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MCAT
Practice Test 7
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Physical SciencesTime: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing orreproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
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1 H 1.0
Periodic Table of the Elements 2 He 4.0
3 Li 6.9
4 Be 9.0
5 B
10.8
6 C
12.0
7 N
14.0
8 O
16.0
9 F
19.0
10 Ne 20.2
11 Na 23.0
12 Mg 24.3
13 Al 27.0
14 Si
28.1
15 P
31.0
16 S
32.1
17 Cl 35.5
18 Ar 39.9
19 K
39.1
20 Ca 40.1
21 Sc 45.0
22 Ti
47.9
23 V
50.9
24 Cr 52.0
25 Mn 54.9
26 Fe 55.8
27 Co 58.9
28 Ni 58.7
29 Cu 63.5
30 Zn 65.4
31 Ga 69.7
32 Ge 72.6
33 As 74.9
34 Se 79.0
35 Br 79.9
36 Kr 83.8
37 Rb 85.5
38 Sr 87.6
39 Y
88.9
40 Zr 91.2
41 Nb 92.9
42 Mo 95.9
43 Tc (98)
44 Ru
101.1
45 Rh
102.9
46 Pd
106.4
47 Ag
107.9
48 Cd
112.4
49 In
114.8
50 Sn
118.7
51 Sb
121.8
52 Te
127.6
53 I
126.9
54 Xe
131.3 55 Cs
132.9
56 Ba
137.3
57 La* 138.9
72 Hf
178.5
73 Ta
180.9
74 W
183.9
75 Re
186.2
76 Os
190.2
77 Ir
192.2
78 Pt
195.1
79 Au
197.0
80 Hg
200.6
81 Tl
204.4
82 Pb
207.2
83 Bi
209.0
84 Po
(209)
85 At
(210)
86 Rn (222)
87 Fr
(223)
88 Ra
(226)
89 Ac† (227)
104 Unq† (261)
105 Unp (262)
106 Unh (263)
107 Uns (262)
108 Uno (265)
109 Une (267)
*58 Ce
140.1
59 Pr
140.9
60 Nd
144.2
61 Pm (145)
62 Sm 150.4
63 Eu
152.0
64 Gd 157.3
65 Tb
158.9
66 Dy
162.5
67 Ho
164.9
68 Er
167.3
69 Tm 168.9
70 Yb
173.0
71 Lu
175.0
†90 Th
232.0
91 Pa
(231)
92 U
238.0
93 Np (237)
94 Pu
(244)
95 Am (243)
96 Cm (247)
97 Bk
(247)
98 Cf
(251)
99 Es
(252)
100 Fm (257)
101 Md (258)
102 No
(259)
103 Lr
(260)
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Passage I
Thousands of tons of hydrazine (N2H4) are
produced each year for commercial uses, includingthe production of agricultural chemicals. At room
temperature, hydrazine is a volatile liquid that exists
in hydrogen-bonded networks similar to those found
in liquid water. Hydrazine may be prepared by the
Raschig process, the reaction of ammonia withsodium hypochlorite, as shown in Equation 1.
2NH3( g ) + NaOCl(aq) → N2H4(aq) + NaCl(aq) +
H2O(ℓ)
Equation 1
Hydrazine usually is shipped as the hydrate (N2H4 ·
H2O) because it is easier to handle and can be easilydehydrated to form the anhydrous compound.
Hydrazine and its chemical derivatives are goodrocket propellants. For example, hydrazine reacts
with dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) to produce gaseous
nitrogen and water. Equation 2 shows the reactionand the enthalpy change.
2 N2H4(ℓ) + N2O4(ℓ) → 3 N2( g ) + 4 H2O( g )
∆ H ° = -1040 kJ mol-1
Equation 2
Some thermochemical data for hydrazine and
dinitrogen tetroxide are given in Table 1.
Table 1 Properties of Hydrazine and Dinitrogen
Tetroxide at 298 K
Property N2H4(ℓ) N2O4( g )
∆ H f ° (kJ mol-1
) 50.6 9.2
∆Gf ° (kJ mol-1
) 149.2 97.9
S ° (J K -1
mol-1
) 121.2 304.3
Like ammonia, hydrazine is a base in aqueoussolution. Figure 1 shows the equilibria reactions of
ammonia and hydrazine in aqueous solution.
NH3(aq) + H2O(ℓ) NH4+(aq) + OH
-(aq)
K eq = 1.8 × 10-5
N2H4(aq) + H2O(ℓ) N2H5+ + OH
-(aq)
K eq = 8.5 × 10-7
N2H5+ + H2O N2H6
2+ + OH
-(aq)
K eq = 8.9 × 10-16
Figure 1 Equilibria ( K eq = equilibrium constant)
1. Which of the following Lewis structures best
represents hydrazine?
A)
B)
C)
D)
2. How many grams of ammonia are required tomake one mole of hydrazine by the Raschig
process?
A) 8.5 g
B) 17.0 gC) 32.0 g
D) 34.0 g
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3. What is the percent by weight of hydrazine inhydrazine hydrate?
A ) 6.0/50.0 x 100% B ) 18.0/32.0 x 100%
C ) 18.0/50.0 x 100%
D ) 32.0/50.0 x 100%
4.
What is the enthalpy change (Ho) for the
reaction shown above?A ) 50.6 kJ mol
-1
B ) 149.2 kJ mol-1
C ) (149.2 + 298 x 121.2) kJ mol-1
D ) (149.2 - 50.6) kJ mol-1
5. As a result of being a weaker base than
ammonia, hydrazine:
A ) has a smaller acidity constant ( K a) than does
ammonia.
B ) has a smaller basicity constant ( K b) than doesammonia.
C ) can be protonated twice to form N2H62+
.
D ) forms hydrogen bonds in aqueous solution.
6. The formation of hydrazine from its elements is NOT a spontaneous process at 25
oC and 1 atm
because:
A) S o for the reaction is > 0.
B) H o for the reaction is < 0.
C) Go for the reaction is > 0.
D) S o for hydrazine is > 0.
7. The entropy change (S
o) for the reaction shown
in Equation 2 is:
A) < 0 because the moles of gaseous products > themoles of gaseous reactants.
B) < 0 because water is a product of the reaction.
C) > 0 because the moles of gaseous products > themoles of gaseous reactants.
D) > 0 because water is a product of the reaction.
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10. The density of a typical laboratory plasma is10
18 m
-3. This value leads to plasma
oscillations at:
A ) 9 x 1018
Hz.
B ) 9 x 1012
Hz.
C ) 9 x 109 Hz.
D ) 9 x 106 Hz.
11. A plasma wave moving through a plasma has a
frequency of 109 Hz and a speed of 3.0 x 10
7
m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave?
A ) 3.0 cmB ) 3.0 m
C ) 3.3 cm
D ) 3.3 m
12. As the Figure 1 electrons oscillate throughequilibrium point B, they move on to C because
of:
A) the momentum gathered as they moved from
point A.
B) Coulomb forces pulling on the electron sea.
C) magnetic forces of attraction between the
positive ions and the electron sea.D) the large potential energy they have at point B.
13. What best describes changes that occur as the
electron sea moves from position A to positionB in Figure 1?
A) Kinetic energy is transformed into potential
energy.B) Potential energy is transformed into kinetic
energy.
C) Power is dissipated as heat.D) Turbulence brings the electron sea to rest.
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Passage III
Silicon, the second most abundant element in the
earth’s crust, is found combined with oxygen in avariety of silicate minerals. The most common is
silica (SiO2), which is a network solid.
Silicon cannot be purified by electrolytic
techniques. When elemental potassium becameavailable in the nineteenth century, it was used in a
silicon purification procedure. Today, silicon is produced commercially by the reaction of silica
with carbon or calcium carbide in an electric
furnace at 2000°C (Equation 1). The product isabout 98% pure, with impurities of iron, oxygen,
aluminum, and other elements. Further purification
is achieved by halogenating the silicon, purifying
the resulting gas by fractional distillation, and thenreducing the halogenated silicon compound
(Equations 2-3).
