ÷ 25(1) 3 (2) (15)2 (3) 81(4) 9 (5) 12

56. Which of the following is second largest?(1) 138.6 - 38.4 + 479.3 (2) 36.5 - 844.6 + 1289(3) 931 - 564 + 156 (4) 564 - 213 + 120(5) 130 - 461 + 888

57. Which of the following is the largest? (You are notexpected to calculate the exact value)(1) (56 × 15) ÷ 42 (2) (25 × 72) ÷ 62(3) (6 × 441) ÷ 72 (4) (28 × 78) ÷ 56(5) (32 × 48) ÷ 26

58. Which of the following is the smallest? (You are not

expected to calculate the exact value)

(1) 2/1)1250of95( (2) 2/1)4112of

137(

(3) 2/1)3221of195( (4) 2/1)412of

1115(

(5) 2/1)3444of1317(

59. The cost of 8 dozen of eggs is Rs. 256/-. Which calculationis needed to find the cost of 9 eggs?(1) (9 × 256) × (8 ÷ 12) (2) (12 × 256) ÷ (8×9)(3) (8×256) ÷ (9×12) (4) (9 × 256) × (8 × 12)(5) (9 × 256) ÷ (8 × 12)

60. 24% of 4568÷ 8 % of 246 is approximately equal to(1) 32 (2) 43 (3) 89(4) 78 (5) 55

61-65. What will come in place of question mark (?) in thefollowing number series?

61. 123 277 459 669 907 ?(1) 1179 (2) 1173 (3) 1167(4) 1169 (5) None of these

62. 456.5 407 368.5 341 324.5 ?(1) 321 (2) 319 (3) 317(4) 323 (5) None of these

63. 23 42.2 80.6 157.4 311 ?(1) 618.2 (2) 623.6 (3) 624.2(4) 616.6 (5) None of these

64. 36 154 232 278 300 ?(1) 304 (2) 313 (3) 308(4) 307 (5) None of these

65. 24 536 487 703 678 ?(1) 768 (2) 748 (8)764(4) 742 (5) None of these

66-70. In the following questions two equations numbered Iand II are given. You have to solve both the equationsand -Give answer If

(1) x >y (2) x>y (3) x < y (4) x < y (5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established

66. I. 21

)x(x

9x

15=−

II. y10 – (36)5 = 0


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

67. I. 5x + 2y = 96II. 3 (7x + 5y) = 489

68. I. (441)1/2×2 - 111 ÷ (15)2

II. 121 y2 + (6)3 = 260

69. I. 17x = (13)2+ 196 + (5)2 + 4xII. 9y - 345 = 4y - 260

70. I. 3x2 - 13x + 14 = 0II. y2 - 7y + 12 = 0

71. A man sells calculator at the rate of Rs. 250/- each whichincludes a profit of 14 percent. What amount of profit willhe earn in 19 days if he sells seven calculators per day?(1) Rs. 4665/- (2) Rs. 4565/- (3) Rs. 4545/-(4) Rs. 4655/- (5) None of these

72. Circumference of a Circle-A is 1 74

times perimeter of a

square. Area of the square is 784 sqcm. What is the areaof another Circle-B whose diameter is half the radius ofthe Circle-A?(1) 38.5 sq. cm. (2) 156 sq. cm.(3) 35.8 sq. cm. (4) 616-sq. cm.(5) None of these

73. Amit’s present age is three times Pratibha’s present ageand nine-thirteenth of his father’s present age. The sumof the present ages of all of them is 150 years. What is thedifference between Pratibha’s present age and Amit’sfather’s present age?(1) 56 years (2) 64 years (3) 60 years(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

74. What value will you obtain if twenty five percent of 2340is subtracted from four-ninth of square of 36?(1) 9 (2) -18 (3) 18(4) -9 (5) 3

75. Varun got a monthly increment of 12 percent of Puja’smonthly salary. Puja’s monthly salary is Rs. 7800/-. Varun’smonthly salary before increment was Rs. 6400/-. Whatamount will he earn in four months after his increment?(1) Rs. 29344/- (2) Rs. 29434/-(3) Rs. 28434/- (4) Rs. 28344/-(5) None of these

76-80. Each of the questions below consists of a question andtwo statements numbered I and II given below it. Youhave to decide whether the data provided in the statementsare sufficient to answer the question. Read both thestatements and -Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are

sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in Statement II alone are not

sufficient to answer the question.Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are

sufficient to answer the question, writethe data in Statement I alone are notsufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in either Statement I alone orin Statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I andII are not sufficient to answer thequestion.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements f andII together are necessary to answer thequestion.

76: What is the minimum passing percentage in a test?I. Ramari scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored

288 marks which is 128 more than Raman.II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing

marks.

77. What is the value of x2 + y + z?I. 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = zII. 3x + 3y +2z = 34, 2x + 5y + 6z = 72

78. Whose body weight is second highest among the fiveboys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and

average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg. Also Surajis 78 kg; Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg.

II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68kg and also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46kg. All of them have different weight.

79. What is the respective ratio between the length of arectangle and side of a square?I. Area of the square is 576 sq cm and the area of the

rectangle is 600 sq cm.II. Breadth of the rectangle is half the side of the square.

80. What is the smaller angle of a parallelogram?I. Ratio between the angles of a triangle is 3: 5: 4 and the

larger angle of the parallelogram is 34° more than thelargest angle of the ‘triangle.

II. Larger angle of the parallelogram is 38° more than itssmaller angle.

81-85. Study the following pie-chart and answer the followingquestions.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Percentagewise distribution of employees in sixdepartments of an Institution

Total number of Employees = 12600Percentagewise distribution of Employees

81. Number of employees in the department of Academicaffairs is approximately what percent more than the numberof employees in Examination department?(1) 39 (2) 29 (3) 12(4) 139 (5) 112

82. If 30 percent of the number of employees of researchdepartment is females. Then what is the number of maleemployees in the research department?(1) 1343 (2) 1232 (3) 1323(4) 1242 (5) None of these

83. Number of employees in Examination department isapproximately what percentage of the total number ofemployees in the department of HR and Academic affairstogether(1) 69 (2) 65 (3) 61(4) 55 (5) 51

84. What is the average number of employees in Accounts,Admission and Research department together?(1) 1722 (2) 1742 (3) 1786(4) 1784 (5) None of these

85. What is the difference between the total number ofemployees in the department of HR and Admissiontogether and the total number of employees in Accountsand Examination department together?(1) 2268 (2) 2464 (3) 2286(4) 2644 (5) None of these

