All India Medical PG 2006 Ques & ans

8/7/2019 All India Medical PG 2006 Ques & ans

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2006

Question 1: "Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in ?

A) FluorosisB) AchondroplasiaC) Renal OsteodystrophyD) Marfan's SyndromeAnswer: C) Renal Osteodystrophy

Question 2: Brown tumours are seen in ?A) HyperparathyroidismB) Pigmented villonodular synovitisC) OsteomalaciaD) NeurofibromatosisAnswer: A) Hyperparathyroidism

Question 3: All of the following statements are true about development dysplasia(DDH) of the hip, except ?A) It is more common in femalesB) Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDHC) The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closedreductionD) Twin pregnancy is a known risk factorAnswer: D) Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor

Question 4: All are true regarding brachial plexus injury ?A) Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesionsB) Erb??s palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the

shoulderC) In Klumpke??s palsy, Horner??s syndrome may be present on the ipsilateralsideD) Histamine test is useful to differentiate between the preganglionic andpostganglionic lesionsAnswer: A) Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions

Question 5: The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a newborn is ?A) Manipulation by motherB) Manipulation and Dennis Brown splintC) Manipulation and CastsD) Surgical releaseAnswer: A) Manipulation by mother

Question 6: The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will leadto ?A) Sensori-neural hearing lossB) Secondary CholesteatomaC) TympanoscelerosisD) Tertiary cholesteatomaAnswer: B) Secondary Cholesteatoma


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Question 7: A 30 year old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateralsinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice ?A) Intact canal wall mastoidectomyB) Simple mastoidectomy with TympanoplastyC) Canal wall down mastoidectomy

D) Mastoidectomy with cavity obliterationAnswer: C) Canal wall down mastoidectomy

Question 8: Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss ?A) Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membraneB) Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic membraneC) Partial fixation of the stapes footplateD) Otitis media with effusionAnswer: A) Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane

Question 9: During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity isthrough ?

A) Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curveB) Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curveC) Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatusD) Through olfactory areaAnswer: A) Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curveQuestion 10: Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss inneonates ?A) Impedance audiometryB) Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)C) Free field audiometryD) Behavioral audiometryAnswer: B) Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)

Question 11: The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancyis ?A) Influenza virusB) Para influenza virusC) Rhino virusD) Respiratory syncytial virusAnswer: D) Respiratory syncytial virus

Question 12: Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in aninfant incubator ?A) RadiationB) Evaporation

C) ConvectionD) ConductionAnswer: A) Radiation

Question 13: Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all ofthe following features except ?A) Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babiesB) Onset occurs at 4-12 wk of ageC) Intracranial hemorrhage can occur


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D) Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective roleAnswer: D) Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role

Question 14: Which of the following malformation in a newborn is specific formaternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitus ?A) Transposition of great arteries

B) Caudal regressionC) HoloprosencephalyD) MeningomyeloceleAnswer: B) Caudal regression

Question 15: The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site ofthe tumor is ?A) OrbitB) Para testicularC) ExtremityD) Urinary bladderAnswer: C) Extremity

Question 16: Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant ?A) Ewing's sarcomaB) RetinoblastomaC) OsteosarcomaD) NeuroblastomaAnswer: C) Osteosarcoma

Question 17: The most common second malignancy in survivors of retinoblastomais ?A) Thyroid cancerB) Nasopharyngeal carcinomaC) Optic glioma

D) OsteosarcomaAnswer: D) Osteosarcoma

Question 18: The most important determinant of prognosis in Wilms tumor is ?A) Stage of diseaseB) Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 1 pC) HistologyD) Age less than one year at presentationAnswer: C) Histology

Question 19: The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to genemutations affecting the following protein ?

A) PodocinB) Alpha-actininC) NephrinD) CD2 activated proteinAnswer: C) Nephrin

Question 20: Sensorineural deafness may be a feature of all, except ?A) Nail patella syndromeB) Distal renal tubular acidosis


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C) Bartter syndromeD) Alport syndromeAnswer: B) Distal renal tubular acidosis

Question 21: With reference to mumps which of the following is true ?A) Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis

B) Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotidsC) The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargementD) Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertilityAnswer: A) Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis

Question 22: A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity isnormal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is ?A) Constitutional delay in growthB) Genetic short statureC) Primordial dwarfismD) HypopituitarismAnswer: A) Constitutional delay in growth

Question 23: Drug induced lupus can be identified by ?A) Anti-histone antibodiesB) Double stranded DNA antibodiesC) Antinuclear antibodiesD) Anti-SM antibodiesAnswer: A) Anti-histone antibodies

Question 24: The process underlying differences in expression of a gene, accordingto which parent has transmitted, is called ?A) AnticipationB) MosaicismC) Non-penetrance

D) Genomic imprintingAnswer: D) Genomic imprinting

Question 25: The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution for malnourishedchildren) is ?A) 90 mmol/LB) 60 mmol/LC) 45 mmol/LD) 30 mmol/LAnswer: C) 45 mmol/L

Question 26: All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except ?

A) No creases on soleB) Abundant lanugoC) Thick ear cartilageD) Empty scrotumAnswer: C) Thick ear cartilage

Question 27: A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all ofthe following except ?A) Stand alone


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B) Play peek a booC) Pick up a pellet with thumb and index fingerD) Build a tower of 3 - 4 cubesAnswer: D) Build a tower of 3 - 4 cubes

Question 28: The following are characteristic of autism except ?

A) Onset after 6 years of ageB) Repetitive behaviorC) Delayed language developmentD) Severe deficit in social interactionAnswer: A) Onset after 6 years of age

Question 29: The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6-year old girlwith iron deficiency is ?A) Increased reticulocyte countB) Increased hemoglobinC) Increased ferritinD) Increased serum iron

Answer: A) Increased reticulocyte countQuestion 30: A 1 month old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, heshows features of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared tobranchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is ?A) Congenital aortic stenosisB) Coarctation of AortaC) Patent ductus arteriosusD) Congenital aortoiliac diseaseAnswer: B) Coarctation of Aorta

Question 31: All of the following statements regarding subendocardial infarction aretrue, except ?

