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10.

11.

12.

13.

c. Prime Minister d. the Administrative System The International Court of Justice in the Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case 19 60, dealt with the a principle of succession to delictual

liabilities b. customary right relating to territory c. succession and public debts d. succession to non-fi seal contractual

rights The Secretary General of the UN is appointed a by the General Assembly on the

recommendation of the Security Council

b. by the Security Council on the recommendation of the General Assembly

c. in a joint. session of the Security Council and General Assembly

d. by the permanent members of the Security Council

The I aw-making resolutions of the UN General Assembly are binding on member

a the General Assembly resolutions ar recommendatory. in nature

b. they have a binding effect, if q;·e by consensus

c. member states which vote i fav a resolution are bound b ·

d the I ega! value of these ons vary m the hght ｯｦ ｾ ｴ＠ J t matter and surrounding ctr st es

Match Ltst I Wl Ltst d select the correct answer· List I A ｒ･ｰ ｾ ｭｴｬｬｾ＠B. N

4.

a b. c. d.

3 3 4

4 4 3

+ nes case

I 2 2

2 I I

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

: ｾ＠

Which one of the following organs of the UN has the power to initiate studies and make recommendations for the purpose of encouraging the progressive development of international law and its codification? a b. c. d.

and

c. d.

of the following is NOT the of the Economic and So cia!

remotion of econonu c and so cia! development

b. Promotion of better standards of human welfare

c. Supervision and control of the functions of specialized agencies

d. Observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms

Which one of the following organs of the United Nations performs legislative functions? a The Security Council b. The General Assembly c. The Economic and Socia! Council d. The Trusteeship Council Match List I with List II and select the correct answer List I A The International Court of Justice B. The United Nations C. Food and Agriculture Organization D. International Atomic Energy Agency List II I. Rome 2. Vienna 3. NewYork 4. The Hague Codes;

A B C D a 3 4 2

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19.

20.

21.

23.

: ｾ＠

b. 4 3 2 d. discussed law purely in terms of justice c. 3 4 2 24. The main difference between Historical d. 4 3 2 and Sociological School of Jurisprudence 19. In which one of the following cases did is that the former the International Court of Justice uphold a gives impotence to state and the latter the legitimacy of the 'baselines method' to society for delimiting the terri tori a! sea in certain b. regards custom as a source of law and coastal waters? the I atter does not a North sea continental shelf case c. gives permanent role to ｪｵ ｾ ･ｳ＠ in

c. Alabama claims case not . b. Lotus case shaping the law while ｴｨ ｾ ･＠ Ia c oes

d. Fisheries case. d. concentrates on the pas ra s of Article 38(1) of the statute of the the society while 0 on the Intern ali on a! Court of Justice enumerates present one four sources of international law in the 25. Match List I wiu select the following order: correct answer: I. Treaties and conventions List I 2. International custom A ｆｵｬｬ･ ｾ ｲ＠3. General principles oflaw B Fne + 4. Judicial decisions and writing of C f2

publicists D am This is because of Article 38 (!) ttl a follows a hierarchical order, gnnng n a Changmg So ctety

greatest importance to treaties and man Law and Human Justice conventions e M oraltty of Law

b. sources of international law, A B C D enumerated therein a I 3 2 4

c. does not make any judgement ｵｾ ﾷ＠ ... t e b. 3 I 2 4 priority or quality of status c. 2 I 4 3

d. ＺｾｾＺＺ､ｯｮ＠ a formal ｾ＠ e 26. ｾ｡ｷ＠ ｷｾ＠ ､･ｦｩｾ･､＠ in ｾ･ｲｭｳ＠ !f balancing

The judges of the lnt na ourt of law was described as social engineering by international law m!l· ro various interest in. the society and as such

Justice are elected by a Austin a the General ernbl b. Holland b. the Securi Co cil + c. Ehrlich c. both Assembly and the d. Pound

b.

ｲｴｩｾ ｏｬｙｊ ｉ＾ｦ ｴ＠ tndependently of one 27. Austin's theory of law can be found in his

as the

accordance with

28.

work titles 'Province of Jurisprudence Determined'; through which he meant to convey the idea that a the subject matter of jurisprudence was

large till then b. the applicability of laws differed from

province to province c. the subject-matter of divine laws etc.

do not fall within the purview of jurisprudence .

d. the subject matter of divine laws etc. fall within the puMew of jurisprudence.

Match list I with List II and select the correct answer:

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29.

30.

31.

32.

