Fall 2005

1. DNA molecules have:

a. a double helix structure.b. specific pairing of 4 different nitrogen bases.c. alternating sugar and phosphate units.d. All of the above.e. None of the above.

2. The structures in DNA that apparently serve the function of "genes" or as the source of coded information is/are the:

a. phosphoric acid configuration.b. nitrogen bases and their sequence.c. structure of deoxyribose.d. ribose sequence.

3. Production of new DNA occurs in:

a. several locations in the cell c. in the cytoplasmb. the nucleus d. in the ribosomes

4. Newly synthesized molecules of contain one old strand and one new strand.

a. t-RNAb. r-RNAc. m-RNAd. DNAe. protein

5. Which of the following is found in RNA, but not in DNA?

a. adenine d. cytosineb. guanine e. thyminec. uracil

6. Which of the following would be found in DNA, but not in RNA?

a. phosphate group d. nitrogen basesb. ribose e. all of these are present in c. deoxyribose both DNA and RNA

7. The double helix concept is that a molecule of DNA consists of:

a. two chains in which each base (A,G,C,T) in one chain is paired with its opposite or

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complement (T,C,G,A) in the other chain.b. two chains in which each base in one chain is paired with the same one in the other chain.c. two chains, each of which is the mirror image of the other.d. a chain of nucleotides paired with and twisted with a chain of amino acids.

8. In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the uprights (sides) of the ladder would be:

a. deoxyribose linked to phosphates.b. nitrogenous bases linked together.c. deoxyribose linked to sulfates.d. nitrogenous bases linked to phosphates.e. hydrogen bonds between the bases.

9. In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the rungs (steps) of the ladder would be:

a. deoxyribose linked to phosphates.b. nitrogenous bases linked together.c. deoxyribose linked to ribose.d. nitrogenous bases linked to phosphates.

10. Nucleotides are composed of:

a. phosphates.b. sugars.c. nitrogenous bases.d. all of the above.

11. In DNA, the amount of cytosine is always equal to the amount of:a. adenine. c. guanine.b. uracil. d. thymine.

12. mRNA molecules carry __________ from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

a. ribosomal subunits d. intronsb. amino acids e. all of the abovec. protein assembly instructions

13. The correct sequence of events for protein synthesis is:

a. DNA - tRNA - ribosome - mRNA - amino acid.b. mRNA - DNA - tRNA - ribosome - amino acid.c. DNA - mRNA - ribosome - tRNA - amino acid.d. tRNA - DNA ribosome - mRNA - amino acid.

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14. How many nucleotide bases are needed to specify one amino acid?

a. 4 c. 2b. 3 d. 1

15. Which of the following carries amino acids to ribosomes?

a. DNA d. tRNAb. mRNA e. none of the abovec. rRNA

16. Messenger RNA contains ______ strand(s).

a. one d. fourb. two e. fivec. three

17. A codon:

a. contains instructions for placement of one amino acid.b. contains instructions for the assembly of an entire protein.c. is a gene.d. is a sequence of 4 bases on mRNA.e. none of the above

18. Ribosomes are composed of:

a. small proteins d. lipids and mRNAb. proteins and tRNAs e. rRNAs and tRNAsc. proteins and rRNAs

19. If a segment of DNA had the sequence G-A-C-C-G-A-A-A-G, the messenger RNA complementary to it would have the sequence:

a. G-A-C-C-G-A-A-A-G. d. A-G-T-T-A-G-G-G-A.b. C-T-G-G-C-T-T-T-C. e. A-G-U-U-A-G-G-G-A.c. C-U-G-G-C-U-U-U-C.

20. The base sequence CUA on mRNA is recognized by which sequence of nucleotides on tRNA?

a. GAU d. GTTb. CAU e. CTAc. GAT

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21. If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the mRNA codons would be:

a. AUG-CGU. d. UAG-CGU.b. ATG-CGT. e. none of the abovec. UAC-GCA.

22. If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the tRNA anticodons would be:

a. AUG-CGU. d. UAG-CGU.b. ATG-CGT. e. none of the abovec. UAC-GCA.