A) These are multifocal in natureB) These often result from hypotension or shockC) Epicarditis is not seenD) These may result in aneurysmAnswer: D) These may result in aneurysm

Question 32: All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse, except ?A) Transmission may be as an Autosomal dominant traitB) Majority of the cases present with features of mitral regurgitationC) The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degenerationD) The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of MarfanSyndrome

Answer: B) Majority of the cases present with features of mitral regurgitation

Question 33: The following diseases are associated with Epstein - Barr virusinfection, except ?A) Infectious mononucleosisB) Epidermodysplasia verruciformisC) Nasopharyngeal carcinomaD) Oral Hairy leukoplakiaAnswer: B) Epidermodysplasia verruciformis


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Question 34: Megaloblastic anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to ?A) Inadequate dietary intakeB) Defective intestinal absorptionC) Absence of folic acid binding protein in serumD) Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine

Answer: A) Inadequate dietary intake

Question 35: The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is ?A) Histological grade of the tumourB) Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosisC) Status of estrogen and progesterone receptorsD) Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor geneAnswer: B) Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis

Question 36: Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with ?A) Small cell carcinomaB) Respiratory bronchiolitis

C) EmphysemaD) Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumoniaAnswer: D) Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia

Question 37: The tumour, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skinfollowing wide local excisionn and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is ?A) LeiomyosarcomaB) Squamous cell carcinomaC) Basal cell carcinomaD) AngiosarcomaAnswer: D) Angiosarcoma

Question 38: The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely toresult in a palpable abnormality in the breast is ?A) Apocrine DCISB) Neuroendocrine DCISC) Well differentiated DCISD) Comedo DCISAnswer: D) Comedo DCIS

Question 39: Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the ?A) Parotid salivary glandB) Minor salivary glandsC) Submandibular salivary glandD) Sublingual salivary gland

Answer: A) Parotid salivary gland

Question 39: Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the ?A) Parotid salivary glandB) Minor salivary glandsC) Submandibular salivary glandD) Sublingual salivary glandAnswer: A) Parotid salivary gland


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Question 40: All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphomaare true except ?A) It generally presents in elderly patientsB) There is often an association with HHV-8C) The proliferating cells are NK cellsD) Patients are commonly HIV positive

Answer: C) The proliferating cells are NK cells

Question 41: Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except ?A) CD 23B) CD 20C) CD 5D) CD 43Answer: A) CD 23

Question 42: Fine needle aspiation cytology is not suitable for diagnosing ?A) Tubercular lymphadenitisB) Papillary carcinoma thyroid

C) PlasmacytomaD) Aneurysmal bone cystAnswer: D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

Question 43: All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in theneoplastic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except ?A) CD 45 ROB) CD 43C) MyeloperoxidaseD) LysozymeAnswer: A) CD 45 RO

Question 44: B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell

chronic lymphocytic leukemia in ?A) Presenting at a younger ageB) Having a lower total leucocyte countC) Having prominent lymphadenopathyD) Having a shorter survivalAnswer: D) Having a shorter survival

Question 45: Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi ?A) The intraocular pressure is increasedB) Calcification of the lens is commonC) Sclera is thickenedD) Size of the globe is reduced

Answer: A) The intraocular pressure is increased

Question 46: Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma ?A) Has a peak incidence in first decadeB) Arises from oligodendrocytesC) Causes meningeal hyperplasiaD) Is associated with type I neurofibromatosisAnswer: B) Arises from oligodendrocytes


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Question 47: Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition ?A) Lattice dystrophyB) Granular dystrophyC) Macular dystrophyD) Fleck dystrophyAnswer: C) Macular dystrophy

Question 48: In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequentlyoccurs ?A) Actinic keratosesB) Seborrhetic keratosesC) Molluscum contagiosumD) Basal cell carcinomaAnswer: A) Actinic keratoses

Question 49: Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor fordevelopment of gastric carcinoma ?A) Paneth cell metaplasia

B) Pyloric metaplasiaC) Intestinal metaplasiaD) Ciliated metaplasiaAnswer: C) Intestinal metaplasia

Question 50: Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom ofnon-cirrhotic portal hypertension ?A) Chronic liver failureB) AscitesC) Upper gastrointestinal bleedingD) EncephalopathyAnswer: C) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding

Question 51: Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of ?A) Tonic-clonic seizureB) Absence seizureC) Myoclonic seizureD) Simple partial seizureAnswer: B) Absence seizure

Question 52: Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate ?A) It is an intravenous anestheticB) It precipitates coronary insufficiencyC) It inhibits cortisol synthesisD) It causes pain at site of injection

Answer: B) It precipitates coronary insufficiency

Question 53: Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine ?A) NorfloxacinB) StreptomycinC) DoxycyclineD) CefotaximeAnswer: B) Streptomycin


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Question 54: Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin ?A) CephalexinB) CloxacillinC) PiperacillinD) Dicloxacillin

Answer: C) Piperacillin

Question 55: The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except ?A) Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptorsB) They have active metabolitesC) Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human beingD) Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymesAnswer: A) Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors

Question 56: One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil isincorrect ?A) It is a prodrug

B) It is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphatedehydrogenaseC) It also inhibits calcineurinD) Selectively inhibits lymphocyte proliferationAnswer: C) It also inhibits calcineurin

Question 57: All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill aretrue, except ?A) Inhibition of ovulationB) Prevention of fertilizationC) Interference with implantation of fertilized ovumD) Interference with placental functioningAnswer: D) Interference with placental functioning

Question 58: Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acidmetabolism ?A) PhenytoinB) GabapentinC) PhenobarbitoneD) PrimidoneAnswer: B) Gabapentin

Question 59: Which one of the following drugs causes constipation ?A) PropranololB) Verapamil

C) NitroglycerinD) CaptoprilAnswer: D) Captopril

Question 60: Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of openangle glaucoma ?A) LatanoprostB) BrimonidineC) Acetazolamide


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D) DorzolamideAnswer: C) Acetazolamide

Question 61: Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the followingantiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status ?A) Sodium valproate

B) PhenobarbitoneC) CarbamazepineD) PhenytoinAnswer: A) Sodium valproate

Question 62: Which one of the following agents has been associated withhemorrhagic stroke ?A) PhenylpropanolamineB) TerfenadineC) QuinidineD) FenfluramineAnswer: A) Phenylpropanolamine

Question 63: All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except ?A) Bacterial meningitisB) Rickettsial infectionC) SyphilisD) AnthraxAnswer: B) Rickettsial infection

Question 64: All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion,except ?A) HypokalemiaB) HypothermiaC) Hypomagnesemia

D) HypocalcemiaAnswer: A) Hypokalemia

Question 65: Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum durationof action ?A) AtracuriumB) VecuroniumC) RocuroniumD) DoxacuriumAnswer: D) Doxacurium

Question 66: Which enzyme is inhibited by Aminophylline ?

A) Monoamine OxidaseB) Alcohol dehydrogenaseC) PhosphodiesteraseD) Cytochrome P-450Answer: C) Phosphodiesterase

Question 67: Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?A) Procaine


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B) BupivacaineC) LignocaineD) MepivacaineAnswer: A) Procaine

Question 68: The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those

with liver disease, except ?A) LorazepamB) OxazepamC) TemazepamD) DiazepamAnswer: D) Diazepam

Question 69: Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium tocatecholamines ?A) IsofluraneB) EtherC) Halothane

D) PropofolAnswer: C) Halothane

Question 70: Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure ?A) RapacuriumB) PancuroniumC) AtracuriumD) RocuroniumAnswer: C) Atracurium

Question 71: Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of ?A) EstradiolB) Luteinizing hormone

C) ProgesteroneD) Follicle stimulating hormoneAnswer: B) Luteinizing hormone

Question 72: Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in theprimary visual cortex in ?A) Layer 1B) Layers 2 & 4=3C) Layer 4D) Layers 5 & 6Answer: C) Layer 4

Question 73: The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with ?A) Ocular dominanceB) OrientationC) Color processingD) Saccadic eye movementsAnswer: C) Color processing

Question 74: The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to thevisual cortex, carries signals for the detection of ?