List I A Jolm Austin B. Duguit C. H. LA Hart D. Roscoe Pound List IL I. Social engineering 2. Social solidarity 3. Rules as foundations of a legal system 4. Command theory

A B C D a 2 4 3 I b. 4 2 3 I c. I 2 3 4 d. 2 I 3 4

the following types of

2. 3. 4.

a b. c. d.

d.

is to

of

a protect the property of the government b. maintain continuity of an office

33.

34.

35

37.

38.

.: : ｾ＠

c. make the property easily transferable d. make the property easily inheritable Possession acquired through an agent or servant is an example of a corp oreal possession b. mediate possession c. in corp oreal possession d. immediate possession 'X', a servant, finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over the owner f the shop, who asks hi Ia t in the almirah. Now, the the possession of a 'X', because he wa b. 'Y', because h

shop i\ c. Y, because in 1'·h e was union of

｣ｯｲｰｵ ｾ ｡ｮｴｭｵｳ＠d 'X', c ｾｾ ･ｰｴ＠ tt m the alnurah ａｲｵ ｾ

Ｐｾ＠ i · ,s an essential element of

ｰｯ ｾ＠ rdmgto

ｾ ＱＱＱ

ｯ｣ｾ､＠"U enng

Assertion (A) The entnes m the three legtslattve h sts are not always set out wtth scientific precision. Reason (R): The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation. a Both A and Rare true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT

the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is fa! se but I is true Assertion (A): A proclamation of Emergency can be issued by the President if there is imminent danger of war or external aggression or armed rebellion. Reason (R): The President can suspend the enforcement of all the fundamental rights during the period of Emergency. a Both A and Rare true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT

the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is fa! se but I is true Assertion (A): Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder. Reason (R): Acceptance cannot be separated from offer.

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a Both A and Rare true and R is the removed the distinction between sovereign correct explanation of A and non- sovereign functions with respect

b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT to government's liability fortortin India. the correct explanation of A Reason (R): Government is liable for tort

c. A is true but R is false which is the result of its non -sovereign d. A is false but I is true function.

39. Assertion (A): Money deposited by the a Both A and Rare true and R is the loser with the stakeholder can be correct explanation of A recovered from the stake-holder by a suit b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT by the winner of the bet. the correct explanation of A Reason (R): No action can be brought for c. A is true but R is false the recovery of any sum won on a wager d. A is fa! se but I is true a Both A and Rare true and R is the 44.

correct explanation of A any number of joint to -easo b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT Reason (R): ｗｨ ｾ＠ ons join in

the correct explanation of A the commission of ort, each is c. A is true but R is false individually resp o · s if each alone d. A is false but I is true had comm· d it.

40. Assertion (A): Free consent is not the a Both ｾ ･＠ true and R is the essential requirement of a contract. ation of A Reason (R): Consent is said to be free b. R are true but R is NOT when 1 t ts not caused by coercton, undue e c ect explanation of A influence, fraud, nusrepresentatlon and ｾ＠ e but R ts false mistake ｾ＠ • s fa! se but Its true a Both A and Rare true and R IS the oertlon (A) The Ltabthty for neghgence

correct explanation of A ｾ＠ ts based up on a general pubhc sentiment of b. Both A and R are true but R ts NOT. moral 'Wrong domg for whtch the offender

the correct explanation of A must pay c A ts true but R ts false fJi Reason (R) On breach of duty towards the d A ts false but Its true plamtlff to take care that result tn damage, Assertion (A) A ｰｲｯｭｴｳ ｾ･＠ ·v the plaintiff can sue for damages for performance of the contract era! . negligence. Reason (R) Every ーｲｯｭ ｾ ｭ＠ 1 ense a Both A and Rare true and R is the wtth the performance o e t correct explanation of A a Both A and Rare e R ts the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT

correct expli;n o the correct explanation of A b Both ａ ｾ ･＠ 1:$e but R ts NOT c. A is true but R is false

the corr ct tlon of A d. A is fa! se but I is true c ｾ ｉｓ＠ e ts false 46. Assertion (A): A wooden chair while d A but ts true being used by a guest caused injury to him As• rtl : No action Lies for mere due to defective make. The guest is d sed by some act which does en tit! ed to claim damages from the maker.

#o<>nN.,. olate a legal right. Reason (R): A manufacturer owes a duty ｾ ｾ ｾ ｲＮｮ ｾＨｒＩＺ＠ An action lies for interference of care to the ultimate user.

41.

