Biology.08 EOC GA TAE TP-879938-4 - THOMAS€¦ · ing possible sources of bias in their...

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ISBN: 978-0-07-879938-9

MHID: 0-07-879938-4

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TO THE TEACHER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . IV

NATIONAL SCIENCE EDUCATION STANDARDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . V

GEORGIA PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR BIOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . VI

ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . IX STUDENT ANSWER SHEET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . XIX

CHAPTER 1 THE STUDY OF LIFE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1CHAPTER 2 PRINCIPLES OF ECOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3CHAPTER 3 COMMUNITIES, BIOMES, AND ECOSYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5CHAPTER 4 POPULATION ECOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .7CHAPTER 5 BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .9CHAPTER 6 CHEMISTRY IN BIOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .11CHAPTER 7 CELLULAR STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .13 CHAPTER 8 CELLULAR ENERGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .15CHAPTER 9 CELLULAR REPRODUCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .17CHAPTER 10 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION AND GENETICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .19CHAPTER 11 COMPLEX INHERITANCE AND HUMAN HEREDITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .21CHAPTER 12 MOLECULAR GENETICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .23CHAPTER 13 GENETICS AND BIOTECHNOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .25CHAPTER 14 THE HISTORY OF LIFE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27CHAPTER 15 EVOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .29CHAPTER 16 PRIMATE EVOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .31CHAPTER 17 ORGANIZING LIFE’S DIVERSITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .33CHAPTER 18 BACTERIA AND VIRUSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .35CHAPTER 19 PROTISTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .37CHAPTER 20 FUNGI . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .39CHAPTER 21 INTRODUCTION TO PLANTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .41CHAPTER 22 PLANT STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .43CHAPTER 23 REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .45CHAPTER 24 INTRODUCTION TO ANIMALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .47CHAPTER 25 WORMS AND MOLLUSKS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .49CHAPTER 26 ARTHROPODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .51CHAPTER 27 ECHINODERMS AND INVERTEBRATE CHORDATES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .53CHAPTER 28 FISHES AND AMPHIBIANS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55CHAPTER 29 REPTILES AND BIRDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .57CHAPTER 30 MAMMALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .59CHAPTER 31 ANIMAL BEHAVIOR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .61CHAPTER 32 INTEGUMENTARY, SKELETAL, AND MUSCULAR SYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63CHAPTER 33 NERVOUS SYSTEM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .65CHAPTER 34 CIRCULATORY, RESPIRATORY, AND EXCRETORY SYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . .67CHAPTER 35 DIGESTIVE AND ENDOCRINE SYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .69CHAPTER 36 HUMAN REPRODUCTION AND DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .71CHAPTER 37 IMMUNE SYSTEM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .73

ContentsContents

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Welcome to the Georgia Teacher Edition of Mastering the End of Course Test (EOCT) for Glencoe Biology. This book provides two pages of multiple choice questions for each chapter of Glencoe Biology. The questions will test students’ mastery of biology concepts in a standardized test practice format. An optional student answer sheet is located in the front of the book.

Understanding science can sometimes be a challenge for students. Mastering the EOCT for Glencoe Biology provides an opportunity for you to prepare your students for the Biology EOCT and the Georgia High School Graduation Tests (GHSGT) for Science. Each question has been correlated to the Georgia Performance Standards for Biology and the National Science Education Standards. The specific correlations for each question can be found in the Answers and Correlation Tables in the front of the book.

To the TeacherTo the Teacher

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NATIONAL SCIENCE EDUCATION STANDARDS v

Science Content Standards for Grades 9–12The National Science Education Standards, published by the National Research Council

and representing the contributions of thousands of educators and scientists, offer a compre-hensive vision of a scientifically literate society. The standards not only describe what students should know but also offer guidelines for biology teaching and assessment.

Correlations on each answer page in this booklet show the close alignment between the content standards and the review questions. Correlations are designated according to the numbering system in the table of science content standards shown below.

NATIONAL SCIENCE CONTENT STANDARDS

Unifying Concepts and ProcessesUCP.1 Systems, order, and organizationUCP.2 Evidence, models, and explanationUCP.3 Change, constancy, and

measurementUCP.4 Evolution and equilibriumUCP.5 Form and function

Science as InquiryA.1 Abilities necessary to do scientific

inquiryA.2 Understandings about scientific

inquiry

Physical ScienceB.1 Structure of atomsB.2 Structure and properties of matterB.3 Chemical reactionsB.4 Motions and forcesB.5 Conservation of energy and increase

in disorderB.6 Interactions of energy and matter

Life ScienceC.1 The cellC.2 Molecular basis of heredityC.3 Biological evolutionC.4 Interdependence of organismsC.5 Matter, energy, and organization in

living systemsC.6 Behavior of organisms

Earth and Space SciencesD.1 Energy in the earth systemD.2 Geochemical cyclesD.3 Origin and evolution of the earth

systemD.4 Origin and evolution of the universe

Science and TechnologyE.1 Abilities of technological designE.2 Understandings about science and

technology

Science in Personal and Social PerspectivesF.1 Personal and community healthF.2 Population growthF.3 Natural resourcesF.4 Environmental qualityF.5 Natural and human-induced hazardsF.6 Science and technology in local,

national, and global challenges

History and Nature of ScienceG.1 Science as a human endeavorG.2 Nature of scientific knowledgeG.3 Historical perspectives

National Science Content StandardsNational Science Content Standards

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vi GEORGIA PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

Co-Requisite – Characteristics of ScienceHabits of MindSCSh1. Students will evaluate the importance of curiosity, honesty, openness, and skepticism

in science.a. Exhibit the above traits in their own scientific activities.b. Recognize that different explanations often can be given for the same evidence. c. Explain that further understanding of scientific problems relies on the design

and execution of new experiments which may reinforce or weaken opposing explanations.

SCSh2. Students will use standard safety practices for all classroom laboratory and field investigations.a. Follow correct procedures for use of scientific apparatus.b. Demonstrate appropriate technique in all laboratory situations.c. Follow correct protocol for identifying and reporting safety problems and

violations.SCSh3. Students will identify and investigate problems scientifically.

a. Suggest reasonable hypotheses for identified problems.b. Develop procedures for solving scientific problems.c. Collect, organize and record appropriate data.d. Graphically compare and analyze data points and/or summary statistics.e. Develop reasonable conclusions based on data collected.f. Evaluate whether conclusions are reasonable by reviewing the process and

checking against other available information.SCSh4. Students use tools and instruments for observing, measuring, and manipulating

scientific equipment and materials.a. Develop and use systematic procedures for recording and organizing

information.b. Use technology to produce tables and graphs.c. Use technology to develop, test, and revise experimental or mathematical models.

SCSh5. Students will demonstrate the computation and estimation skills necessary for analyzing data and developing reasonable scientific explanations.a. Trace the source on any large disparity between estimated and calculated

answers to problems.b. Consider possible effects of measurement errors on calculations.c. Recognize the relationship between accuracy and precision.d. Express appropriate numbers of significant figures for calculated data, using

scientific notation where appropriate.e. Solve scientific problems by substituting quantitative values, using dimensional

analysis and/or simple algebraic formulas as appropriate.SCSh6. Students will communicate scientific investigations and information clearly.

a. Write clear, coherent laboratory reports related to scientific investigations. b. Write clear, coherent accounts of current scientific issues, including possible

alternative interpretations of the data.c. Use data as evidence to support scientific arguments and claims in written or

oral presentations.d. Participate in group discussions of scientific investigation and current scientific issues.

Georgia Performance Standards for BiologyGeorgia Performance Standards for Biology

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GEORGIA PERFORMANCE STANDARDS vii

The Nature of ScienceSCSh7. Students analyze how scientific knowledge is developed.

Students recognize that:a. The universe is a vast single system in which the basic principles are the same

everywhere. b. Universal principles are discovered through observation and experimental

verification.c. From time to time, major shifts occur in the scientific view of how the world

works. More often, however, the changes that take place in the body of scientific knowledge are small modifications of prior knowledge. Major shifts in scientific views typically occur after the observation of a new phenomenon or an insightful interpretation of existing data by an individual or research group.

d. Hypotheses often cause scientists to develop new experiments that produce additional data.

e. Testing, revising, and occasionally rejecting new and old theories never ends. SCSh8. Students will understand important features of the process of scientific inquiry.

Students will apply the following to inquiry learning practices:a. Scientific investigators control the conditions of their experiments in order to

produce valuable data. b. Scientific researchers are expected to critically assess the quality of data includ-

ing possible sources of bias in their investigations’ hypotheses, observations, data analyses, and interpretations.

c. Scientists use practices such as peer review and publication to reinforce the integrity of scientific activity and reporting.

d. The merit of a new theory is judged by how well scientific data are explained by the new theory.

e. The ultimate goal of science is to develop an understanding of the natural universe which is free of biases.

f. Science disciplines and traditions differ from one another in what is studied, techniques used, and outcomes sought.

SCSh9. Students will enhance reading in all curriculum areas by:a. Reading in all curriculum areasb. Discussing booksc. Building vocabulary knowledged. Establishing context

Co-Requisite – ContentSB1. Students will analyze the nature of the relationships between structures and functions in

living cells.a. Explain the role of cell organelles for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells,

including the cell membrane, in maintaining homeostasis and cell reproduction.b. Explain how enzymes function as catalysts. c. Identify the function of the four major macromolecules (i.e., carbohydrates,

proteins, lipids, nucleic acids). d. Explain the impact of water on life processes (i.e., osmosis, diffusion).


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viii GEORGIA PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

SB2. Students will analyze how biological traits are passed on to successive generations.a. Distinguish between DNA and RNA.b. Explain the role of DNA in storing and transmitting cellular information.c. Using Mendel’s laws, explain the role of meiosis in reproductive variability.d. Describe the relationships between changes in DNA and potential appearance

of new traits includinge. Compare the advantages of sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction in

different situations. f. Examine the use of DNA technology in forensics, medicine, and agriculture.

SB3. Students will derive the relationship between single-celled and multi-celled organisms and the increasing complexity of systems.

a. Explain the cycling of energy through the processes of photosynthesis and respiration.

b. Compare how structures and function vary between the six kingdoms (archaebacteria, eubacteria, protists, fungi, plants, and animals).

c. Examine the evolutionary basis of modern classification systems.d. Compare and contrast viruses with living organisms.

SB4. Students will assess the dependence of all organisms on one another and the flow of energy and matter within their ecosystems.

a. Investigate the relationships among organisms, populations, communities, ecosystems, and biomes.

b. Explain the flow of matter and energy through ecosystems byc. Relate environmental conditions to successional changes in ecosystems.d. Assess and explain human activities that influence and modify the environment

such as global warming, population growth, pesticide use, and water and power consumption.

e. Relate plant adaptations, including tropisms, to the ability to survive stressful environmental conditions.

f. Relate animal adaptations, including behaviors, to the ability to survive stressful environmental conditions.

SB5. Students will evaluate the role of natural selection in the development of the theory of evolution.

a. Trace the history of the theory.b. Explain the history of life in terms of biodiversity, ancestry, and the rates of

evolution.c. Explain how fossil and biochemical evidence support the theory.d. Relate natural selection to changes in organisms.e. Recognize the role of evolution to biological resistance (pesticide and antibiotic

resistance).


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ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES ix

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Chapter 1: The Study of Life

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer

National Science Standard

Georgia Performance Standard

1. B C.5 SB5b

2. C UCP.3, B.6, C.5 SB1a

3. C UCP.3, B.6 SCSh3b

4. A UCP.1, G.1 SCSh3b

5. A UCP.2, A.1, A.2, G.1 SCSh3f

6. D UCP.1, UCP.2, G.1 SCSh3a-f

7. C UCP.1, A.2, G.1 SCSh8a

8. C UCP.1, A.2, G.1, G.2 SCSh3c

9. B UCP.2, A.1, G.1 SCSh5d

10. C UCP.2, E.2, G.2 SCSh6c

11. B C.5, F.1 SCSh3a

12. D UCP.2, A.1, G.1 SCSh3e

13. C A.1, A.2, G.2 SCSh3a

14. B UCP.3, A.1, G.2 SCSh4a

15. C UCP.1, UCP.2, A.1, A.2 SCSh2b

Chapter 3: Communities, Biomes, and Ecosystems

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer


GeorgiaPerformance Standard

1. B UCP.1, C.5, D.1 SB4c

2. C UCP.1, B.6, C.5 SB4b

3. B UCP.1, B.5, F.5 SB4c

4. C UCP.1, C.5, D.1 SB4a

5. D UCP.1, UCP.5, C.4, C.5 SB4a

6. C UCP.3, C.4, C.5 SB4a

7. D UCP.2, C.4 SB4a

8. D UCP.2, C.4 SB4c

9. D UCP.3, C.4 SB4e

10. A UCP.2, UCP.3, C.6 SB4c

11. A UCP.1 SB4a

12. D UCP.3, F.5 SB4c

13. C B.6 SB4a

14. B C.4 SB4a

15. C UCP.5, C.4 SB4a

Chapter 2: Principles of Ecology

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer

National ScienceStandard


1. B UCP.3, C.4 SB4a

2. C UCP.1, UCP.5, C.4 SB4a

3. D UCP.4, C.4, C.5 SB4a

4. A UCP.1, UCP.4, C.4 SB3a

5. C UCP.3, UCP.4 SB4b

6. C UCP.1, C.4 SB4a

7. D UCP.3, B.2, D.2 SB4b

8. C UCP.5, B.2, C.5 SB4b

9. A UCP.2, C.4 SB4b

10. C UCP.1, C.4 SB4a

11. B UCP.5, B.2, C.4, C.5 SB4b

12. B UCP.1, C.4 SB4a

13. D UCP.1, C.5 SB3a

14. B UCP.1, UCP.3, B.6, C.5 SB3a

15. A UCP.1, B.6, C.5, D.2 SB4b

Chapter 4: Population Ecology

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. A UCP.3, UCP.4 SB4a

2. B UCP.3, C.5, D.2 SB4a



5. C UCP.3, C.6, F.2 SB4a


7. D F.5 SB4a

8. B UCP.4 SB4a


10. B C.4 SB4a

11. B UCP.2, C.6 SB4d

12. C UCP.2, C.6 SB4d

13. A UCP.4, C.6 SB4d

14. D C.5, C.6, F.5 SB4d

15. C C.6 SB4f

Answers and Correlation TablesAnswers and Correlation Tables

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x ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES

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Chapter 5: Biodiversity and Conservation

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. A UCP.2, C.4 SB4a

2. A UCP.3, B.3 SB4a

3. B UCP.3, F.2 SB4d

4. B UCP.2, F.3, F.4 SB4d

5. A UCP.4, C.3, F.3, F.4 SB4d

6. D UCP.4, C.5, F.4 SB4d

7. C UCP.4, C.6, F.5 SB4d

8. D C.4, C.6 SB4a

9. A UCP.4, C.3 SB4d

10. B UCP.5, C.6 SB4a

11. C C.4, C.6, D.2, F.3 SB4d

12. A UCP.2, C.5, F.5 SB4b

13. C F.1, F.3, F.4 SB4d

14. C B.5, F.4 SB4d

15. D UCP.4, C.3 SB4e, 4f

Chapter 7: Cellular Structure and Function

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer






4. B UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

5. C B.2, C.1 SB1a

6. D UCP.5, B.2, C.1 SB1a




10. D UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB1a, 3a

11. A UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

12. C UCP.4, UCP.5, C.1 SB1d

13. A UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

14. C UCP.5, B.6, C.1 SB1a

15. D UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB1a

Chapter 6: Chemistry in Biology

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. C UCP.5, B.2 SB1c

2. C UCP.2, B.2, C.3 SB1c

3. D B.2 SB1c

4. A B.1, B.2, B.3 ----

5. B UCP.2, B.3, B.6 ----

6. C UCP.3, B.3 SB1b

7. B B.2 ----

8. C UCP.2, B.2 SB1d

9. D UCP.2, B.2 SB1c

10. B UCP.2, B.3 SB1b

11. A UCP.2, B.2 SB1c

12. B B.2 ----

13. D UCP.2, B.3 ----

14. A B.2 ----

15. D B.2, C.2 SB1c

Chapter 8: Cellular Energy

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer

National Sci-enceStandard

GeorgiaPerformanceStandard

1. B B.6, C.1, D.1 SB3a

2. C UCP.3, B.3, B.6,, D.2

SB3a

3. B UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB1a

4. C UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB1a

5. A A.1, B.3, C.1, C.5

SB3a

6. B B.3, C.1 SB3a

7. D UCP.2, UCP.5, C.1

SB3a

8. A B.6, C.1 SB1a

9. B B.5 SB3a

10. C UCP.5, B.1, B.2 SB3a

11. D B.3 SB3a

12. B B.3, C.1, C.5 SB3a

13. B B.3, C.1, C.5 SB3a

14. D B.3, C.1, C.5 SB3a

15. D UCP.3, B.3 SB3a


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Chapter 9: Cellular Reproduction

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer






4. B UCP.5, C.1, F.1 SB2d


6. C UCP.5, C.1, F.1 SB2e


8. C UCP.5, C.1 SB2d


10. D UCP.5, C.1 SB2e

11. A UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

12. C UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

13. A UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

14. C UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

15. B UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

Chapter 11: Complex Inheritance and Human Heredity

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. B UCP.2 SCSh3d

2. C C.2, F.1 SB2d

3. B C.2, F.1 SB2d

4. A C.1 SB1a

5. D C.2 SB2c

6. D UCP.3, C.1 SB2d

7. D C.2 SB2c

8. B UCP.2 SCSh3d

9. D C.2 SB2c

10. B C.2 SB2d

11. A C.2 SB2d

12. B C.2 SB2c

13. C C.2 SB2c

14. A C.2 SB2c

15. D C.2 SB2c

Chapter 10: Sexual Reproduction and Genetics

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. C C.1 SB1a

2. A C.1 SB2d

3. B C.1 SB1a

4. D C.1 SB2c

5. A C.1 SB2d

6. D C.1 SB2c

7. B C.1 SB1a

8. C C.1 SB2c

9. B C.1 SB2c

10. B C.2 SB2e

11. D C.1 SB2d

12. B C.1 SB2e

13. B C.1 SB2c

14. C C.1 SB2c

15. B C.1 SB2c

Chapter 12: Molecular Genetics

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. C C.2 SB2a

2. B C.2 SB2a

3. C C.2 SB2a

4. C C.2 SB2a

5. D C.2 SB2b

6. D C.2 SB2b

7. D C.2 SB2d

8. A C.2 SB1a

9. A C.2, F.1 SB2d

10. C C.2 SB2a

11. D C.2 SB2b

12. D C.2 SB2b

13. B C.2, F.1 SB2b

14. A C.2 SB2b

15. B C.2 SB2d


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xii ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES

Chapter 13: Genetics and Biotechnology

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. C C.2, G.2 SCSh7b

2. B C.2 SB2d

3. B C.2 SCSh3b

4. D C.2 SB2b

5. D C.2, F.3 SB1a

6. C C.2, F.1 SCSh7c

7. C C.1 SCSh7c

8. C G.1 SB2b

9. A F.1 SCSh7c

10. D C.2, F.1 SB2b

11. B C.2, F.1 SB2a

12. A C.2 SB2b

13. B C.2, F.1 SB2b

14. C G.1 SCSh7c

15. B C.1, G.1 SB1a

Chapter 15: Evolution

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. C UCP.4, C.3, G.1, G.2 SB5a

2. A UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3, F.1 SB5e

3. C UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3 SB5c

4. A UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3 SB5c

5. B UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3 SB5d

6. D UCP.2, UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3, G.2

SB5a

7. A UCP.4, C.3, C.4 SB5d


9. A UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3 SB5b

10. C UCP.4, C.3 SB5d

11. A UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3, C.6 SB5b

12. A UCP.2, UCP.3, UCP.4, C.2, C.3

SB5b

13. C UCP.2, UCP.3, UCP.4, C.2, C.3

SB5b

14. D UCP.4, C.3, C.4 SB5d

15. B UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3 SB5c

Chapter 14: The History of Life

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. D C.3, E.2 SB5c

2. A A.1, E.2 SB5c

3. A UCP.4, C.3, D.3 SB5c

4. C UCP.4, C.3, D.3, F.3 SB5c

5. D UCP.2, C.3 SB5c

6. B UCP.3, UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.5

SB5c

7. B UCP.4, C.3, G.3 SB5b

8. C UCP.4, C.3, G.3 SB5a

9. C UCP.4, C.5, D.3, G.3 SB5c

10. B UCP.4, C.3, C.4 SB5c

11. B UCP.2, B.2, C.5 SB5c

12. D UCP.4, C.3, C.4, D.3, G.3

SB5a

13. A UCP.2, A.1, C.5 SB5c

14. D UCP.1, UCP.2, UCP.3, C.3, D.3

SB5a

15. C UCP.2, UCP.4, C.3, D.3 SB5a

Chapter 16: Primate Evolution

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. D UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.6 SB4f

2. D UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3 SB5c

3. D UCP.2, UCP.4. UCP.5, C.3

SCSh3d

4. D UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3 SB4f

5. B UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.6 SB4f

6. A UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3 SB4f

7. C UCP.4, C.3 SB5c

8. B UCP.2, UCP.4, C.3, G.2 SCSh7e

9. B UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.6 SB5c

10. A UCP.2, UCP.4, C.3, G.3 SCSh7d

11. B UCP.2, UCP.4, C.3 SB5c

12. D UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3, F.4 SB5b

13. C UCP.2, UCP.4, A.2, C.3, G.1, G.2

SCSh7e

14. A UCP.2, UCP.4, C.3, C.6 SB5c

15. A UCP.2, UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.6

SB5c


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ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES xiii

Chapter 17: Organizing Life’s Diversity

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. C UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.5 SB3b

2. B UCP.1, UCP.4, C.3 SB3c

3. C UCP.1, UCP.4, C.3 SB3c

4. D UCP.4, C.3, C.5 SB3c


6. D UCP.1, UCP.4, C.2, C.3 SB3c

7. D UCP.1, UCP.4, C.5 SB3c

8. B UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB3b

9. A UCP.2, UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3, G.2

SB3c

10. B UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1, C.6 SB3b

11. B UCP.1, UCP.3, UCP.4, C.3, G,3

SB3c

12. D UCP.1 SB3c

13. C UCP.1, G.1, G.2, G.3 SB3c

14. D UCP.2, UCP.4, C.3, G.2

SB3c

15. B UCP.4, C.3, G.1, G.3 SB3c

Chapter 19: Protists

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. A UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB3a

2. B UCP.5, C.1, C.6 SB3b

3. D UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

4. A UCP.5, C.1, C.6 SB3b


6. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB3b

7. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4a

8. D UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1, C.4, F.1

SB4a

9. B UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

10. D UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB3b

11. C UCP.5, C.1, C.3 SB3b

12. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4, F.1 SB4a

13. C UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1, F.2 SB3b

14. C UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

15. C UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

Chapter 18: Bacteria and Viruses

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. D UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB3d

2. A UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB3d

3. C UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

4. B UCP.5, C.1, F.1 SB3b

5. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB3b

6. D UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB3d

7. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4, C.6, F.1

SB4a

8. D UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB3b


10. C UCP.5, C.1, C.2, C.6, F.1

SB3d

11. C UCP.5, C.1 SB1c

12. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4, C.6, F.1, F.4

SB4b

13. C UCP.5, C.1, C.2, C.6 SB3d

14. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4, C.6, F.1, F.4, F.5, F.6, G.3

SB4d

15. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4, C.6, F.1, F.4

SB4a

Chapter 20: Fungi

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer




2. D UCP.2, UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

3. C UCP.1, UCP.5. C.1 SB3b

4. A UCP.3, C.4, C.5, D.2, F.3

SB4a

5. C UCP.3, C.4, F.3 SB3b





10. A UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB3b

11. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4a

12. D UCP.5, C.1, C.1 SB3b

13. D UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB3b

14. B UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB3b

15. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4, D.2 SB4a


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Chapter 21: Introduction to Plants

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer




2. B UCP.5, C.5 SB1d


4. C UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4e


6. A UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4e




10. D UCP.4, UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

11. C UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4e

12. C UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB3b

13. C UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4e

14. C UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4e

15. A UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB3b

Chapter 23: Reproduction in Plants

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. A UCP.2, UCP.5, C.5 SB4e

2. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4e

3. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4e

4. D UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4e

5. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4a

6. C UCP.5, C.1 SB4e

7. C UCP.5, C.1, C.2 SB1a

8. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4a


10. B UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4e

11. A UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

12. B UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

13. C UCP.5, C.1 SB5d

14. C UCP.5, C.1 SB4e

15. D UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

Chapter 22: Plant Structure and Function

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. D UCP.1, UCP.2, UCP.5, C.1, C.5

SB3b

2. C UCP.1, UCP.2, UCP.5, B.2, C.1

SB3a

3. A UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB4e

4. B UCP.5, C.1 SB4e


6. C UCP.2, UCP.5, B.6, C.1. C.5

SB4e

7. B UCP.3, UCP.5, B.2, C.1 SB4e


9. A UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1, G.1

SB4e

10. D UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

11. B UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1, G.1

SB4e

12. B UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

13. D UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

14. B UCP.5, B.2, C.1 SB3b

15. B UCP.5, B.4, C.1 SB3b

Chapter 24: Introduction to Animals

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer




2. C UCP.1, UCP.5, C.6 SB3b

3. C UCP.5 SB3b

4. A UCP.5 SB3b

5. A UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB3b



8. A UCP.1, UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1

SB3b

9. C UCP.5, C.1, C.4, C.6 SB4f

10. C UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

11. A UCP.2, UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

12. B UCP.1, UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3

SB3c

13. D UCP.1, UCP.5, C.6 SB3b

14. B UCP.1, UCP.2, UCP.5, C.1

SB3b

15. A UCP.5, C.1 SB3b


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ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES xv

Chapter 25: Worms and Mollusks

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. C UCP.5, C.1 SB4f



4. C UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1, F.2 SB4f

5. D UCP.5, C.1, C.3 SB3b




9. B UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

10. D UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

11. B UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

12. D UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

13. D UCP.4, UCP.5, C.1, C.3 SB5b

14. A C.4, C.5 SB4a

15. B UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

Chapter 27: Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. B UCP.2, UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3

SB3b



4. C UCP.5 SB4f

5. C UCP.5 SB4f

6. A C.4, C.6 SB4a

7. D UCP.5, C.4, C.6 SB3b

8. A UCP.3, UCP.5 SB4f

9. B UCP.5 SB5d

10. C UCP.4, C.3 SB5d

11. B UCP.5 SB3b

12. B UCP.5, C.6 SB4f

13. A UCP.5 SB4f

14. C UCP.5 SB5b

15. C B.3 SB4f

Chapter 26: Arthropods

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. C UCP.5, UCP.4 SB3b

2. C UCP.5 SB4f


4. A UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4f


6. B UCP.5, C.1, C.6 SB4f


8. A UCP.1, C.6 SB4f

9. D UCP.1, C.6 SB4f

10. A UCP.3, C.4, C.6 SB4f

11. C UCP.5, C.1 SB3b

12. D UCP.4, C.3 SB5b

13. B UCP.5, C.4, C.6 SB4f

14. A UCP.5, C.6 SB4f

15. C UCP.5 SB3b

Chapter 28: Fishes and Amphibians

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. C UCP.5 SB1a

2. B UCP.5 SB3b




6. C UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3 SB4f



9. D UCP.4, UCP.5, C.3, C.6 SB4f

10. D UCP.5 SB4f


12. B C.4, C.6 SB5d

13. C UCP.5 SB3b

14. A C.4, F.4, F.5 SB4d

15. B C.4, F.4, F.5 SB4d


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xvi ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES

Chapter 29: Reptiles and Birds

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. C UCP.4, C.3, C.6 SB4f

2. D UCP.5 SB4f

3. C UCP.5 SB4f



6. A UCP.5 SB3b



9. C UCP.3, UCP.5 SB4f

10. D UCP.3, UCP.5, C.5 SB4f

11. C C.6 SB4f

12. D UCP.5, C.6 SB4f

13. C UCP.5, C.4, C.6 SB3b

14. B UCP.5 SB3b

15. A UCP.5, C.5 SB4f

Chapter 31: Animal Behavior

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer



1. C UCP.3 SB4a

2. C UCP.2 SB4a

3. B UCP.3. C.4 SB4f

4. D UCP.3 SB4f



7. C UCP.1, UCP.3, B.3, C.4, C.6

SB4a

8. C UCP.3, C.4, C.5 SB4a


10. A UCP.3, C.4, C.6 SB4f

11. A UCP.1, B.4, C.4, C.6 SB4a

12. B UCP.1,, C.4, C.6 SB4a

13. B UCP.3, C.4, C.6 SB4d

14. D UCP.2, C.4, C.6 SB4f

15. D UCP.2, C.4, C.6 SB4f

Chapter 30: Mammals

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. D UCP.5 SB3b

2. B UCP.3, UCP.5, C.5 SB4a

3. B UCP.5 SB4f


5. A UCP.3 SB4f


7. A UCP.2 SB3b

8. B C.6 SB4f

9. C C.4 SB3b

10. A C.3 SB3b

11. B UCP.5, C.4 SB4f

12. D UCP.5, C.3 SB3b

13. C UCP.5, C.5 SB4f

14. A UCP.3, C.3, D.3 SB5b

15. C UCP.5, C.3 SB3b

Chapter 32: Integumentary, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems

QuestionNumber

CorrectAnswer






4. B UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB1a





9. C UCP.5 SB1a

10. C UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

11. B UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

12. B UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

13. C UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

14. C UCP.5, C.1, C.5 SB4f

15. A UCP.5, C.1 SB1a


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ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES xvii

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Chapter 33: Nervous System

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer


Georgia Per-formanceStandard





5. B UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB1a




9. B UCP.3, UCP.5, B.6, C.1 SB3b

10. A UCP.5, B.6, C.1, C.5 SB4b

11. B UCP.5, B.6, C.1 SB4b

12. A UCP.3, UCP.5, C.1 SB4b

13. C UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

14. A UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

15. C UCP.5, C.1, F.1, F.6 ----

Chapter 35: Digestive and Endocrine Systems

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. A UCP.1, UCP.5, B.3, C.5 SB3b

2. D UCP.1, UCP.5, B.3, C.5 SB3b

3. B UCP.1, B.3 SB1b

4. C UCP.1, UCP.5, B.3, C.5 SB1c

5. C UCP.1, UCP.5, B.3, C.5 SB3b

6. B B.3, C.1 SB1a

7. D UCP.1, B.3 SB1c

8. B B.3, C.5 SB1c

9. D B.3, C.5 SB1c

10. A UCP.1, UCP.5, C.5 SB1c

11. A UCP.1, UCP.5, C.5 SB1a

12. A UCP.1, C.5 SB1a

13. D UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB1a

14. B UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

15. A UCP.1, UCP.5, C.5 SB4f

Chapter 34: Circulatory, Respiratory, and Excretory Systems

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer







5. C UCP.5, B.3, C.5 SB4b


7. B UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4f



10. C UCP.5, C.5 SB1a

11. C UCP.3, UCP.5, B.6, C.5 SB4b

12. B UCP.3, UCP.5, C.5 SB3b

13. D UCP.3, UCP.5, C.5 SB4f

14. A UCP.3, UCP.5, C.5 SB1d

15. D UCP.3, UCP.5, C.5 SB3b

Chapter 36: Human Reproduction and Development

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer





3. C UCP.3, B.6 ----

4. C B.6, C.1 SB1c






10. B UCP.1, UCP.5, C.1 SB4f

11. A UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4f

12. D UCP.5, C.1, C.4 SB4f

13. A UCP.5, C.1 SB2e

14. B B.6, C.1 SB4f

15. D C.4, C.6, F.1, F.5 SB4d


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xviii ANSWERS AND CORRELATION TABLES

Chapter 37: Immune System

QuestionNumber

Correct Answer



1. C A.2, F.1, G.1, G.3 SCSh7c

2. C F.1, F.6 SB4a


4. B C.1, F.1 SB4a


6. B UCP.5, C.1, F.1 SB1a

7. D UCP.2, C.1, F.1 SB4a

8. A UCP.5, C.1 SB4c

9. C UCP.2, C.1, F.1 SB4a

10. A UCP.2, C.1, F.1 SB4a

11. B F.1, G.1 SB4a

12. B UCP.5, C.1, F.1 SB4a

13. C C.1, F.1, F.5, F.6, G.1 SB4d

14. C C.1, C.6, F.1 SB4a

15. C C.1, C.6, F.1 SB1a


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Name Date Class

Chapter

Directions: Fill in the bubbles completely for the answer choice you think is best.

1 A B C D

2 A B C D

3 A B C D

4 A B C D

5 A B C D

6 A B C D

7 A B C D

8 A B C D

9 A B C D

10 A B C D

11 A B C D

12 A B C D

13 A B C D

14 A B C D

15 A B C D

STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE xix

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Student Answer SheetStudent Answer Sheet

ix-xviii-STP-GA_TE-879938.indd xixix-xviii-STP-GA_TE-879938.indd xix 4/12/07 7:50:42 AM4/12/07 7:50:42 AM

ix-xviii-STP-GA_TE-879938.indd xxix-xviii-STP-GA_TE-879938.indd xx 4/11/07 1:31:46 PM4/11/07 1:31:46 PM

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1 A group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring is a(n) .

A familyB speciesC organizationD community

2 Inside the human body, heat is constantly generated as a byproduct of chemical reactions. Humans must be able to release heat to the environment. This adaptation is necessary for maintaining .

A energyB organizationC homeostasisD locomotion

3 Sugar dissolves in or mixes completely with water. The solubility of a substance in water is determined by measuring the maximum amount of the substance that dissolves in a given amount of water at a given temperature. Hypothesis: The solubility of sugar in water decreases as the temperature of the water decreases. Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable that you would use to test this hypothesis.

A dependent variable—volume of water; independent variable—water temperature

B dependent variable-water temperature; independent variable-amount of sugar that dissolves

C dependent variable-amount of sugar that dissolves; independent variable-water temperature

D dependent variable-amount of sugar that dissolves; independent variable-mineralcontent of the water

4 A biochemist is performing an experiment to determine the effects of chemical X on the growth of bacteria. Which test tube is the control?

20mL 20mL 20mL 20mL

10mL 15mL 20mL

Sterilebeef broth Chemical X

TestTube 1

TestTube 2

TestTube 3

TestTube 4

A Test tube 1B Test tube 2C Test tube 3D Test tube 4

5 A scientist performs a series of experiments to confirm an idea regarding cellular metabolism. The results of the experiments support the scientist’s initial idea, and after conferring with colleagues, the scientist discovers that evidence from many experiments has supported the same idea. This idea could now be considered a(n) .

A theoryB hypothesis C observationD control

6 Which procedure is a scientific method?

A collecting dataB formulating a hypothesisC observingD All are scientific methods.

7 In an experiment, all variables are held constant except for one. Then, experimental results are compared to that one variable. What type of experiment is this?

A a variable experimentB a multifactor experimentC a controlled experimentD a hypothetical experiment

Name Date ClassChapter 1Chapter 1

STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 1 1

Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SCSh2b, 3a-f, 4a, 5d, 6c, 8a; SB1a, 5b.

0001-0020-STP-879935.indd 10001-0020-STP-879935.indd 1 4/23/07 3:37:40 PM4/23/07 3:37:40 PM

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8 Which unit is part of the International System of International Units (SI)?

A poundB inchC meterD gallon

9 A scientist uses graphs, tables, and charts to publish research results. What type of research was he or she probably performing?

A descriptive researchB quantitative researchC qualitative researchD controlled research

bk Some cattle were given bovine growth hormone (BGH) to see if they would produce more meat. The animals were studied over a period of two years. Animals in Group A were injected with BGH. Animals in Group B were not injected with BGH. The table shows the results of the investigation. Which is a valid conclusion from this data?

Average Mass (kg)

Days Group A Group B

0 30 30

150 80 60

300 170 115

450 345 240

A BGH does not bring about an increase in mass.B The more BGH injected into the animal, the

faster its mass will increase.C Animals injected with the hormone will

increase in mass faster than those who are not injected.

D Animals injected with BGH will not increase mass as fast as animals that are not injected.

bl You are planning to participate in a walkathon for a local charity. Which temperature would be most comfortable?

A 0°CB 20°CC 40°CD 60°C

bm The results of an experiment show that as temperature increases, enzyme activity decreases. Which graph correctly displays these findings?

A 25 50 75 100

En

zym

e ac

tivi

ty

Temperature (oC)0

Temperature Effect on Enzyme X

B 25 50 75 100

En

zym

e ac

tivi

ty

Temperature (oC)0


C 25 50 75 100

En

zym

e ac

tivi

ty

Temperature (oC)0


D 25 50 75 100

En

zym

e ac

tivi

ty

Temperature (oC)0


bn What kind of question would an environmental biologist ask?

A How can a prosthetic hand be made?B How can a vaccine for HIV be developed?C How can the extinction of plants and

animals be prevented?D How can more crops be grown in poor soils?

bo What is the most precise volume of the liquid shown in the figure below?

A 19.4 mLB 19.42 mLC 19.57 mLD 20.58 mL

20

19

bp An experimental design included references to prior experiments, materials and equipment, and step-by-step procedures. What else should be included before the experiment can be started?

A a set of dataB a conclusion based on dataC safety precautions to be usedD inference based on results


2 CHAPTER 1 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE


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1 Ecology is the study of interactions between .

A the animal groups in an areaB living and nonliving things in an areaC the nonliving things in an area D the plants and animals in an area

2 The portion of Earth that supports the existence of living things is the .

A ecosystemB habitatC biosphereD niche

3 Which is a biotic factor that might affect the life of a water-dwelling organism?

A temperature of the waterB speed of water currentC pollutants in waterD bacterial population in water

4 The dense needles of Douglas fir trees can prevent most light from reaching the forest floor. This situation would have an immediate effect on .

A producersB carnivoresC herbivoresD decomposers

5 How does the amount of water on Earth change as a result of the water cycle?

A It always increases.B It alternately increases and decreases.C It remains constant.D It always decreases.

Use the illustration below to answer question 6.

6 The illustration above shows living and nonliving factors that interact in a certain area. Which term best describes the interactions shown in the diagram?

A biomeB food chainC ecosystemD population

7 During the carbon cycle, in what form are carbon atoms generally returned to the atmosphere?

A simple sugarsB carbon monoxideC methaneD carbon dioxide

8 Which is not a pathway by which plants obtain atmospheric nitrogen?

A chemical fertilizersB lightningC photosynthesisD symbiotic bacteria

9 A food web is represented in the diagram below. What does Letter X mostly likely represent?

Rabbits

Snakes

Hawks

Wolves

X

Hu

ma

ns

Sheep

Chickens

A autotrophsB decomposersC heterotrophsD parasites



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3a, 4a-b.


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bk In which type of ecological relationship do two organisms benefit from living together?

A commensalismB competitionC mutualismD parasitism

bl In the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen is continuously recycled. Which types of organisms break down nitrogen compounds in dead organisms and recycle them into the soil?

A heterotrophsB bacteriaC green plantsD herbivores

bm According to the energy pyramid below, which organisms are the primary consumers?

Raccoons

Frogs

Mosquito larvae

Algae

A algaeB mosquito larvaeC frogsD raccoons

bn Eating a sweet potato can provide energy for human metabolic processes. What is the original source of this energy?

A protein molecules stored in the potatoB starch molecules absorbed by the potatoC vitamins and minerals from the soilD light energy transformed by photosynthesis

bo What is released at each level of a pyramid of energy?

A animalsB heatC decomposersD plants

bp In an ecosystem, what happens to the atoms of certain chemical elements, such as carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen?

A They move into and out of living systems.B They are only found in abiotic factors.C They move out of living systems and do not

return.D They move into living systems and remain

there.




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1 Before plants can inhabit a rocky area, soil must be present. A pioneer species must start the process of soil formation for succession to take place. Which would be a pioneer species in a rocky area?

A insectB lichenC weedD fern

2 The diagram below shows layering in a lake. Why would you expect to find greater species diversity in summer in layer A than in layer B?

AB

A Layer A is closer to shore.B Layer B is warmer than layer A.C Layer A has more autotrophs.D Layer B has too many autotrophs.

3 After a community is disrupted by a large-scale event, such as a forest fire, a new community is established through which process.

A primary successionB secondary successionC soil formationD climax succession

4 Within aquatic biomes, there are many different environments where different types of organisms thrive. In general, aquatic biomes are divided into photic and aphotic zones. Which determines whether a zone is photic or aphotic?