SiO2( s) + 2 C( s) → Si(ℓ) + 2 CO( g )
Equation 1
Si( s) + 3 HCl( g ) → SiCl3H( g ) + H2( g )
Equation 2
SiCl3H( g ) + H2( g ) → Si( s) + 3 HCl( g )
Equation 3
Pure silicon is a hard, brittle, nonreactive substance
with a metallic luster.
14. The purification of elemental silicon was
difficult to achieve because it:
A ) is a rare element.
B ) is too reactive to isolate easily.
C ) exists in minerals that do not decompose easily. D ) does not crystallize.
15. What is the electron configuration for a ground-state silicon atom?
A) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↑ ↑ __B) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↑ ↓ _ C) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↑↓ __ _ D) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↓ ↓ ↓
16. According to valence shell electron pair
repulsion (VSEPR) theory, what is thegeometry around silicon in SiCl3H?
A) Linear B) Tetrahedral
C) Trigonal bipyramidal
D) Octahedral
17. Which of the following elements could best
substitute for potassium in the purification ofsilicon?
A) H2B) NaC) Mg
D) Ca
18. SiCl3H has a normal boiling point of 33oC.
What are the predominant forces between
SiCl3H molecules?
A) Ionic forces
B) Covalent bonds
C) Hydrogen bondsD) van der Waals forces
19. SiCl3H is purified by fractional distillation.
Why does this procedure effect a purification?
A) SiCl3H is not water soluble.
B) SiCl3H is decomposed by water.
C) SiCl3H has a lower boiling point than the solidimpurities.
D) SiCl3H has a lower melting point than the
impurities.
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Passage IV
The production of electrical power via nuclear
fission reactions often provokes heated discussionsabout nuclear waste disposal. In a typical uranium
fission, a uranium nucleus absorbs a neutron and
undergoes fission, as illustrated in the reaction
.
The superscript denotes the atomic mass and thesubscript the atomic number. The nucleus U-236
(i.e.,236
U) decays immediately into two fission
fragments X and Y, along with the release of two orthree neutrons. Energy is produced in the fission
process by the conversion of nuclear mass into
energy. This conversion is described by Einstein’s
famous relation E = mc2, where c is the speed of
light 3 x108 m/s, m is the mass that is converted,
and E the resulting energy released. An analysis of
the reaction shown reveals that about 1/1000 of theoriginal starting mass of U-235 is missing after the
reaction. This missing mass accounts for the energy
produced in the reaction. The fission fragments Xand Y constitute the radioactive waste from
uranium fission. These fragments then undergo
beta and/or gamma decay. The resulting fragmentsthemselves may be radioactive, resulting in further
decays until a stable isotope is reached. Hundreds
of years must pass before these radioactive
fragments decay to nonradioactive nuclei.
20. If three neutrons are produced in the U-235
fission reaction discussed in the passage, what
relation must the atomic masses A1 and A2
obey?
A ) A1 + A2 = 92B ) A1 + A2 = 232
C ) A1 + A2 = 233
D ) A1 + A2 = 236
21. If fission fragment X undergoes beta decay,then one neutron in the nucleus is converted
into a proton, an electron and a neutrino (the
electron and neutrino v′exit the atom). If thenew fission fragment is called X ′, the beta-
decay reaction would be written as:
A)
B)
C)
D)
22. Half-lives are useful indicators of howdangerous a radioactive substance is. The half-
lives of Pu-239 and Ra-226 are 24,000 yrs and
1600 yrs, respectively. In comparison to atomsof Pu-239, atoms of Ra-226 will decay at a
rate:
A) 8 times faster.
B) 15 times faster.
C) 8 times slower.D) 15 times slower.
23. A standard coal-burning power plant produces
about 106 kg of fly-ash every week. Assuming
that the density of fly-ash is 1000 kg/m
3
, whatwould be the length of the side of a fly-ash
cube made from this waste?
A) 1 m
B) 10 m
C) 100 mD) 1000 m
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
24. Consider the following electrode potentials.
Cu2+
+ 2 e- → Cu( s) E
o= +0.34 V
2 H2O → O2 + 4 H+ + 4 e
- E
o = -1.23 V
What is E ocell for the reaction shown in the
following equation?
2 Cu2+
+ 2 H2O → 2 Cu( s) + O2 + 4 H+
A) -0.89 V
B) +0.55 VC) +1.57 V
D) +1.91 V
25. A gas that occupies 10 L at 1 atm and 25oC will
occupy what volume at 500 atm and 25oC?
A) Exactly 0.020 L
B) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
space occupied by the individual gas moleculesC) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
repulsions between the individual gas molecules
D) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of theincreased number of collisions with the sides of
the container
26. If there is no air resistance, how far will a 2-kgobject fall from rest in 10 sec? (Note: Use g =
10 m/s2.)
A) 100 mB) 250 m
C) 300 m
D) 500 m
27. When a light wave and a sound wave pass from
air to glass, what changes occur in their speeds?
A) Both speed up.B) Both slow down.C) Light speeds up; sound slows down.
D) Light slows down; sound speeds up.
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Passage V
When aqueous solutions of bromine and acetone are
mixed, the reaction shown by Equation 1 occurs.
Equation 1
When the pH of the solution is between 4 and 7, thereaction occurs very slowly. However, at pH values
less than 3, the reaction occurs rapidly.
If the bromination of acetone (molar mass = 58.0 g
mol –1
and density = 0.791 g mL –1
) follows simple
kinetics, the rate law can be expressed by
Equation 2.
Rate = – [Br 2]/t = k [acetone]a[Br 2] b[H+]c
Equation 2
Bromine is a red–brown liquid that absorbs lightvery strongly at a wavelength of 395 nm, and it is
the only compound that absorbs visible light during
this reaction. Thus, a researcher can use aspectrophotometer to follow the decrease in the
concentration of bromine. The amount of 395-nm
light absorbed by bromine is directly proportional to
the concentration of bromine. Equation 3 is Beer’slaw, which shows the relationship between the
absorbance A and the concentration c of the
absorbing species when light passes through acuvette of path length l . The molar absorbtivity ε is
a constant for a given wavelength, and the path
length is normally 1.00 cm.
А = ε cl
Equation 3
Table 1 gives rate data for this reaction. In theexperimentally determined rate law, the reaction is
zero order with respect to bromine.
Table 1 Rate Data at 25°C and 395 nm
Exprmnt Number
[acetone] M
[H+] M
[Br 2] M
– [Br 2]/t M s –1
rateconstant
k × 10 –5
1 1.60 0.403 4.14 × 10−3 28.0 × 10 –6 4.35
2 0.80 0.101 3.96 × 10−3 2.85 × 10 –6 3.52
3 0.40 0.202 3.69 × 10−3 2.94 × 10 –6 3.65
4 0.80 0.403 4.26 × 10−3 12.9 × 10 –6 4.00
5 1.60 0.202 4.38 × 10−3 12.7 × 10 –6 3.93
6 0.80 0.202 4.28 × 10−3 5.99 × 10 –6 3.70
k ave = 3.86 ± 0.2 × 10 – 5
M – 1
s – 1
28. The molar absorptivity of bromine at 395 nm is
198 M –1 cm –1. What is the absorbance at 395nm in Experiment 1?
A) 0.00825
B) 0.820
C) 1.22D) 20.9
29. What is the value of c in Equation 2 as
determined from the data in Table 1?
A) 1B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
30. If the reaction is first order with respect to both
acetone and hydronium ion, which of the
following equations gives the rate law?
A) Rate = k [acetone][H+]
B) Rate = k [acetone][Br 2]2[H+]
C) Rate = k [acetone][Br 2][H+
]D) Rate = k [acetone]2[H+]
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31. What is the molarity of pure acetone?
A ) 1.36
B ) 13.6C ) 45.9
D ) 73.4
32. Though 395-nm light is in the visible region ofthe electromagnetic spectrum, it is very near:
A) the radio wave region.B) the microwave region.