42.

another's legal private right even 47. Assertion (A): A person imputing that 'B', w ere it causes no actual damage. a lawyer, is ignorant of law, is actionable a Both A and Rare true and R is the without pro of of damage.

correct explanation of A Reason (R): Making imputation relating to b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT trade, profession, business is slander

the correct explanation of A actionable p erse. c. A is true but R is false a Both A and Rare true and R is the d. A is false but I is true correct explanation of A

43. Assertion (A): Article 300 of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT Constitution of India has specifically the correct explanation of A

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48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

: ｾ＠

c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but I is true Assertion (A): A defamatory talking film is a libeL

Reason (R): The General Assembly represents the entire membership of the United Nations.

Reason (R): Photographic part of a film is a permanent matter to be seen by the eyes. a Both A and Rare true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT

the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but I is true Assertion (A): A person, who moves to a pi ace nearer the place of nuisance, can complain of nuisance. Reason (R): Coming to the place of nuisance is a good defence. a Both A and Rare true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT

the correct explanation of A

53.

54.

a Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false d.

c d.

e legislature can forge a r cap able of cracking open

te shell d. A is false but I is true o ) Corp orate p ersonaltty cannot c. A is true but R is false t8. o

watch from the tab! e and keeps it est Assertion (A): A servant removes wrist ｾ＠ e ed as a shield to harm national

concealed under the carpet m the ｳ｡ｭ ｾ＠ a Both A and Rare true and R is the room for fear of bemg detected He 1 s correct expl an at! on of A gutty of theft b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT Reason (R) To be gutlty of the ｯ ｾ ﾣ＠ o the correct explanation of A theft, a person must move and t c. A is true but R is false the property stolen ｾ＠ d. A is fa! se but I is true a Both A and Rare true i e 55 Which one of the following is NOT a

correct ･ｸｰｬ｡ｮ｡ｴｬｯｮ ｾ ｦ＠ salient feature of the Constitution of India? b Both A and R are e ts NOT a Written Constitution and supremacy of

the correct explana of the Constitution c A ts true but s false b. Quasi-federal structure d. A is false t I tru* c. committed judiciary Assertion ): temational Court of d. Distribution of powers Justice h ve any compulsory 56. Match list I with List II and select the juris · · o ver I international disputes correct answer: be e s . List I

A Republic · t atio a! relations. B. Secular

th A and Rare true and R is the C. Democracy correct explanation of A List II

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT I. Head of the state is not a hereditary the correct explanation of A monarch

c. A is true but R is false 2. State does not recognize any religion d. A is false but I is true as a state religion Assertion (A): The UN General Assembly 3. A form of government which gets its has power to authorize UN peace-keeping authority from the will of the people operations. A B C

a I 2 3 b. 3 2

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57.

58.

59.

60.

c. d.

2 3

3 2

Preamble to the Constitution of India a is not a part of the Constitution b. indicates the objectives to be achieved c. indicates the sow-ce from which the

Constitution derives its authority d. is a source of authority of the

Constitution of India The Directive Principles of state policy are fundamental for the a upliftment of backward classes b. protection of individual rights c. administration of justice d. governance of state In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that harmony and balance between the fundamental rights and the directive principles of State Policy is a basic feature of the Constitution of India? a Kesavananda Bharati V s. State of

Kerala

62.

63.

64.

b. Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs. Union of India ｾ＠c. Golaknath V s. State of Punjab

d. WamanRao. Vs. Unionofindia ｾ＠Match List I (Article No.) with List I (Matter dealt with) and select the corr

ｲＺｾ［ａ＠ ;:Pflf 65.

D. 50 C.44 ｾ＠List II I. Living wages r wor 66. 2. Uniform C il de + 3. S ep ar iary from Executive 4. Free I Code·

c 2 3 2 3 2

Directive princi pies of state policy are I. not amendable 2. not enforceable by any cow-t 3. fundamental to the governance of the

country Which of the above statements are correct? a I and 2 b. I and 3

: ｾ＠

c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3 Consider the following statements An accused person can be compelled to I. give his finger-prints. 2. give evidence against himself.. 3. participate in the identification parade. Which of the above statements are correct? a 1,2 and3 b 2 and 3 c I and 2 d I and 3

a self-mcnnunatton

d double Jeopar

b ･ｸｰｯｳｴｦ｡｣ｴｯｬ ｾ＠c retro sp ecttve eratl

Which o f the o owmg statements refers t e ｉ ｾ＠ Junsdtctlon of the Supr rt a of the Supreme