86-90. Study the table carefully to answer the questions thatfollow:

Number of Research papers and Articles published by sixdifferent scholars (Person) in five different Journals

86. How much more approximate percentage of the number ofResearch papers that were published by Neeta in Educonas compared to the number of Research papers that werepublished by Vijay in Eduforms?(1) 52 (2) 42 (3) 152(4) 147 (5) 47

87. What is the difference between the total number ofResearch papers published by Anand, Vijay and Neetatogether in Educon and the total number of Articlespublished by Mohan, Naidu and Ronit together inEdutrack?(1) 33 (2) 27 (3) 32(4) 29 (5) None of these

88. Who published third highest number of Research papersand Article together in Eduforms?(1) Anand (2) Vijay (3) Neeta(4) Mohan (5) Naidu

89. What is the average number of Research papers publishedby all the six scholars together in Frontier?(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 17(4) 15 (5) None of these

90. Total number of Research papers and Articles togetherpublished by Mohan in Edutrack is approximately whatpercentage of the total number of Articles published byall the six scholars together in New Era?(1) 145 (2) 117 (3) 137(4) 132 (5) 124

91-95. Study the following graph carefully to answer thequestions that follow


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Runs scored by three different teams in five differentcricket matches

91. Total runs scored by India and Australia in Match-4together is approximately what percentage of the totalruns scored by England in all the five matches together?(1) 42 (2) 18 (3) 36(4) 24 (5) 28

92. In which match is the difference between the runs scoredby Australia and England second lowest?(1) Match-1 (2) Match-2 (3) Match-3(4) Match-4 (5) Match-5

93. In which match are the total runs scored by India andEngland together third highest/lowest?(1) Match-1 (2) Match-2 (3) Match-3(4) Match-4 (5) Match-5

94. What is the respective ratio between the runs scored byIndia in Match-5, Australia in Match-1 and England inMatch-2?(1) 11: 13: 7 (2) 11: 7: 13 (3) 11: 3: 9(4) 11: 13: 9 (5) None of these

95. What are the average runs scored by all the three teams inMatch-3 together?(1) 280 (2) 270 (3) 275(4) 285 (5) None of these

96-100. Study the information carefully to answer the questionsthat follows.In a school there are total 120 staff members and 800students. 65 percent of the number of staff members isteachers and remaining staff members are administrativeofficials. Out of the total number of students 45 percentare girls. Twenty percent of the number of girls can speakonly Hindi. Remaining girls can speak both Hindi andEnglish. Three-fourth of the number of boys can speakonly Hindi. Remaining boys can speak both Hindi andEnglish. Two-third of the number of teachers is male. Five-fourteenth of the number of administrative officials isfemale.

96. What is the difference between the number of boys(student) who can speak both Hindi and English and thenumber of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi andEnglish?(1) 164 (2) 178 (3) 188(4) 174 (5) None of these

97. Total number of girls (student) is what percentage of thetotal number of staff members in the school?(1) 350 (2) 300 (3) 400(4) 450 (5) None of these

98. What is the difference between the total number of femaleadministrative officials and female teachers together andthe number of male administrative officials?(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 18(4) 14 (5) None of these

99. What is the respective ratio between the total number ofteachers and the number of boys (student) who can speakHindi only?(1) 11: 56 (2) 13: 54 (3) 13: 56(4) 11: 54 (5) None of these

100. What is the total number of male administrative officials,female teachers and girls (student) who can speak Hindionly?(1) 125 (2) 115 (3) 127(4) 117 (5) None of these

TEST - IIIREASONING ABILITY

101. What should come next in the following number series?4 5 3 2 1.5 4 5 3 2 1 4 4 5 3:2 1 3 4.5 3 2 1 ?(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5(5) None of these

102. Consider five people A, B, C, D and E each having differentage. A is younger than only B. C is older than D. D is notthe youngest. Who amongst the following are older thanC?(1) Only A and B (2) Only E, B and A(3) Only A and E (4) Only E and B(5) None of these

103. Point B is 3 metres north of point A. Point C is 3 metreswest of point B. Point D is 5 metres south of point C. PointE is 7 metres east of point D. In which of the followingdirections is point E, with reference to point B.(1) East (2) South-East (3) North-East(4) South (5) None of these

104. In a row of children facing north, A stands 15th from leftand B stands 9th from left. C who stands exactly between


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

A and B is 7th from right. What is the total number ofchildren standing in the row?(1) 21 (2) 17 (3) 18(4) 19 (5) None of these

105. B is the father of O. B has only two children. Q is thebrother of. R. R is the daughter of P. A is the granddaughterof P. S is the father of A. How is S related to Q?(1) Son (2) Son-in-law (3) Brother(4) Brother-in-law (5) None of these

106-110. In each of these questions, relationship betweendifferent elements is shown in the statements. Thestatements are followed by two conclusions.Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true.Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.Give answer (5) if both the conclusions I and II are true.

106. Statements : E = A < D > B > F = CConclusions : I. E < B

II. C < D

107-108. Statements: P > T = U < W; Q > R > W

107. Conclusions : I. T = RII. U<R

108. Conclusions : I. P > RII. U > Q

109. Statements : R > S > W = X; Y < R = PConclusions : I. P > X

II. Y < X

110. Statements : C = D > E < F; G < I < CConclusions : I. D > G

II. E < I

111-115. Study the following information to answer the givenquestions:In a certain code“new banking systems” is coded as “ss tp na”,“officer in uniform” is coded as “or mu at”,new bank officer” is coded as “or bk na” and“systems in bank” is coded as “bk at ss”.

111. What does the cir Je “bk” stand for?(1) new (2) systems (3) officer(4) in (5) None of these

112. What will the code “ss mu” stand for?(1) banking officer (2) new uniform(3) uniform banking (4) in systems(5) uniform systems

113. How will “new officer” be coded ?(1) or na (2) tp na (3) na at

(4) tp or (5) ss at

114. How will “bank officer in uniform” be coded ?(1) ss ha at or (2) bk at or mu(3) ss na bk at (4) at muss or(5) bk ss mu na

115. What is the code for “in” ?(1) ss (2) or (3) at(4) mu (5) None of these

116-120. Each of the following questions below consists of aquestion and two statements numbered I and li givenbelow it. You have to decide whether the data provided inthe statements are sufficient to answer the question. Readboth the statements andGive answer (1) If the data in Statement I alone are

sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in statement II alone are notsufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) If the data in Statement II alone aresufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in statement I alone are notsufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) If the data in either Statement I alone orstatement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question.