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A) Movement, depth and flickerB) Color vision, shape and fine detailsC) Temporal frequencyD) Luminance contrastAnswer: B) Color vision, shape and fine details

Question 75: A pilot in Sukhoi aircraft is experiencing negative G. Which of thefollowing physiological events will manifest in such situation ?A) The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increasesB) The cardiac output decreasesC) Black out occursD) The cerebral arterial pressure risesAnswer: D) The cerebral arterial pressure rises

Question 76: In human being, the least useful physiological response to lowenvironmental temperature is ?A) ShiveringB) Vasoconstriction

C) Release of thyroxineD) PiloerectionAnswer: D) Piloerection

Question 77: The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in ?A) Locus coeruleusB) Dorsal rapheC) Lateral hypothalamic areaD) HippocampusAnswer: C) Lateral hypothalamic area

Question 78: The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by ?A) Sensing of Na concentration in the macula densa

B) Sensing of Cl concentration in macula densaC) Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densaD) Opening up of voltage gated Na channels in afferent arterioleAnswer: C) Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa

Question 79: The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is ?A) Medullary hyperosmolarityB) Reabsorption of Na in thick ascending limbC) Action of ADH via aquaporin channelsD) Urea recyclingAnswer: B) Reabsorption of Na in thick ascending limb

Question 80: Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis ?A) KidneysB) SkinC) IntestinesD) LungsAnswer: D) Lungs

Question 81: Testosterone production is mainly contributed by ?A) Leydig cells


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B) Sertoli cellsC) Seminiferous tubulesD) EpididymisAnswer: A) Leydig cells

Question 82: Which of the following secretions has a very high pH ?

A) Gastric juiceB) Pancreatic juiceC) Bile in gall bladderD) SalivaAnswer: B) Pancreatic juice

Question 83: The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being dependsupon ?A) Integrity of reflex arcB) Muscle powerC) Type of muscle fibresD) Joint movements in physiological range

Answer: A) Integrity of reflex arcQuestion 84: The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humansis ?A) Tympanic reflexB) Withdrawal reflexC) Neck righting reflexD) Labyrinthine reflexAnswer: B) Withdrawal reflex

Question 85: The hyperkinetic features of the Huntingtons's disease are due to theloss of ?A) Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system

B) Intrastriatal cholinergic systemC) GABA-ergic and cholinergic systemD) Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic systemAnswer: D) Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system

Question 86: All of the following are part of the treatment of Lithium toxicity,except ?A) Treating dehydrationB) Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonateC) HemodialysisD) Using an antagonistAnswer: D) Using an antagonist

Question 87: All are side effects of Clozapine except ?A) GranulocytopeniaB) SeizuresC) SedationD) Extrapyramidal side effectsAnswer: D) Extrapyramidal side effects

Question 88: Pavlov's experiment is an example of ?


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A) Operant conditioningB) Classical conditioningC) Learned helplessnessD) ModellingAnswer: B) Classical conditioning

Question 89: Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatmentof ?A) Anorexia NervosaB) Seasonal Affective DisorderC) SchizophreniaD) Obsessive Compulsive DisorderAnswer: B) Seasonal Affective Disorder

Question 90: The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidolis ?A) HypotensionB) Akathisia

C) Dryness of mouthD) Tic disorderAnswer: B) Akathisia

Question 91: Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, isbest described as ?A) Twilight StateB) Oneroid stateC) StuporD) DeliriumAnswer: B) Oneroid state

Question 92: Loosening of associations is an example of ?

A) Formal thought disorderB) Schneiderian first rank symptomsC) PerseverationD) Concrete thinkingAnswer: A) Formal thought disorder

Question 93: Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmarksymptoms of ?A) Involutional melancholiaB) Atypical depressionC) Somatized depressionD) Depressive stuporAnswer: A) Involutional melancholia

Question 94: Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in themanagement of ?A) DepressionB) DissociationC) DelusionsD) DementiaAnswer: D) Dementia


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Question 95: All of the following are associated with better prognosis inschizophrenia, except ?A) Late onsetB) MarriedC) Negative symptomsD) Acute onset

Answer: C) Negative symptoms

Question 96: The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except ?A) Ventricular septal defectB) Right ventricular hypertrophyC) Atrial septal defectD) Pulmonary stenosisAnswer: C) Atrial septal defect

Question 97: Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumours ?A) Are embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of casesB) Bilateral in upto 10 % cases

C) Teratomas are more common than seminomasD) Usually present after 50 years of ageAnswer: B) Bilateral in upto 10 % cases

Question 98: The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is ?A) NeurofibromaB) MeningiomaC) Cavernous haemangiomaD) SchwannomaAnswer: C) Cavernous haemangioma

Question 99: In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged ?A) Ventricular septal defect

B) Atrial septal defectC) Aorto-pulmonary windowD) Patent ductus arteriosusAnswer: B) Atrial septal defect

Question 100: Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primarymalignancy of ?A) KidneyB) BronchusC) BreastD) ProstateAnswer: A) Kidney

Question 101: Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in achest radiograph ?A) Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16 mmB) Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16 mmC) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mmD) Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mmAnswer: C) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mm


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Question 102: The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is ?A) Multislice CTB) EchocardigraphyC) Nuclear scanD) MRIAnswer: B) Echocardigraphy

Question 103: The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on anangiogram is ?A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70 %B) Presence of collateralsC) A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the lesionD) Post stenotic dilatation of the renal arteryAnswer: A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70 %

Question 104: The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in ?A) White matterB) Grey matter

C) ThalamusD) Basal gangliaAnswer: A) White matter

Question 105: The most common location of hyperternsive intracranial haemorrhageis ?A) Subarachnoid spaceB) Basal gangliaC) CerebellumD) BrainstemAnswer: B) Basal ganglia

Question 106: Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph ?