.. ｾ ｾＡＡＺ ｧ＠ cognizance of public · gati on matters through

addressed to the Cow-t

interest letters

c. Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court under Art. 142

d. Advisory jurisdiction under Art. 14 3 On which one of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of the security of the state? a Speech and expression b. Peaceful assembly c. Association or union d. Movement Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I A. Right to go abroad B. Prisoner's rights C. Death penalty D. Government's liability List II I. Bhim Singh's case 2. Maneka Gandhi's case 3. Bachan Singh's case 4. Sunil Batra's case Codes;

A B c D a 2 4 I 3 b. 4 2 3 I c. 2 4 3 I d. 4 2 I 3

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67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for vi alation of fundamental rights? a Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab b. Kasturi La! v. State of U.P c. Rudol Shah v. State of Bihar d. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa Which one of the following is a fundamental duty of every citizen of India? a To be truthfuL to one's duties b. To renounce practices derogatory to

the dignity of children c. To renounce practices derogatory to

the dignity of human beings d. To renounce practices derogatory to

the dignity of women The Vice-President of India may be. removed from his office by a impeachment b. a resolution pas sed by Lok S abha and

Rajya S abha with a two-thirds majority c. a resolution pas sed with a two-thirds

majority in a joint sesston of Parliament

d. a resolution passed by Raj ya Sa with simple majority and agreeq; a majority members of Lok Sab

The power of the ｐｲ･ｳｩ､･ｮ ｾ ｉｮ＠ t issue an ordinance is alan a executive power b. legislativepower 0 c. constituent power d. quasi -judi cia! ower Election of ' ' o ｾ ｡ｴ･＠ Legislative Assembly s ·de by the Election

ｾﾷ｢ｵｮ｡ｬ＠ • ec. 123 of the'

Repr t n o the People's Act 1951. e ovision for appeal under the

upreme Court of India is ched under Art. 13 6. h a situation which one of the ng is correct?

a Order of the. Tribunal' is final as there is no provision for appeal against its order

b. Supreme Court has unfettered powers to entertain, any appeal from any court or Tribunal under Art. 136

c. Law does not empower Supreme Court to interfere in election matters

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

: ｾ＠

d. Only State Legislature is competent to overrule the order of the Tribunal

In which one of the following case(s) has the Supreme Court held that primacy should be given to the opinion of Chief Justice of India over the opinion of other constitutional functionaries in the matter of appoinl:lnent of High Court and Supreme Court Judges? a Supreme Court ａ､ｶｯ｣｡ ｾｴｳ＠ o cort

Association v. Union of In · b. Transfer of Judges case c. Special Courts ｂｩｬｬ ｾ＠d. Kesavananda Bhar cas Consider the ｦｯｬｩｯ ｾ Ｌ ［＠ t ts I. Supreme Cou s po er o issue writs

is harrower th f High Court's, 2. A citi is free to approach High

Co ･ ｾ ･＠ Court as he chooses fundamental rights are

declared by the Supreme .. ｾ Ｍｾ＠ 'is binding on all courts

·oughout India. ch of the above statement(s) is/are

correct? a I alone b. I and 2 c. I, 2 and3 d. 2 and 3 "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly." This statements relates to the doctrine of a pith and sub stance b. implied power c. ancillary power d. col curable legislation Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by a Rajya S abha and then it will continue

till the reconstitution of new Lok S abha, which must approve it within 3 0 days of its first sitting

b. new Lok Sabha within six months of its constitution

c. Lok Sabha in the next session after six months

d. Rajya S abha only Which one of the following decisions is resp on sib! e for the Parliament pas sing the Constitution (24th Amendment) Act, 1971? a Sajj an Sihghv v. State of Rajasthan

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77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

b. Golaknath v. State of Punjab c. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Union Public Service Commission? a It conducts examinations for the

appointment to the services of the Union

b. It shall be consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and ci vii posts

c. It shall be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India

d. It shall be consulted reservation of posts classes, scheduled scheduled tribes

as regards the for backward castes and

A unilateral contract in which only party is bound, is also known as a

one

a tacit contract b. implied contract c. executed contract d. executory contract In case of conflict of jurisdiction courts, the incidence of a contract shall b governed by the law of the place where a contract is made flj b. contract is performed c. acceptor resides a;: d. proposer resides 80. Which one of thet2)owt the correct meaning of " e .ent not enforceable by law"? a Void contract b. Voidable ee ent + c. d.

contract must a agree with each other b. stipulate their individual offer and

consideration c. agree up on the same thing in the same

sense

: ｾ＠

d. put the offer and counter offers 83. When goods are displayed in a shop

window with price tags attached to them, the offer comes from the a offerer b. shop owner c. general public d. customer