A distance from landB climateC water depthD latitude

5 Terrestrial biomes are classified based on the types of organisms that develop within them. The organisms found in a particular biome have which factor in common?

A biosphereB ecosystemC pioneer speciesD climate and community

6 Which terrestrial biome houses the greatest biodiversity?

A taigaB temperate forestC tropical rain forestD grassland

7 Which describes a community most accurately?

A a single life-form found in a biomeB a group of life-forms belonging to the same

speciesC a nonliving component of an ecosystemD different populations interacting within the

same biome

8 Which statement would you NOT use to describe succession?

A It is gradual.B It is orderly.C It is predictable.D It is random.

9 For many decades, certain areas in your state have remained hardwood forests that are mainly oak and hickory trees. Predict what will most likely happen to these forested areas in the next three decades.

A They will remain indefinitely and not be affected by environmental influences.

B They will reach maturity and change in the near future.

C They will be destroyed by environmental changes.

D They will continue in their present forms unless affected by environmental changes.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB4a-c, 4e.


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bkThe first stage of succession of this forest was probably the development of .

A lichensB shrubsC mossesD trees

bl Permafrost is characteristic of which biome?

A tundraB marineC desertD taiga

bm What event is most likely to initiate primary succession?

A forest fireB heavy rainC loggingD volcanic eruption

bn Besides plants, what other factor distinguishes one biome from another biome?

A the number of plants in the biomeB the variety of animal speciesC average temperatures and precipitationD geographic location

bo The number of species in an area is a measure of .

A populationB biodiversityC nicheD autotrophs

bp Compared to a natural forest, a farmer’s wheat field lacks .

A heterotrophsB autotrophsC significant biodiversityD stored energy




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1 A new species of mouse is introduced into an environment. These mice reproduce and the population grows. As the population grows, food resources diminish and predation by hawks increases. Eventually, the number of mice in the environment levels off so that the rate of birth equals the rate of death. What is this nearly constant number of organisms called?

A carrying capacity B exponential growthC linear growthD competitive edge

2 Which limiting factor is density independent?

A diseaseB droughtC competitionD food supply

3 The graph below shows the estimated population size of a certain species of lizard in a forested region over several years.

20001750150012501000750500250

0

Year

Estim

ated

liza

rd p

opul

atio

n

1994 1996 1998 2000 2002 2004

These estimates are based on the number of lizard sightings each year. Which recent event in the forest might explain the trend evident in the graph?

A Many trees were removed in 1994.B The winter of 1996 was unusually warm.C A new species of predatory bird was introduced

to the forest in 2000.D The forest had a series of small fires in 2003.

4 Cattail plants in northeastern freshwater swamps are replacing loosestrife plants. The two species have similar environmental requirements. What does this illustrate?

A variations within a speciesB dynamic equilibriumC random recombinationD competition between species

5 What type of growth is represented by the J-shaped curve shown below?

Time

Po

pu

lati

on

Siz

e

A sinusoidalB linearC exponentialD random

6 Populations in an ecosystem will most likely remain stable if which is true?

A They have more predators than prey.B They have a high level of biodiversity.C Biotic factors decrease.D Finite resources decrease.

7 What are forest fires, temperature fluctuations, and floods all examples of?

A biotic, density-dependent factorsB biotic, density-independent factorsC abiotic, density-dependent factorsD abiotic, density-independent factors



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB4a, 4d-f.


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8 The phrase carrying capacity refers to .

A storing extra food for winterB the number of organisms a habitat can

supportC transporting food to organisms in an areaD the maximum possible weight of an individual

organism

9 An experiment is conducted in which animals from the same species are introduced into an environment. By accident, too many of the animals are introduced, exceeding the carrying capacity of the environment. Which is most likely?

A The animal population will decrease.B The animal population will increase.C The animal population will experience

exponential growth.D The animal population will experience linear

growth.

bk Which pair of organisms would most likely compete for food?

A cow and chickenB snake and hawkC mushroom and shrubD brown bear and salmon

bl What does the line graph below show?

Carrying Capacity

Population Growth of Speciesin an Ecosystem

Po

pu

lati

on

Siz

e

Time

A The population increased at a constant rate.B The population increased rapidly and then

leveled off.C The population increased at an exponential rate.D Ecosystems are able to support any number

of species.

bm In analyzing the age structure of a population, you discover that an extraordinarily high percentage of the population is younger than the age of reproductive maturity. What type of growth will the population probably experience in the future?

A Growth rate will remain the same.B slow, steady growth increaseC rapid growthD negative growth

bn What happens to a population at zero population growth?

A Birthrate equals the death rate.B Births outpace deaths. C Carrying capacity is exceeded.D Deaths outpace births.

bo Thousands of years ago, what factor kept the human population level below the environment’s carrying capacity?

A technological advancesB better medicinesC zero population growthD environmental conditions

bp Mice are an example of an r-strategist reproduction pattern because .

A they produce few individuals B the expend great energy raising youngC they produce many offspringD they maintain populations near the carrying

capacity




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1 You are studying a chain of islands in the Pacific Ocean. They are close together and have similar weather patterns but some are larger than others. The largest island will probably offer .

A the most biodiversityB the least biodiversityC the largest population of one organism D one niche

2 How is a species described when the number of organisms of that species drops to a level so low that extinction is possible?

A endangeredB exploitedC degradedD fragmented

3 Which best describes an effect of habitat fragmentation?

A increased biodiversity B decreased biodiversityC no effect on biodiversityD less water and land pollution

4 What does the pyramid of biological magnification shown below illustrate?

Fish-eating birds 25ppm

Large fish 2ppm

Small fish 0.5 ppm

Plankton 0.04 ppm

Water 0.000003 ppm

A Higher trophic carnivores eat very little food.B Toxic substances increase as trophic levels

increase in a food chain.C Acid precipitation destroys underwater habitats.D The process of eutrophication destroys

underwater habitats.

5 A wooded area has been divided by a housing development and is threatening the biodiversity of the area. What term is used to describe this threat from human activities?

A habitat fragmentationB acid precipitationC habitat augmentationD global warming

6 Which do many scientists consider the number one cause of extinction?

A overexploitationB fragmentationC pollutionD habitat loss

7 Some organizations are buying sections of forestland. Once purchased, forests within the sections will not be cut down. What is the primary goal of protecting these forest sections?

A bring about extinction on a controlled planB prevent overpopulation of treesC maintain biodiversity of the areaD expand farmland

8 Which has been a cause of extinctions of populations on islands?

A Native species often move back and forth between islands.

B Island populations easily develop resistance to introduced diseases.

C Introduced species are usually kept in check by predators on the islands.

D Introduced species have no natural predators.

9 Japanese beetles feed on destructive aphids but have no natural enemies in the United States. In this instance, what does the importation of organisms, where they have no natural enemies, accomplish?

A use of abiotic factors to reduce pestsB selection of species to mate with each other

to produce a new varietyC human attempts to protect extinct speciesD human attempts to disrupt existing ecosystems



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB4a-b, 4d-f.


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bk What is hypothesized about extinction?

A All extinctions have been mass extinctions.B Background extinctions are a normal part of

stable ecosystems.C The current extinction rate is estimated to be

twice the normal rate.D In the future, less extinction will occur near

the equator than elsewhere.

bl A fenced, grass-covered bridge has been built over a highway that allows animals in one area to move safely to the other area. What method of wildlife conservation is being used?

A ecosystem bridgeB environmental pathwayC habitat corridorD environmental passageway

bm A town had several homeowners that would mow their grass during the summer, collect the clippings, and dispose of them in a landfill. The town would like to start a more ecologically-sound method of grass clippings disposal. Which suggestion makes the most ecological sense?

A Leave clippings to decompose in the lawn and enrich the lawn.

B Spray clippings in the lawn with imported microbes that feed on grass.

C Burn the clippings and add the ashes to the soil.

D Throw the clippings into the local river as food for organisms that live there.

bn Waste-to-Energy (WTE) is a program that sorts and burns organic waste material, including garbage, to obtain energy. What might be anticipated as an additional bonus in communities utilizing WTE?

A increased numbers of parksB increased air pollutionC increased recycling of garbageD decreased amount of auto emissions

bo Which human activity has probably contributed most to the acidification of lakes in forests?

A passing environmental protection lawsB establishing reforestation projects in lumber

areasC burning fossil fuels that produce air pollutionD using pesticides for the control of insects that

feed on trees

bp The variety of colors within a species, the ability for members of a species to recover from disease, or the ability of a species to find new food sources are all examples of .

A background extinctionB species diversityC sustainable useD genetic diversity




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1 Which does a polymer most closely resemble?

A circleB link in a chainC chainD intersection

2 Different organisms store glucose in various forms. You discover a new species. Upon chemical analysis, you find that it is comprised of significant amounts of glycogen. To which organism might this new species be related?

A fernB potatoC dogD bacteria

3 Which is NOT true of lipids?

A They are commonly called fats and oils. B They are hydrophobic. C They are good for energy storage.D They are polar.

4 Which cannot take place during a chemical reaction?

A formation of new atomsB bonds breaking between atomsC formation of new moleculesD bonds forming between atoms

5 A student drew and labeled the graph below based on the results of an experiment. Why did the student include the labels activation energy and energy released?

Activationenergy

Energy released

(CO2 + H2O)

(Methane + O 2)

Chemical Reaction Diagram

A to explain why carbon dioxide and water react to form methane and oxygen

B to show that the reaction needed heat to occurC to explain why the experiment gave off heatD to explain why methane and oxygen react to

form carbon dioxide and water

6 Which is true about enzymes?

A They act on nonspecific, randomly chosen substrates.

B After a reaction, they cannot be reused.C They can speed up metabolic processes in

the body.D They cannot change shape.

7 What type of compound is made up of atoms held together by covalent bonds?

A ion B moleculeC isotopeD element

8 What makes a water molecule polar?

Hydrogen atoms

Oxygen atom

A Water has the ability to be frozen.B The pH of pure water varies with the

temperature.C A water molecule has a slight charge on

each end.D A water molecule is made up of three atoms.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1b-d.


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9 The diagram below shows two amino acids. What would biochemists call the result of chaining many of these molecules together?

H2N H2N

OH

OH

O

Alanine Glycine

O

A a carbohydrateB a lipidC a nucleic acidD a protein

bk The diagram below illustrates a biochemical process that occurs in organisms. The substance labeled catalyst also is known by what other name?

Sugar

Catalyst

+ Water

Simple sugar

Catalyst

Simple sugar

+

A antibodyB enzymeC ionD inorganic compound

bl You are analyzing a compound in a laboratory. You find that it is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of two hydrogen atoms for each carbon atom. How will you classify the compound?

A carbohydrateB lipidC proteinD nucleic acid

bm A recipe says to mix 100 g of sugar, a pinch of NaCl, and 1 g vanilla flavoring in 113 g of butter. Which ingredient is the solvent?

A sugarB butterC NaClD vanilla flavoring

bn In the following equation, what are the products of the reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

A C6H12O6 and 6O2B 6O2 and 6CO2C C6H12O6 and 6H2OD 6CO2 and 6H2O

bo You suspect that a chemical that you are testing in the lab is strongly acidic. What might be its pH?

A 2B 7C 11D 14

bp Which class of macromolecules store and communicate genetic information?

A carbohydratesB lipidsC proteinsD nucleic acids




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1 Which structure is part of the cell’s skeleton?

A Golgi apparatus B microfilaments C plasma membraneD mitochondria

2 An environmental toxin is discovered that interferes with certain cellular functions. When affected cells are examined, it is observed that proteins that are normally found on the plasma membrane are instead found in the cytoplasm. Other proteins are also located improperly. Which structure is most likely affected by the toxin?

A lysosomesB mitochondriaC cell wallD Golgi apparatus

3 Why do many scientists think that prokaryotes are similar to the first organisms on Earth?

A Prokaryote cells have a nucleus.B The first organisms were all plantlike.C Prokaryote cells have no nucleus.D They have membrane-bound organelles.

4 Which statement would not be included in a summary of the cell theory?

A The cell is the basic unit of organization.B All cells contain a nucleus that controls cell

division.C All organisms are made up of at least one

cell.D All cells come from other, preexisting cells.

5 Which letter in the diagram below indicates the structure that is most closely associated with protein building?

A

B

C

D

A AB BC CD D

6 How is the plasma membrane of a cell organized?

A one layer of phospholipids, through which proteins freely move

B one layer of phospholipids, which are laid out end-to-end, with a hydrophobic tail touching a hydrophilic head

C two layers of phospholipids, each of which has its hydrophilic side turned inward

D two layers of phospholipids, with their polar hydrophilic heads facing away from each other

7 In which structure would you find a nucleus?

A bacterial cellB plant cellC prokaryoteD virus

8 Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a cell’s environment. This includes the regulation of sodium ion (Na+) concentration within the cytoplasm. If too much Na+ is inside a cell, how can the concentration be changed?

A More Na+ ions will enter the cell through the plasma membrane.

B Excess Na+ ions will leave the cell via osmosis.C Excess Na+ ions will be transported out

through membrane protein channels.D More Na+ ions will be transported in

through membrane protein channels.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 1d, 3a-b.


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9 What characteristic of the plasma membrane is illustrated in this drawing?

Carbondioxide

Plasma membrane

Water

OxygenGlucose

Outsidethe cell

Insidethe cell

Wastes

Wastes

A selective permeabilityB phospholipid bilayerC fluid mosaic constructionD impermeability to water

bk While viewing a slide of rapidly moving sperm cells, a student concludes that these cells require a large amount of energy to maintain their activity. What organelles provide this needed energy?

