47639096 Asnt Level III General Ndt

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Lavender International Online Assessments: General Familiarity: Module 5-1:

General Familiarity with Other NDT Methods (At Level 2)

Radiographic Testing

© Copyright 2000. Lavender International Online Assessments are copyrighted and may only be used for personal use. Your use of the asessments signifies your acknowledgement of this fact and full understanding of the website Terms and Conditions.

1. The latent image is a shadow of a specimen?

After development

Before development

Both of the above

Neither of the above

2. Frequency is measured in what?

Kilovoltage from x-ray tube

MA Current

Intensity

Cycles per second

3. Which of the following will reduce inherent unsharpness?

SFD

Source size

Both of the above

Neither of the above

4. Which of the following give an atom its atomic number (Z)?

Neutrons

Protons

Electrons

Photons

5. Small grain will give good what?

Definition

Contrast

Both definition and contrast

Faster film

6. Radiographic sensitivity is made mostly up of?

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Page 1 of 4Lavender International: General Assessments: Module 5-1

9/18/2001http://www.lavender-ndt.com/assessments/general/module5-1.html






Ultrasonic Testing


1. Which of the following is a reference reflector that is not dependent on beam angle?

A flat bottomed hole

A vee notch

A side drilled hole which is parallel to the plate surface and perpendicular to the sound path

A disc shaped laminar reflector

2. Where does beam divergence occur?

Near field

Far field

At the crystal

None of the above

3. On a scan display the dead zone refers to?

The distance contained within the near field

The area outside the beam spread

The distance covered by the front surface pulse width and recovery time

The area between the near field and far field

4. Which of the following modes of vibration exhibits the shortest wavelength at a given frequency and in a given material?

Longitudinal wave

Compression wave

Shear wave

Surface wave

5. Look at diagram one at the foot of the page which illustrates four waves. Wave A strikes the surface of the specimen and produces waves B, C and D. The incident angle is?

Angle A

Angle B

Angle C

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Angle D

6. Diagram two at the foot of the page illustrates four waves. Wave A strikes the surface of the spcimen and produces waves B, C and D. The refraction angle is?

Angle A

Angle B

Angle C

Angle D

7. In which zone does the amplitude of an indication from a given discontinuity diminsh exponentially as the distance increases?

Far field zone

Near field zone

Dead zone

Fresnel zone

8. Rayleigh waves are influenced most by defects located?

One wavelength below the surface

Six wavelengths below the surface

Close to or on the surface

Three wavelengths below the surface

9. Of the following sound waves modes one has multiple or varying wave velocities?

Longitudinal waves

Shear waves

Transverse waves

Lamb waves

10. Transducers used in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of the following effects?

Ferromagnetic

Piezoelectric

Electromechanical

Hyperacoustic

11. Of an a-scan display what represents the intensity of the refelected beam?

Echo pulse width

Horizontal screen location

Signal brightness

Signal amplitude

12. A short burst of alternating energy is called?

A continuous wave

A peaked dc voltage

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An ultrasonic wave

A pulse

13. Attenuation is a difficult quantity to measure accurately particularly in solid materials at the test frequencies normally used. The overall result observed includes other loss mechanisms which can include?

Beam spread

Couplant mismatch

Test piece geometry

All of the above

14. The simple experiment where a stick in a glass of water appears disjointed at the water ?

Reflection

Magnification

Refraction

Diffraction

15. The ratio of the velocity of sound in water compared to that for aluminium or steel is approxiamtely?

1:4

1:2

1:8

1:3

16. Which of the following cannot be considered as a coupling agent?

Greece

Water

Air

Glycerine

17. The speed with which ultrasonic waves travel through a material is known as its?

Velocity of sound energy

Pulse repetition rate of sound energy

Pulse recovery rate of sound energy

Ultrasonic response of sound energy

18. A testing technique in which the crystal or transducer is parallel to the surface and ultransonic waves enter the material being tested in a direction perpendicular to the test surface is?

Straight beam testing

Angle beam testing

Surface wave testing

None of the above

19. The total energy losses occuring in all materials is called?

Attenuation

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Scatter

Surface wave testing

None of the above

20. Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represents a mode?