23. Which of the following is found in DNA, but not in RNA?

a. adenine d. cytosineb. guanine e. thyminec. uracil

24. DNA is double-stranded and contains the base uracil, while RNA is single stranded and containsthe base thymine.

a. true b. false

Matching 25-28. Answers may be used more than once. Indicate if the descriptions below refer to:

a. transcription.b. translation.c. replication.

25. Assembly of specific amino acids into a protein.

26. Production of mRNA.

27. Assembly of nucleotides to form 2 identical molecules of DNA.

28. Occurs on ribosome.

29. A gene mutation is defined as a change in:

a. the structure of the ribosome.b. the nucleotide sequence of RNA.c. the nucleotide sequence of DNA.d. the amino acid sequence of a protein.

e. the way a gene is expressed.

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30. A gene mutation:

a. destroys the DNA molecule.b. has no effect on the gene base sequence.c. is always beneficial.d. can be passed on to offspring.e. all of the above are correct

31. The diagram below represents a(an) _______________ mutation.

A A C G C A G T G A A C C C A G T G

a. pointb. insertionc. deletiond. There is no mutation here.

32. In a mutation:

a. the new codon may specify a different amino acid, but may not change the function of the new protein produced.

b. the new codon may specify the same amino acid as the old codon.c. the new codon and resulting amino acid may produce a non-functional protein.d. All of the above may be true.

Matching 33-37. Match each molecule to its description. Answers may be used more than once.

a. DNA.b. mRNA.c. tRNA.d. ribosomes.

33. Chromosomes

34. Carries specific amino acids in the cytoplasm

35. Carried protein synthesis instructions out of the nucleus

36. Site of protein synthesis

37. Serves as a blueprint for mRNA

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38. Recombinant DNA is formed when:

a. DNA undergoes a mutation.b. DNA unzips and then new complementary bases recombine with

each half producing two identical DNA strands.c. DNA from one organism are combined with the DNA from

another organism.d. t-RNA is combined with DNA.

MATCHING 39-40. Select from the following answers.

a. Intron c. Restriction enzymeb. Exon d. Plasmid

39. Segments of the genetic code which are used in building a protein

40. Segments of the genetic code which are not used in building a protein

Matching 41-45. Select from the following answers. Answers may be used only once.

a. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)b. gene therapyc. DNA fingerprintingd. transgenic organisme. clone

41. Product of asexual reproduction.

42. Use of bioengineered cells or viruses to treat human genetic disorders.

43. Crop plants that have a bacterial gene inserted into them.

44. Use of STRs to associate a blood stain with a specific person.

45. Technique for producing a large quantity of DNA from a small sample.

46. Plasmids are:

a. used to cut DNA into fragments.b. normally found in humans.c. used to copy DNA.d. circular DNA molecules found in bacteria.

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47. Enzymes used to cut genes in recombinant DNA research are:

a. ligases.b. restriction enzymes.c. transcriptases.d. DNA polymerases.e. replicases.

48. Which of the following enzymes joins the paired sticky ends of DNA fragments?

a. reverse transcriptaseb. restriction enzymesc. DNA ligased. DNA polymerasee. helicase

49. Which among these techniques is used in DNA fingerprinting?

a. amplification of DNAb. use of STR primers.c. gel electrophoresisd. comparison of different DNA samplese. all of the above are used in DNA fingerprinting

50. What type of mutation is represented?

CCATAGACT → CCACATAGACT

a. Point c. Deletionb. Insertion d. There is no mutation.

51. A hypothesis is:

a. a test devised to gain information.b. an initial observation of some event.c. a possible explanation for something observed.d. drawing a conclusion.e. designing an experiment.

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52. A control is used in an experiment:

a. to make the experiment more complex.b. to repeat the experiment and gather more data for statistical

purposes.c. to reduce the experiment error.d. to insure that at least one group will turn out as expected.e. to allow for a standard of comparison for the experimental group.

53. A scientific theory:

a. is an accepted explanation for a natural phenomena.b. is an educated guess.c. is less reliable than a hypothesis.d. will never be changed.e. none of the above.

54. Which of the following is/are characteristic of living organisms?

a. Complex and organized structureb. Responsiveness to stimulic. Maintenance of homeostasisd. b and c only are correcte. a, b, and c are correct

55. To which kingdom would a multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic organism belong?

a. Protista d. Animaliab. Fungi e. None of the abovec. Plantae

56. Which organism listed is prokaryotic?

a. Elodea d. Allium (onion)b. Bacteria e. Fungusc. Whitefish

57. As food moves down the food chain, what happens to the amount of useableenergy?

a. It increases. c. It is the same at each level.b. It decreases. d. Energy cannot move.