84. 'A' offered a reward of Rs. I 0 00 for recovery of some valuable articles. 'B', who did not k offer, found the articles and e to 'A'. Which one of the ｦｯｬｬ ｾ ｮｧ＠ t correct solution to this proG a Giving deliv o cles to 'A'

amounts to an c tance and hence 'B' ｩ ｾ ﾷｴｬ･､＠ to get the reward of Rs. 1000 •

b. ｾ ﾷ＠ ·, de ery of articles to 'A' ou . performance of a condition ce nt to an offer and hence there is

acceptance. So 'B' must get the ard of Rs. I 000 there is n acceptance of an offer

due to want of knowledge, 'B' is not entitled to get the reward of Rs. I 00 0

d. In the absence of y legal o bli galion on 'A', no claim for reward of Rs. 1000 is maintainable by 'B'

85. Where a particular mode of communi cation of acceptance is not prescribed and the parties are not in each others presence, the most authentic mode of communication, of acceptance is the a telephone b. telegraph c. wireless d. letter

86. 'A' out of natural I ove and affection prorni ses to give his newly wedded daughter-in-law a golden necklace worth Rs. 20,00 0. 'A' made the promise in writing and signed it and delivered the same to the daughter-in-law. The promise

87.

IS

a without consideration b. valid c. voidable d. unenforceable. Consideration can be explained as a some benefit or pro fit to one person b. some loss or detriment to the promisee

suffered in return for the promise

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88.

89.

90.

91.

93.

c. fulfillment or performance of some condition by the promisee

d. an inducement for the performance of an agreement

An agreement without consideration 1s void except in case of compensation for a voluntary Services rendered b. voluntary services rendered at the

request of the other party to the agreement

c. voluntary services rendered at the request of another. 94.

d. reimbursement of expenses incurred A contract entered into by a minor is a valid and binding b. voi dab! e at the option of the minor c. void ab initio d. voi dab! e at the option of either party 'A' agrees to sell to 'B' a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from London to Bombay. Before the day of bargain the ship has been castaway and the goods were Lost neither party are of there facts. The agreement is ｾ＠a VOid

b vo1dable c enforceable d unenforceable

I An agreement m res amt of tr 2 An agreement the ｣ｯｮ ｾ Ｑ､＠

wh1ch 1s unlawful 95 3 An agreement by ｷ ｾ ｷ＠4 An agreement wh ｾ＠ parbes

are under nu stake to e subJect matter

Which of the " a emf$1ts are expressly declared to e a I, 2 96. b. I,

c. d.

: ｾ＠

2. has I aid down that in India a minor's contract is void

3. has laid down that a mior' s contract becomes valid when he attains majority

Which of the above statements(s) is /are correct?' a I and 3 b. 3 alone

ｾ｡ｌｾｾＺｴ＠ I ｾｴｨ＠ L1st II ｾ ･＠ the correct answer 0 L1st I

A An agreemenQ e thing m the same sens

B Duty to speak C If the se of ac on 1 s so d1rectly

te ﾷｴｨ ｾ ･＠ contract D. le ount to be paid for the

mract uberrima fides

x contractu 4. Consensus ad idem

A B c D a 4 I 3 2 b. 2 3 4 I c. 4 I 2 3 d. 3 2 4 I A contract of life msurance, the performance of which depends up on a future event falls under the category of a Contract of Indemnity b. Contract of Guarantee c. Contingent Contract d. Special type of Contract 'A' promises to paint a picture for 'B' by a certain day at a certain price. 'A' dies before that day. In this situation, the contract a cannot be enforced as it becomes void

due to personal incapacity b. will be performed by the legal

representative of who is bound by I aw for perform it

c. can be performed by an agent of' A' d. can be performed by a third person on

behalfof'A' 97. If the performance of contract becomes

impossible because the subject matter of contract has ceased to exist then a both the parties are Liable

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98.

99.

b. neither party is liable c. on! y offerer is liable d. only acceptor is liable' Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract a on! y when the special circwnstances

causing loss of pro fit resulting from the breach of contract were brought to the notice of the party committing the breach at: the time of the formation of the contract

b. on! y when the court of I aw thinks fit in the special circwn-. stances of the case

c. always in the special circwnstance I eading to the formation of the contract

d. on! y when the contracting parties express the same while entering into contract

Match List I with List II and elect the

3. 4.

a b. c. d.