C) the infrared region.
D) the ultraviolet region.
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Passage VI
Cellular phones are commonly used by people who
are traveling away from home or on business. Thedevelopment of these phones combines many recent
innovations in technology. Simply described,
cellular phones behave like two-way radios with the
incoming voice data transmitted at one carrier
frequency and the outgoing voice data transmittedat another frequency. This capability to send and
receive voice data on these two separate frequencychannels allows the person to hear and speak on the
phone at the same time. The information in these
channels is transmitted on radio-frequencyelectromagnetic carrier waves, which travel well
through the air.
Cell-phone channels operate at frequencies ranging between 824 MHz and 894 MHz. Each channel
requires a finite amount of frequency space, calledthe bandwidth of the channel, and is set at 30 kHz.Most cellular phones can transmit their signal with
between 0.6 watts and 3 watts of power. The cell
phone scans all of its channels when it is on to findthe channel with the highest signal intensity. The
phone communicates with a base station, whichtypically covers an area of 10 square miles, called a
“cell.” A cellular city has many “cells” within it,
which have phone base stations to transmit andreceive cell-phone data. Because the size of a cell
is relatively small, it allows efficientcommunication with relatively low power phones.
When a phone moves from cell to cell, its calls arehandled by a central switching office.
33. What is the total frequency range available for
cellular phone communications?
A ) 30 kHzB ) 894 MHz
C ) 70 MHz
D ) 894.03 MHz
34. If a cellular phone is powered by a 12-volt battery and is transmitting at its maximum
power, what current is being used?
A) 3 W
B) 3 A
C) 0.25 A
D) 0.05 A
35. If two people were talking on their cellular
phones within the same "cell" in a city, why
wouldn't their transmissions interfere?
A) The power transmitted from each phone is nothigh enough to interfere.
B) The signals are transmitted at the speed of light,
and do not have time to interfere.C) The physical distance between any two base
stations limits interference.
D) The frequencies used by each phone are chosento be different.
36. The intensity of a cellular phone transmission
received at the switching station is proportionalto the power used by the phone and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance
between phone and station. Which combinationof power and distance will provide the highest
signal to be picked up by the switching station?
A) 0.6 watts, 2 milesB) 0.6 watts, 3 miles
C) 3 watts, 5 milesD) 3 watts, 4 miles
37. The 846 MHz carrier wave is an
electromagnetic signal, whereas sounds wavesare typically at much lower frequency and are
carried through the air as pressure waves.
Which statement describes the two wavesaccurately?
A) Electromagnetic waves are transverse; pressure
waves are longitudinal.B) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal;
pressure waves are transverse.
C) Waves are always longitudinal and transverse.D) Electromagnetic wavelengths are longer than
acoustic sound wavelengths.
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Passage VII
A capacitor is a device that stores charge. The
voltage V across a capacitor and the charge q on thecapacitor are related by q = CV , where C is the
capacitance measured in farads, F (1.0 F = 1.0
coulomb per volt).
A student sets out to measure the capacitance usingthe circuit of Figure 1.
Figure 1 Circuit for measuring capacitance
In this circuit, the capacitor will be fully charged
soon after switch S is closed to the left, as current passes through the small fixed resistor r in series
with the capacitor C . Then, when S is switched to
the right, the capacitor discharges through thevariable resistor R. R is adjusted so that the
discharge current, as measured by the ammeter, is
constant during the discharge time.
Figure 2 The discharge current versus time
Figure 2 shows the current-versus-time plot during
the discharge. The voltage of the battery used in themeasurement was 12.0 V. The total charge q
transferred to the capacitor can be estimated from
the constant current value during the discharge time.
38. When switch S is closed to the left, charge begins to accumulate on the capacitor. Charge
cannot accumulate indefinitely because:
A) the variable resistor inhibits the current flow.
B) the battery continually loses charge.
C) successive charges brought to the plates are
repelled by charges accumulated earlier.
D) the fixed resistor loses energy to heat.
39. To keep the current constant during the
discharge cycle:
A) the resistance R must be continually increased.B) the resistance R must be continually decreased.
C) the resistance r must be continually increased.
D) the resistance r must equal R.
40. As the capacitor is charged, the electrical
potential energy that it gains:
A) equals the work done by the battery throughout
the charging process.
B) is less than the work done by the battery
throughout the charging process.C) is greater than the work done by the battery
throughout the charging process.
D) equals the potential energy stored in resistor r.
41. Which circuit elements store energy?
I. Capacitors
II. Resistors
III. Batteries
A) I only
B) I and II onlyC) I and III only
D) II and III only
42. The resistance of the variable resistor, R, at the
beginning of the discharge process is:
A) 2000 Ω.
B) 3000 Ω.C) 4000 Ω.
D) 6000 Ω.
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Passage VIII
Many reactions of oxyanions (negative ions that
contain oxygen) involve the transfer of oxygenatoms from one ion or molecule to another.
Reaction 1 shows an oxygen atom transfer that is
typical of an oxyanion reaction.
NO2- + OCl
- NO3
- + Cl
- K eq = 10
68
Reaction 1
Despite the favorable equilibrium constant, thisreaction is extremely slow. The reaction rate can be
increased by adding acid to the reaction solution.
When added, acid reacts with OCl-, forming HOCl.
HOCl allows the oxygen transfer to take place morequickly because the hydrogen atom reduces the
charge on the oxygen atom, facilitating the breakingof the O-Cl bond. The rate of this reaction,Reaction 2, is first order in both NO2
- and HOCl.
NO2- + HOCl NO3
-+ Cl
- + H
+ K eq = 10
43
Reaction 2
Other oxyanion reactions also take place more
quickly in acidic solutions. For example, noobservable reaction occurs between ClO3
-and Br
-in
basic solution, but when an acidic solution is used,Reaction 3 occurs rapidly.
ClO3- + 6 Br
-+ 6 H
+ → Cl
- + 3 Br 2 + 3 H2O
Reaction 3
The rate law for Reaction 3 is k[ClO3-][Br
-][H
+]
2,
and the initial sequences of the reaction mechanismare shown below.
Sequence I 2 H+
+ ClO3-
H2OClO2+
(fast)Sequence II Br - + H2OClO2+ BrClO2 + H2O (slow)
Sequence III Br - + BrClO2 Br 2 + ClO2- (fast)
The exchange of oxygen-18 between H218
O andSO4
2- is also more rapid in acid than in neutral
solutions of SO42-
. A proposed reaction mechanism
for the exchange is shown below.
Sequence I 2 H+ + SO42- H2SO4 (fast)
Sequence II H2SO4 SO3 + H2O (slow)Sequence III SO3 + H2
18O 2 H+ + SO318O2- (fast)
43. If the rate of formation of Cl- in Reaction 3
were 1.0 x 10-2 M /sec at a pH of 1, what would
it be at a pH of 2? (Note: Assume that other
conditions are identical.)
A) 1 x 10-1 M /s
B) 1 x 10-2 M /s
C) 2 x 10-2 M /s
D) 1 x 10-4 M /s
44. Compared to the rate of Reaction 1, the rate ofReaction 2:
A) is 1025
times less.
B) is 1025
times greater.
C) is 1.58 times greater.D) cannot be evaluated without additional
information.
45. In addition to the explanation in the passage,the rate of Reaction 2 is different from the rate
of Reaction 1 because the formation of HOCl by the protonation of the oxygen:
A) reduces the electronic repulsion forces betweenthe reactants.
B) increases the electronic repulsion forces between
the reactants.
C) increases the electronic repulsion forces betweenthe nitrogen atom and the oxygen atom that is
being transferred.
D) reduces the electronic attraction forces betweenthe chlorine atom and the oxygen atom that is
being transferred.
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46. Which of the following methods would produceSO3
18O
2- at the fastest rate?