A) Bidirectional Glem shuntB) Modified Blalock - Taussing shuntC) IVC occlusionD) Coarctation of AortaAnswer: D) Coarctation of Aorta

Question 107: The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tubeuculosisis ?A) Intravenous urographyB) Computed tomographyC) UltrasoundD) Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Answer: A) Intravenous urography

Question 108: All of them use non-ionizing radiation, except ?A) UltrasonographyB) ThermographyC) MRID) RadiographyAnswer: D) Radiography


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Question 109: Mixed tumours of the salivary glands are ?A) Most common in submandibular glandB) Usually malignantC) Most common in parotid glandD) Associated with calculiAnswer: C) Most common in parotid gland

Question 110: In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would youconsider biopsy of opposite breast ?A) Adenocarcinoma - poorly differentiatedB) Medullary carcinomaC) Lobular carcinomaD) Comedo carcinomaAnswer: C) Lobular carcinoma

Question 111: A malignant tumour of childhood, that metastasizes to bones mostoften, is ?A) Wilm's tumor

B) NeuroblastomaC) Adrenal gland tumorsD) Granulosa cell tumor of ovaryAnswer: B) Neuroblastoma

Question 112: When carcinoma of stomach develops secondfarily to perniciousanemia, it is usually situated in the ?A) Pre pyloric regionB) PylorusC) BodyD) FundusAnswer: B) Pylorus

Question 113: With regard to the malignant behaviour of leiomysarcoma, the mostimportant criterion is ?A) Blood vessel penetration by tumor cellsB) Tumor cells in lymphatic channelsC) Lymphocyte infiltrationD) The number of mitoses per high power fieldAnswer: D) The number of mitoses per high power field

Question 114: The most radiosensitive tumour among the following is ?A) Bronchogenic carcinomaB) Carcinoma parotidC) Dysgerminoma

D) Osteogenic sarcomaAnswer: C) Dysgerminoma

Question 115: In a suspected case of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required forall of the following information, except ?A) Detection of adnexal lesionB) Characterization of the lesionC) StagingD) Assess respectability


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Answer: B) Characterization of the lesion

Question 116: In which of the following age group Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)are most common ?A) 2 10B) 15 20

C) 25 40D) > 50Answer: D) > 50

Question 117: A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lowerabdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which ofthe following is the clinical diagnosis ?A) AppendicitisB) Leukemic colitisC) Perforation peritonitisD) Neutropenic colitisAnswer: D) Neutropenic colitis

Question 118: All of the following modalities can be used for in-situ ablation of liversecondaries, except ?A) Ultrasonic wavesB) CryotherapyC) AlcoholD) RadiofrequencyAnswer: A) Ultrasonic waves

Question 119: All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide,except ?A) Phosphorus-32B) Strontium-89

C) Iridium-192D) Samarium-153Answer: D) Samarium-153

Question 120: Phosphorous-32 emits ?A) Beta particlesB) Alfa particlesC) NeutronsD) X-raysAnswer: A) Beta particles

Question 121: The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is ?

A) Within 10 daysB) Within 2 weeksC) Within 3 weeksD) Any time after surgeryAnswer: A) Within 10 days

Question 122: The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infarction, isapproximately ?A) 0 - 5 %


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B) 5 - 15 %C) 20 - 30 %D) 30 - 40 %Answer: B) 5 - 15 %

Question 123: Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated

thyroid cancer ?A) 131 IB) 99mTcC) 32PD) 131 I-MIBGAnswer: A) 131 I

Question 124: Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximumradiation exposure to the patient ?A) Chest X-rayB) MRIC) CT Scan

D) Bone ScanAnswer: C) CT Scan

Question 125: Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?A) ElectronB) ProtonC) Helium ionD) Gamma () PhotonAnswer: C) Helium ion

Question 126: Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiplemyeloma ?A) Lytic bone lesions

B) Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsyC) Bone marrow plasmacytosis >30%D) 'M' spike >3g% for Ig G, >2g% for Ig AAnswer: A) Lytic bone lesions

Question 127: The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer is ?A) Abdomino perennial resectionB) Laser fulgarationC) ChemoradiotherapyD) Platinum based chemotherapyAnswer: C) Chemoradiotherapy

Question 128: The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is ?A) 5 timesB) 10 timesC) 15 timesD) 20 timesAnswer: C) 15 times

Question 129: The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of theoptic disc is ?


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A) 1 disc diameterB) 2 disc diameterC) 3 disc diameterD) 4 disc diameterAnswer: B) 2 disc diameter

Question 130: The most common cause of vitreous haemorrhage in adults is ?A) Retinal holeB) TraumaC) HypertensionD) DiabetesAnswer: D) Diabetes

Question 131: The retina receives its blood supply from all except ?A) Posterior ciliary arteryB) Central retinal arteryC) Retinal arteriesD) Plexus of Zinn & Haller arteries

Answer: A) Posterior ciliary arteryQuestion 132: Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally ?A) GentamycinB) VancomycinC) DexamethasoneD) CeftazidimeAnswer: A) Gentamycin

Question 133: Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in ?A) Marfan's syndromeB) HomocystinuriaC) Hyperlysinaemia

D) Ocular traumaAnswer: C) Hyperlysinaemia

Question 134: Which of the following anti glaucoma medications can causedrowsiness ?A) LatanoprostB) TimololC) BrimonidineD) DorzolamideAnswer: C) Brimonidine

Question 135: Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal

ulcers caused by filamentous fungi ?A) ItraconazoleB) NatamycinC) NystatinD) FluconazoleAnswer: B) Natamycin

Question 136: Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients withallergy to sulphonamides ?


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A) LevobunololB) BimatoprostC) BrinzolamideD) BrimonidineAnswer: C) Brinzolamide

Question 137: In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to putin an intraocular lens after cataract surgery ?A) Fuch's heterochromic cyclitisB) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritisC) Psoriatic arthritisD) Reiter's syndromeAnswer: B) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Question 138: A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with ahistory of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination ?A) As early as feasibleB) After 5 years

C) After 10 yearsD) Only after visual symptoms developAnswer: A) As early as feasible

Question 139: SAFE Strategy is recommended for the control of ?A) TrachomaB) GlaucomaC) Diabetic retinopathyD) CataractAnswer: A) Trachoma

Question 140: As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence ofblindness in India (at visual acuity < 660 in better eye) ?

A) 1.38 %B) 1.49 %C) 1.72 %D) 1.8 %Answer: B) 1.49 %

Question 141: Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who issupposed to conduct the vision screening of school students ?A) School teachersB) Medical officers of health centresC) OphthalmologistsD) Health assistants

Answer: A) School teachers

Question 142: According to the World Health Organization. the definition of blindnessis ?A) Visual acuity < 660 in the better eye with available correctionB) Visual acuity < 360 in the better eye with available correctionC) Visual acuity < 660 in the better eye with best correctionD) Visual acuity < 360 in the better eye with best correctionAnswer: D) Visual acuity < 360 in the better eye with best correction


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Question 143: The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is ?A) CataractB) ConjunctivitisC) Refractive errorD) Trachoma

Answer: C) Refractive error

Question 144: A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis onculture yields Gram positive round to oval cells, 12-14 in size. The aspirate onGram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is themost likely aetiological agent ?A) AspergillusB) RhizopusC) CandidaD) FusariumAnswer: C) Candida