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58. To which Kingdom would a multicellular, heterotrophic organism belong?

a. Protista d. Animaliab. Bacteria e. None of the abovec. Plantae

59. The Domain __________ is characterized by organisms composed of one or more highly complex cells.

a. Bacteriab. Archaeac. Eukarya

60. What determines the atomic number of an atom?

a. Number of electrons in the outermost energy levelb. Total number of energy shellsc. Arrangement of neutrons in the atomic nucleusd. Number of protons in the atomic nucleus.e. The total number of electrons and neutrons.

61. If you examined the atoms found in living things, which of the following groups of elements would you find to be the most common?

a. C, O, P, S d. K, S, O, Pb. C, O, N, Na e. C, H, O, Nc. C, H, Ca, Cl

62. In an atom the number of electrons is the same as the number of protons.

a. true b. false63. Phosphorus has an atomic number of 15. How many electrons are located in its outer shell?

a. 2 d. 5b. 3 e. 8c. 4

64. The number of __________ plus the number of __________ is equal to the atomic weight (mass) of an atom.

a. electrons, protons d. protons, electronsb. electrons, neutrons e. none of the abovec. protons, neutrons

65. How does one explain the formation of ions?

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a. Sharing of electrons d. Sharing of protonsb. Gain or loss of electrons e. Gain or loss of neutronsc. Gain or loss of protons

66. Substances which dissolve in water are:

a. hydrophilic.b. hydrophobic.

67. If a substance measures 7 on the pH scale, that substance:

a. has equal concentrations of H+ and OH- ions.b. is acidic.c. has a greater concentration of OH- than H+ ions.d. lacks OH- ions.e. is basic.

68. Large biological molecules are synthesized by removing:

a. carbon.b. covalent bonds.c. water.d. oxygen.e. nitrogen.

69. Which of the following best summarized the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

a. Dehydration reactions assemble polymers and hydrolysis breaks them down.b. Hydrolysis occurs during the day and dehydration happens at night.

c. Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.d. Hydrolysis creates monomers and dehydration reactions destroy them.e. Dehydration reactions occur only in animals; hydrolysis reactions occur only in plants.

70. Which of the following is a lipid?

a. steroids d. waxesb. oils e. all of the abovec. triglycerides

71. The subunit (monomer) of a protein is a (an):

a. amino acid. d. nucleotide.

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b. monosaccharide. e. fatty acid.c. glycerol.

72. The difference between one amino acid and another is found in the:

a. carboxyl group. d. peptide bond.b. amino group. e. angle of the oxygen link.c. R group.

73. Which of the following is true about the plasma membrane?

a. It separates the cell contents from its environment.b. It allows some substances to move across it freely.c. It is a lipid bilayer with proteins scattered throughout.d. It contains pumps for moving molecules against their concentration gradient.e. All of the above.

74. To say a membrane is "semipermeable" means:

a. no molecules can pass through.b. all molecules can pass through it freely.c. only certain molecules can pass through, while others cannot.d. sometimes water can pass through, and sometimes it cannot.e. the permeability depends on the concentration gradient.

75. Temperature and the size of the molecule will influence the rate of simple diffusion.

a. True b. False

76. If red blood cells are taken from the body and placed in a hypertonic solution, what would happen to the cells?

a. The cells swell and burst because water moves into the cells.b. The cells shrivel up because water leaves the cells.c. The cells remain unchanged due to equal solute concentration inside and outside the cells.d. The cells remain unchanged due to equal water concentrations inside and outside the cells.e. Unable to be determined.

77. Osmosis refers to:

a. random movement of sugar molecules until equilibrium is reached.b. the movement of water against it concentration gradient.c. hydrogen bonding between water molecules.d. the diffusion of water through a membrane.

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e. all of the above are true.

Refer to Figure 1 of the cell for 78-83.

78. Structure 4 is the:

a. chloroplast. d. Golgi complex.b. nucleus. e. endoplasmic reticulum.c. vacuole.