Give answer (4) If the data in both the Statements I andII are not sufficient to answer thequestion.

Give answer (5) If the data in both the Statements I andII are together necessary to answer thequestion.

116. Consider three friends A, B and C and their professionsdoctor, architect and engineer (not necessarily in the sameorder). Who is a doctor amongst these three?I. B is an architect. A is not an engineer.II. Either A or B is a doctor. Either A or C is a doctor.

117. How many females are there in the family of four people(P, Q, R and S - consisting of a married couple and twochildren)?I. P is the father of S. S is the sister of Q.II. R is the mother of Q.

118. What “is the code for “writing paper” ?I. “Read a paper” is written as “817”. “Thinking andwriting” is coded as “624”.II. “Writing with pen” is written as “453”. “Paper andpen” is written as “723”.

119. A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a straight line facing North.Who sits third from right end of the line?I. A sits second to left of B. B sits second to left of C.II. B is an immediate neighbour of both E and D. Neither


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

E nor D sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

120. On which day of the same week is Neha’s birthday?(Monday being the first day of the week)?I. Ramesh correctly remembers that Neha’s birthday ison a day after Tuesday, but before Friday of the sameweek.II. Kiran correctly remembers that Neha’s birthday is ona day after Monday, but before Thursday of the sameweek.

121-125. Study the following information carefully and answerthe given questions.Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, W and X are sitting in a straightline facing North, not necessari!y in the same order.R sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.T has as many people sitting on his right, as to his left. :sits third to the left of X.Q sits to the immediate left of W.Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

121. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order fromright to left, the positions of how many people will remainunchanged?(1) Five (2) One (3) Three(4) None (5) Two

122. How many people sit to the right of P?(1) Four (2) Five (3) Two(4) One (5) None

123. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, basedon the information given above and so form a group. Whichis the one that does not belong to that group?(1) S (2) P (3) X(4) Q (5) W

124. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbours ofS?(1) T and R (2) Q and P (3) Wand R(4) R and P (5) None of these

125. Who amongst the following sits second to the right offourth person from the right end of the line?(1) W (2) Q (3) R(4) P (5) None of these

126-130. Study the following information carefully and answerthe given questions.Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around acircle (not necessarily in the same order) facing the centre.B sits third to left’ of F.E is an immediate neighbour of both B and H. Only oneperson sits between A and H.C and G are immediate neighbours of each other. NeitherC nor G is an immediate neighbour of B.

Only one person sits between C and D.

126. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour ofboth A and H?(1) F (2) B (3) G(4) D (5) C

127. F is related to D in a certain way based on the seatingpositions in the given arrangement. Similarly C is relatedto E in the same way. To whom amongst the following is Hrelated to following the same pattern?(1) G (2) A (3) F(4) C (5) B

128. Which of the following represents the correct position ofA?(1) Second to the left of H (2) Immediate left of C(3) Exactly between F and E (4) Second to the right of E(5) Third to the right of D

129. What is the position of D with respect to the position ofG?(1) Third to the left (2) Second to the right(3) Immediate right (4) Fourth to the left(5) Second to the left

130. Which of the following is true with respect to given seatingarrangement?(1) Only two people sit between D and B(2) A is an immediate neighbour of B(3) C sits third to left of H(4) Only one person sits between H and D(5) None is true

131-133. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way(based on the position of alphabets in the “Englishalphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is theone that does not belong to that group?

131. (1) KLNI (2) UVXS (3) CDFA(4) FGID (5) QROT

132. (1) ABCDEFGR (2) ABX(3) ABCDEU (4) ABCW(5) ABCDEFT

133. (1) DEI (2) FGM (3) BCE(4) IJR 5) EFK

134-138. In each question/ group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numberedI and II. You have to take the two/three given statementsto be true even if they seem to be at variance fromcommonly known facts and then decide which of the givenconclusions logically follows from the given statementsdisregarding commonly known facts.Give answer (1) if only conclusion I followsGive answer (2) if only conclusion II follows


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion IIfollowsGive answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion IIfollowsGive answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion IIfollow

134. Statements : No bank is a school.Some schools are colleges.

Conclusions : I. Some colleges are definitely notschools

II. All banks being colleges is apossibility

135. Statements : Some carts are trolleys.All baskets are trolleys.

Conclusions : I. Atleast some baskets are cartsII. All trolleys are baskets

136-137. Statements : All fruits are vegetables.All vegetables are plants.No plant is a root.

136. Conclusions : I. All fruits are plantsII. No root is a vegetable

137. Conclusions : I. No fruit is a rootII. Atleast some roots are vegetables

138. Statements : Some calculators are phones.No phone is an eraser.

Conclusions : I. No calculator is an eraserII Some calculators are definitely not

phones.

139-142. Read the following carefully and answer the questionswhich follow:P, Q, R, S, T and V live on different floors in the samebuilding having six floors numbered one to six (the groundfloor is numbered 1, the floor above it , number 2 and soon and the topmost floor is numbered 6).Q lives on an even numbered floor. Only two people livebetween the floors on which Q and V live. S lives on afloor immediately above the floor on which R lives. S doesnot live on an odd numbered floor. P does not live on afloor which is immediately above or immediately belowthe floor on which T lives. P does not live on the lowermostfloor i.e. floor no. 1.

139. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactlybetween the floors on which Q and V live?(1) R, S (2) P, R (3) S, T(4) P, T (5) Cannot be determined

140. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?(1) P (2) O (3) T(4) V (5) Cannot be determined

141. On which of the following floors does T live?(1) 3rd (2) 5th (3) 1st(4) 4th (5) Cannot be determined

142. How many people live on the floors above the floor onwhich P lives?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

143-145. Study the following information to answer the givenquestions:Each of the five friends, A, B, C, D and E scored, differentmarks in an examination. Maximum marks of theexamination are 100. B scored more than E but less than C.Only two people scored more than A. E did not score theminimum marks. The one who scored second highestmarks scored 87%. E scored 72% marks.