Longitudinal mode

Shear wave

Surface wave

All of the above

> Check Your Answers

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Diagram One for Question Five Diagram Two for Question Six

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Here are the corrections:

1. A side drilled hole which is parallel to the plate surface and perpendicular to the sound path 2. Far field 3. The distance covered by the front surface pulse width and recovery time 4. Surface wave 5. Angle D 6. Angle A 7. Far field zone 8. Close to or on the surface 9. Lamb waves 10. Piezoelectric 11. Signal amplitude 12. A pulse 13. All of the above 14. Refraction 15. 1:4 16. Air 17. Velocity of sound energy 18. Straight beam testing 19. Attenuation 20. All of the above

Contrast

Definition

Density

Both contrast and definition

7. When isotopes are made artificially by nuclear fission they are bombarded with neutrons. This process is called?

Nuclear fusion

Atomic bonding

Neutron radiography

Activation

8. One curie equals?

37 x 10 -10

37 x 9 10

37 x 9 9

None of the above

9. X -rays intensity is determined by current (milliamps) applied to the object called?

Widow

Focal spot

Actual focal spot

Filament tube

10. High latitude will have a?

High contrast

Low contrast

Low definition

High definition

11. TLD stands for?

Total limited dosemeter

Thermo luminescent dosemeter

True limit doemeter

None of the above

12. The developer is a solution of what?

Acetone

Acid

Alkaline

Water

13. Always use lead screens above what KV?

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100 KV

110 KV

120 KV

150 KV

14. When using x-rays or gamma rays which of the following is not correct?

They travel in straight lines and obey the inverse square law

They travel at the speed of light with constant amplitude

They effect photographic emissions

They have a low wavelength and low frequency

15. Coarse grain and wide latitude mean?

Very slow film

Slow film

Medium film

Fast film

16. Which of the following when in contact with ionising radiation produces visible fluroescence?

Calcium tungstate

Silver bromide

Zinc fluoride

Sodium carbonate

17. The focusing cup is part of which of the following?

Anode

Target

Cathode

Filament

18. Which of the following will affect subject contrast?

Film contrast

Development time

Radiation energy

All the above

19. How may geometric unsharpness be improved (reduced)?

Increase focal spot size

Increase object to film distance

Increase source to object distance

Used faster speed film

20. Which of the following is the more penetrative radiation?

Colbolt 60

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Iridium 192

200 KV x ray set

350 KV x ray set


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1. Before development 2. Cycles per second 3. Neither of the above 4. Protons 5. Both definition and contrast 6. Both contrast and definition 7. Activation 8. None of the above 9. Filament tube 10. Low contrast 11. Thermo luminescent dosemeter 12. Alkaline 13. 120 KV 14. They have a low wavelength and low frequency 15. Fast film 16. Calcium tungstate 17. Cathode 18. Radiation energy 19. Increase source to object distance 20. Colbolt 60






Liquid Penetrant Testing


1. Which of the following is a detergent type remover?

Lipophilic emulsifier

Trichlorethylene

Hydrophilic remover

Water

2. Which of the following is the least sensitive developer?

Dry powder

Aqueous soluble

Aqueous suspendable

Non-aqueous wet

3. Non-aqueous wet developers are applied to the part surface by which of the following methods?

Spraying

Dipping

Flowing

All of the above

4. Penetrants which have an emulsifier already in them referred to as?

Post emulsifiable

Solvent removable

Water washable

Lipophilic penetrant

5. A good penetrant requires a surface tension which is?

High

Low

Fast

Slow

6. Dry powder developers shall be applied to a ??? surface?

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Dry

Wet

Warm

Slightly moist

7. Which surface is not suitable for testing using the post emulsifiable method?

Smooth

Slightly warm

Rough

Finished machined

8. Which penetrant system is best suited when checking for wide shallow flaws?

Water washable

Post emulsifiable

Solvent removable

Leak through

9. Dual purpose penetrants are viewed under what light?

White light

Black light

White and black light

None of the above

10. Which method of penetrant inspection is best suited for testing in remote areas?

Fluorescent solvent removable

Visible solvent removable

Visible water washable

Fluorescent post emulsifiable

11. The mechanism which pulls a penetrant into a discontinuity is defined as?

Capillary action

Good surface tension

Low rentitivity

Good wettability

12. Which penetrant method is considered to be the most sensitive?

Visible solvent removable

Fluorescent water washable

Visible post emulsifiable

Fluorescent post emulsifiable

13. The emulsification time is calculated by which of the following methods?

Using half of the dwell time

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Using a quarter of the dwell time