Question 145: The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is ?A) Basal cell carcinomaB) Squamous cell carcinomaC) Malignant fibrous histiocytomaD) Neurotrophic malignant melanomaAnswer: B) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 146: Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm infected because of ?A) Fungal infectionB) Blood borne infection (intravascular)C) Infection introduced from outside ( extravascular)D) Both intravascular & extravascular infectionAnswer: D) Both intravascular & extravascular infection

Question 147: The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is ?A) UltrasonographyB) Computed tomographyC) Magnetic resonance imagingD) ArteriographyAnswer: D) Arteriography

Question 148: The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is ?A) Bacterial infectionB) Fungal infectionC) Blunt trauma

D) Penetrating traumaAnswer: D) Penetrating traumaQuestion 149: Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through thefollowing membrane ?A) ThyrohyoidB) CricothyroidC) Crico-trachealD) Cricosternal


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Answer: A) ThyrohyoidQuestion 150: Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones inthe common bile duct ?A) Can present with Charcot's TriadB) Are suggested by a bile duct diameter > 6mm of ultrasound

C) ERCP, sphincterotomy and balloon clearance is now the standard treatmentD) When removed by exploration of the common bile duct the T -tube can beremoved after 3 daysAnswer: D) When removed by exploration of the common bile duct the T -tube canbe removed after 3 days

Question 151: Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre-malignant ?A) Juvenile polypsB) Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndromeC) Villous adenomasD) Tubular adenomasAnswer: A) Juvenile polyps

Question 152: A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone anERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The mostlikely organism is ?A) Escherichia coliB) Bacillus fragilisC) Streptococcus viridansD) Pseudomonas aerogenosaAnswer: A) Escherichia coli

Question 153: Biliary stricture developing after Laparoscopic cholecystectomy usuallyoccurs at which part of the common bile duct ?A) Upper

B) MiddleC) LowerD) All sites with equal frequencyAnswer: B) Middle

Question 154: Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common organismimplicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is ?A) BacteriodesB) KlebsiellaC) PeptostreptococcusD) PseudomonasAnswer: A) Bacteriodes

Question 155: The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except ?A) Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of lifeB) The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midlineC) Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choiceD) The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongueAnswer: C) Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice

Question 156: Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascularaccess for maintenance haemodialysis ?


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B) Fungal infectionC) Viral infectionD) Mixed infectionAnswer: B) Fungal infection

Question 164: The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time

is ?A) TranscranialB) TransethmoidalC) TransphenoidalD) TranscallosalAnswer: C) Transphenoidal

Question 165: The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsmL) is ?A) 270 285B) 300 320C) 350 375D) 200 250

Answer: A) 270 285Question 166: Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ?A) AstrocytomasB) MedulloblastomasC) NeurofibromasD) EpendymomasAnswer: A) AstrocytomasQuestion 167: Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase inpregnancy ?A) GliomaB) Pituitary adenoma

C) MeningiomaD) NeurofibromaAnswer: D) Neurofibroma

Question 168: The requirement of potassium in a child is ?A) 1 - 2 mEqkgB) 4 - 7 mEqkgC) 10 - 12 mEqkgD) 13 - 14 mEqkgAnswer: A) 1 - 2 mEqkg

Question 169: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is ?

A) Arterio-venous malformationB) Cavernous angiomaC) AneurysmD) HypertensionAnswer: C) Aneurysm

Question 170: Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in ?A) Cerebellar hemisphereB) Thalamus


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C) Temporal lobeD) Parietal lobeAnswer: D) Parietal lobe

Question 171: Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by ?A) Vagus nerve

B) Facial nerveC) Trigeminal nerveD) Glossopharyngeal nerveAnswer: C) Trigeminal nerve

Question 172: In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at ?A) Lower border of L1B) Lower border of L3C) Lower border of S1D) Lower border of L5Answer: A) Lower border of L1

Question 173: Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of ?A) External carotid arteryB) Internal maxillary arteryC) Superficial temporal arteryD) Middle cerebral arteryAnswer: B) Internal maxillary artery

Question 174: Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa ?A) Binge eatingB) AmennorheaC) Self perception of being 'fat'D) Under weightAnswer: A) Binge eating

Question 175: An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an exampleof all of the following, except ?A) An Autosomal dominant disorderB) An Autosomal recessive disorderC) A polygenic disorderD) A vertically transmitted disorderAnswer: A) An Autosomal dominant disorder

Question 176: The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in thebeta ()-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except ?A) Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridizationB) Southern blot analysis

C) DNA sequencingD) Northern blot analysisAnswer: D) Northern blot analysis

Question 177: A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thinupper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following,except ?A) A chromosomal syndromeB) A teratogenic syndrome


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C) A Mendelian syndromeD) A polygenic syndromeAnswer: B) A teratogenic syndrome

Question 178: In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hairand deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The

mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance inthis case ?A) Autosomal dominantB) Autosomal recessiveC) X-linked dominantD) X-linked recessiveAnswer:

Question 179: Mitochondrial DNA is ?A) Closed circularB) Nicked circularC) Linear

D) Open circularAnswer: A) Closed circular

Question 180: Polar bodies are formed during ?A) SpermatogenesisB) OrganogenesisC) OogenesisD) MorphogenesisAnswer: C) Oogenesis

Question 181: Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed usingall of the following, except ?A) Amniotic fluid

B) Maternal bloodC) Chorionic villiD) Fetal bloodAnswer: C) Chorionic villi

Question 182: The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectivelyas ?A) p and q armsB) m and q armsC) q and p armsD) l and s armsAnswer: C) q and p arms

Question 183: Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively ?A) UncondensedB) CondensedC) OvercondensedD) Partially condensedAnswer: D) Partially condensed

Question 184: Microsatellite sequence is ?


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A) Small satelliteB) Extra chromosomal DNAC) Short sequence (2 - 5) repeat DNAD) Looped-DNAAnswer: C) Short sequence (2 - 5) repeat DNA

Question 185: All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase whichprotects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except ?A) GerminalB) SomaticC) HaemopoeticD) TumorAnswer: B) Somatic

Question 186: All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen,except ?A) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheathB) B cells

C) Antigen presenting cellsD) Vascular sinusAnswer: D) Vascular sinus

Question 187: All of the following developmental events are dependent on theproduction of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except ?A) Induction of thymic involutionB) Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cellsC) Functional thyroidD) Functional hypothalamopituitary axisAnswer:

Question 188: Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the

inner side of right thigh, except ?A) Inflamed pelvic appendixB) Inflamed ovariesC) Stone in pelvic UreterD) Pelvic abscessAnswer: C) Stone in pelvic Ureter

Question 189: A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of theright posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess.Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand aboveher head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms ofadditional harm ?