A ) Bubbling SO3( g ) through H218
OB ) Bubbling S
18O3( g ) through H2
18O
C ) Bubbling S18
O3( g ) through H2O
D ) Reacting SO218
O(l ) with H218
O
47. Which of the following figures represents alikely transition state for Reaction 2?
A )
B )
C )
D )
48. Which of the following graphs best shows theenergy diagram for the Reaction 3 mechanism
in the passage?
A)
B)
C)
D)
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
49. Phosphorus appears directly below nitrogen inthe periodic table. The boiling point of
ammonia, NH3, is higher than the boiling point
of phosphine, PH3, under standard conditions.Which of the following statements best
explains the difference in the boiling points ofthese two compounds?
A ) Ammonia is a weaker base than phosphine.
B ) The N-H bond is weaker than the P-H bond. C ) High molecular weight compounds generally
have lower boiling points.
D ) Ammonia forms stronger intermolecularhydrogen bonds than phosphine.
50. A student measures the mass and volume of
four objects.
Object Mass(g) Volume(cm3)
A 1.5 0.50
B 3.0 0.75
C 4.5 1.00
D 6.0 1.50
Which object has the highest density?
A ) A
B ) BC ) C
D ) D
51. Which of the following elements gains oneelectron most readily?
A) BeB) Cl
C) K
D) Ca
52. Which of the following substances is NOT a base?
A) NH3B) SO4
2-
C) NH4+
D) Fe(OH)2
53. A ray of light in air is incident upon a glass
plate at an angle of 45o. The angle of refraction
of the ray in the glass is 30o. What is the index
of refraction of the glass?
(Data: sin 30o= 0.500, sin 45
o= 0.707,
sin 60o= 0.866, tan 30
o= 0.577,
tan 45o= 1.000)
A) 1.22
B) 1.41C) 1.57
D) 1.65
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Passage IX
Generalizations such as “like dissolves like” and
“the solubility of a solute doubles for every ten-degree rise in temperature” are useful in certain
situations but are not universally applicable to
solution chemistry. Instead, several different
relationships describe solution dynamics. Thus,
depending on the problem, a chemist must usevarious concentration units.
For example, molarity ( M ) is best for most
stoichiometry problems, molality (m) for freezing-
point depression problems, mole fraction forRaoult-law problems, and osmolality for osmotic
pressure problems.
Table 1 gives data for two water soluble solutes,ethylene glycol [C2H6O2(ℓ)] and lead nitrate
[Pb(NO3)2( s)].
Table 1 Data for Ethylene Glycol and Lead Nitrate
Property C2H6O2 Pb(NO3)2
Formula weight 62.1 g/mol 331 g/mol
Specific gravity 1.116 4.53
Solubility in
water at 0°C at20°C
∞ ∞
37.7 g/100mL56.5 g/100mL
Equation 1 shows how osmotic pressure (II)depends on concentration ( M ) and Kelvin
temperature (T ).
II = M R T
Equation 1
Note: R = 0.082 L atm K -1
mol-1
, and the molal
freezing-point depression and boiling-pointelevation constants for water are K f = -1.86°C/m
and K b = 0.52°C/m, respectively.
54. What is the molality of a saturated solution ofPb(NO3)2(aq) at 0
oC?
A) 0.114 mB) 0.251 m
C) 1.14 m
D) 3.41 m
55. To what temperature does a 10.75 m solution ofethylene glycol protect an engine fromfreezing?
A) -5.78oC
B) -12.0oC
C) -20.0oC
D) -45.0oC
56. Which aqueous solution, 0.1 M lead nitrate or0.1 M ethylene glycol, lowers the freezing point
of water to a greater extent?
A) Pb(NO3)2(aq) by threefold
B) Pb(NO3)2(aq) by twofold
C) C2H6O2(aq) by twofold
D) C2H6O2(aq) by threefold
57. Does either generalization in the passage apply
to aqueous solutions of ethylene glycol?
A) Yes; both generalizations apply.
B) No; neither generalization applies.C) Yes; “like dissolves like” only applies.
D) Yes; “the solubility of a solute doubles for every
ten-degree rise in temperature” only applies.
58. If a cell wall separates a hypertonic, interstitial
fluid from cellular fluid, will there be an
osmotic effect?
A) Yes; the cell fluid will become less
concentrated.
B) Yes; the cell fluid will become moreconcentrated.
C) No; osmosis does not apply to biological fluids.
D) No; the concentrations are the same on bothsides of the wall.
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Passage X
Cars are subjected to many forces as they move: air
drag, tire-road friction, engine motive force, gravity,and other factors. Unfortunately, collisions
occasionally occur. During such accidents, a
(potentially large) fraction of the kinetic energy is
rapidly and irreversibly converted to thermal energy
and deformation of the car structure. Test crasheswith dummy drivers and passengers and other
experiments help designers develop safer vehicles.
In one test, two 1000-kg cars, A and B, are initially
100 m apart. They are traveling on a highway in thesame direction: car A at 30 m/s, car B at 20 m/s
with car B ahead of car A. Eventually they collide.
In one case the collision is cushioned by a spring
(with constant k = 105 N/m) on the front of car A.
In a second case there is no spring and the body
deformation of the two cars absorbs the collisionenergy. (Assume g = 10 m/s
2 when needed.)
61. Consider the difference in crash deceleration on
a test dummy in two test cases.
Case I: The dummy hits the steering wheel at20 m/s and stops in 0.1 s.
Case II: The dummy hits an air bag at 20 m/s
and stops in 0.25 s.
What is the ratio of the average acceleration inCase II to that in Case I?
A ) 0.25
B ) 0.40
C ) 2.5 D ) 4.0
62. Two cars, each of mass 1000 kg traveling at 20m/s in opposite directions, have a head-on
inelastic collision. How much heat and
deformation energy is produced?
A) 2 x 105 J
B) 4 x 105 J
C) 8 x 105J
D) 16 x 105
J
63. When tires are made of hard rubber, the
coefficients of rolling, sliding, and static
friction with the road are reduced comparedwith softer rubber. Which of the following
predictions would NOT hold if hard rubber
replaced soft rubber in tire manufacture?
A) Stopping distances would increase.
B) Fuel efficiency would be unchanged.
C) Slippage on curves would be more likely.D) Higher tire air pressure would be required.
64. A spring between colliding cars reduces the
average force on the cars because it:
A) lengthens collision time.
B) absorbs kinetic energy loss.
C) absorbs momentum change.D) causes no permanent deformation.
65. How long before test car A overtakes car B?
A) 2 s
B) 3.33 sC) 5 s
D) 10 s
66. What is the post-collision speed of cars A andB after the no-spring inelastic collision?
A) 0 m/s
B) 20 m/sC) 25 m/s
D) 50 m/s
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71. The primary rupture in the Landers quakemoved from south to north as it progressed to
its full 74-km length. How would the Doppler
effect influence this?
A ) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves
propagating eastward and westward
B ) By increasing the wavelength of seismic waves
propagating eastward and westwardC ) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves
moving northward and increasing the
wavelength of waves moving southward
D ) By increasing the wavelength of seismic wavesmoving northward and decreasing the
wavelength of waves moving southward
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
72. What is the difference in pressure between two
points that are separated by a vertical distance
of 0.25 m in a tank of water? (Note: Thedensity of water is 1,000 kg/m
3, and g = 10
m/s2.)
A ) 250 N/m2
B ) 400 N/m2
C ) 2,500 N/m2
D ) 4,000 N/m2
73. The following reaction occurs spontaneously.
Cd( s) + 2 H+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + H2( g )
Which of the following has the highest electronaffinity?
A ) Cd( s) B ) H
+(aq)
C ) Cd2+
(aq)
D ) H2( g )
74. The energy, E , of a hydrogen atom with its
electron in the nth shell of a hydrogen atom isgiven by E = -C/n
2 where n = 1,2,3, . . . and C
is a positive constant. If an electron goes from
the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell:
A ) a photon is emitted.
B ) an electron is emitted.
C ) an electron is absorbed. D ) the energy of the atom is increased.
75. A ray of light in air strikes the flat surface of aliquid, resulting in a reflected ray and a
refracted ray. If the angle of reflection is
known, what additional information is neededin order to determine the relative refractive
index of the liquid compared to air?