143. How many people scored more than E in the examination?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

144. Who amongst the following possibly scored 81 % marks?(1) C (2) D (3) B(4) A (5) Either C or B

145. Which of the following percentages may correctlyrepresent C’s percentage in the exam?(1) 65% (2) 74% (3) 87%(4) 83% (5) 89%

146-150. Study the following information to answer the givenquestions:Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containingfour people each, in such a way that there is an equaldistance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C andD are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) andall of them are facing South. In row-2 P, Q, R and S areseated (but not necessarily in. the same order)’ and all ofthem are facing North. Therefore; in the given seatingarrangement each member seated in a row faces’ anothermember of the other row.R sits second to left of the person who faces A. S is animmediate neighbour of R. Only one person sits betweenA and D. One of the immediate neighbours of C faces Q. Bdoes not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

146. Who amongst the following sits second to the right ofthe person who faces P?(1) A (2) B (3) C(4) D (5) Cannot be determined

147. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way basedon the given seating arrangement and thus form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?(1) C (2) R (3) Q(4) P (5) D


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

148. Which of the following is true regarding C?(1) C sits second to right of D(2) A sits to immediate right of C(3) S faces C(4) D is an immediate neighbour of C(5) The person who faces C is an immediate neighbour ofR

149. Who amongst the following faces R?(1) A (2) B (3) C(4) D (5) Cannot be determined

150. Who amongst the following faces B?(1) P (2) Q (3) R(4) S (5) Cannot be determined

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 201 5 2 3 2 5 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 3 221 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 404 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 5 4 3 2 3 5 4 5 3 1 5 241 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 502 5 4 1 1 1 5 1 5 4

SECTION – I (ENGLISH LANGUAGE)

Test Model IDBI Evening PaperAnswer Keys

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 703 1 4 2 2 5 5 4 5 5 2 2 1 5 4 4 2 1 3 371 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 905 5 3 4 1 5 1 2 5 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 4 3 5 5

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 1003 3 5 4 2 2 2 4 5 1

SECTION – II (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE)

101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 1202 1 2 3 4 2 4 4 1 1 5 5 1 2 3 1 4 5 3 52121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 1402 1 4 2 1 1 2 3 5 4 1 5 5 4 5 1 4 1 4

141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 1503 1 4 4 5 2 3 2 4 4

SECTION – III (REASONING ABILITY)


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

AAO Exam Paper(Based on Memory)

TEST - IREASONING ABILITY

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5): Answer these questions by referringto the symbol-letter-number sequence given below:

E G 4 B H 75 % K 8 D N ÷ Q Z × W 3 C 19 = L B 2 S 6

1. How many such digits are there in the above sequencewhich are immediately preceded as well as followed bydigits?(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None

2. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of thenineteenth element from the right end?(1) N (2) ÷ (3) Z (4) ×

3. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in thefollowing sequence?(1) % 8 N (2) × W 9 (3) Z W 1 (4) N Q ×

4. If the first fifteen element are written in the reverse orderthen which of the following will be seventh to the left oftwelfth element from the right end?(1) K (2) 5 (3) % (4)

5. How many such consonants are there in the abovesequence which are immediately preceded by a symboland immediately followed by a digit?(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None

6. If it is possible to make a number which is the square of atwo digit odd number using the second fourth and thesixth digits of the number 93217648 and using each onlyonce which, of the following is that two digit odd number?(1) B (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 19

7. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number95137248 each of which has as many digits between themin the number as when they are arranged in ascendingorder?(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None

8. The following numbers were rewritten after subtracting 2from the middle digit of each of these numbers and thenarranging in descending order. What would be the middledigit of the newly formed-fourth number from the top?538, 642, 756, 963, 387, 574, 791(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

9. In the following number series how many such 9’s arethere which are immediately preceded by a pair of digitswhose product is more than the product of pair of digitsimmediately following 9?

6 5 9 4 7 9 4 2 8 9 5 3 2 9 8 1 5 6 9 8 4 5 7 1 2 9 3 0 9 7 3 9 3 26 9 5 2(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven

10. A person has nineteen coins of 20 paise, 25 paise and 50paise worth Rs. 5. The number of 25 paise coins is doubleof 50 paise coins. How many 20 paise coins does theperson have?(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 11

Direction (Q. Nos. 11-15): In these questions symbols and x areused with different meanings as follows:

‘A + B’ means ‘A is not greater than B;‘A - B’ means ‘A is neither greater nor smaller than B;‘A = B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B;‘A = B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to Q;and‘A × B’ Means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B;

In each of the following questions assuming the givenstatements to be true find out which of the two conclusions Iand II given below them, is/are, definitely true.Give Answers:

(I) If only conclusion I is true.(2) If only conclusion II is true.(3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.(4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

11. Statements: K + P, P × T, T = LConclusion: I. K + L

II. T ÷ K.

12. Statements: P × Q, Q + R, R÷ WConclusions: I. P + R

II. Q + W

13. Statements: F = G, G - M, M + VConclusion: I. V ÷ M

II. V - M

14. Statement: F = W, W - T, T ÷ KConclusion: I: F ÷ K

II. W = K

15. Statements: R = S, S - P, P ÷ FConclusions: I. F = S

II. F × S

Direction (Q. No. 16-20): In these questions, statements 1 and2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements tobe true, although they may appear at variance with commonlyaccepted facts, mark your answer as under:

(1) Only I follows from the statements.(2) Only IF follows from the statements.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(3) Both I and II are right.(4) Both I and II are wrong.

16. Statements: 1. Some verses are stories.2. Some stories are dramas.

Conclusions: I. Every drama is either story or verse.II. Some dramas are verses.

17. Statements: l. Every chair is either glass or plate.2. Some plates are transparent.

Conclusions: I. Some chairs are transparentII. No plat is glass.

18. Statements 1. Mangoes are sweeter than bananas butnot as sweet as lemons.

2. Oranges are not as sweet as mangoesbut are sweeter than bananas.

Conclusions: I. Bananas are the least sweet.II. Lemons are the sweetest.

19. Statements: 1. Some soldiers are short.2. All short people are fair.

Conclusions: I. Some soldiers are fair.II. No tall soldier is fair.

20. Statements: 1. All buildings are shorter than trees.2. All trees are taller than mountains.

Conclusions: I. Buildings are taller than mountains.II. Buildings are shorter than mountains.

Direction (Q. Nos. 21-25) : In an International JewelleryExhibition there were eight exhibit halls named as Hall A, B, C,D, E, F, G and H. No visitor was allowed to visit any exhibit hallfor more than on hour. If a visitor wanted to visit more than oneexhibit hall he/she had to come back to the security officer toget a fresh visitor’s pass by surrendering; the earlier hall’s pass.Every hour, the security officer generated seven passwords forall the exhibit halls by choosing a set of seven words, whichwas used for exhibit Hall A, which was reception-cum-visitorshall. Following was an illustration of generation of sevenpasswords for each hall.Exhibition Hall A

tick mick sick free tree fro crowExhibition Hall B

crow sick mick free tree fro tickExhibition Hall C

sick crow free mick tree tick froExhibition Hall D

fro free crow mick tree tick sickExhibition Hall E

free fro mick crow tree sick tickand so on till exhibition Hall H.