Trial and error

Emulsification should always be for two minutes

14. When using water washable fluroescent penetrant after the water wash stage the component should then be?

Dried

Viewed under black light

Developed

Emulsified

15. When is it possible to detect slightly sub-surface defects using penetrant testing?

Only if you are using fluroscent penetrants

When using post emulsifiable penetrants

It is not possible to detect slightly sub-surface defects using penetrant testing

When using dual sensitivity penetrants

16. Which of the following is a method of applying dry powder developer?

Electrostatic spray

Dipping

Dust storm cabinet

All of the above methods of application

17. Which of the following is a method of applying penetrant?

Spraying

Dipping

Brushing

All of the above are methods

18. What problem is overcome by using the post emulsifiable penetrant method?

Overwashing

Long dwell time

Short dwell times

Penetrant drying within faults

19. The time which the penetrant is allowed to soak on teh surface of a component is commonly referred to as the?

Development time

Emulsification time

Dwell time

Inspection time

20. If testing a high number of small components which of the following penetrant processes would be least suitable?

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Water washable

Solvent removable

Post emulsifiable

Dual sensitivity


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1. Hydrophilic remover 2. Dry powder 3. Spraying 4. Water washable 5. Low 6. Dry 7. Rough 8. Post emulsifiable 9. White and black light 10. Visible solvent removable 11. Capillary action 12. Fluorescent post emulsifiable 13. Trial and error 14. Viewed under black light 15. It is not possible to detect slightly sub-surface defects using penetrant testing 16. All of the above methods of application 17. All of the above are methods 18. Overwashing 19. Dwell time 20. Solvent removable






Magnetic Particle Testing


1. The spacing between prods for the best sensitivity is?

1-2 inches / 25-50 mm

2-4 inches / 50-100 mm

6-8 inches / 150-200 mm

10-12 inches / 250-300 mm

2. The space around a magnet within which ferromagnetic materials are attracted to the magnetic is called?

A magnetic field

Permeability

A Hysteresis curve

A magnetic pole

3. Magnetic particle inspection is a means for detecting discontinuities at or near the surface in ??? materials?

Metallic

Nonconductive

Ceramic

Ferromagnetic

4. When a round steel bar is magnetised by passing alternating current through its length, flux density is?

Greatest along its centre line

Greatest at the surface

Uniform throughout its cross section

Greatest at the ends of the material

5. The strength of the magnetic field within a coil is determined by?

The current in the coil

The number of turns in the coil

The diameter of the coil

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All of the above

6. A test object 10 inches - 25cm - long, and 2 inches - 5cm - in diameter, longitudinally magnetised in a 5 turn coil, requires a magnetising current of what amperage using AC current with a K factor of 22000?

4400 amps

880 amps

2200 amps

2400 amps

7. How much current would be required to circularly magnetise an article 10 inches - 25cm - long and 2 inches - 5cm - in diameter using 5.3 amps per mm diameter?

132.5 amps

397.5 amps

265 amps

None of the above

8. A surface defect produces an indication which is?

Sharp and distinct

Wide and indefinite

Usually nonrelevant

Usually transverse

9. When magnetic fields are applied in two or more directions at the same time the resultant magnetic field is known as?

A swinging field

A leakage field

An induced field

A vector field

10. Which of the following is the general procedure followed when demagnetising an article?

Reverse the field whilst reducing the magnetising force

Reverse the field whilst increasing the current

Keep the field constant whilst reducing the current

Keep the field constant whilst increasing the current

11. Magnetic particle indications are caused when magnetic particles are attracted at which of the following?

Flux leakage

Magnetic poles

Leakage fields

All of the above

12. The bulb and filter of a black light must be cleaned regularly because?

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Cleanliness gives the lab a professional appearance

Dust and dirt permit the passage of infra red and white light

Dust and dirt reduce the passage of black light

None of the above

13. A residual magnetic field is always?

Stronger than the magnetic field producing it

Weaker than the magnetisiing field producing it

Equal to the magnetising field producing it

None of the above

14. Occasionally, indications are caused when magnetic particles are accumulated and held mechanically or by gravity in surface irregularities. These indications are not formed by leakage fields. This type of indication is called?