A vacuolesB ribosomesC chloroplastsD mitochondria

bl On a laboratory exam, a student is asked to determine if the cells under a microscope are plant cells or animal cells. What might the student look for?

A chloroplasts and a cell wallB ribosomes and vacuolesC a nucleus and ribosomesD a cell membrane and mitochondria

bm The diagram below represents a cell in water. Explain why more water is moving out of the cell than into the cell.

Water

Water moleculeSolute

Water

A The concentration of solute in the cell is higher than it is outside the cell.

B The concentration of water outside the cell is too great.

C The concentration of solute outside the cell is higher than it is inside the cell.

D The concentration of water inside the cell is greater than it is outside the cell.

bn How can the cytoskeleton of a cell be described?

A framework and anchor for organelles B selectively permeable series of membranesC semifluid materialD transport system

bo Which movement of substances through a cell membrane against a concentration gradient requires energy?

A osmosisB diffusionC active transportD facilitated diffusion

bp Which cell organelle contains coded directions for production of proteins?

A endoplasmic reticulumB lysosomeC Golgi apparatusD nucleus




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1 The process of photosynthesis converts which type of energy to chemical energy?

A heatB lightC kineticD potential

2 Two test tubes are filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A student exhales through a straw into each tube, and the bromthymol blue turns yellow. An aquatic green plant is placed in each tube, and the tubes are corked. One tube is placed in the dark, and the other tube is placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turns blue, while the one in the dark remains yellow. Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight returns to a blue color?

A Oxygen was produced by photosynthesis.B Oxygen was removed by respiration.C Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.D Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration.

Use the illustration below to answer questions 3 and 4.

1

2

3 Which reaction takes place in the thykaloid discs (1) of the chloroplast?

A carbon fixationB light-dependent reactionC light-independent reactionD Calvin cycle

4 Which reaction takes place in the stroma (2) of the chloroplast?

A carbon fixationB light-dependent reactionC light-independent reactionD photolysis

5 In the experiment shown below, which process occurring in the peas causes the drop of liquid to move to the left?

Drop of liquid

Rubber stopper

Oxygen

Water-soaked peasTube containing KOH solution(CO absorber)2

A cellular respirationB digestionC photosynthesisD protein synthesis

6 Which is a product of photosynthesis?

A ATPB glucose C waterD carbon dioxide

7 The equation below represents a biological process? Where is this process completed? carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen

A mitochondriaB ribosomesC cell membranesD chloroplasts

8 Chlorophyll is the primary pigment in plant chloroplasts. It absorbs all wavelengths of light EXCEPT .

A greenB redC yellowD blue



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 3a.


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9 The diagram below represents part of the process of cellular respiration. Energy is released and made available for metabolic activities at which step?

ATP

ADP

Step 1

Step 2P

P

A Step 1 B Step 2 C both Step 1 and Step 2D neither Step 1 nor Step 2

bk What supplies the protons during the initial process of in photosynthesis that drives ATP synthesis?

A oxygenB carbon dioxideC waterD sunlight

bl Which step is the same in both forms of fermentation, as well as in cellular respiration?

Lactic Acid Fermentation

Alcoholic Fermentation

Cellular Respiration

glucose

glycolysis (pyruvic acid)

lactic acid+

2 ATP

glucose


carbon dioxide+

alcohol+

2 ATP

glucose


carbon dioxide+

water+

36 ATP

A formation of carbon dioxide and alcoholB formation of carbon dioxide and waterC breakdown of pyruvic acidD breakdown of glucose

bm Which process releases the greatest amount of ATP?

A alcoholic fermentationB cellular respirationC lactic-acid cycleD photosynthesis

bn ATP is a compound that is synthesized when which occurs?

A Chemical bonds between carbon atoms are formed in photosynthesis.

B Energy stored in chemical bonds is released during cellular respiration.

C Energy stored in nitrogen is released forming amino acids.

D Digestive enzymes break amino acids into smaller parts.

bo In the material cycle shown below, which processes are represented by letters A and B?

Animals

Plants

H2O + O2 + C6H12O6 CO2 + H2O

A

B

A A—excretion, B—respirationB A—transpiration, B—excretionC A—photosynthesis, B—transpirationD A—respiration, B—photosynthesis

bp What change could a student measure to collect data about the rate of photosynthesis in a certain type of algae when it is exposed to different colors of light?

A the temperature of the water surrounding the algae

B the number of ribosomes in the green algae cells

C the color of the algae D the number of gas bubbles given off by the

algae




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Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2.

1 What are the structures labeled A in the drawing?

A chromatidsB centriolesC spindle fibersD centromeres

2 What stage of mitosis is shown in the drawing above?

A prophaseB metaphaseC anaphaseD telophase

3 Which description best fits the activity of a cell during interphase?

A The cell carries on metabolism.B The cell differentiates to have a new function.C The cell splits in two.D The cell splits in two but with half the normal

number of chromosomes.

4 When carcinogens cause a failure in the regulation of cell growth and development, what condition might occur?

A normal mitosisB uncontrolled cell growth in the form of cancerC cell plates formD apoptosis

5 The chromosome content of a skin cell that is about to form two new skin cells is represented in the diagram below. Which diagram represents the chromosomes that would be found in the two new skin cells?

A

B

C

D

6 Mitosis, a stage in the cell cycle, is important for what reason?

A reduction of the cell’s chromosome numberB removal of diseased cells C growth and repair of an organismD division of the cytoplasm

7 Describe the actions of the cell’s chromosomes during metaphase, a stage of mitosis.

A They duplicate.B They move toward the poles of the cell.C They condense to become chromatin.D They line up in the middle of the cell.


and

and

and

and

Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 2d-e.


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8 Which statement describes the number of chromosomes in a newly formed cell after mitosis?

A They are double the number of the parent cell.B They are half the number of the parent cell.C They are equal to the number of the parent cell.D They are double the number of two parent

cells.

9 During which stage of the cell cycle does the cell duplicate its DNA?

C09-07A-869510-A

G2

G1S

M

C

A M stageB G1 stageC S stageD G2 stage

bk Strawberries can reproduce by means of runners, which are stems that grow horizontally along the ground. At a point where a runner touches the ground, a new plant can develop. Why are the new plants genetically identical to the parent plant?

A All new cells came from mutated parent cells.B The nuclei traveled to the new plant through

the runner.C Other strawberry plants in the area fertilized

the runner.D The new plant was produced asexually.

bl If a cell with 36 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will each of the two new cells have?

A 36 chromosomesB 2 chromosomesC 18 chromosomesD 9 chromosomes

bm During which phase of mitosis are sister chromatids pulled to opposite ends of the cell?

A prophaseB metaphaseC anaphaseD telophase

bn The timing and rate at which a cell divides is coordinated by which complexes?

A cyclin/CDK combinationsB DNA replicationC nuclear divisionD protein synthesis

bo In what organism would you find cell division being completed by cytokinesis, a process in which a new plate forms between two daughter nuclei?

A animal B bacteriumC plant D protist

bp Telophase is accompanied by the division of cytoplasm between two daughter cells. What is this process called?

A prophaseB cytokinesisC interphaseD synthesis phase




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1 During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes align as tetrads in the middle of the spindle?

A prophase IB prophase IIC metaphase ID metaphase II

2 What term is used to describe pairs of chromosomes having DNA segments, or genes, for the same traits?

A homologousB analogousC homozygousD parallel

3 The diagram below represents the organization of genetic information within a cell nucleus.

Genes

Z

Nucleus

The circle labeled Z most likely represents .

A amino acidsB chromosomesC vacuolesD nucleolus

4 The tall allele, T, is dominant to the short allele, t, in Mendel’s pea plants. You examine a pea plant that exhibits the tall phenotype. What is its genotype?

A TtB TTC ttD A and B are both possible.

5 You are given a sample of unknown human cells to examine. Analysis of their nuclei reveals that each cell contains 23 chromosomes. What types of cells might these be?

A ovaB skin cellsC liver cellsD white blood cells

6 Which diagram represents the process of sperm formation in an organism that has a diploid chromosome number of eight?

8

B A

D C

8

8

3311

6

2

8

8

8

8

88

84

4

44

44

7 During which stage of sex cell formation does the number of chromosomes decrease from diploid (2n) to haploid (n)?

A prophase IB anaphase IC prophase IID anaphase II

8 Which was concluded by Mendel as a result of his genetic research?

A Factors for different traits are inherited together as a matched pair.

B Polyploidy can be beneficial in agriculture.C Factors for different traits are inherited

independently of one another.D Meiosis occurs in two steps, meiosis I and

meiosis II.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 2c-e.


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9 After performing a monohybrid cross, it is important to analyze the results with a Punnett square. What does each box in a Punnett square represent?

A possible phenotypeB possible genotypeC one individualD two possible genotypes

bk Which description best identifies characteristics of asexual reproduction?

A one parent, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to the parent

B one parent, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to the parent

C two parent, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to parents

D two parents, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to the parents

bl What process is taking place in the illustration shown below?

A fertilizationB prophase IIC polyploidy D crossing over

bm Which statement best explains the significance of meiosis in helping to maintain continuation of a species?

A Meiosis produces eggs and sperm that are alike.B Meiosis provides for chromosomal variation

in the gametes produced by an organism.C Equal numbers of eggs and sperm are

produced by meiosis.D The gametes produced by meiosis ensure

the continuation of any particular species by asexual reproduction.

bn A researcher crosses the F1 generation of two snapdragon plants. According to this information and the diagram below, what is the ratio of their offspring (F2)?

R

Genotype

RR

Rr

rr

Phenotype

red

pink

white

RR

Rr

Rr

r

rr

R

r

A 0 red; 4 pink; 0 whiteB 1 red; 2 pink; 1 whiteC 3 red; 0 pink; 1 whiteD 4 red; 0 pink; 0 white

bo What are the possible gamete types that can be produced from a parent who is YyRr? Meiosis produces eggs and sperm that are alike.

A All YR B All YrC YR, Tr, yR, and yrD Half YR and half yr

bp According to Mendel’s law of segregation, what takes place during meiosis?

A Pairs of alleles cross over on chromosomes, exchanging one for the other.

B Pairs of alleles separate in meiosis, and each gamete receives one allele of a pair.

C Part of an allele is separated, or broken off, from its chromosome.

D One chromosome is suppressed, and the other chromosome of the pair determines the traits of the offspring.




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1 You and your colleagues are constructing a pedigree for a boy with cystic fibrosis. The individual’s younger brother has also been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. How would these brothers be represented in a pedigree?

A Both would be represented as completely shaded circles.

B Both would be represented as completely shaded squares.

C The older brother would be a shaded square, while the younger brother would be a half- shaded square.

D Both would be represented as unshaded squares.

2 Which disorder is treated by restricting milk in the diet?

A phenylketonuriaB cystic fibrosisC galactosemiaD Tay-Sachs disease

3 A man carrying the allele for Huntington’s disease marries a woman who is homozygous recessive for the allele. What is the probability that their offspring will develop Huntington’s disease?

A 25 percentB 50 percentC 75 percentD 100 percent

4 Which diagram below illustrates fertilization that would lead to development of a normal human female?

5 The gene for brown eyes (B) is dominant over the gene for blue eyes (b). Two brown-eyed people have a blue-eyed child. Which genotypes make this possible?

A The mother and father are both homozygous brown eyed (BB).

B The mother is homozygous brown eyed (BB) and the father is heterozygous brown-eyed (Bb).

C The mother is heterozygous brown-eyed (Bb), and the father is homozygous brown-eyed (BB).

D The mother and the father are both heterozy-gous brown-eyed (Bb).

6 During warm temperatures of summer, the arctic fox produces enzymes that cause its fur to become reddish brown. During the cold temperatures of winter, these enzymes do not function. As a result, the fox has a white coat that blends into the snowy background. What explains this change in color?

A The genes of a fox are made of unstable DNA.B Mutations can be caused by temperature

extremes.C Random alteration of DNA can occur on certain

chromosomes.D The expression of certain genes is affected by

temperature.

7 Which does NOT play a role in determining an individual’s sex?

A gametesB chromosomesC meiosisD autosomes



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SCSh3d; SB1a, 2c-d.


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8 What can you conclude about the trait followed in the pedigree below?

A It is incompletely dominant in every other generation.

B It is coded for a sex-linked gene.C It affects only females.D The trait shows polygenic inheritance.

9 An individual has type AB blood. His father has type A blood and his mother has type B blood. What is the individual’s phenotype an example of?

A simple recessive heredityB simple dominant heredityC incomplete dominanceD codominance

bk Study the blood cells in the picture below. Describe the genotype for the individual with these types of cells.

Normal red blood cell

Sickle cell

A homozygous recessiveB heterozygousC homozygous dominantD codominant

bl Down syndrome is the result of an extra chromosome 21 in a gamete. What caused this to happen?

A nondisjunctionB telomeresC environmentD chromosome inactivation

bm A woman who is not colorblind is married to a man who is not colorblind. They have, however, a son who is red-green colorblind. What is the mother’s genotype?

A XBXB

B XBXb

C XbXb

D XBX

bn Many traits, such as stem length in plants and skin color and height in humans, are controlled by two or more genes. What is this called?

A simple dominant inheritanceB monogenic inheritanceC polygenic inheritanceD codominance

bo A micrograph of matched pairs of human chromosomes can be used to confirm the overall condition of homologous chromosomes in an individual. What is this diagnostic tool called?

A karyotypeB telomereC polygenic traitD twin testing

bp Traits controlled by genes on the X chromosome are called sex-linked traits. In what individuals are recessive sex-linked traits more commonly expressed?

A males because they have a Y chromosomeB females because they have two X chromosomesC children who later outgrow conditions

brought on by the traitsD males because they have only one X

chromosome



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1 A molecule of DNA is made up of .