79. Structure 2 is the:

a. chloroplast. d. Golgi complex.b. nucleus. e. ribosome.c. mitochondrion.

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Figure 1. The Cell

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80. The function of structure 2 is:

a. production of protein.b. packaging substances produced by cell.c. to control all cellular functions.d. provide energy by means of cellular respiration.e. storage of starch.

81. Structure 5 is the:

a. nucleus. d. lysosome.b. nucleolus. e. mitochondrion.c. Golgi complex.

82. Structure 3 is the:

a. nucleus. d. mitochondria.b. endoplasmic reticulum. e. Golgi complex.c. ribosome.

83. Structure 7 (the dot-like-structure) is the:

a. plasmid. d. Golgi complex.b. mitochondria. e. chloroplast.c. ribosome.

84. _______________ contain digestive enzymes and function as the intracellular digestive units for the cell.

a. Golgi complex d. Lysosomesb. Ribosomes e. Endoplasmic reticulac. Mitochondria

85. _______________ are the primary cellular sites for the production of proteins.

a. Golgi complex d. Lysosomesb. Ribosomes e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulac. Mitochondria

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86. Energy:

a. is created but never destroyed.b. is constantly lost to the environment as heat.c. cannot be converted from one form to another.d. is present in sunlight but not in chemical bonds.e. is anything that has a mass and takes up space.

87. An enzyme may be inactivated by:

a. removing its product as fast as it appears.b. blocking its active site.c. halving its concentration.d. doubling its concentration.e. all of the above

88. The chemical reaction below is that of a lit bunsen burner.

CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + energy (light-heat)

This reaction is:

a. exergonic (exothermic). b. endergonic (endothermic).

89. In the process of photosynthesis, light energy from the sun is converted into:

a. chemical energy. d. radiant energy.b. heat energy. e. solar energy.c. electrical energy.

90. Which of the following life forms cannot photosynthesize?

a. plantsb. algaec. animalsd. all of the above can photosynthesize

91. Which of the following is used by plants in photosynthesis?

a. sugarb. oxygenc. carbon dioxided. amino acidse. glycerol and fatty acids

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92. Why do we perceive chlorophyll as being green?

a. Blue and yellow wavelenghts combine, producing the high energy green wavelength.b. Because it absorbs green light.c. Because it absorbs red light.d. Because it reflects blue light.e. Because it reflects green light.

93. The main product of photosynthesis is:

a. CO2. c. H2O.b. C6H12O6. d. RuBP.

94. Most of the photosynthesis in plants occurs in the:

a. leaf.b. stem/trunk.c. roots.d. flowers.

95. Which of the following releases the most energy in the form of ATP?

a. anaerobic respirationb. aerobic respirationc. alcoholic fermentationd. lactate fermentatione. all produce the same amount of ATP

Matching 96 - 99. Identify the correct phase of respiration.Answers may be used more than once.

a. Glycolysisb. Krebs Cyclec. Electron Transport System

96. In which phase is water is formed?

97. Which of these requires oxygen from the air?

98. Which of these produces the most ATP?

99. Which of these occurs in the cytoplasm?

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100. A mouse is placed in a sealed container. What would happen to the gases in the container?

a. Both oxygen and carbon dioxide would decrease.b. Both oxygen and carbon dioxide would increase. c. Oxygen would increase and carbon dioxide would decrease. d. Oxygen would decrease and carbon dioxide would increase.

101. The waste products of aerobic respiration that are used for photosynthesis are:

a. carbon dioxide and oxygen.b. water and carbon dioxide.c. water and oxygen.d. water, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.

102. Oxygen is necessary for aerobic respiration because oxygen combines with:

a. carbon dioxide and water to form glucose.b. carbon to form carbon dioxide.c. electrons and hydrogen ions to form water.d. nitrogen to form proteins.e. electrons to form carbon dioxide.

103. When the genetic material is in the uncoiled condition it is not visible with a light microscope. Inthis form it is usually referred to as:

a. centromere. d. chromosome.b. chromatin. e. sex cell.c. spindle fibers.

104. The two halves of a duplicated chromosome are called:

a. spindle fibers. d. microtubules.b. centrioles. e. chromatids.c. centromeres.