A non relevant indication

A spurious indication

Magnetic writing

A defect indication

15. When a magnetised article is touched by another piece of magnetised material, whatbtype of indication could be induced onto the first item?

True relevant

Magnetic writing

False indication

None of the above

16. Large, soft pads made of lead or copper braid are used as contact surfaces on head stocks to?

Increase the contact area and reduce the current density

Reduce the voltage to a safe level

Attract excess particles

To increase the current density in the part

17. Fine surface discontinuities are best detected by use of?

Dry magnetic particles with direct current magnetisation

Wet magnetic particles with alternating current magnetisation

Dry magnetic particles with half wave rectified current

Wet magnetic particles with hald wave rectified current

18. The most frequent cause for non relevant indications is?

Using the wrong type of magnetising current

Using excessive magnetising current

Using a small amount of magnetising current

Using a yoke instead of a permanent magnet

19. In magnetic particle testing, the most sensitive method of testing articles with low retentivity is

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the ??? method?

Wet continuous

Dry continuous

Wet residual

Dry residual

20. The selection of the test method is primarily determined by the ??? of the test article?

Hardness

Configuration

Conductivity

Strength


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1. 6-8 inches / 150-200 mm 2. A magnetic field 3. Ferromagnetic 4. Greatest at the surface 5. All of the above 6. 880 amps 7. 265 amps 8. Sharp and distinct 9. A vector field 10. Reverse the field whilst reducing the magnetising force 11. All of the above 12. Dust and dirt reduce the passage of black light 13. Weaker than the magnetisiing field producing it 14. A non relevant indication 15. Magnetic writing 16. Increase the contact area and reduce the current density 17. Wet magnetic particles with alternating current magnetisation 18. Using excessive magnetising current 19. Wet continuous 20. Configuration






Leak Testing / Acoustic Emission

Questions 1 - 10 Reference: Metals Handbook Ninth Edition Pages 57 - 70 Questions 11 - 20 Reference: Metals Handbook Ninth Edition Volume 17 Pages 278 - 294


1. Passage of a fluid into, through, and out of a solid barrier having no holes large enough to permit more than a small fraction of the total leakage to pass through any one hole can be defined as?

Molecular flow

Permeation

Transitional flow

Viscous flow

2. A halogen rich refrigerent gas, detectable by a Halogen Diode Leak Detector as it passes through a leak is generally referred to as?

A sensing gas

A tracer gas

An ionizer gas

A detected gas

3. Materials that contain halogens are called?

Fluorines

Inert

Halides

Ozone

4. Which of the following is an advantage of all the techniques of teh bubble test method?

The results are quantitative in nature

Limited skill and training is required for personnel

Very high sensitivity is attainable

It is not satisfactory for detecting a gross leakage

5. The sensitivity limit of a production bubble leak test is?

10-5 Std cm3/s

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10-6 Std cm3/s

10-7 Std cm3/s

None of the above

6. Mass spectrometers are ideally suited to the leak testing of?

Vacuum systems

Pipe lines

Large pressure vessels

Pumps

7. Which of the following leak testing methods is considered to be the most sensitive?

Mass spectrometer in a vacuum

Bubble test

Pressure test

Hydrostatic test

8. Which of the following NDT Methods can be used as a form of leak testing?

Acoustic Emission

Magnetic particle inspection

Penetrant inspection

Eddy current inspection

9. Which of the following is an advantage of the pressure change measurement test method?

Requires no special tracer gas

Can be used for measuring total leakage rate on either evacuated or pressurised systems

Can be used to measure total leakage rate on any size system

All of the above apply

10. Volume change due to thermal expansion or contraction of a constant volume system during a pressure change measurement test?