A amino acids and proteinsB ATP and enzymesC paired nucleotidesD receptor enzymes

2 If the structure of DNA were likened to a ladder, what would make up the “supporting structure” (not the “rungs”) of the ladder?

A amino acids and sugarsB nucleotide bases, including thymineC nucleotide bases, including uracilD sugar-phosphate molecules

Use the illustration below to answer question 3.

G G

G ?

GA

A

A

?C C

C C

?T

T

T

T

3 The diagram above shows a portion of a DNA molecule. The letters in the diagram represent the four bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). Which sequence of bases do the question marks represent?

A C-A-CB G-C-AC G-A-CD T-C-A

4 Which do DNA and RNA have in common?

A Both are double stranded.B Both contain ribose molecules.C Both contain phosphate groups.D Both contain uracil.

5 What process is shown in the illustration below?

A commensalismB deletionC passive transportD replication

6 Proteins are chains of amino acids bonded together. Which is the correct sequence for making proteins?

A Information in DNA is formed into protein directly.

B Information in RNA uses thermal energy to make protein.

C Information in RNA mutates into DNA and then is made into protein.

D Information in DNA is transferred into RNA and then made into protein.

7 What occurs during frameshift mutation?

A Part of the chromosome breaks away, but reattaches normally.

B Part of the chromosome breaks away, but reattaches in inverse orientation.

C An extra chromosome is added, causing mismatching of the chromosome pairs.

D There is a misreading of the base pairs during translation.

8 What causes the two sides of the double helix of DNA to stay joined together?

A joining of base pairsB joining of phosphate moleculesC joining of sugar moleculesD joining of RNA molecules



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, SB2a-b, 2d.


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9 New inheritable characteristics would least likely result from .

A mutations that occur in muscle and skin cellsB mutations that occur in male gametesC mutations that occur in female gametesD sorting and recombination of existing genes

during meiosis and fertilization

bk What is the complimentary mRNA sequence to the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A?

A T-A-A-C-G-TB U-A-A-C-G-TC U-A-A-C-G-UD T-A-A-G-C-U

bl What is the role of the structure shown here during protein synthesis?

U A

AA

C

A mRNA delivers codons from DNA in the nucleus

B mRNA attaches to the ribosomeC rRNA forms ribosomesD tRNA transports amino acids from the

cytoplasm to the ribosome for translation

bm In most organisms, the start of translation is signaled by an AUG codon. What is the first amino acid in most proteins?

A prolineB leucineC isoleucineD methionine

bn In the illustration below, which molecules are represented by boxes A and B? Give answer in order of A, then B.

Hereditary Information

is stored in

can controls production of

Genes

Replicate

A

B

are made of

A A-chromosomes, B-proteinsB A-DNA, B-proteinsC A-RNA, B-chromosomesD A-chromosomes, B-proteins

bo Why is the presence of DNA important for the cellular metabolic activities?

A DNA directs the production of enzymes.B DNA is a structural component of the cell

membranes.C DNA directly increases the solubility of

nutrients.D DNA is the major component of cytoplasm.

bp Why can the deletion of a single nitrogen base in DNA due to a mutation be harmful to an organism?

A Deletion causes chromosomes to join the wrong chromosome.

B Nearly every amino acid in the protein will change after the deletion of a base.

C Deletion causes a gamete to have an extra chromosome.

D Such a mutation causes one chromosome to break off or become fragile.




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DNA makes proteins and ENZYMES are a type of Protein

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tRNA is the delivery truck!

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Hint: methionine is also the START codon

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Somatic cells are also know body cells They undergo Asexual Reproduction Not MEIOSIS that leads to variation

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1 In order to determine the genotype of a particular trait of an organism, researchers can perform a test cross between the unknown organism and an organism that is known to be .

A homozygous dominant for the traitB heterozygous for the traitC homozygous recessive for the traitD a clone

2 How can foreign pieces of DNA be transferred into organisms?

A by restriction enzymesB by vectorsC by carrier enzymesD by test crosses

3 The model below represents the outcome from a step used in the recombinant DNA process. What is the step called?

A DNA sequencingB gel electrophoresisC cloning genesD splicing genes

4 Researchers inserted a gene for bioluminescence into a variety of organisms, such as mosquito larvae. What is this technology called?

A gel electrophoresisB polymerase chain reactionsC DNA sequencingD genetic engineering

5 Which process is a common practice that has been used by farmers for hundreds of years to develop new varieties of plants and animals?

A cloningB genetic engineeringC cutting DNA and removing segmentsD selective breeding for desirable traits

6 The diagram below shows some key steps of a biotechnological procedure. What development does the letter X most likely represent?

Gene forhuman insulin

Cut bacterial

DNACell

division

Inserted into bacterial cell

Enzymes

+

X

A human cells able to resist antibioticsB human cells unable to synthesize antibodiesC bacterial cells able to synthesize human insulinD bacterial cells unable to synthesize human

insulin

7 The nucleus is removed from a body cell of one organism and is placed in an egg cell that has had its nucleus removed. This process results in the production of organisms that are genetically alike. What is this process called?

A fertilizationB adaptationC cloningD inbreeding

8 Restriction enzymes are used for what purpose?

A to maintain homeostasisB to transfer DNA fragments to plasmidsC to cleave DNA strands at specific nucleotide

sequencesD to inhibit enzyme reactions in cells



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SCSh3b, 7b-c; SB1a, 2a-b, 2d.


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How do you do a test cross? To determine if an organism is Homozygous or Heterozygous, you cross them with a (homozygous recessive) organism

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gel electrophoresis is used to make the DNA fingerprint; along with restriction enzymes

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Restriction enzymes "cleave" or cut the DNA; part of making the DNA fingerprint.

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farmers use "selective breeding" to get the best traits from offspring; Hand Pick who they will mate or which organism they will breed!

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That was a GIFT: Just look at the picture

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9 DNA was encapsulated in a virus like the one shown below and supplied to a patient for the purpose of replacing a defective gene. What is this treatment called?

A gene therapyB pharmacogenomicsC gene splicingD replication

bk One variety of strawberry is resistant to a damaging fungus but produces small fruit. Another strawberry variety produces large fruit but is not resistant to the fungus. How might the desirable qualities of the two varieties be combined?

A cloningB asexual reproductionC direct harvestingD selective breeding

bl A woman has a gene that causes a visual disorder. To prevent the disorder from appearing in future generations, where would the defective gene have to be repaired?

A nervous systemB reproductive cellsC eyeD uterus

bm A DNA fragment has been cleaved by restriction enzymes, as shown in the model below. After this occurs, each single strand is left with what feature?

GATAT CC TATAG

A sticky endsB blunt endsC spliced genesD a complete genome

bn What are the small circular, double-stranded DNA molecules in bacteria that can be used as vectors?

A clonesB plasmidsC chloroplastsD transgenic organisms

bo Why can a polymerase chain reaction be compared to a biological copy machine?

A It makes a single, perfect copy of a DNA sequence.

B It identifies a DNA sequence.C It is used to make millions of copies of a specific

DNA molecule. D It delivers gene therapy to all the cells of the

body.

bp Dolly is a sheep developed from an egg of her mother that had its nucleus replaced by a nucleus from a body cell of her mother. What resulted from using this technique?

A Dolly is no longer able to reproduce.B Dolly is genetically identical to her mother.C Dolly, or others like her, have a longer than

normal life span.D Dolly is unable to mate.




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1 A scientist is using radiometric dating to determine the ages of four rock samples in order to determine the ages of fossils found near the rocks. The ratios below compare the amount of parent isotopes to the amount of daughter isotopes. Which rock sample is the oldest?

Rock A1:1

Rock B1:4

Rock C1:16

Rock D1:32

Radiometric Dating

A Rock AB Rock BC Rock CD Rock D

2 What is one advantage of radiometric dating over relative dating?

A The age of an isolated rock can be determined. B Radiometric dating can be performed in the

field.C Radiometric dating can be performed by

students.D A Geiger counter can be used.

3 Evidence of past life in the form of fossils is found in what form of rock?

A sedimentary B metamorphicC igneousD crushed metamorphic rock

4 On a field trip, a scientist finds a fossil of a snub-nosed crocodile and wants to know its age. What would you do to date the fossil?

A Measure decay of radioactive isotopes in the rock around the fossil.

B Count the annual rings of trees growing in the area.

C Determine the age by comparing them to fossils in other layers.

D Measure the depth at which the fossil is found.

5 What did Francesco Redi’s experiments disprove?

A law of superpositionB Cambrian explosion of lifeC endosymbiont theoryD theory of spontaneous generation

6 What type of fossil forms when pore spaces of the original hard parts of an animal are filled in by minerals?

Burial

Organicmaterialdecays

Mineral-richgroundwater

seeps in

A trace fossil B premineralized fossilC cast fossilD amber fossil

7 What provides an explanation for the presence of mitochondria and chloroplasts in present-day cells?

A biogenesisB endosymbiosisC spontaneous generationD superposition

8 What is represented in the geologic time scale?

A fossil formation in sedimentary rockB steps of endosymbiosisC major geological and biological events in

Earth’s historyD current plant and animal groupings

9 What characteristics do scientists hypothesize about the first forms of life?

A They were prokaryotes that breathed oxygen.B They were autotrophic and able to feed

themselves because they contained chlorophyll.C They were prokaryotes linked with volcanic

environments.D They were aerobic.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB5a-c.


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bk How is the illustration below interpreted by many scientists?

Aerobicprokaryotes

MitochondriaEukaryoteNucleus

Cyanobacteria

Chloroplasts

Cyanobacteria became chloroplasts

Aerobic prokaryotes became mitochondria

A Mitochondria and chloroplasts are parasites in cells.

B Prokaryotes might have entered host cells as prey or parasites.

C Eukaryotic cells evolved before prokaryotes.D Mitochondria and chloroplasts look similar.

bl Why does the presence of iridium support the idea that a meteorite struck Earth, possibly bringing about a mass extinction at the end of the Mesozoic Era?

A Records of the period show a cloudy atmosphere for months at a time.

B Iridium is rare on Earth but common in meteorites.

C Rocks show a 100 percent increase in iridium at that time.

D There was an increase in species.

bm During which time in geologic history is Earth thought to have formed and life first appear?

A Cenozoic EraB Jurassic PeriodC Cretaceous PeriodD Precambrian

bn What did Pasteur’s experiment with sterile broth show?

A Only living things can produce other living things.

B Organic molecules could be produced from gases.

C Meteorites brought the first organic molecules to Earth.

D Organic reactions in deep-sea volcanic vents preceded life’s emergence.

bo What is known about mass extinctions?

A They are common. B They occur instantaneously. C They wipe out all organisms. D They occur every 26 to 30 million years.

bp Fossils of a seed fern were found on several different continents, each with a different climate. What does this evidence support?

A spontaneous generation B endosymbiosis C continental drift D theories about the development of Earth’s

atmosphere




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1 When Charles Darwin was developing his theory of evolution, he considered variations in a population important. However, he could not explain how the variations occurred. Which two processes could cause variations?

A symbiosis and metamorphosisB commensalism and mutualismC crossing over and mutationsD phagocytosis and pinocytosis

2 The fact that at least one species of resistant bacteria has developed for almost every antibiotic is evidence for which condition?

A The bacteria have adapted and could be evolving into a different species.

B The bacteria have learned to mimic other species.

C There is no variation in the bacteria population.D The antibiotics are being made differently.

3 Why are the structures shown below considered to be homologous?

Whaleforelimb

Crocodileforelimb

Bird wing

A They belong to organisms that evolved from separate ancestors.

B They are the result of geographic isolation.C They belong to organisms that probably

evolved from a common ancestor.D They are the result of sympatric speciation.

4 Homologous structures might be the result of a change in allele frequencies over successive generations. Why have these structures probably continued?

A They were beneficial in a particular environment.

B They were predestined in a species.C They made a particular organism more

attractive to a mate.D They were neutral, not harmful, mutations.

5 Under what conditions might populations of a short type of sunflower be identified as a new species?

A They are able to breed with sunflowers from the original population.

B They are unable to breed with the sunflowers of the original population.

C They appear as a new color.D They produce twice as many blooms as the

original sunflower population.

6 Who proposed that genetic change causes species to change quickly and not gradually?

A Charles DarwinB Alfred Russell WallaceC Thomas MalthusD Stephen J. Gould

7 What unique characteristic would the beetles shown below develop through biological adaptation if, over a period of years, the bark on the trees shown became spotted?

Bark of tree

A The beetles would become spotted. B The beetles would become plain.C About half the beetles would become spotted

and half would not.D There would be no change.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB5a-e.


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8 According to the theory of natural selection, why are some individuals more likely than others to survive and reproduce?

A They pass on to their offspring new characteris-tics they acquired during their lifetimes.

B They are better adapted to exist in theirenvironment than others.

C They do not pass on to their offspring new characteristics they have acquired during their lifetimes.

D They tend to produce fewer offspring than do others in the same environment.

9 What factor within a species increases the likelihood that some members of a species will survive when environmental conditions change?

A variationB disjunctionC polyploidyD migration

bk In order for evolution to occur, what must happen in a population?

A genetic driftB geographic isolationC natural selectionD reproductive isolation

bl What is operating when unrelated species living in different parts of the world, but with similar niches, evolve similar traits?

A convergent evolutionB genetic driftC divergent evolutionD parallelism

bm The Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to determine the frequency of which alleles in a population?

A recessive alleles B hybrid alleles C dominant alleles D masked alleles

bn Based on the table below, use the Hardy-Weinberg equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 to determine the frequency of the short (tt) genotype in a population of pea plants.

Pea Plants (population: 100)TT Tt tt36 48 16

A 0.16B 0.36C 0.48D 1.0

bo What type of natural selection favors average individuals in a population?