A) Angle of incidence
B) Angle of refractionC) Refractive index of air D) Wavelength of the light
76. Approximately how many moles of Al3+
arereduced when 0.1 faraday of charge passes
through a cell during the production of Al?
(Note: Assume there is excess Al3+
available
and that Al3+
is reduced to Al metal only.)
A) 0.033 mol
B) 0.050 molC) 0.067 mol
D) 0.10 mol
77. When a weak acid (HA) is titrated with sodiumhydroxide in the presence of an indicator (HIn),
the pH at which a color change is observed
depends on the:
A) final concentration of HA.
B) final concentration of HIn.
C) initial concentration of HA.D) p K a of HIn.
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Verbal Reasoning Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several questions.
After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there areany questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690)
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Passage I
Students of evolution have shown that species
death, or extinction, is going on all the time and thatit is an essential feature of life history. What alarms
so many life historians is not that extinctions are
occurring but that they appear to be occurring at a
greater rate than they have at all but a few times in
the past, raising the specter of the sort of wholesaledie-offs that ended the reign of the dinosaurs. A
new word has been coined to define the value mostthreatened by these overheated rates: biodiversity.
Since extinction is a particularly final andcomprehensive form of death, species preservation
and its corollary, habitat protection, are now seen as
the most important means available to stem the
erosion of biodiversity, but I wonder if these ideas,which emphasize diversity at the species level, give
an adequate picture of recent biological history. Ifwe believe that all life shares a certain quality ofsensitivity, or self-awareness, then Homo sapiens
was an astonishing and wholly unpredictable leap
forward in this respect, because human beingsmanifested an idea of personhood never before
achieved.
Consciousness. Mind. Insight. Here are qualities
that, if not exclusively human, seem appallinglyrudimentary elsewhere. Plainly, our planet
contained vast opportunities for creatures willing toshape it consciously toward their ends. The way
was clear; we know of no other species that hasdivined what we’ve been up to or has a mind to
object. What seems simple to us is far beyond
them; it’s almost as if we move so fast that we areinvisible, and they are still trying to pretend that the
world is the same as it was before we arrived.
This speed on the uptake appears to be the chiefadvantage that cultural adaptation has over genetic.
When human beings encounter new circumstances,
adaptation rarely depends on which individuals aregenetically best suited to adjust, passing on their
abilities more successfully than others and
producing subsequent generations better adapted to
the new order. No, human beings tend to cut the
loop short by noticing the new, puzzling over it,telling their friends, and attempting to find out
immediately whether it is edible, combustible,domesticable, or whatever.
I am concerned with an image of our species as avast, featureless mob of Yahoos mindlessly
trampling this planet’s most ancient and delicate
harmonies. This image is not a completely
inaccurate description of present conditions in some parts of the world, but it portrays the human
presence as a sort of monolithic disaster, when infact Homo sapiens is the crown of creation. Changeis one of the most reliable constants of this story.
To say that the changes we have brought, and will
continue to bring, are somehow alien to the worldand are within a half inch of making its “natural”
continuance impossible displays some contempt forthe forces at work.
Today, many believe that these changes are oftenfor the worse. We look back with longing to a time
at which the human presence barely dimpled thelandscape. I’m not persuaded by this picture. I can
easily imagine arguments that would have requiredthe interior of North America to remain empty of
cities ⎯ and yet I don’t think this continent is a poorer place now than it was twenty thousand years
ago. The more convinced we are that our species is
a plague, the more we are obliged to yearn fordisasters.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:T. Palmer, The case for human beings. ©1992 by T. Palmer.
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78. Which of the following statements bestsummarizes the central thesis of the passage?
A ) Biodiversity is essential for human survival. B ) Cultural adaptation and genetic adaptation are
separate forms of evolution.
C ) Changes brought on by human judgment are
natural.
D ) Extinction is inevitable.
79. Assume that a new species is discovered and
found to have a capacity for reasoned judgment
greater than that of human beings. The authorwould be most likely to argue that:
A ) the new species will be highly adaptable.
B ) adaptation is taking place at a faster rate thanscientists had previously thought.
C ) biological classifications should be altered.
D ) decreasing biodiversity will destroy theenvironment.
80. The author apparently believes that the
increasing rate of extinction:
A ) will decrease naturally.
B ) should be halted.
C ) has nothing to do with human activity. D ) is not a reason for panic.
81. Suppose that a conference is held on issuesrelevant to the transformation of Mars into a
habitable planet. Which of the following topics
is the author most likely to present?
A ) The importance of preserving native habitats on
MarsB ) The importance of farming species likely to
survive on Mars
C ) The role of human inventiveness in ensuring
survival on Mars
D ) Reasons that biodiversity is irrelevant on Mars
82. According to the author, how do many lifehistorians support their contention that we risk
destroying species?
A) They assert that extinctions are occurring at a
rapidly accelerated rate.
B) They maintain that extinctions are brought about
only by human intervention.
C) They cite examples of extinct species.D) They point to similarities between humans and
dinosaurs.
83. Which of the following processes would theauthor be most likely to characterize as
“cultural adaptation”?
A) Getting to know people from different culturesB) Moving around to many different regions of the
world
C) Reasoning and problem solving to change asituation
D) Moving to a culture that one finds suitable
84. The author is concerned that a failure torecognize the value of human potential to bring
about change will cause:
A) inattention to the selfish motives underlyinghuman behavior.
B) an overly optimistic picture of the fate of the
universe.C) an underestimation of the value of other species.
D) a self-fulfilling prophecy that guaranteesdisaster.
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Passage II
There is no doubt that what we call the modern
movement in art begins with the single-mindeddetermination of a French painter to see the world
objectively. There need be no mystery about this
word: what Cézanne wished to see was the world,
or that part of it he was contemplating, as an object,
without any intervention either of the tidy mind orthe untidy emotions. His immediate predecessors,
the Impressionists, had seen the world
subjectively ⎯ that is to say, as it presented itself to
their senses in various lights, or from various pointsof view. Each occasion made a different and
distinct impression on their senses, and for each
occasion there must necessarily be a separate workof art. But Cézanne wished to exclude this
shimmering and ambiguous surface of things and
penetrate to the reality that did not change, that was
present beneath the bright but deceptive picture presented by the kaleidoscope of the senses.
Great revolutionary leaders are people with a singleand a simple idea, and it is the very persistency with
which they pursue this idea that endows it with
power. But let us ask why, in the long history ofart, it had never previously happened that an artist
should wish to see the world objectively. We know,for example, that at various stages in the history of
art there have been attempts to make art “imitative”;
and not only Greek and Roman art, but theRenaissance of Classical art in Europe, were periods
of art possessed by a desire to represent the world
“as it really is.” But there always intervened
between the visual event and the act of realizing thevision an activity which we can only call
interpretative. This intervention seemed to be made
necessary by the very nature of perception, whichdoes not present to the senses a flat two-
dimensional picture with precise boundaries but a
central focus with a periphery of vaguely
apprehended and seemingly distorted objects. Theartist might focus on a single object, say a human
figure or even a human face; but even then there
were problems such as that of representing thesolidity of the object, its place in space.
In every instance before Cézanne, in order to solvesuch problems the artist brought in extra-visual
faculties ⎯ imagination, which enabled the artist totransform the objects of the visible world and thus
to create an ideal space occupied by ideal forms; or
intellect, which enabled the artist to construct a
scientific chart, a perspective, in which the objectcould be given an exact situation. But a system of
perspective is no more an accurate representation ofwhat the eye sees than a Mercator’s projection iswhat the world looks like from Sirius. Like the
map, it serves to guide the intellect; perspective
does not give us any glimpse of the reality.
One might conclude from the history of art that
reality in this sense is a will-o’-the-wisp, anactuality we can see but never grasp. Nature, as we
say, is one thing, art quite another. But Cézanne,
though he was familiar with the “art of the
museums” and respected the attempts of his predecessors to come to terms with nature, did not
despair of succeeding where they had failed ⎯ that isto say, in “realizing” his sensations in the presence
of nature.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
H. Read, A Concise History of Modern Painting. ©1968 by
The Herbert Read Discretionary Trust.