Does not affect the leakage rate calculations

Is automatically accounted for by the corrections

Is not normally significant

Has a very significant error on the leakage rate results

11. Which of the following is considered to be a source of acoustic emission?

Defect related deformation

Crack growth

Plastic deformation

All of the above

12. Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other inspection techniques?

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Detects geometric form of defects

Requires stress

Less material sensitive

More geometry sensitive

13. Which of the following would NOT be considered a use for acoustic emission inspection?

Detection of cracks

Material sorting

Detection of weld defects

Material embrittlement

14. One of the following processes does NOT use acoustic emission inspection for checking and controlling?

Open die forging

Thermocompression bonding

Punch press operations

Shaft straightening

15. What is the typical frequency operating range for acoustic emission equipment?

1-5 MHz

20-1200 KHz

200-1800 KHz

20-1200KHz

16. Which of the following is a potential barrier to acoustic emission applicability?

Geometry component

Intrusive process

Noise

Required to scan local regions in sequence

17. The key element in an acoustic emission senosr is a?

Target

Phase detector

Directional coupler

Piezoelectric crystal

18. Which of the following is a relatively simple application of acoustic emission instrumentation?

Leak testing

Electric power plant

Pumps

Valves

19. Evaluation criteria in acoustic emission testing are?

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Number of hits

Emission during load hold

Count rate

All of the above

20. A major benefit of acoustic emission testing is?

Low cost of equipment

No access required

No removal of insulation necessary

Allows the whole volume of the structure to be inspected non intrusively in a single load operation

No removal of insulation necessary and it allows the whole volume of the structure to be inspected non intrusively in a single load operation


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1. Permeation 2. A tracer gas 3. Halides 4. Limited skill and training is required for personnel 5. 10-6 Std cm3/s 6. Vacuum systems 7. Mass spectrometer in a vacuum 8. Penetrant inspection 9. All of the above apply 10. Is not normally significant 11. All of the above 12. Requires stress 13. Material sorting 14. Open die forging 15. 20-1200 KHz 16. Noise 17. Piezoelectric crystal 18. Leak testing 19. All of the above 20. No removal of insulation necessary and it allows the whole volume of the structure to be inspected non intrusively in a single load operation






Eddy Current Testing / Flux Leakage Testing


1. Which of the following materials could not be tested using electromagnetic inspection?

Carbon steel

Titanium

Glass

Aluminium

Carbon steel and glass

2. The depth at which the eddy current is reduced 37 of the surface value is known as?

Half valve layer

Standard depth of penetration

Tenth value layer

Attenuation depth

3. The letters ICAS stand for?

International Annealed Copper Standard

Internal Applied Conductivity Standard

Induced Alternatiing Current Standard

Inherently Active Comparative Standard

4. Which of the following has the highest conductivity?

Brass

Silver

Copper

Gold

5. Which of the following factors make it difficult to inpect ferromagnetic materials?

Conductivity

Permeability

Resistance

Impedance

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6. Calculate the impedance - Z - of a coil with a resitance - R - of 16 ohms and an inductive reactance - XL - Of 6 ohms?