100. ·x·

a b. c. d.

102.

103.

: ｾ＠

would enable 'Y' to get more alms. In this case a 'X' commits no offence as the act was

done with the consent of' Y' b.

d.

ood Ｌ ｬＡｬｾ｡ｮ ＡＡＺ Ｚ｣･＠ due to others acts ' asonable act in conducting his usmess

d. Statutory authority 'X' sees 'Z' committing what appears to 'X' to be a murder. X', in exercise, to the best of his judgement, exerted in good faith, of the powers, which the Ia gives to all persons of apprehending murder in the act, seizes 'Z', in order to bring 'Z' before proper authorities. But it turns out that 'Z' was acting in exercise of his right of self defence. 'Z' guilty of a no offence b. wrongful restraint c. wrongful confinement d. assault

105. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defences available in an action for defamation? a Privilege, truth, fair comment b. Privilege, mistake, fair comment c. Truth, mistake, fair comment d. Truth, privilege, mistake

I 0 6. Which one of the following statements is correct? a In case of absolute privilege, action

can lie for a defamatory statement made without malice

b. In matters of qualified privilege, no action lies for a defamatory statements

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107.

even though the statements is false or has been made maliciously

c. In matters of absolute pri vii ege, no action lies for a defamatory statements even though the statement is fulse or has been made maliciously

d. In matters of qualified privilege, action can lie for a defamatory statement made without malice

Which one of the following can be successfully pi eaded as a defence than action for conspiracy?

a The combination is for creating an equal bargaining capacity

b. The combination is for eliminating monopoly

c. The combination is for protecting one's ann trade

b. 2 and 3

c. I and 3

d. I, 2 and3

11 0. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

; ,: : ｾ＠

a Public nuisance is a crime whereas private nuisance is a civil wrong:

b. M action for damage lies in respect of a private nuisance but not in respect of public nuisance generally

c. An action for damages cannot lie in respect of a public nuisance if the plaintiff has sustained a special damage

b. The liability of the abettor is dependent on the liability of the principal accused

c. The abettor has aided the principal accused in commission of the offence

d. The abettor has willful! y misrepresented a fact to someone and caused an offence committed by the latter

113. Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation is not punishable generally but attempt is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there

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a is no nexus between preparation and attempt

b. can be chances' of change of mind before commission of offence

c. is absence of intention

d. is absence of attempt

114. Culpable homicide is hot murder if

a death is caused through provocation given by a public. servant in the lawful exercise of his powers

b. the offender I oses self control by grave, and sudden provo cation which is voluntarily sought

c. the offender being a public servant exceeds the powers given to him by I aw and causes, death with ill-will

d. the victim being above the age of eighteen years takes the risk of death with his own consent

' . : ｾ＠

c. theft

d. extortion

118. 'A' threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning 'Z' unless 'Z' gives him money. He thus induces 'Z' to give him money. 'A' has committed the offence of

119.

a defamation

b. extortion

c. criminal intimidation

d. mischief

'X' and his four asso commit theft at the 1

caused hurt to Ｇ ｙｊＧＢｩ Ｇｨ ｾ ｾｾ ･＠ forced to retreat without ng the booty because of stiff rest e by the in mates.

ｾ･ｹ｡ｲ･ ＼ｚｬＫ＠

｢ ｾ Ｇ＠D misappropriation 115. Which one of the following is punishable

as sedition? . oity

over throw it correct answer:

b. Inducing people to cease to obey I List I

and lawful authority 'if A. Delivery of property

government C. Entrustment of property c. A publicist attack on ｰ ｾ ｬｩ＠ · e o B. Taking property

d. An attempt to remove · ters D. Convertibility of property innocently from power got, to one's own use

116. 'Y' owed some mone o ' '. 'X' the List 11 bullock of 'Y', azing the, side of stream and k · ed itt his own house. I. Criminal breach of trust When 'Y' a · m to release the ｢ｵ ｾ ｬｯ｣ｫＬ＠ im that he would do so

2. Criminal misappropriation of property

when m ey as paid. 'X' is guilty of

a · anch of trust

mt . 81 misappropriation

om on

ft

117. 'A' by puffing 'Z' in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces 'Z' to sign or affix his seal in a blank paper, and delivers it to 'A'. 'Z' signs and delivers the paper to 'A'. '.A: has committed

a robbery

b. dacoity

3. Theft

4. Extortion

Codes;

A B c D

a 4 3 2

b. 3 4 2

c. 4 2 3

d. 3 2 4

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