21. A visitor was given a password ‘fro way le am meat sricue’. If at that time the password for Exhibit Hall A was ‘sriam cue way meat fro le’, which of the following exhibit

Halls the visitor wanted to visit ?(1) C (2) D (3) E (4) F

22. A visitor for Exhibition Hall H had the password ‘rye fuche it can si pecha’. What was password for Exhibit Hall Aat that time? (1) rye fu si pecha che can it(2) che pecha rye si can it fu(3) pccha chc fu it can si rye(4) fu rye pecha si can it. che

23. A visitor wanted to visit Exhibit Hall F but he was wronglygiven password for Exhibition D, ‘ear two it rye sit he wu’.What would be his correct password for Exhibition Hall F,if hourly password, remained the same?(1) he rye ear it sit wu two r(2) wu it two rye sit he ear(3) rye he it ear sit two wu(4) two ear rye it sit wu he

24. A visitor visited Exhibit Hall B in the first fifteen minutesof a new hourly code and, wanted to visit Exhibition HallF. If his password for exhibit Hall B was ‘ne mew fu sixalso bet ga’. What would be his password for Exhibit HallF?(1) fu ga ne bet six also mew(2) six fu bet ga ne also mew(3) ga fu bet ne, also mew six(4) six bet fu also mew ga ne

25. A visitor was given a pass word, ‘cue le way am meat srifro’ for Exhibit Hall C. He wanted to visit Exhibit Hall Gimmediately after Exhibit Hall C. What would be hispassword for Exhibit Hall G?(1) am sri le fro meat way cue(2) le cue am way meat fro sri(3) way fro am le meat cue sri(4) sri am fro le -meat cue way

Direction (Q. Nos. 26-30): In each question given below is astatement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and Ill.An’ assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.You have to consider the statement and the assumptions andthen decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the-statement. Then decide which of the answers is correct.

26. Statement:A State that mainly depends on agriculture, has announceda drastic cut in irrigation rates.AssumptionI. The State has no dearth of water resources.II. The State has and good rains this year.III. This cut would result in more crops.(1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II is implicit.(3) Only III is implicit. (4) Only I and II are implicit.


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

27. Statement:The general public-in these days hesitates in investingtheir money in shares and debentures.AssumptionsI. People in general are short of money these days.II. Too many scandals and other irregularities in this areahave affected the public’s faith. III. All prices are falling ata tremendous rate.(1) Only I follows. (2) Only II follows.(3) Only III follows. (4) Only I and II follow.

28. Statements:Crores of rupees were spent during the marriage of a C.M.’sson.Assumptions:I: The C.M. is an extremely rich person.II. The money spent in the marriage was received by theC.M. from the girl’s parents as dowry.III. The figure given is only an exaggeration.(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows.(3) Only III follows (4) All the three follow

29. Statement:Whenever ‘any big city is flooded, the jhuggi jhopridwellers are affected the most.AssumptionsI.There is no proper drainage in the areas inhabited bythem.II. They make their colonies anywhere without realizingthe drawbacks.III. They make their homes mostly in low-lying areas.(1) Only I is implicit (2) Only II is implicit(3) Only II and III are implicit (4) All are implicit

30. Statement:Government offices cannot make any purchases withoutInviting tenders.AssumptionsI. Government officials are not honest.II. Other departments do not invite tenders.III. Government offices have to follow certain rules wherepurchase is concerned.(1) Only I is implicit.(2) Only II is implicit.(3) Only III is implicit.(4) Only II and III are implicit.

Direction (Q. Nos. 31-34): Read the following information toanswer the questions given below the information.Four men, A, B, C and D, teacher, musician; advocate andengineer by profession, accompanied their children to a movie.Each person was with one child only.

D and B came with their sons and they were not engineeror teacher.

P a sweet little girl was not the engineer’s daughter.Q was not B’s, son.R’s father was not an advocate.S was not C’s daughter.

31. The teacher’s child is (1) S (2) P (3) Q (4) R

32. If R and Q are cousins which two men are brothers?(1) A and C (2) A and D(3) B and C (4) B and D T

33. Who is S’s father and what is he?(1) A, Engineer (2) D, Advocate(3) A, Teacher (4) B, Musician

34. Who is Q’s father and what is he?(1) D, Teacher (2) A, Teacher(3) C, Advocate (4) D, Advocate

Direction (Q: Nos. 35-38) : Read the following information toanswer the question given below it.

There are five Air Flights P, Q, R, S and T that are availabebetween following cities :Delhi and KolkataGuwahati and DelhiKolkata and BhubaneshwarBhubaneshwar and DelhiKolkata ‘and GuwahatiFlights P and S do not go to Delhi; Q and R do not go toGuwaahati, and R and S do not touch Bhubaneshwar.

35. Which flight is available between Guwahati and Kolkala?(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

36: If a person wanted to go from Bhubaneshwar to Gauwahativia Kolkata, he would have to trtavel by(1) 1' and Q (2) P and S (3) Q and T (4) T and S

37. Flight ‘C goes from .................... and vice versa.(1) Kolkata to Gauwahati(2) Delhi to Bhubaneshwar(3) Delhi to Gauwahati(4) Bhubaneshwar to Kolkata

38. From which common city Flights P and Q take off?(1) Delhi (2) Bhubaneshwar(3) kolkata (4) Gauwahati

39. Some of the letters in the series given below are missing.These are given in that order in one of the alternative.Choose that alternative.P – r q – s – q t – p – p q(1) p q q p s (2) q p q p r(3) q p p q u (4) p p q q t

40. A man and a woman are sitting in a room. Man’s mother-in-law and woman’s mother-in-law are mother and


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

daughter. Man is woman’s(1) Father (2) Father-in-law(3) Uncle (4) Grand father-in-law

Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : What will complete the series givenin : the following questions ?