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85. Information in the passage suggests that the
author probably believes that the act of
interpretation:
A ) allows the artist to view the world more
objectively.
B ) is an almost unavoidable component of the act o
seeing.C ) was first popularized by Cézanne. D ) became the dominant force in art many years
after Cézanne.
86. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the central thesis of the passage?
A ) For the Impressionists, each sensory occasionrequired a separate work of art.
B ) The use of perspective prevents artists from
effectively interpreting reality.C ) Cézanne tried to solve the problem of
interpretation by attempting to view the world
objectively.
D ) Before Cézanne, many periods of art reflected adesire to represent the world “as it really is.”
87. According to the passage, a revolutionary, atleast in part, is a person who:
A ) promotes a single, simple idea.
B ) pursues interpretation in art. C ) pursues realism in art.
D ) observes the distinction between nature and art.
88. In the context of the passage, to view an object
“subjectively” is to view it:
A ) without intervention by the intellect or the
emotions.
B ) differently depending on when and how it is
viewed.
C ) within the framework of an ideal space. D ) in the presence of nature.
89. The author’s suggestion that reality in art
before Cézanne had been a “will-o’-the-wisp”
can most reasonably be interpreted to mean thatartists before Cézanne had not:
A) attempted to imitate reality faithfully.
B) agreed about the value of Impressionism.
C) been able to perceive reality.D) found a way to depict reality effectively.
90. The author’s assertion that Greek, Roman, and
Renaissance art tried to represent the worldaccurately is:
A) illustrated in the passage by examples of specific
works of art.B) not supported by evidence in the passage.
C) supported in the passage by a discussion of the
nature of perception.D) contradicted by evidence later in the passage.
91. It can most reasonably be concluded from the
passage that Cézanne’s work exerted a powerful influence because Cézanne:
A) pursued the concept of objectivity with
persistence.B) brought extra-visual faculties into his work.
C) expanded the concept of interpretation.
D) painted scenes as they were presented to hissenses.
92. If it were discovered that Cézanne learned theconcept of objective painting from another
artist, this finding would challenge the
contention that Cézanne:
A) pursued goals similar to those of Greek and
Roman art.
B) was the founder of the modern movement in art.
C) respected the attempts of his predecessors tocome to terms with nature.
D) was familiar with “the art of the museums.”
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93. The author’s opinion that artists beforeCézanne could not avoid interpretation is
supported in the passage by:
A ) an analysis of some famous Renaissance
paintings.
B ) a discussion of Cézanne’s rejection of
interpretation.
C ) a description of extra-visual faculties used byartists.
D ) an explanation of Cézanne’s working methods.
94. The author’s comparison of a system of perspective to a map is most likely intended to
show that:
A) maps are more accurate than even the most
realistic artistic depictions of the world.
B) systems of perspective have grown more
sophisticated over the years, while mapmaking
has not.C) both afford a clearer view of the reality beneath
everyday objects.
D) both are intellectual methods of perceiving the
world.
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Passage III
When I saw it first, it was a green and sleeping bud,
raising itself toward the sun. Ants gathered aphidsand sap around the unopened bloom. A few days
later, it was a tender young flower with a pale green
center, a troop of silver-gray insects climbing up
and down its stalk. Over the summer this sunflower
became incredibly beautiful, subtly turning its facedaily, always toward the sun, its black center alive
with a deep blue light, as if flint had sparked anelemental fire there, in community with rain,
mineral, mountain air, and sand.
As summer changed from green to yellow, new
visitors came daily: lace-winged flies, bees with
legs fat with pollen, grasshoppers with clattering
wings and desperate hunger, and other lives toosmall or hidden for me to see. This plant was a
society undergoing constant change, great anddiverse, depending on light and moisture.
Changes also occurred in the greater world of the
plant. One day, rounding a bend in the road, Iencountered the disturbing sight of a dead horse,
black against a hillside, eyes rolled back. Anotherday I was nearly lifted by a sandstorm so fierce and
hot that I had to wait for it to pass before I could
return home. It swept away the faded dried petalsof the sunflower. Then the birds arrived to carry the
seeds to the future.
In one plant in one season a drama of need andsurvival was enacted. Hungers were filled; insects
coupled; there was escape, exhaustion, and death.
An outsider, I never learned the sunflower’s goldenlanguage. An old voice from gene or cell taught the
plant to oppose the pull of gravity and find its way
upward, to open. A certain knowing ⎯ instinct,
intuition, necessity ⎯ directed the seed-bearing birdsto ancestral homelands they had never seen.
There are other summons, some even moremysterious than the survival journeys of birds and
insects. Once a century, among their canopy of
sunlit green, all bamboo plants of a certain kindflower on the same day. Not the plants’ location, in
a steamy Malaysian jungle or a suburban garden in
Pennsylvania, their age, nor their size matter. Some
current we cannot explain passes through this
primitive life. Each with a share of communalknowledge, all are somehow one plant.
Sometimes you can hear the language of the
earth ⎯ in water, trees, emanating from mosses,seeping through the soil. Once, in the redwood
forest, I felt something like a heartbeat, a hardly
perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longingin me, a dream barely remembered. Once, on a
calm beach, I heard an ocean storm booming from
afar, revealing the disturbance at its center, telling
about the rough water that would arrive.
Tonight I watch the sky, thinking of the people who
came before me and their knowledge of the placement of stars, people who watched the sun
long and carefully enough to witness the angle of
light that touched a stone just once a year. Withoutwritten records, they registered the passage of the
gods of night, noting fine details of the worldaround them and the immensity above them.
Whichever road I follow, I walk in the land of many
gods. Behind me, my ancestors say “Be still.Watch and listen. You are the result of the love of
thousands.”
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
L. Hogan, Dwellings: A Spiritual History of the Living World. ©1995 by L. Hogan.
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95. The author seems to be trying to understand:
A ) the beliefs of primitive peoples from the
perspective of an anthropologist.B ) the interactive balance among species from the
perspective of an ecologist.
C ) the orderly recurrence of natural forces from the
perspective of a poet.
D ) the genetic regulation of behavior from the perspective of a biologist.
96. According to the author’s account, the
regularity of biological cycles indicates:
A ) a response to the competition for resources
among similar species.
B ) a special mode of communication among themembers of each species.
C ) the adaptation of each species to a unique niche
in its habitat.D ) an inherent sensitivity to particular
environmental changes.
97. One can infer from the passage that for theauthor, the horse and the sandstorm both:
A ) present mysteries beyond human
comprehension.B ) are aspects of the world that mar its beauty.
C ) indicate the cruel indifference of nature.
D ) have necessary roles in a perpetual drama.
98. Which of the following ideas about humans isclearly NOT assumed in the passage?
A) Humans lack the sensory means to detect someintraspecies messages.
B) Humans have always attempted to understand
natural occurrences.
C) Humans are capable of existing in harmony with
other species.D) Humans will eventually satisfy their curiosity
about nature.
99. The passage account suggests that theenvironmental effect of human land use is that
native plants and animals:
A) become dependent for survival on humanintervention.
B) continue to thrive in their symbiotic interaction.
C) suffer from disruption of the ecological balance.D) are replaced by artificially introduced species.
100. The discussion suggests that the author
considers the appropriate relationship ofhumans to other animals to be that of:
A) benefactor to recipient.
B) scientist to subject.C) student to teacher.
D) parent to child.
101. What is meant by “a hardly perceptible
current”?
A) A sense of unity with the forces that produce life
B) A low-frequency sound wave transmitted
undergroundC) A personal message from a supernatural source
D) An urge to contact others of one’s species
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Passage IV
Atonality originates in an attempt to liberate the
twelve notes of the chromatic scale from thediatonic functional associations they still retain in
“chromatic” music ⎯ to dissociate, so to speak, the
chromatic scale from “chromaticism.” Theexpanded harmonic vocabulary of late nineteenth-
century music had extended the range of tonalrelationships to the point at which the traditionalarticulative procedures were no longer adequate.