A) Damage to scalenus mediusB) Injury to suprascapular nerveC) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerveD) Spread of infection to shoulder jointAnswer: C) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

Question 190: Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent ofchoice in children ?A) Methoxyflurane


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B) SevofluraneC) DesfluraneD) IsofluraneAnswer: B) Sevoflurane

Question 191: Which of the following anesthetic agents doesn??t trigger malignant

hyperthermia ?A) HalothaneB) IsofluraneC) SuxamethoniumD) ThiopentoneAnswer: D) Thiopentone

Question 192: Which of the following is not an indication for endotrachealintubation ?A) Maintenance of a patent airwayB) To provide positive pressure ventilationC) Pulmonary toilet

D) PneumothoraxAnswer: D) Pneumothorax

Question 193: Which of the following agents is not used to provide inducedhypotension during surgery ?A) Sodium nitroprussideB) HydralazineC) MephenteramineD) EsmololAnswer: C) Mephenteramine

Question 194: Which of the following agents is used for the treatment ofpostoperative shivering ?

A) ThiopentoneB) SuxamethoniumC) AtropineD) PethidineAnswer: D) Pethidine

Question 195: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block ?A) MeiosisB) ExpohthalmusC) Nasal congestionD) Conjunctival rednessAnswer: B) Expohthalmus

Question 196: Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the mostsuitable for day care surgery ?A) MorphineB) KetamineC) PropofolD) DiazepamAnswer: C) Propofol


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Question 197: Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between ?A) Aorta to Pulmonary arteryB) Aorta to Pulmonary veinC) Subclavian artery to Pulmonary veinD) Subclavian vein to arteryAnswer: A) Aorta to Pulmonary artery

Question 198: A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure.Regarding post operative pam relief which one of the following is recommended ?A) No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due toimmaturity of nervous systemB) Only paracetamol suppository is adequateC) Spinal narcotics via intrathecal routeD) Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosageAnswer: B) Only paracetamol suppository is adequate

Question 199: A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day ofsurgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5 C and dry cough. Which of the

following should be 'the most appropriate decision for surgery ?A) Surgery should be cancelledB) Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthmaC) Should get x-ray chest before proceeding for surgeryD) Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibioticAnswer: D) Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic

Question 200: A common feature of all serine proteases is ?A) Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursorB) Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitorC) Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine residuesD) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active siteAnswer: D) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site

Question 201: During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymespolymerizes the Okazaki fragments ?A) DNA Polymerase IB) DNA Polymerase IIC) DNA Polymerase IIID) RNA Polymerase IAnswer: A) DNA Polymerase I

Question 202: During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burstinvolves the activation of ?A) Oxidase

B) HydrolaseC) PeroxidaseD) DehydrogenaseAnswer: A) Oxidase

Question 203: Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of - 5'TTAAGCGTAC 3' ?A) 5' GTACGCTTAA 3'B) 5' AATTCGCATG 3'


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C) 5' CATGCGAATT 3'D) 5' TTAAGCGTAC 3'Answer: A) 5' GTACGCTTAA 3'

Question 204: Base substitution mutations can have the following molecularconsequences except ?

A) Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same aminoacidB) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acidC) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant siteD) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codonAnswer: C) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site

Question 205: Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the followingenzymes ?A) Isocitrate dehydrogenaseB) Homocysteine methyl transferaseC) Glycogen synthase

D) G-6-P dehydrogenaseAnswer: B) Homocysteine methyl transferase

Question 206: The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for thefollowing functions except ?A) Promotion of cell cycle progressionB) Inhibition of apoptosisC) Promotion of DNA repairD) Promotion of nuclear transcriptionAnswer: C) Promotion of DNA repair

Question 207: The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because ?A) Of its large size

B) The vesicle looses its clathrin coatC) Of the acidic pH of the vesicleD) Of the basic pH of the vesicleAnswer: C) Of the acidic pH of the vesicle

Question 208: The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletalmuscle to liver is ?A) AlanineB) MethionineC) ArginineD) GlutamineAnswer: A) Alanine

Question 209: All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl -CoA, except?A) MethionineB) IsoleucineC) ValineD) HistidineAnswer: D) Histidine


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Question 210: The specialized mammalian tissueorgan in which fuel oxidation servesnot to produce ATP but to generate heat is ?A) Adrenal glandB) Skeletal muscleC) Brown adipose tissueD) Heart

Answer: C) Brown adipose tissue

Question 211: The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage oftriacylglycerol by weight is ?A) VLDLB) ChylomicronsC) HDLD) LDLAnswer: B) Chylomicrons

Question 212: All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium or calmodulin,except ?

A) Adenylate cyclaseB) Glycogen synthaseC) Guanylyl cyclaseD) HexokinaseAnswer: D) Hexokinase

Question 213: The sigma () subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase ?A) Binds the antibiotic RifampicinB) Is inhibited by -amanitinC) Specifically recognizes the promoter siteD) Is part of the core enzymeAnswer: C) Specifically recognizes the promoter site

Question 214: Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base ?A) mRNAB) tRNAC) rRNAD) snRNAAnswer: B) tRNA

Question 215: There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Amongthese only a few are fatal. Hence, the most important factor to be conserved in aprotein for its function is the ?A) Amino acid sequenceB) Ligand binding residues

C) StructureD) EnvironmentAnswer: A) Amino acid sequence

Question 216: Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compactstructures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo- or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form ?A) Denatured stateB) Molecular aggregation


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A) ApolipoproteinsB) VLDLC) HDLD) Total liproteinsAnswer: A) Apolipoproteins

Question 224: The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is ?A) 150 KCalsB) 200 KCalsC) 300 KcalsD) 550 KCalsAnswer: C) 300 Kcals

Question 225: In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certaindisease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are givenbelow.Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in thatpopulation ?A) 45

B) 31C) 95D) 50Answer: B) 31

Question 226: Physical quality of life index is measured by all except ?A) Infant mortalityB) Life expectancy at age oneC) LiteracyD) Per capita incomeAnswer: D) Per capita income

Question 227: All the statements are true about standardization except ?

A) Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populationsB) The national population is always taken as the standard populationC) For Direct Standardization, age specific rates of the study population are appliedto that of the standard populationD) For Indirect Standardization age specific rates of the standard population areapplied to the study populationAnswer: B) The national population is always taken as the standard population

Question 228: All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except ?A) Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similarB) Investigator's bias is minimized by double blindingC) The sample size required depends on the hypothesis

D) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysisAnswer: D) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis

Question 229: Study the following table carefully and answer the following question ?What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test ?A) 45B) 20C) 80D) 50


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Answer: C) 80

Question 230: Pre-treatment evaluation for Lithium therapy should include ?A) Fasting blood sugarB) Serum CreatinineC) Liver function tests

D) Platelet countAnswer: B) Serum Creatinine

Question 231: According to the World Health report 2000, India's health expenditureis ?A) 4.8 % of G.D.P.B) 5.2 % of G.D.P.C) 6.8 % of G.D.P.D) 7 % of G.D.P.Answer: A) 4.8 % of G.D.P.