41. (1, 2,3), (2…..?....,….?....), (5,26,101), (26,677,10202)(1) 3, 4 (2) 4, 6 (3) 5, 10 (4) 6, 9

42. A15

, 21G

, N28

,

(1) A15

(2) 31W

(3) 35U

(4) 36V

43. 30, 68, 130, 222, ?..., 520(1) 322 (2) 350 (3) 380 (4) 444

44. 0, 4, 18, 48, 100 ...?(1) 164 (2) 180 (3) 224 (4) 260

45. 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ...?(1) 375 (2) 415 (3) 435 (4) 455

46. Which of thefollowing word pairs (letter combinations)is not related in the same way as ‘Returnable’ and ‘Natural’?(1) Reciprocal and Oracle(2) Departmental and Moderate(3) Evaluation and Violet(4) Reconstruct and Counter

47. Which of the following word pairs (letter combinations)is related in the same way as ‘Insurance’ and ‘Measure’?(1) Scavenge and Average (2) Umbrella and Lumber(3) Technique and Queen (4) Variability and Thrive

48. Face is related to Nose in the same way as Furniture isrelated to(1) Wood (2) Tree (3) Radio (4) Chair

49. Sea is related to Cyclones in the same way as Sky is relatedto(1) Wind (2) Airplanes (3) Clouds (4) Blue

50. Illness is related to Virus in the same way Debris is relatedto(1) Sand (2) Waste(3) Building (4) Demolition

Direction : (Q: Nos. 51-55) : In each of the following questionsthree out of the four terms marked ( 1), (2), (3) and (4) are identicalin some way and one is different from the rest. Identify the termwhich is different or odd. .

51. (1) HU (2) GV (3) KR (4) FT

52. (1) VTOJE (2) USNID(3) UPKEA (4) OMTDB

53. (1) HS (2) LP (3) RI (4) PK

54. (1) JOT (2) OUT (3) FED (4) DIN

55. (1) RNJH (2) QMIE (3) MIEA (4) SOKG

Direction (Q. Nos. 56-60): These questions are based on codelanguage which utilizes letters in English alphabet. In eachquestion there is a word written in capital letters, with one letterunderlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written insmall letters. That code is denoted by l, 2, 3, or 4, though not insame order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlinedletter in the word. The number of that code: is the answer. Pleasenote that the same letter appearing in different word(s) may bedifferently coded.

56. JURY(1) b (2) q (3) g (4) x

57. PERK(1) pu (2) in (3) ns (4) eh

58. TRUE(1) w (2) g (3) r (4) p

59. MOCK(1) fx (2) np (3) ol (4) pn

60. DENY(1) d (2) x (3) j (4) n

TEST-IIENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65): Read the following passage and,answer the questions given after it.

The single business of Henry Thoreau, during forty oddyears of eager activity, was to discover an economycalculated to provide a satisfying life. His one concern,that gave to his ramblins in Concord fields a value of highadventure, was to explore the true meaning of wealth. Ashe understood the problem of economics, there were threepossible solutions open to him; to exploit, himself, toexploit his fellows, or to reduce the problem to its lowestdenominator. The first was quite impossible - to imprisononeself in a treadmill when the morning called to greatadventure. To exploit one’s fellows seemed to Thoreau’ssensitive social conscience an even greater infidelity.Freedom with abstinence seemed to him better thanserfdom with material well-being and he was content tomove to Walden Pond and set about the high business ofliving, “to front only the essential facts of life and to seewhat it had to reach”. He did not advocate that other manshould build cabins and live isolated. He had no wish todogmatize concerning the best mode of living each must


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

settle that for himself. But that a satisfying life should belived, he was vitally concerned. The story of hisemancipation from the lower economics is the one romanceof his life, and Walden is his great book. It is a book inpraise of life rather than of Nature, a record of calculatingeconomics that studied saving in order to spend morelargely. But it is. a book of social criticism as well, in spiteof its explicit denial of such a purpose. In considering thetrue nature of economy he concluded; with Ruskin thatthe cost of a thing is the amount of life which is requiredto exchange for it, immediately or in the long run. In WaldenThoreau elaborated the text. “The only wealth in life”.

61. The author’s primary purpose in this passage is to(1) Discuss and assess economic problems(2) describe ‘Thoreau’s philosophy of life(3) prove that Walden was ’Thoreau’s greatest book(4) Evaluate life at Walden Pond

62. On the basis of the passage, Thoreau was all of thefollowing EXCEPT(1) Liberated (2) dogmatic (3) energetic (4) critical

63. It can be inferred that the author thinks of ’Thoreau’semancipation from the lower economics’ as romancebecause it(1) Entailed social criticism(2) was an adventure story(3) Was embodied in Thoreau’s greatest book(4) wholly captured Thoreau’s imagination

64. It can be inferred from the passage that Thoreau believedthe wealth of an individual is measured by(1) The money he or she makes(2) the experience he or she gains(3) His or her good deeds(4) the amount he or she saves

65. The author’s tone in speaking about Thoreau is(1) Ironic (2) critical(3) indifferent (4) admiring

Direction (Q. Nos. 66-70): In each of the following sentencesfour words or phrases have been underlined. One underlinedpart in each sentence is not acceptable in Standard English.Pick up that part and mark its number.

66. Being that my car, is getting its annual check up. I will not (1) (2) (3)be able to pick you up tomorrow morning. (4)

67. We can’t hardly believe that the situation is so serious as (1) (2)to justify such precautions as you have taken. (3) (4)

68. No one except he knew which questions were going to be (1) (2) (3) (4)asked in this test.

69. Despite of the pills which are available, many people still (1) (2) (3)have trouble sleeping.

(4)

70. He is not the kind of a person who takes such a treatment (1) (2) (3) (4)

lying down.

Direction (Q. Nos. 71-75): Fill in- the .blanks with appropriatewords.

71. There is no culture in the world ............. absolutely pure.(1) That which is (2) that which(3) that is (4) that what is

72. He took up the letter from the table and ......... it to hisfriend.(1) Was reading (2) has been reading(3) had read (4) read

73. He led me .......... the green laws to the palatial building.1) Upon (2) across (3) along (4) about

74: The ship with all its crew........lost after the terrible storm.(1) Were (2) has (3) have (4) was

71-3. We ........start now to work for our examination.(1) Had better (2) better(3) has better (4) are better

Direction (Q. Nos. 76-80): In the following questions choosethe alternative which best expresses the meaning of the givenword.

76. DEMISE(1) Sorrow (2) birth(3) death (4) anniversary

77. PROXIMITY(l) Nearness (2) aloofness(3) complete (4) responsibility

78. MOTIVE(l) Sorrow (2) design (3) desire (4) hunger

79. DILEMMA(1) Fear (2) price (3) condition (4) fl x

80. COARSE(1) Dull (2) broad (3) rough (4) modest

Direction (Q. Nos. 81-85): In the following questions, fill in theblanks with the appropriate phrase.