The final step in this development was taken by
Arnold Schöenberg in a radical stylistic departure based upon a rejection of any general principles
regulating simultaneity and progression. In the
compositions Schöenberg wrote between 1908 and1923, the period of “free” atonality, he disclosed
that this ultimate expansion of possible relations to
include the whole range of combinations contained
in the semitonal scale demands a revaluation ofevery aspect of the musical language.
The composer working within the diatonic tonalsystem may take for granted the existence of
specific properties of that system: a seven-tone
scale, triadic harmonic structure, a key center, andso forth. The atonal composer, however, can take
for granted nothing except the existence of a givenlimiting sound world, the semitonal scale. Aside
from this assumption, it is impossible to state the
fundamental conditions of atonality in general ,except in a negative way, merely stipulating the
absence of a priori functional connections among
the twelve notes of the semitonal scale. Musical
coherence requires additional limiting factors, butthese are not reducible to a set of foundational
assumptions in terms of which the compositions
that are collectively designated by the expression“atonal music” can be said to represent a “system”
of composition.
In 1923, Schöenberg published his first compositionemploying the “method of composing with twelve
notes.” This “method” soon proved to have some
general relevance to the special problems of atonalcomposition. It is consistent with both the positive
and negative premises of atonality, affirming the
availability of twelve notes while denying a priorifunctional precedence to any one of them.
In Schöenberg’s twelve-tone system, all the tonerelations that govern a given musical context are
referable to a specific linear ordering of the twelve
notes of the semitonal scale. Neither register,
duration, timbre, or intensity ⎯ in other words, noattribute other than that represented by the pitch-
class name of what is informally called a note ⎯ isdefined by this referential permutation of the
semitonal scale, a permutation denoted by the termrow, series, or set . An unambiguous ordering is
assumed; but the degree to which this ordering
actually determines the general musical proceduresvaries greatly from one work to another, even
though they may be by the same composer. The
total musical texture inevitably entails intervallicrelations not directly specified by the set, and even
on a purely linear plane deviations occur. Yet the
premise of an ordered arrangement of the twelve
notes, if it is to have any meaning, must somehow
govern the essential musical events in a consistentand logical manner, in spite of ambiguities and
licenses.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
G. Perle, Serial Composition and Atonality: An Introduction
to the Music of Schöenberg, Berg, and Webern. ©1962 by theRegents of the University of California.
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102. That Schöenberg rejected “general principlesregulating simultaneity and progression”
means that he rejected:
A ) chaotic chord progressions.
B ) a broadened range of tonal relationships.
C ) the chromatic scale.
D ) the standard system of movement from certain
tonalities to other prescribed tonalities.
103. The comparison of the diatonic system of
composition to atonal composition in the
second paragraph suggests that:
A ) there are fixed rules for atonal composition.
B ) the properties of the diatonic system change
from composition to composition.C ) diatonic pieces follow certain guidelines
adhering to preconceived concepts of musical
organization.D ) atonal composition is based on a seven-tone
scale.
104. According to the passage, the twelve-tonescale rejects systems based largely on
traditional relationships between notes. One
can most reasonably conclude from this that:
A ) diatonic musical scales are conventions that
composers may accept or reject.
B ) the traditional scale is needlessly repetitive. C ) traditional and twelve-tone systems are more
similar than different.D ) twelve-tone composers have not been able to
equal the quality of traditional compositions.
105. The second paragraph of the passage suggeststhat atonal compositions:
A) sound as harmonious as traditional
compositions.B) have structures that may not be readily apparent
to listeners.
C) are based on the seven-tone scale.
D) assign functional precedence to certain notes.
106. It can most reasonably be inferred from the
last paragraph that:
A) the ordering principles of atonal compositions
are determined by composers, not by any
fundamental relationship between notes.B) there is no logic to the way that notes in atonal
compositions are ordered.
C) the working methods of twelve-tone composers
are usually consistent from one composition tothe next.
D) atonal compositions contain strict guidelines
about the duration and intensity of each note.
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Passage V
Both employers and workers are challenged by
technological innovations, international trade,deregulation, and changes in the nature and
structure of work. Their responses to these
challenges indicate their choice of three roads to the
new economy. The low road follows the historic
path of mass production, emphasizing downsizing,outsourcing, and low-skill employees as ways to cut
labor costs. Eventually, this approach, if the norm,must limit a nation's economic competitiveness,
living standard, and income equity.
The high road acknowledges the growing value of
investment in highly skilled employees who can
react quickly to changing technologies and markets.
It presupposes shared power and long-term goals.Only dominant firms can afford to commit
resources to training and keeping employees by providing full benefits with high wages. Such firmstend to be protected from domestic or international
competitors by technological advantages, large-
scale production, or government regulations.Currently, high-road firms account for perhaps 20
percent of employees in the United States.
About 40 percent of U.S. workers receive no formal
training beyond a high-school education. They mustsubmit to the contingencies of low-road
employment, remaining at the periphery of the neweconomy. The remaining 40 percent of the
workforce slog along the muddy middle road,getting some advanced education or job-related
training but unlikely to enter the dynamic high-road
labor market and attract employers who would trainthem thoroughly to join their core workers.
The high road is not an easy course for employers totake. Today's global customers and suppliers are
linked by a web of standards that affect not only
prices but extend to the quality and variety of products, company organization, customer service
and its timeliness, and constant innovations.
Employers who meet these complex requirements
use computer-based methods, which raise the levelof skill needed by nonsupervisory personnel. For
example, instead of checking the quality of the final
product, high-road firms integrate quality standardsin their automated production process, encouraging
workers at all stages of their operation to
demonstrate expertise and responsibility.
High-performance work systems are most
successful when training and work reforms are
bundled. Similarly, workers find that their general
education, occupational preparation, and access totraining on the job are complementary in their effect
on earnings. Workers who receive formal companytraining command higher wages than do similar
workers who attend only vocational school or
receive informal on-the-job instruction. Workerswho use computers on the job also earn more than
do those of the same education level who do not use
computers at work. Moreover, the earning
difference increases with the level of technologicalcompetence.
For the United States to compete in an eventualglobal economy based on skilled workers and
quality products, additional employer investment in
training is needed now. Policies at all levels shouldencourage the coordination of employer-provided
training and broader schooling. Such policies willrealize the highest returns in terms of personal
income, adaptation to an increasingly volatile labor
market, and efficiency in the transmission ofchanging skill requirements from workplaces to
schools. Although for a particular job, employer- based training or vocational preparation can
substitute for generalized schooling, specifictraining degrades rapidly, and narrow skills seldom
transfer well to new job requirements.
But although high-wage, high-skill jobs create a
demand for education and training, training does not
create high-wage jobs. Ultimately, a strategy ofinvestment in human capital succeeds or flounders
according to the availability of high-wage, high-
skill jobs. If investment in workers outpaces thenumber of good jobs, many very competent workers
will face an employment market of many very
undemanding jobs.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
F. Fitzgerald, Cities on a Hill. ©1986 by F. Fitzgerald.
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107. The author is apparently concerned thatadherence to a policy referred to as "the low
road" will reduce the competitiveness of:
A ) firms involved in international trade.
B ) the United States in particular.
C ) technology-based economies.
D ) the less-developed nations.
108. A recently founded small firm that follows the
high road described in the passage is
considering selling stock shares to the public.
The author would probably advise against thisstep because:
A ) investors have no reason to care about the
quality of the firm's products.B ) investors are likely to doubt the wisdom of the
firm's personnel policies.
C ) the firm is unlikely to produce the quick profitsthat investors want.
D ) the firm is unlikely to attain a competitive status
in the market.
109. Which of the following findings is most
clearly contrary to the reported influence of
the use of computers in the workplace?