A disruptive selectionsB biasC directional selectionD stabilizing selection

bp Scientists can estimate more accurately at what point various groups of organisms diverged evolutionarily from one another by using which source of information?

A fossil recordB DNA evidenceC migration patternsD genetic equilibrium




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1 What advantage does binocular vision provide for primates?

A increased social skillsB more variety in facial expressionsC increased color perceptionD greater depth perception

2 You are researching the anatomy of an unknown primate. You are told that it is an early hominid. Where would you expect to find the foramen magnum?

A back of the skull because early hominids walked on all fours

B bottom of the skull because early hominids walked on all fours

C back of the skull because early hominids walked upright

D bottom of the skull because early hominids walked upright

Use the diagram below to answer question 3.

3 Humans share about 96 percent of their DNA sequence with which group?

A New World primatesB Old World monkeysC gorillas and orangutansD bonobos and chimpanzees

4 Nocturnal primates are characterized by what feature?

A ability to see colorB increased sense of smellC teeth for specialized dietsD sharp black and white vision

5 What does the figure labeled B below illustrate when compared to the figure labeled A?

A

B

A advantages of a particular dietB bipedalismC specific place of originD cultural development

6 What characteristic in New World monkeys functions like a fifth limb?

A prehensile tailsB opposable digitsC flexible wristsD fingernails

7 How did Homo erectus differ from modern Homo sapiens?

A Homo erectus did not have an opposable thumb.

B Homo sapiens are bipedal primates.C Homo erectus had a lower jaw without a chin.D Homo erectus had a lower jaw with a chin.

8 What is true about the primate fossil record?

A It is complete.B It is not complete.C It is seldom helpful in following evolutionary

paths.D It is simple, rather than complex.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SCSh3d, 7d-e; SB4f, 5b-c.


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9 According to the diagram below of the evolution of genus Homo, which is the closest ancestor of Homo sapiens?

A Homo erectusB Homo ergasterC Homo neanderthalensisD Homo habilis

bk What does the multiregional evolution model hypothesize for modern races of humans?

A They arose in isolated populations by convergent evolution.

B They arose from one population by divergent evolution.

C They arose from the New World primates.D They arose from strepsirrhines.

bl What has shown that Neandertals were a distinct species from modern humans?

A comparison of skull shapesB DNA evidence from fossil bonesC position of the foramen magnumD use of tools

bm What factors threaten primate populations around the world?

A low birthrateB loss of tropical habitatsC human predationD All are factors that threaten primate populations.

bn Which hypothesis threatens primate populations around the world?

A Mitochondrial Eve hypothesisB Overlapping hypothesisC Out-of-Africa hypothesisD Mosaic Pattern hypothesis

bo Homo habilis derived its name from which characteristic?

A use of stone tools B larger brainC flatter faceD reduced jaw

bp Sets of fossilized footprints found by Mary Leaky provided evidence of which characteristic?

A Australopithecines were bipedal and walked upright.

B New World monkeys have prehensile tails.C Cro-Magnons represented the beginning of

historic hunter-gatherer societies.D Early modern humans could express themselves

artistically.




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1 Upon examining samples of water and mud from a nearby river, you come across an unidentified organism. The organism is unicellular and autotrophic. In addition, you can identify a membrane-bound nucleus in the cells. To what kingdom does it belong?

A PlantaeB FungiC ProtistaD Eubacteria

Use the following illustration to answer questions 2 and 3.

H I J K

G

C FD

E

B

A

Present

10 millionyears ago

2 What type of diagram is shown in the illustration above?

A dichotomous keyB cladogramC DNA profileD pedigree

3 I and J in the illustration are close together. What does this indicate?

A They share few derived characters.B They are closest to the common ancestor.C They share many derived characters.D They share the same derived characters as H

and K.

4 The system of assigning two names to identify an organism is called binomial nomenclature. What does the first name of an organism identify?

A familyB kingdomC speciesD genus

5 The scientific name for the African elephant is Loxodonta africana. What is the species name?

A LoxodontaB africanaC L. africanaD Loxodonta sp.

6 What provides evidence that three distinctly different vegetables, such as broccoli, cauliflower, and kale, share a recent common ancestor?

A They have cell walls.B They produce strong aromas when cooked.C They are about the same color.D They have nearly identical chromosomes.

7 Which taxa is equivalent to a phylum?

A domainB familyC orderD division

8 Why are eugelnoids classified with plantlike protists?

A They form pseudopods.B They contain chloroplasts and undergo

photosynthesis.C They have a nucleus surrounded by a

membrane.D They have a flagellum.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b-c.


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9 The model below allows scientists to compare DNA sequences from two species to estimate how long it has been since they diverged from a common ancestor. What is the name of this model?

A molecular clockB cladogramC pedigreeD family tree

bk Members of which kingdom secrete enzymes into their food and then absorb the digested matter directly into their cells?

A ProtistaB FungiC PlantaeD Animalia

bl As scientists began to learn more about geologic time, they incorporated their findings into systems of classification. What is the system that takes into account an organism’s evolutionary history?

A binomial nomenclatureB phylogenyC taxonomyD historical classification

bm What is the system by which each species is given a two-part scientific name?

A phylogeneticsB cladisticsC taxonomyD binomial nomenclature

bn Which would be the least reliable evidence in determining whether or not two animals share a taxonomic relationship?

A physical structures and appearanceB appearance of their chromosomesC diet and nutrition D DNA sequences

bo Which is a cluster of organisms distinct from other clusters that shows evidence of a pattern of ancestry and descent?

A kingdomB divisionC phylumD species

bp What statement describes the thinking of scientists before Darwin presented his theory of evolution?

A All species that ever lived were still alive.B All species were separate and unchanging.C Species could be distinguished by their DNA.D Species could be distinguished by their color

patterns.




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1 What is the outer coat of proteins called that surrounds the core of a virus?

A capsuleB envelopeC membraneD capsid

2 What is characteristic of the object shown below?

Spike Geneticmaterial

Envelope

Capsid

A It is classified by its nucleic acid.B It can replicate on its own.C It has organelles and makes proteins.D It is classified as a cell.


3 In the bacterial cell shown above, what is the structure labeled A?

A ribosomeB plasmidC chromosomeD pili

4 How do the structures labeled B help increase the diversity of prokaryotes and contribute to resistance to antibiotics?

A They help the bacterium move.B They attach to other bacteria cells to

exchange genetic material.C They help the cell attach to surfaces.D They keep the cell from drying out.

5 Which bacterial adaptations helps a bacterium avoid being engulfed by white blood cells?

A capsuleB cell wallC piliD flagella

6 What does a virus need to replicate?

A capsid, tail, and spikesB DNA onlyC set of prionsD host cell

7 How do humans benefit from the presence of a certain strain of E. coli in their intestines?

A The E. coli makes Vitamin K.B Humans provide oxygen for the bacteria to

live.C The E. coli produces antibiotics in humans. D Humans derive no benefit from any strain of

E. coli.

8 Identify the process that is taking place in the illustration below.

Chromosome

Plasmamembrane

Cytoplasm

Cellwall

A endospore formationB conjugationC chemosynthesisD binary fission



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1c, 3b, 3d, 4a-b, 4d.


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9 Streptococcus pyogenes is the bacterium that causes strep throat. Based on its name, what is the shape of the individual bacterial cells?

A roundB rodC spiralD polyhedral

bk Retroviruses, such as HIV, use an enzyme to convert their RNA into double-stranded DNA. What is this enzyme?

A reverse polymeraseB DNA polymeraseC reverse transcriptaseD RNA synthetase

bl What is true about prions?

A They can be contracted much like a virus.B They cause the brain to solidify.C They are protein particles normally found in

cells.D They are virus particles.

bm Which role do bacteria play in the illustration shown below?

The Nitrogen Cycle

Bacteria

A cause diseaseB recycle nutrientsC produce medicinesD produce foods

bn Which event might induce a virus to enter a lytic cycle after being dormant for several years?

A gaining weightB taking vitamin supplementsC emotional stressD regular sleep habits

bo What viral disease was eliminated by a worldwide vaccination program?

A smallpoxB polioC influenzaD genital herpes

bp Why are methanogens obligate anaerobes?

A They live in salty environments.B They die in the presence of oxygen.C They give off carbon dioxide as a waste

product.D They carry out photosynthesis using chlorophyll.




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1 Which of the following are all photosynthetic protists?

A algaeB protozoaC funguslike protistsD unicellular protists

2 Amoebas extend their plasma membranes to feed and move. What are these extensions called?

A flagellaB pseudopodsC websD vacuoles

Use the following illustration of a paramecium to answer questions 3 and 4.

3 What are the structures labeled A on the paramecium?

A contractile vacuolesB oral groovesC food vacuolesD cilia

4 What is the function of structure B in the paramecium?

A expels water to maintain homeostasisB discharges a pinelike structureC digests foodD contains the cell’s genome

5 What is a mass of cytoplasm with many diploid nuclei but no cell walls or membranes called?

A thallusB plasmodiumC pseudopodiaD algae colony

6 Why are green algae similar to green plants?

A They can have more than one nucleus in each cell.

B They have chloroplasts and store food as carbohydrates.

C The reproduce by spores.D They both have peptiglycan in their cell

walls.

7 What microscopic protozoans live in the guts of termites and digest the cellulose in the wood?

A microsporidiaB plasmodiaC sporozoitesD merozoites

8 You have just returned from a subtropical region. You have chills and fever, and suspect that you might have contracted malaria. How would you have gotten malaria?

A bite of a male Anopheles mosquitoB drinking contaminated waterC bite of a female reduviid bugD bite of a female Anopheles mosquito



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3a-b, 4a.


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9 How are the zooflagellates that cause sleeping sickness similar to the sporozoan that causes malaria?

A They are autotrophs.B They each have two hosts in their life cycle.C They feed on carbohydrates.D They move by pseudopods at some point in

their life cycles.

bk Which groups of animal-like protists are parasites?

A amoebasB ciliatesC algaeD sporozoans

bl What do funguslike protists contain that true fungi do not contain?

A nucleiB flagellaC centriolesD cytoplasm

bm Four people who ate shellfish at a small restaurant come down with a life-threatening illness. Which, most likely, is a cause of this illness?

A toxins from dinoflagellatesB mosquito bitesC colonial algaeD diatomaceous earth

bn Which funguslike protists have a phase where the nucleus divides but no internal cell walls form and, at one point, a spore produces a cell with a flagellum?

A cellular slime moldB water moldC acellular slime moldD downey mildew

bo The structure shown here stores food as oil instead of carbohydrates. What is the organism?

A dinoflagellateB amoebaC diatomD microsporidium

bp What do foraminiferans and radiolarians have that separates them from other amoebae?

A multinucleate cellsB ciliaC test D two hosts in their life cycle




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1 In contrast to plant cells, the cell walls of fungi are made up of which materials?

A celluloseB chitinC lipids D proteins


2 Identify the overall structure shown above.

A rootsB vesselsC fruiting bodies D hyphae

3 More than one might be noticeable in each cell because many fungi have pores in the septa.

A hyphaeB sporesC nucleiD mycelia

4 In the woods, you find a fungus growing on a dead log. Which feeding relationship describes an organism that feeds on dead organic matter?

A saprophyticB mutualisticC parasiticD autotrophic

5 Food left in the refrigerator has developed a coating of fuzz. Which hyphae spread across surfaces?

A rhizoidsB haustoriaC stolonsD sporangiophores


6 What is the structure above labeled A?

A sporangiumB gametangiumC myceliumD fruiting body

7 What is the branching, netlike mass in the ground?

A fruiting bodiesB myceliumC conidiophoresD lichen

8 What separates yeasts from other fungi?

A Yeasts are heterotrophs.B Yeasts have cell walls.C Yeasts are animal-like fungi.D Yeasts are unicellular.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b, 4a.


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9 are produced during the life cycles of most fungi.

A gametangiaB sporesC conidiphoresD zygospores


bk Identify the structure shown above.

A lichenB mushroomC Bird’s Nest fungusD mycorrhizae

bl Organism A produces food for itself and for Organism B. Classify the relationship between the two organisms.

A parasiticB mutualisticC commensalisticD saprophytic

bm In which group of fungi has sexual reproduction never been observed?

A common moldsB sac fungiC club fungiD imperfect fungi

bn Which structures form when Rhizopus stolonifer reproduces sexually?

A ascosporesB basidiosporesC conidiophoresD zygospores

bo How do yeasts reproduce asexually?

A forming sporesB buddingC fragmentationD joining with lichens

bp While digging in your vegetable garden, you find that the roots of the plants are covered with a fungal network, but that the plants are healthy and growing vigorously. What explains this?

A bioremediationB mycorrhizaeC haustoriaD lichen




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1 Which characteristic is absent in nonvascular plants?

A cuticleB alternation of generations C chlorophyll for photosynthesisD specialized transport tissues

2 Vascular seed plants grow in more habitats than non-seed and nonvascular plants. Which factor might account for this phenomenon?

A Vascular seed plants grow taller and therefore receive more sunlight.

B Vascular seed plants are not dependent on a continuous film of water for fertilization.

C Vascular seed plants transport water more quickly from their roots to their leaves.

D Vascular seed plants require more water than nonvascular plants because they are larger.

3 Woody female cones, like the one shown below, and male cones grow on the same tree. In which division of seed plants would they be found?