81. The lease of our premises has .... and we have to vacate it.(1) Run out (2) run off


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(3)) run over (4) run down

82. His boss .......... an explanation of his conduct with hiscolleagues.(1) Called Lip (2) called upon(3) called for (4) called off

83. He ........his departure for a week as his mother was notwell.(1) Put off (2) put up (3) put out (4) put aside

84. His friends ...........to him for guidance in financial matters.(1) Look on (2) look up(3) look ‘at (4) look down

85. He .......... to be sharper than all his brothers and sisters.(1) turned off (2) turned down(3) turned up (4) turned out

Direction (Q. Nos. 86-90): In the following questions choosethe alternative which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

86. FERTILE(l) Useful (2) gloomy (3) isolated (4) barren

87. ERRATIC(1) Predictable (2) dominant(3) peaceful (4) holy

88. MENIAL(1) Feminine (2) physical (3) dignified (4) artificial

89. PARDON(1) Separate (2) blame (3) pursue (4) commit

90: HESTTATE(1) Dishearten (2) reprove(3) decide (4) stumble

Direction (Q. Nos. 91-100): In the following passage, some ofthe words have been left out. Read the passage carefully andtry to understand what is it about. Then fill in the blanks withthe alternatives given below the passage.

As many as nine out of ten dieters needn’t have bothereddieting at all as they put back the weight they lose; andup to half end up weighing even .....91.....than they didbefore. Most of these people ....92..... their, problem as apersonal failure-they. think ....93.... should have been .morestrong-minded.. This is a fallacy, however, for .....94.... isgrowing evidence that many dieters get locked ....95..... alosing battle with their own bodies, which .....96..... likemad to resist the starvation process. There is also a.....97..,.... reasons to believe that dieting may be bad ...98....you-particularly if it leads to regular fluctuations in.....99...... These days, disillusioned dieters are advised bymore and more.....100.... to throw away their scales andcalorie counters and come to terms with their physicalappearance.

91. (1) more (2) less (3) lesser (4) much

92. (1) look (2) see (3) find (4) think

93. (1) those (2) these (3) we (4) they

94. (1) this- (2) their (3) there (4) it

95. (1) into (2) to (3) with (4) about

96. (1) quarrel (2) battle (3) fight (4) resist

97. (1) better (2) good (3) logical (4) scientific

98. (1) on (2) with (3) to (4) for

99. (1) diet (2) weight (3) strength (4) food

100. (1) experts (2) scientists (3) people (4) teachers

TEST-IIIGENERAL AWARENESS

101. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar Indiahas been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000MW by the end of(1) 13th Plan (2) 14th Plan(3) 15th Plan (4) 16th Plan

102. Bollywood actors who, on February 2, 2010 rang bells inNASDAQ on Times Square, New York. - an honour usuallyreserved for CEOs of major corporations, are(1) Amir Khan and Priyanka Chopra(2) Shah Rukh Khan and Kajol(3) Abhishek Bachchan and Aswarya(4) Saif Ali Khan and Kareena Kapoor

103. The term ‘16 yards hit’ is associated with(1) Badminton (2) Baseball(3) Polo (4) Hockey

104. The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is(1) Platelets (2) Haemoglobin(3) Plasma (4) Serum

105. Which of the following animals can hear ultrasonic sound?(1) Cat (2) Rat (3) Bat (4) Squirrel

106. The acid rain destroys vegetations because it contains(1) Sulphuric acid (2) Ozone(3) Carbon monoxide (4) Nitric acid

107. Man Booker Prize winner Ms. Kiran Desai’s novel, ‘TheInheritance of Loss’ deals with(1) Telangana movement (2) Santhal movement(3) Gorkhaland movement (4) Bodoland movement

108. GARC is the acronym for(1) Global Automotive Research Consortium(2) Global Atomic Research Consortium


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

(3) Global Automotive Research Centre(4) Global Advancement Research Centre

109. The largest fresh water lake, ‘Lake Superior’ is located in(1) Canada (2) Russia(3) Tanzania (4) Argentina

110. In which State of India is the largest river island Majuli?(1) Assam (2) Kolkata(3) Orissa (4) Madhya Pradesh

111. Match the following:A. Berlin, Germany (a) DanubeB. Ankara, Turkey (b) KizilC. Bristol, UK (c) SpreeD. Budapest, Hungary (d) Avon(1) A (b), B (a), C (d), D (c) (2) A (d), B (c), C (a), D (b)(3) A (a), B (d), C (b), D (c) (4) A (c), B (b), C (d), D (a)

112. Government’s ambitious UID Project has been renamed(1) Parichaya (2) Pahchan (3) Aadhar (4) Aanklan

113. Who is the author of the book ‘Speaking for Myself’?(l) Salman Rushdie (2) Cherie Blair(3) Mohanomad Hanif (4) Hillary Clinton

114. The name of India’s first home-built stealth warship whosefeatures reduce the probability of being detected at sea is(1) Sahyadiri (2) Satpura (3) Shivalik (4) Shivaji

115. Which country will host the 17th SAARC summit?(1) Bangladesh (2) Nepal(3) Shri Lanka (4) Maldives

116. India’s Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is seated at the............. spot in the leaders’ list of 100 most influentialpersons of the world released by the famous TimeMagazine recently.(1) 15 (2) 19 (3) 23 (4) 27

117. The Islam was established in(1) 5th A.D. (2) 7th A.D. (3) 3rd B.C. (4) 5th B.C.

118. Which part of the human body is highly affected by thenuclear radiation first?(1) Bone marrow (2) Skin(3) Lungs (4) Eyes

119. Who invented the video tape?(1) Charles Ginsberg (2) Georges de Mestral(3) Richard James (4) P:T: Farnsworth

120. Math the following:A. NH- 1 (a) Varanasi - KanyakumariB. NI-I-3 (b) Kolkata - ChennaiC. NH-.5 (c) New Delhi - AmritsarD. NI-I-7 (d) Agra - Mumbai(1) A-(b), B-(a), C-(d), D-(c)(2,) A-(c), B-(d), C-(b), D-(a)

(3) A-(d), B-(c), C-(a)> D-(b)(4) A-(a), B-(c), C-(d), D-(b)

TEST-IVNUMERICAL ABILITY/DATA

INTERPRETATION

Direction (Q. Nos. 121-124): The following table gives zonewise survey report of the people of a country who drink tea.Read the table and answer the questions.Drink Tea North East West South Total

Zone Zone Zone ZoneMore than 3 times a day 410 310 700 1450 28701 to 3 times a day 1220 830 1250 1120 4420Twice a week 1640 710 950 420 3720Only once a week 620 540 530 350 2040Never 950 430 620 50 2050