A ) Office workers can follow computer-generated
schedules with less training than they need to
devise their own schedules.B ) Executives who correspond with customers by
letter generate more business than those whorely on E-mail alone.
C ) Workers using nonautomated production
processes are more efficient than workers onautomated assembly lines.
D ) Mechanics who use computerized diagnostic
methods earn less than mechanics who use
traditional methods.
110. The author can best be viewed as an advocateof:
A) the repeal of regulations that protect dominantfirms.
B) an increase in spending on the training of
employees.
C) an emphasis on high school vocational
education.D) the use of computers in industrial production.
111. Which of the following situations is most
likely to constitute a muddy road , as theauthor uses the term?
A) Being trained in a skill that qualifies one for
only a particular jobB) Switching to unfamiliar procedures because of
technological changes
C) Returning to college to upgrade one's professional qualifications
D) Being chronically unemployed because of an
inadequate education
112. An employer reasons: "If I train my workers,
competitors who save money by not providing
training will be able to attract my trainedworkers with higher salaries than I can pay."
What possible solution for this employer
would most accord with the author's high
road?
A) Support regulatory policies that penalize firmsfor failing to train workers.
B) Train workers who agree to repay the tuition if
they leave within a set time.C) Concentrate on recruiting workers who have
been trained by other firms.
D) Cut costs elsewhere to match the higher wages
paid by competitors.
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113. Which of the following practices is most aptto promote the outcome attributed to increased
worker involvement in the production
process?
A ) The workers' use of a computer bulletin board to
share tips on quality control
B ) Close monitoring of the productivity of workers
by their immediate supervisorsC ) The democratic participation of workers in the
hiring of potential co-workers
D ) A profit-sharing program that rewards workers
for company successes
114. Former low-level employees who secure
managerial positions in their company get
more sophisticated equipment and more work-related training than they had before. What
relationship to information provided in the
passage does this fact most plausibly suggest?
A ) It supports the conclusion that occupational
preparation and access to training are
complementary.B ) It opposes the assertion that power is shared in
firms committed to the training of employees.
C ) It exemplifies the inequities that exist in firmsthat are unable to follow the high road.
D ) It helps to explain the increasing disparity in
earnings between management and workers.
115. The author asserts that to compete later,
employers should invest in training now and
also that training does not create high-wageobs. Together, these assertions imply that:
A) investment in training keeps costs low by
providing a large pool of skilled workers.
B) in highly paid work, on-the-job trainingcompensates for educational deficiencies.
C) training is not effective unless it is supplemented
by a comprehensive education.
D) some highly trained workers may not benefitfinancially from their training.
116. The author sets the proportion of the U.S.
work force in the high-, middle-, and low-roadsectors at 20, 40, and 40 percent, respectively.
Another authority states that more than 50
percent of U.S. firms use the low-roadstrategy. What is the most reasonable
conclusion from these figures?
A) Low-road firms are especially likely to fail.B) Low-road firms are especially likely to hire
workers.
C) Businesses with few workers are especiallylikely to be low-road firms.
D) Businesses with branches outside the U.S. are
unlikely to be low-road firms.
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Passage VI
The residents of Sun City, Leisure World, and
retirement communities across the United States
live on a frontier ⎯ not a geographical but achronological frontier. Old age is hardly new, but
for an entire generation to reach old age with itsmembership almost intact is new. Until relatively
recently, death had no more relation to old age thanto any other period of life ⎯ in fact, it had less.
A quarter of the people born in seventeenth-centuryFrance died during their first year, another quarter
died before the age of twenty, and a third quarter
died by age forty-five; only 10 percent reachedsixty. From the seventeenth century to the
nineteenth, the percentage of the French population
over sixty remained constant at 8.8 percent.
In the last hundred years, the demographics ofmortality have changed more than in the six
previous centuries. In 1900, the average lifeexpectancy for U.S. children was 47.3 years. In
1980, it was 73.6 years. This startling increase was
due mainly to success in reducing infant, childhood,
and maternal mortality. In addition ⎯ also because
of medical advances ⎯ longevity increased. In1900, white males of sixty could expect 14.4 more
years of life. In 1978, they could expect to live 17.2more years. As a result of these and other changes,
the number of Americans over sixty-five increased both absolutely and relative to the entire
population. In 1900, 4 percent of the populationwas over sixty-five. In 1980, 25.5 millionAmericans, or 11.3 percent, were in this age group.
Before World War II, there were no age-segregated
communities and there was no such concept as“retirement living.” In the early 60s, when credit
and housing materials were relatively cheap,
developers began to construct complete towns for
the retired. Lured by glossy advertisementsdepicting a life of warm friendships and endless
pleasures, many retirees welcomed these complexesas a new adventure. In the mid-70s, while housing
costs doubled and trebled, the developers grew leery
of such grand schemes, but by that time there were,according to one estimate, sixty-nine retirement
villages, many with over ten thousand inhabitants.
Mobile-home parks for the elderly also proliferatedduring this period along with other forms of age-
dedicated housing, from retirement hotels to luxury
condominiums. The most original of these
innovations was the “life-care facility,” which
offered small private living quarters, maid service,nursing care, and meals, as well as nursing-home
care when necessary.
Gerontologists struggling to create a taxonomy for
these new forms of housing estimate that 5 percentof Americans over sixty-five now live in explicitly
age-segregated facilities and another unknown but
significant percentage live in neighborhoods that are
more or less age segregated. These locales are not just places in which the elderly happen to find each
other, as they do in certain rural enclaves and inner-city neighborhoods after everyone else has left.
They are not only deliberate creations ⎯ places to
which retired persons have moved by choice ⎯ butmost of them have now evolved from mere
developers’ tracts into communities with traditionsof their own.
The construction of retirement villages initiated agreat debate among gerontologists. In the 60s,
opinion was generally against this innovation. City
planners and journalists joined the professionals inattacking communities for retirees as ghettos for
marginalized, alienated people or as playgroundsthat trivialized the aged. But after visiting the
residents of these villages with scientific sampling
methods and attitudinal charts, many gerontologists
concluded that the elderly found in their segregatedlives the advantages overtly and subliminally
advertised in the real-estate brochures.
Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:R. Barthes, The death of the author, ©1972 by Basic Books.
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117. A resident of seventeenth-century France whodied at age forty began having children at age
twenty. What percentage of the children
would be expected to die before this parent?
A ) 10 percent
B ) 25 percent
C ) 50 percent
D ) 75 percent
118. The assertion that death had less relation to
old age than to other periods of life most
clearly suggests that:
A ) the increase in life expectancy has more to do
with health in early life than in late life.
B ) people in pre-industrial cultures felt lessattachment to their infants than people do now.
C ) people today are more concerned with long-term
planning than were earlier generations.D ) the elderly are less respected than in the past
because longevity is commonplace.
119. New arrivals at one retirement communitywere told by its director: “You are like
pilgrims crossing the ocean to take up a new
life.” This simile implicitly supports theauthor’s assumption that those moving to
retirement communities feel:
A ) ambivalence about the wisdom of breaking withthe past.
B ) satisfaction at becoming independent of theirfamilies.
C ) relief at leaving situations that had become
difficult.D ) optimism about being among those with similar
goals.
120. What is the author’s probable reason for prefacing the discussion of a twentieth-century
U.S. phenomenon with information about the
demographics of seventeenth-century France?
A) To clarify the relationship between life
expectancy and the decision to change
residences in old age
B) To counter the prevalent belief that demographicchanges have been unique to the U.S. culture
C) To support the argument that the current rate of
survival into old age is unprecedented
D) To show the historical antecedents of theongoing trend toward increased longevity
121. According to the passage, an American born
in 1980 could expect to live 26.3 years longerthan one born in 1900. Yet a white male of
sixty could expect to live only 2.8 years longer
in 1978 than in 1900. The difference in theseexpectancies can be explained as:
A) the cumulative effect of the growing number of
elderly.B) evidence that geriatric care has improved since
1978.
C) a result of the longer lifespan of women than ofmen.
D) the difference between longevity and life
expectancy.
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Passage VII
No matt