Question 232: The premium of the "Community based Universal Health Insurance

Scheme" launched during 2003-04 ranges from ?A) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of sevenB) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 3 per day for a family of sevenC) Rs. 2 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of sevenD) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 7 per day for a family of sevenAnswer: A) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven

Question 233: In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human OrgansAct was passed by Government of India ?A) 1994B) 1996C) 2000D) 2002

Answer: A) 1994

Question 234: Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 is ?A) 6.0B) 6.5C) 7.8D) 10.5Answer:

Question 235: A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudativelesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one month. She also had vesicularlesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is ?

A) Congenital syphilisB) Seborrhoeic dermatitisC) ScabiesD) PsoriasisAnswer: C) Scabies

Question 236: Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in ?A) Lichen planusB) Psoriasis


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C) Tinea unguiumD) Alopecia areataAnswer: A) Lichen planus

Question 237: A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunkand multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early

childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation tosupport the diagnosis ?A) Slit lamp examination of eyeB) Measurement of intraocular tensionC) Examination of fundusD) Retinal artery angiographyAnswer: A) Slit lamp examination of eye

Question 238: A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustularand comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug ofchoice for her treatment would be ?A) Acitretin

B) IsotretinoinC) DoxycyclineD) AzithromycinAnswer: B) Isotretinoin

Question 239: A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face,neck, 'V' area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions aremore severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate testto diagnose the condition would be ?A) Skin biopsyB) Estimation of IgE levels in bloodC) Patch testD) Intradermal prick test

Answer: C) Patch test

Question 240: Finger Print Bureau was first established in ?A) EnglandB) ChinaC) IndiaD) SingaporeAnswer: C) India

Question 241: Spalding's sign occurs after ?A) Birth of live foetusB) Death of foetus in uterus

C) Rigor mortis of infantD) Cadaveric spasmAnswer: B) Death of foetus in uterus

Question 242: Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India andrecognized by MCI are registred in ?A) First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956B) Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956C) Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956


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D) Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956Answer: B) Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

Question 243: Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown ?A) Between 12-24 hoursB) Between 2 - 3 days

C) Between 4 - 5 daysD) Between 5 - 7 daysAnswer: B) Between 2 - 3 days

Question 244: Which of the following tests is used to detect semen ?A) Phenolphthalein testB) Reine's testC) Barberio's testD) Paraffin testAnswer: C) Barberio's test

Question 245: The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is a surrogate

marker of one of the following ?A) Coeliac diseaseB) Crohn's diseaseC) Ulcerative colitisD) Tropical sprueAnswer: B) Crohn's disease

Question 246: The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is ?A) TuberculosisB) Cancer of stomachC) Duodenal lymphomaD) Peptic ulcer diseaseAnswer: D) Peptic ulcer disease

Question 247: Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead to malabsorptionsyndrome ?A) AmoebiasisB) AscariasisC) Hookworm infestationD) GiardiasisAnswer: D) Giardiasis

Question 248: Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia ?A) DiarrhoeaB) Polyuria

C) DepressionD) VomitingAnswer: A) Diarrhoea

Question 249: Joint erosions are not a feature of ?A) Rheumatoid arthritisB) PsoriasisC) Multicentric reticulohistiocytosisD) Systemic lupus erythematosus


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Answer: D) Systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 250: Nevirapine is a ?A) Protease inhibitorB) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitorC) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

D) Fusion inhibitorAnswer: C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Question 251: Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with ?A) Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosisB) Mixed connective tissue diseaseC) CREST syndromeD) PolymyositisAnswer: C) CREST syndrome

Question 252: A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chestinfections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention.Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3gmdl, serum calcium12.6mgdl,

phosphate-2.5mgdl, alkaline phosphatase-l00 ul, serum albumin-3 gmdl, globulin-7.1gmdl, and urea-I78 mgdl. What is the most likely diagnosis ?A) Lung cancerB) Disseminated tuberculosisC) Multiple myelomaD) OsteoporosisAnswer: C) Multiple myeloma

Question 253: All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except ?A) NelfinavirB) SaquinavirC) AbacavirD) Ritonavir

Answer: C) Abacavir

Question 254: Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis ofpolymyositis ?A) Neck muscle involvementB) Extraocular muscle involvementC) DysphagiaD) Abdominal muscle involvementAnswer: B) Extraocular muscle involvement

Question 255: All of the following are the known causes of osteoporosis except ?A) Fluorosis

B) HypogonadismC) HyperthyroidismD) HyperparathyroidismAnswer: A) Fluorosis

Question 256: A 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for thelast 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonaryfunction tests (PFT) are as follows:


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What is the most likely diagnosis in this case ?A) Interstitial lung diseaseB) Pulmonary artery hypertensionC) Congestive heart failureD) BronchiectasisAnswer: A) Interstitial lung disease

Question 257: Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis ?A) Staphylococcus albusB) Streptococcus faecalisC) Salmonella typhiD) Pseudomonas aeruginosaAnswer: C) Salmonella typhi

Question 258: All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except ?A) Prolonged PR intervalB) Prolonged QRS intervalC) Prolonged QT intervalD) Ventricular asystoleAnswer: C) Prolonged QT interval

Question 259: Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except ?A) AtherosclerosisB) Fibromuscular dysplasiaC) Takayasu's arteritis

D) Polyarteritis nodosaAnswer: D) Polyarteritis nodosa

Question 260: Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following, except ?A) Dilated cardiomyopathyB) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathyC) Eisenmenger's syndromeD) Ventricular septal defectAnswer: D) Ventricular septal defect

Question 261: All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except ?

A) Increased waist-hip ratioB) HyperhomocysteinemiaC) Decreased fibrinogen levelsD) Decreased HDL levelsAnswer: C) Decreased fibrinogen levels

Question 262: All of the following may occur in Down's syndrome except ?A) HypothyroidismB) Undescended testis


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C) Ventricular septal defectD) Brushfield's spotsAnswer: B) Undescended testis

Question 263: All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponadeexcept ?

A) Kussmaul's signB) Pulsus paradoxusC) Electrical alternansD) Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogramAnswer: A) Kussmaul's sign

Question 264: A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. Her breastsare Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is ?A) Turner's syndromeB) Mullerian agenesisC) Testicular feminization syndromeD) Premature ovarian failure

Answer: C) Testicular feminization syndromeQuestion 265: The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is ?A) SeizureB) AnxietyC) HypotensionD) Loose stoolsAnswer: B) Anxiety

Question 266: A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. Shecomplains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte abnormality is?A) Hyponatremia

B) HypocalcemiaC) HypokalemiaD) HypomagnesemiaAnswer: C) Hypokalemia

Question 267: All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wallsynthesis, except ?A) CarbapenemsB) MonobactamsC) CephamycinsD) NitrofurantoinAnswer: D) Nitrofurantoin

Question 268: A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culturein special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which wasoxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?A) Pasturella spp.B) Francisella spp.C) Bartonella spp.D) Brucella spp.Answer: D) Brucella spp.