4.7 ohms

12.2 ohms

17 ohms

22 ohms

7. The angle between the resistance vector and the impedance vector is known is known as the?

Phase angle

Inductance angle

Resistance angle

Alpha angle

8. The term used to describe the distance between a test encircling coil and a plate surface is?

Fill factor

Lift off

Cladding

Surface roughness

9. With respect conductivity and penetration which of the following statements is true?

The higher conductivity the lower penetration

The lower the conductivity the lower the penetration

The lower the conductivity the higher the penetration

The higher the conductivity the higher the penetration

10. Calculate the resistance of a circuit whose voltage is 20 volts and current is 12 amps: V = Ir = 20 x 12?

1.67 ohms

12.5 ohms

120.8 ohms

240 ohms

11. Which of the following instruements is used to measure magnetic flux leakage?

A coil

Hall effect meter

Magnetic tape

A coil and magnetic tape

All of the above

12. What is the approximate relationship between defect depth - D - and signal amplitude - A?

A = K/D

A = K/D2

A = KD 3

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A = KD 2

13. Hard materials generally have which of the following properties?

High retentivity hard to demagnetise

High retentivity easy to demagnetise

Low retentitivity easy to demagnetise

Low retentitivity hard to demagnetise

14. When flux leakage inspecting the test piece should be demagnetised?

Well below saturation

At saturation

Near saturation

Beyond saturation

15. Flow detection is best achieved when the magnetic flux is?

Parallel to the flaw major dimension

At 30 degrees to the flaw major dimension

At 90 degrees to the flaw major dimension

At 60 degrees to the flaw major detection

16. Magnetic field strength in a long coil is determined by?

Applied current strength

Number of turns in the coil

Coil diameter

Applied current strength and number of turns in the coil

All of the above

17. Flux leakage inspection is not likely to find which of the following defectv types?

Surface contamination

Longitudinal seams

Cracks

Overlap

18. What is the S I unit for magnetic flux density?

Gauss

Tesla

Ohms

Weber

19. How may a ferromagnetic material be demagnetised?

Using an AC Coil

Heating above the curie temperature

Reversing DC Coils

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All the above

20. What is the S I unit for magnetic field strength?

Henry

Henry per meter

Amp

Amp per meter


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1. Glass 2. Standard depth of penetration 3. International Annealed Copper Standard 4. Silver 5. Permeability 6. 17 ohms 7. Phase angle 8. Fill factor 9. The higher conductivity the lower penetration 10. 240 ohms 11. All of the above 12. A = KD3 13. High retentivity hard to demagnetise 14. At saturation 15. At 90 degrees to the flaw major dimension 16. Applied current strength and number of turns in the coil 17. Surface contamination 18. Tesla 19. All the above 20. Amp per meter






Infra Red Thermography & Neutron Radiography

Questions 1 - 10 Reference: Metals Handbook Ninth Edition Volume 17 Pages 397 - 403 Questions 11 - 20 Reference: Metals Handbook Ninth Edition Volume 17 Pages 387 - 396


1. Which of the following mechanism decsribes the heat flow from hot to cold within an object?

Conduction

Convection

Radiation

Convection and radiation

2. Material properties such as specific heat, density, thermal conductivity, thermal diffisivity and temperature will affect?

Conduction

Convection

Radiation

Conduction and convection

3. In radiation heat transfer which of the following material properties is most important?

Density

Emissivity

Specific heat

Diffusivity

4. As the average temperature of the subject increases, generally the thermal measurement techniqes become?

Impossible

Less sensitive

More sensitive

Unsuitable

5. Which of the following is a non contact temperature sensor?

Pyrometer

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Thermopile

Cholestric liquid crystals

Thermally quenches phosphors

6. Which of the following is a contact temperature sensor?

Radiometer

Thermocouple

Thermal wave inferometer

7. Infrared thermography can be used for which of the following?

Process control

Liquid intrusions

Pelaminations

All of the above

8. Which of the following statements is true with respect to image interpretation?

Large temperature differences are easy to interpret

Large temperature differences are difficult to interpret

Surface anomalies produce stronger indications than subsurface anomalies

Large temperature differences are easy to interpret and Surface anomalies produce stronger indications than subsurface anomalies

9. Which of the following may be used for recording in imaging systems?

Black and white photography

Colour photography

Videotape recorder

All of the above

10. Which of the following statements is false with respect to cholestric liquid crystals?

They are grease like

They emit visible light when excited with UV light

The applied film must be of uniform thickness

Can be applied by brushing

11. In which of the following does Neutron Radiography differ from conventional radiography?

Geometric principles of shadow formation

Variation of attenuation with test piece thickness

Direct imaging on film

All of the above

12. Which of the following statements is false?

X rays are attenuated more by elements of high atomic number

X rays are attenuated more by materials of high density

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Neutron attenuation are generally attenuated less with increasing atomic number

Hydrogen, lithium and boron are not attenuated by thermal neutrons

13. Which of the following radioactive isotopes produce thermal neutrons?

Iridium 192

Californium 252

Cobalt 60

Caesium 137

14. What metal is the target made of when producing thermal neutrons in a van de graaf generator?

Lithium

Beryllium

Cobalt

Tungsten

15. Which of the following is a problem with respect of using radioactive sources to produce thermal neutrons?

Portability

Fine grained film must be used

Long exposure times and the use of coarse grained film

No contrast on low atomic number materials

16. Which of the following applications can neutron radiography be used?

Correct placement of adhesives

Positioning of explosives

Presence of plastic components

All of the above

17. The detection of corrosion in aluminium aircraft components is best detected by?

Eddy currents

Visual inspection

Neutron radiography

Conventional radiography

18. In the transfer method of neutron detection of thin sheet of metal called a transfer screen is used which is generally made of?