121. The total -number of people surveyed is(1) 13060 (2) 15000 (3) 15100 (4) 16200

122. What percentage of people of South Zone drinks tea atleast once a day?(1) 33.5 (2) 42.7 (3) 75.8 (4) 80.8

123. The ratio of the number of people who drink tea more than3 times a day to the number who do not drink tea at all is(1) 1.4: 1 (2) 1: 1.4 (3) 1.5: 1 (4) 1: 1.1

124. The percentage of people from Non-West Zone who taketea only once a week, is approximately(1) 10.5 (2) 11 (3) 12.5 (4) 14

125. 347833 +++− is equal to

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 3 3

126. For numbers a, b and c, define [a, b, c] by [a, b, c] = (a + b)÷ c. Then the value of [[30, 60, 90], [1, 2; 3], [5, 10, 15] is(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 5

127. The following addition is incorrect 742586+ 829430 1212016

This can be made correct by changing one digit d,wherever it occurs, to another digit e. The value of d + ewill be(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9

128. The number (332-1) is exactly divisible by two numbersbetween 75 and 85. The product of these two numbers is(1) 6399 (2) 7308 (3) 6480 (4) 6560


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

129. The value of 4 ÷ )139( 33 ++ is(1) 1+33/1 (2) 1+31/3 (3) 1-32/3 (4) 1-31/3

130. ⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ − 22222 20

1119

11....411

311

211 is

equal to(1) 0.522 (2) 0.552 (3) 0.525 (4) 0.555

131.

3/2

832

721

)331.1(.....)331.1()331.1()331.1(....)331.1()331.1(

⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡

++++++

−−−

−−−

is equal-

to(1) (1.33 -1)-2 (2) 1.331 (3) (1.1)-2 (4) 1.21

132. Suppose that 4a = 5, 5b = 6, 6c =7 and 7d = 8. The value ofthe product a.b.c.d will be(1) 1 (2) 1.5 (3) 3 (4) 4.5

133. The units digit of the number (2137)753 is(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 9

134. When the number 398 is divided by 5, the remainder is(l) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

135. The number of digits in 416 × 525 is(1) 31 (2) 29 (3) 28 (4) 27

136. A 3 digit number 4a3 is added to another 3 digit number984 to give the 4 digit number 13b7, which is divisible by11. The value of 3a + 4b is(1) 31 (2) 35 (3) 37 (4) 39

137. On dividing a number by 4, the remainder is 2. The quotientso obtained when divided by 5, leaves the remainder 3now the quotient so obtained when divided by 6, leavesthe remainder 5. The last quotient is 7. The number was(l) 962 (2) 954 (3) 946 (4) 938

138. Four natural numbers when added three at a time give thesums 180, 197, 208 and 222. The mean of the numbers is

(1) 89 32

(2) 80 87

(3) 67 21

(4) 67 41

139. A sum of Rs. 14,500 is divided among X, Y, Z and W such

that X and Y’s joint share is 1811

of Z and. W’s joint share.

X receives Rs. 1500 and Y receives 74

as much as Z. W’s

share will be(1) Rs. 2,000 (2) Rs. 3,000(3) Rs. 4,000 (4) Rs. 7,000

140. Right now two clocks show the same time. The first clock

loses 3.4. Seconds every hour and, the second gains 2.6seconds every hour. After how many hours will the clocksagain show the same time?(1) 6300 (2) 7200 (3) 9000 (4) 12600

141. A vessel contains a mixture of acid and water in whichacid is 36%. 4 litres of mixture is taken out of the vesseland is replaced by the same quantity of water. If thepresent percentage of acid is 30%, the: quantity of mixture(in litres) in the beginning was (1) 30 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 18

142. The price of a pen is 2.5 times that of a pencil. A personordered for 6 pens and some pencils. While preparing thebill, the number of both items interchanged whichincreased the bill by 45%. The number of pencils in theorder was (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 18

143. The current of a stream runs at the speed of 4 km/hour. Aboat goes upstream 6 km and comes back to the startingpoint in 2 hours. The time (in hours) taken by the boat forgoing upstream is

(1) 1 (2) 1 51

(3) 1 41

(4) 1 21

144. The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to itslength and inversely proportional to the square of itsradius. Two wires of the same materials have the sameresistance and their radii are in the ratio of 9:8. If the lengthof first wire is 162 cm, the length of the other wire (in cm)is(1) 81 (2) 64 (3) 128 (4) 144

145. A person wants to invest Rs. 1, 40,000 in two types ofbonds say A and B. The annual return on bond A is 12%and on bond B, 16%. One of the conditions requires thatinvestment in bond B cannot be more than 40% of theinvestment in bond A. The maximum (in Rupees) returnhe can get per year is(1) 13,800 (2) 19,040 (3) 22,400 (4) 23,800

146. The parallel sides of a field which is in the shape of atrapezium are 20 m and 41 m and the remaining- sides areof lengths 10 m and 17 m. The area of the field (in m2) is(1) 366 (2) 305 (3) 244 (4) 193

147. A and B travel around a circular park at uniform speeds inopposite directions, starting from diametrically oppositepoints. They start at the same time. They meet first after Bhas travelled 100 m and meet again 60 m before A completesone round. Circumference of the park (in metre) is(1) 240 (2) 360 (3) 420 (4) 480

148. A pipe can fill a water tank in 5 hours but due to a leak inits bottom, it takes 30 minutes longer to fill it. If the tank is


COMPETITIVE ZEAL

full and the filling pipe is turned off, the time (in hours) inwhich the tank will be empty due to the leakage is(1) 55 (2) 44 (3) 272 (4) 22

149. A right circular cone of volume A, a right circular cylinderof volume M and a sphere of volume C, all have sameradius, and the height of each of the, cone and cylinder isequal to the diameter of the sphere. Then

(1) A – M + C = 0 (2) A + M = C(3) 2 A = M + C (4) A2- M2 + C = 0

150. An equilateral triangle is inscribed inside a circle andsecond circle is inscribed inside the equilateral triangle.The ratio of area of the first circle to the area of the secondcircle is(1) 3: 1 (2) 4: 1 (3) .6: 1 (4) 2: 1

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 204 4 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 1 421 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 402 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 3 2 3 241 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 603 1 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 3

SECTION – I (REASONING ABILITY)

AAO Exam Evening PaperAnswer Keys

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 801 2 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 1 3 1 381 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 1001 3 1 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 2 3

SECTION – II (ENGLISH LANGUAGE)

101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 1201 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 2

SECTION – III (GENERAL AWARENESS)

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 1403 3 1 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 2 4 1 2141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 1502 3 4 3 2 3 4 1 1 2

SECTION – IV (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE)

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