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Question 269: Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicityof Mycobacteria species ?A) M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis to the humansB) M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosisC) M. africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source

D) M. marinum is resoponsible for tubercular lymphadenopathyAnswer: B) M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis

Question 270: A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown.After 5 days he developed fever and had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear wassent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the followingstaining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen ?A) Albert stainingB) Zeihl - Neelson stainingC) Mc Fadyean's stainingD) Wayson stainingAnswer: D) Wayson staining

Question 271: A 40 years old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaintsof profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervical os on thespeculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon allof the following findings on microscopy except ?A) Abundance of gram variable coccobacilliB) Absence of LactobacilliC) Abundance of polymorphsD) Presence of clue cellsAnswer: C) Abundance of polymorphs

Question 272: A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeksbefore. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation

to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitisdue to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be thecausative agent ?A) Rickettsia typhiB) Rickettsia rickettsiaeC) Rickettsia prowazekiiD) Rickettsia akariAnswer: C) Rickettsia prowazekii

Question 273: A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus,which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All ofthe following antibiotics will be appropriate except ?

A) VancomycinB) ImipenemC) TeichoplaninD) LinezolidAnswer: B) Imipenem

Question 274: A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the followingwould help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except ?A) TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother


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B) TPHA test on the serum sample of the infantC) VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant and motherD) Time interval between the treatment of the mother and her deliveryAnswer: B) TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant

Question 275: At what period does tuberculosis flare up most commonly in a

pregnant patient ?A) First trimesterB) Second trimesterC) Third trimesterD) PuerperiumAnswer: D) Puerperium

Question 276: Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury ?A) Vaginal hysterectomyB) Abdominal hysterectomyC) Wertheim's hysterectomyD) Anterior colporraphy

Answer: C) Wertheim's hysterectomyQuestion 277: The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome ?A) 17-OH ProgesteroneB) Follicular stimulating hormoneC) Luteinising hormoneD) Thyroid stimulating hormoneAnswer: C) Luteinising hormone

Question 278: Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnantmother who is on phenytoin therapy for Epilepsy ?A) Vitamin B6B) Vitamin B1

C) Vitamin AD) Folic acidAnswer: D) Folic acid

Question 279: Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsionduring pregnancy ?A) Serous CystadenomaB) Mucenous CystadenomaC) Dermoid cystD) Theca Lutein cystAnswer: C) Dermoid cyst

Question 280: Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus canbe diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound ?A) AnencephalyB) InencephalyC) MicrocephalyD) HoloprosencephalyAnswer: A) Anencephaly

Question 281: The most common cause of tubal block in India is ?


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A) Gonorrhoea infectionB) Chlamydia infectionC) TuberculosisD) Bacterial vaginosisAnswer: C) Tuberculosis

Question 282: The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of PostPartum Haemorrhage (PPH) except ?A) HypertensionB) MacrosomiaC) Twin pregnancyD) HydramniosAnswer: A) Hypertension

Question 283: Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all ofthe following except ?A) Fetal distressB) Hematuria

C) Fresh bleeding per vaginumD) Passage of meconiumAnswer: D) Passage of meconium

Question 284: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycysticovarian disease ?A) Elevated LH hormoneB) Can cause infertilityC) May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance testD) Results in postdated pregnancyAnswer: D) Results in postdated pregnancy

Question 285: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

levonorgestral releasing intra-uterine system ?A) There is increased incidence of menorrhagiaB) This system can be used as hormone replacement therapyC) This method is useful for the treatment of Endometrial hyperplasiaD) Irregular uterine bleeding can be a problem initiallyAnswer: A) There is increased incidence of menorrhagia

Question 286: All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk ofupper genital tract infection in users of progestin-releasing IUDs, except ?A) Reduced retrograde menstruationB) Decreased ovulationC) Thickened cervical mucus

D) Decidual changes in the endometriumAnswer: B) Decreased ovulation

Question 287: Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the followingmechanisms, except ?A) Delaying inhibiting ovulationB) Inhibiting fertilizationC) Preventing implantation of the fertilized eggD) Interrupting an early pregnancy


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Answer: D) Interrupting an early pregnancy

Question 288: Misoprostol is a ?A) Prostaglandin E1 analogueB) Prostaglandin E2 analogueC) Prostaglandin antagonist

D) AntiprogestinAnswer: A) Prostaglandin E1 analogue

Question 289: Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymphnodes, except ?A) Parametrial lymph nodesB) Deep inguinal lymph nodesC) Obturator lymph nodesD) Ext. iliac lymph nodesAnswer: B) Deep inguinal lymph nodes

Question 290: The treatment for a case of virilising adrenal hyperplasia is ?

A) EstrogensB) AntiandrogensC) ACTHD) CortisoneAnswer: D) Cortisone

Question 291: A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 wks. gestation with acutepain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. Sheshould be managed by ?A) Immediate caesarean sectionB) Immediate induction of labourC) Tocolytic therapyD) Magnesium sulphate therapy

Answer: B) Immediate induction of labour

Question 292: The investigation of choice in a 55 year old postmenopausal womanwho has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is ?A) Pap smearB) Fractional curettageC) Transvaginal ultrasoundD) CA-125 estimationAnswer: B) Fractional curettage

Question 293: In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk ofmetastasis to ovary is the least ?

A) Carcinoma cervixB) Carcinoma endometriumC) Carcinoma fallopian tubeD) Uterine sarcomaAnswer: A) Carcinoma cervix

Question 294: The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester ofpregnancy is ?A) Triple marker estimation


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B) Nuchal skin fold thickness measurementC) Chorionic villus samplingD) AmniocentesisAnswer: D) Amniocentesis

Question 295: Calcitonin is secreted by ?

A) Thyroid glandB) Parathyroid glandC) Adrenal glandsD) OvariesAnswer: A) Thyroid gland

Question 296: Which of the following is an intraarticular tendon ?A) SartoriusB) SemitendinosusC) AnconeusD) PopliteusAnswer: D) Popliteus

Question 297: Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as aneccentric osteolytic lesion ?A) Aneurysmal bone cystB) Giant cell tumorC) Fibrous cortical defectD) Simple bone cystAnswer: D) Simple bone cyst

Question 298: Bisphosphonates act by ?A) Increasing the osteoid formationB) Increasing the mineralisation of osteoidC) Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of boneD) Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion

Answer: C) Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone

Question 299: All the statements are true about exostosis, except ?A) It occurs at the growing end of boneB) Growth continues after skeletal maturityC) It is covered by cartilaginous capD) Malignant transfonnation may occurAnswer: B) Growth continues after skeletal maturity

Question 300: The treatment of choice for the management of carcinoma of the analcanal is ?

A) Abdomino perineal resectionB) Primary radiotherapyC) Combined radio- and chemotherapyD) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and local excisionAnswer: C) Combined radio- and chemotherapy

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All India Medical PG 2006 Ques & ans

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