105. In a cell undergoing mitosis, you observe that the chromosomes are lined up in the center of the cell. Which phase of mitosis are you observing?

a. prophase d. anaphaseb. metaphase e. telophasec. interphase

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106. Which of the following occurs only in plant cell mitosis?

a. The cell pinches itself into two daughter cells.b. The chromosomes separate.c. The chromosomes become visible with a light microscope.d. Only half of the daughter cells have chromosomes.e. A cell plate forms.

107. How many chromosomes would be present in the sex cells of an organism with 20 chromosomes in its body cells?

a. 2 d. 15b. 5 e. 20c. 10

108. What is the importance of crossing over?

a. It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells.b. It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic information.c. It produces proteins that are associated with the DNA in the chromosomes.d. It increases the chromosome condensation.e. It separates the pairs of homologous chromosomes.

109. An individual possessing two different alleles (such as Dd) is said to be:

a. homozygous. c. linked.b. recessive. d. heterozygous.

110. A tall pea plant (TT) and a tall pea plant (Tt) have the same:

a. alleles. c. phenotype.b. genotype. d. none of these.

111. In squash white fruit color is dominant over yellow. If a heterozygous white fruited plant is crossed with a yellow fruited plant, what type and proportion of offspring will be expected?

a. all white d. all yellowb. ½ white, ½ yellow e. more than one of the above c. 3 white, 1 yellow

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112. When two blue-flowered plants are crossed, 25% of their offspring are white. What are the genotypes of the blue plants?

a. BB c. bbb. Bb d. bbb

113. A recessive allele is one:

a. that is not expressed as strongly as a dominant allele.b. whose effect is masked by a dominant one.c. that produces no effect when present in the homozygous condition

d. that appears only in a heterozygote. e. that is always lethal in the homozygous condition

114. If an organism has the genotype Aa BB, how many different types of sex cells can be produced?

a. 1 d. 4b. 2 e. 5c. 3

115. In fruit flies, gray body is dominant to black body and straight wing is dominant to curled wing. Ifa homozygous black-bodied, straight-winged fly is mated with a homozygous gray-bodied, curled-winged fly, how many different phenotypes will be produced in the F1 generation?

a. 1 d. 16b. 2 e. more than 100c. 4

116. If the pattern of inheritance is autosomal recessive, a male showing the trait would have the following genotype:

a. AA d. XaYb. Aa e. XAYc. aa

117. In a certain species of birds, homozygotes are either black or white. The heterozygous condition produces blue birds. If two blue birds are mated the offspring will be:

a. all blue d. 3 blue: 1 whiteb. 1 black: 1 blue e. 3 black: 1 whitec. 1 black: 2 blue: 1 white

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118. Assume red is dominant to white, and tall is dominant to short. If a plant that is homozygous forred flowers and heterozygous for tallness is crossed with a plant that is white and short, what will the phenotypic ratio of their offspring be?

a. 1 tall red and 1 short redb. 9 tall red to 3 short red to 3 tall white to 1 short whitec. 3 tall red to 1 short red to 1 tall whited. 1 short white to 2 short red to 1 tall white

119. In snapdragons, red x white pink. What is expected for the cross pink x red?

a. ½ red and ½ pink d. All redb. All pink e. ¾ red and ¼ pinkc. ½ red and ½ white

120. If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype:

a. it can be either TT or Tt.b. it can be either Tt or tt.c. it can be only TT.d. it can be only tt.e. it can be TT, Tt, or tt.

121. Color-blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A color-blind woman will pass the gene for color-

blindness to:

a. her sons only. d. all her children.b. her daughters only. e. none of her children.

122. Mary has blood type AB. Scott has blood type O. Which of the following blood types is NOT possible for their children?

a. A c. ABb. B d. all of these are possible

123. Color blindness is more common in men than in women because:

a. men have only one X chromosome.b. the gene is located on the Y chromosome.c. crossing over only occurs in women.d. women cannot inherit the gene from their fathers.e. men have more copies of the gene than women.

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124. The failure of chromosomes to segregate properly during meiosis is called:

a. nondisjunction. d. inversion.b. translocation. e. independent assortment.c. replication.

125. The pattern of inheritance seen below would be described as:

a. autosomal dominant. c. sex linked recessive.b. autosomal recessive. d. none of the above.

Have A Good Break!KFEDSM404