Indium

Dysprosium

Gadolium

Indium and dysprosium

19. The transfer method is especially valuable for?

Detection of corrosion

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Inspection of a radioactive specimen

Verify welding of dissimilar metals

Positioning O rings

20. In neutron radiography for a given material attenuation?

Varies directly with thickness

Is inversely proportional to thickness

Varies exponentially with thickness

Is inversely proportional to the thickness squared


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1. Conduction 2. Conduction and convection 3. Emissivity 4. More sensitive 5. Pyrometer 6. Thermocouple 7. All of the above 8. Large temperature differences are easy to interpret and Surface anomalies produce stronger indications than subsurface anomalies 9. All of the above 10. They emit visible light when excited with UV light 11. Direct imaging on film 12. Hydrogen, lithium and boron are not attenuated by thermal neutrons 13. Californium 252 14. Beryllium 15. Long exposure times and the use of coarse grained film 16. All of the above 17. Neutron radiography 18. Indium and dysprosium 19. Inspection of a radioactive specimen 20. Is inversely proportional to thickness






Visual Testing


1. Fibre optic systems work on which of the following principles?

Refelction

Diffraction

Refraction

Reticulation

2. Which part of the retina contains no rods or cones?

Fovea centrails

Iris

Blind spot

Optic nerve

3. Hypermetropia is otherwise known as?

Short sight

Long sight

Normal sight

Magnification sight

4. As the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation increases the frequency will?

Stay the same

Decrease

Increase

Either decrease or increase

5. Resolution is the ability to see which of the following?

The smallest flaw possible

Two flaws adjacent to each other as one

Two flaws adjacent to each other as seperate flaws

A large flaw at a distance of over 3 metres

6. Which colour within the visible spectrum has the shortest wavelength?

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Orange

Red

Blue

Violet

7. What function do the ciliary muscles carry out?

Open and close the pupil

Stop harmful radiation entering the eye

Accomodate the size and thickness of the lens

Focus the light rays on the retina

8. To what wavelength of radiation is the human eye most sensitive?

320 nM

5750 Angstroms

4200 Angstroms

400 nM

9. What is the minimum angle in relation to the test surface that visual examination can be carried out at?

60 degrees

90 degrees

0 degrees

30 degrees

10. How often should a visual inspectors eyes be checked for near vision?

Daily

Annually

Every six months

Only initially

11. Under darkened - scotopicvision - conditions which receptors within the retina are sensitive?

Cones

Rods

Bothe cones and rods

None of the above

12. Direct visual examinations may be carried out using which of the following?

Boroscope

Mirrors

Fibroscope

All of the above

None of the above

13. Stereoscopic vision is limited to magnification factors less than when using singular magnification

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lenses?

None

X2

X5

X10

14. Which of the following weld defects would be visually detectable on a completed weld?

Lack of interun fusion

Sub surface porosity

Lack of side wall fusion

Undercut

15. A measured amount of undercut is detected that is allowable when refernced to an acceptable criteria. The uundercut is therefore decribed as?

A defect

An indication

A flaw

None of the above


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1. Permeation 2. A tracer gas 3. Halides 4. Limited skill and training is required for personnel 5. 10-6 Std cm3/s 6. Vacuum systems 7. Mass spectrometer in a vacuum 8. Penetrant inspection 9. All of the above apply 10. Is not normally significant 11. All of the above 12. Requires stress 13. Material sorting 14. Open die forging 15. 20-1200 KHz 16. Noise 17. Piezoelectric crystal 18. Leak testing 19. All of the above 20. No removal of insulation necessary and it allows the whole volume of the structure to be inspected non intrusively in a single load operation

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47639096 Asnt Level III General Ndt

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