A AnthophytaB ConiferophytaC CycadophytaD Ginkgophyta

4 A large tree grows in your yard. How can it be described?

A diploid gametophyte B haploid gametophyteC diploid sporophyteD haploid sporophyte

5 Which division makes up more than 75 percent of the plant kingdom?

A GnetophytaB ConiferophytaC Gnetophyta D Anthophyta

6 Which adaptation helps to prevent water loss in conifers?

A cuticle coating on leavesB lack of stomataC presence of flowersD extensive rhizoid network


7 Identify the structure labeled A on the horsetail.

A strobilusB sorusC cotyledonD cone

8 What is produced by the structure labeled A in the illustration?

A rhizoidsB thallose leavesC sporesD rhizomes



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1d, 3b, 4e.


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9 What is the single greatest limiting factor for plants to survive on land?

A sunlightB water resourcesC availability of oxygenD availability of nutrients

bk Which is made up of diploid cells?

A gameteB gametophyteC sporeD sporophyte

bl One adaptation that helped plants survive on land was the development of roots. What is the function of most roots?

A disperse sporesB repel excess water and nutrientsC transport water to stems and leavesD produce food

bm Why are fruit trees classified as perennials?

A Stems, leaves, flowers, and seeds grow in the second year of the plant’s life.

B They are always eudicots.C Plants live for several years and produce

flowers and seeds annually.D The plant completes its life span in one

growing season.


A

B

bn What is the structure labeled as A in the drawing?

A fruitB cotyledonC sporophyte plantD gametophyte plant

bo Identify the structures labeled B in the drawing.

A seedsB eggsC cotyledonsD epiphytes

bp What structure anchors mosses to soil?

A rhizoidsB strobilusC prothallusD rhizomes




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1 Which statement is true about A in the illustration?

A Photosynthesis takes place here.B A waxy layer forms here.C Water flows up through it.D Water evaporates through it.

2 Where does most photosynthesis take place in a leaf?

A at AB at BC at CD at D

3 What do you expect to find at meristems?

A rapidly dividing cellsB sclerenchyma cellsC dead cellsD stone cells

4 What does the outside layer of roots and stems develop from?

A parenchyma cellsB cork cambiumC ground tissuesD vascular cambium

5 What is characteristic of phloem cells?

A dead at maturity and used transport water from the roots to the rest of the plant

B dead at maturity and used to transport sugar throughout the plant

C alive at maturity and used to transport water from the roots to the rest of the plant

D alive at maturity and used to transport sugars throughout the plant

6 A student conducted an experiment using the setup below. Overall, what was the plant’s response an example of?

A gravitropismB nastic responseC phototropismD thigmotropism

7 What takes place when water evaporates from inside the leaf and water is pulled up the plant?

A tropismB transpirationC secondary growthD photosynthesis



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3a-b, 4e.


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8 Describe the vein pattern on a maple leaf.

A simpleB palmateC parallelD pinnate

9 What can a grower do to produce plants that are attractive and full of side branches?

A Pinch off the apical meristem to decrease the amount of auxin.

B Pinch off the apical meristems to increase the amount of auxin.

C Pinch off the intercalary meristems to increase the amount of auxin.

D Pinch off the intercalary meristems to decrease the amount of auxin.

bk What can be counted to determine the age of a tree?

A the number of branchesB the number of leavesC the number of rootsD the number of annual rings

bl What will a poinsettia grower accomplish by providing the crop with 12 to 15 hours of darkness each day?

A longer time for photosynthesisB colorful bractsC fuller, more attractive plantsD decreased transpiration

bm They xylem forms an X shape in the center of a(n) .

A eudicot stemB eudicot rootC monocot stemD monocot root

bn What is the water-carrying vasicular tissue in plants that continuously carries minerals dissolved in water from the roots to the leaves?

A parenchyma B phloem C root hairsD xylem

bo What structure increases a root’s surface area allowing it to take in more water?

A loose root cap cellsB root hairs C sieve tube membersD pericycle tissue

bp Which structure is responsible for the opening and closing of stomata?

A stone cellsB guard cells C companion cellsD trichomes




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1 The factor that controls photoperiodism in flowering plants is .

A hours of darknessB amount of fertilizerC air temperatureD dormancy

2 Identify the missing labels in the diagram below.

Diploid cells(2n)

Mature gametophyte

Cell divisions Cell divisions

Cell divisions

Male gamete(sperm)

Female gamete(egg)

Cell divisions

Reproductive cells develop

1

2

3

4

A 1-meiosis forms spores; 2-zygote forms; 3-diploid; 4-sporophyte

B 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores; 3-haploid; 4-zygote forms

C 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores; 3-diploid; 4-zygote forms

D 1-zygote forms; 2-sporophyte; 3-diploid; 4-meiosis forms spores

3 During the life cycle of a moss, where does fertilization of the haploid egg take place?

A in the female gametophyte archegoniumB in the male gametophyte antheridiumC in the female gametophyte capsuleD in the gametophyte prothallus

4 A characteristic of anthophytes is the .

A production of conesB production of prothallusC production of gemmaeD production of flowers

5 The uniting of a sperm and an egg to form a zygote is called .

A pollinationB fertilizationC meiosisD germination

6 Describe how the strawberry plant shown in the figure below has reproduced.

A asexually by fragmentationB sexually by egg and spermC asexually by horizontal stemsD sexually by fragmentation

7 In flowering plants, fertilization takes place .

A when pollen lands on the sticky stigmaB when pollen lands on the antherC when a zygote forms D when a stamen touches a pistil

8 Flowering plants with strong scents are usually pollinated by .

A animalsB windC self-pollinationD cross-pollination

9 A spore or microspore is a .

A diploid cell produced by a sporophyteB diploid cell produced by a gametophyteC haploid cell produced by a gametophyte D haploid cell produced by a sporophyte



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 3b, 4a, 4e, 5d.


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bk Once a seed forms from an ovule, a developing monocot plant get its nourishment from before green leaves appear?

A fruitB endospermC cotyledonD ovary walls

Use the diagram to answer questions 11 and 12.

A

B

bl Name and describe the importance of the structure labeled A.

A pistil; where pollination occursB anther; where pollen grains formC pistil; where fertilization takes placeD anther; where ovaries are found

bm What is produced on structure B?

A eggsB pollen grainsC two pollen tubesD endosperm

bn What is true of alternation of generations in the plant kingdom?

A Gametophytes become larger as plants become more complex.

B Sporophytes become less important as plants become more complex.

C Gametophytes become smaller as plants become more complex.

D Sporophytes are more obvious in smaller plants.

bo Why are conifers heterosporous?

A They produce two cones on a tree.B They produce megaspores.C They produce two types of spores.D They produce two zygotes that develop into

male and female cones.

bp A flower that has four sepals, four petals, and a pistil is a(n) .

A complete, imperfect monocotB incomplete, perfect dicotC complete, perfect eudicotD incomplete, imperfect eudicot




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1 Sponges are not plants because .

A they are multicellularB they develop mesodermC they are sessileD they have no cell walls

2 A previously unidentified organism is found in a tropical rain forest. It exhibits bilateral symmetry, heterotrophism, and has an exoskeleton. Would you classify this organism as a vertebrate?

A Yes. Bilateral symmetry and heterotrophism are unique to vertebrates.

B Yes. Only vertebrates are found in tropical rain forests.

C No. Exoskeletons are not found in vertebrates.D No. Vertebrates have radial symmetry.

Use the illustration to answer questions 3 and 4.

3 Which describes the body structure of Organism A?

A asymmetryB bilateral symmetryC radial symmetryD anterior symmetry

4 What is the surface labeled X in Animal B?

A anteriorB dorsalC posteriorD ventral

5 A pseudocoelom is partly lined with tissue derived from the .

A mesodermB endodermC ectodermD coelom

6 Which would you expect to be more complex animals—coelomates or acoelomates?

A acoelomates, because they have less wasted space in their body structure

B acoelomates, because they have more mesodermal tissue

C coelomates, because they store more nutrient-rich fluid in their bodies

D coelomates, because they have protected space for specialized organs in their bodies

Use the illustration to answer questions 7 and 8.

A

7 Identify the structure shown above.

A blastulaB gastrulaC invertebrateD zygote

8 What is the layer labeled A in the structure above, and what are some systems that develop from it?

A ectoderm; nervous system and skinB mesoderm; muscle systemC mesoderm; respiratory systemD endoderm; digestive system


Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b-c, 4f.


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9 At the beach you are stung by a jellyfish. In the diagram below, what is the structure labeled A on the cnidarian tentacle that holds a tube that contains poison?

A cnidocyteB collar cellC nematocystD trigger

bk In jellyfishes, the medusa is the sexually reproducing phase because it .

A produces cnidocytesB reproduces by mitosisC produces eggs and spermD produces polyps

bl The body plan shown in the structure below is a(n) .

A coelomate body planB pseudocoelomate body planC acoelomate body planD eukaryotic body plan

bm You observe the formation of an embryo of an unknown species under the microscope. The first body opening develops into a mouth in the gastrula. What does this signify?

A The animal is a deuterostome.B The animal is a protostome.C The animal will be an acoelomate. D The animal will have a pseudocoelom.

bn A cnidarian nervous system is called a nerve net. When touched, a cnidarian responds by contracting its body. Is this response regulated by the cnidarian’s brain?

A Yes. All nerve impulses are transmitted through the brain.

B Yes. The brain controls the nerve netC No. The cnidarian’s brain is not involved in

reflexive actions.D No. Cnidarians do not have brains.

bo Which do sponge embryos lack because they do not develop an endoderm or a mesoderm?

A epithelial-like cellsB tissues C filter-feeding mechanismsD support structure

bp When fertilization occurs externally, .

A a zygote formsB budding takes placeC parthenogenesis takes placeD segmentation takes place




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1 What is the structure labeled A?

A pharynxB ganglionC flame cellD mantle

2 How does the structure labeled A function in a planarian?

A Dissolved oxygen and nutrients are swept into the body by diffusion.

B Cilia sweep water into excretory tubules.C Cilia sweep water out of the body.D Carbon dioxide is excreted by them through

the mouth.

3 When comparing roundworms and flatworms, which is true?

A Flatworms have no blood; roundworms do.B Flatworms have a dorsal foot; roundworms

do not.C Flatworms have one body opening;

roundworms have two.D Flatworms have no nervous system;

roundworms have a nervous system.

4 Which method of asexual reproduction is the planarian in this figure undergoing?

A binary fissionB buddingC regenerationD spore formation

5 You are a coroner examining human remains. You detect a parasite. On closer examination, you determine that the parasite has bilateral symmetry and a pseudocoelom. You determine that the parasite is a .

A cnidarianB planarianC tapewormD roundworm

6 Your fish tank has a growth of green algae on the inside. You put a snail in the tank and a few days later notice that the tank is clean. The snail helped clean the tank by using its .

A radulaB shellC muscular footD siphon



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b, 4a, 4f, 5b.


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7 What group does the mollusk shown below belong?

A Gastropod; It has a hinged shell.B Bivalve; It has two shells.C Cephalopod; It has no external shell.D Cestoda; It is a parasite.

8 In most mollusks, what is the site of gas exchange with the external environment?

A mouthB nephridiaC siphonD gills

9 The membrane that secretes a shell in some mollusks is the .

A radulaB mantleC muscular footD skin

bk How is oxygen delivered to tissues and carbon dioxide removed from tissues in a mollusk with an open circulatory system?

A The tissues are bathed in water.B They are delivered in blood vessels.C They get their oxygen through gills.D The tissues are bathed in blood.

bl What do segmented worms use to help them move through soil?

A gizzardB setaeC radulaD nephridia

bm What is the main characteristic that separates annelids from other worms?

A regenerationB gillsC nephridiaD segmentation

bn Refer to the cladogram shown below to determine which characteristic developed most recently.

Polychaeta Oligochaeta Hirudinea

Posteriorbody sucker

Clitellum

Ancestral annelid

Parapodia

Annelid Cladogram

A parapodia on polychaetesB oligochaetesC clitellum on oligochaetesD posterior body sucker

bo Earthworms are often used by farmers to aerate soil. Which, produced by earthworms, fertilizes soil?

A excrement or castings B setaeC parapodiaD clitella

bp have hydrostatic skeletons and move in a thrashing manner.

A FlatwormsB RoundwormsC MollusksD Annelids




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1 Which feature is characteristic of arthropods and relates them to annelids?

A jointed appendagesB an endoskeletonC segmentationD vertebrae

2 The exoskeleton of an arthropod is made up of .

A celluloseB boneC chitinD muscle


A

3 Identify the structure labeled A in the drawing.

A gillB book lungC Malpighian tubuleD spiracle

4 What is the function of the system shown in the illustration above?

A It delivers oxygen to body cells.B It detects pheremones.C It removes wastes.D It removes carbon dioxide from body cells.

5 What structure in arthropods is similar in function to nephridia in mollusks and flame cells in planaria?

A mandiblesB Malpighian tubulesC antennaeD eyes

6 Observe the mouthpart of the insect in the illustration below and determine how it would feed.

A cut plant tissuesB siphon nectar C sponge up foodD pierce skin and suck liquids

7 Which group of arthropods has remained largely unchanged since the Triassic Period?

A beetlesB spidersC crustaceansD horseshoe crabs

8 What is the purpose of the waggle dance in certain bees?

A to locate foodB to locate matesC to locate the SunD to locate a nest



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b, 4f, 5b.


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9 During which stage does the animal change into an adult form during complete metamorphosis?

A larvaB nauplius C nymphD pupa

bk What is reduced when adult butterflies feed on food different from that used by the developing larvae?

A competitionB number of offspringC predationD length of time for development

bl Which stage resembles the adult during incomplete metamorphosis?

A larvaB naupliusC nymph D pupa

bm Study the cladogram below to determine which animal represents the most recently evolved group of arthropods?

Trilobites (extinct)

Arachnids

Ancestral Arthropod

Crustaceans Insects

A tickB spiderC lobsterD honeybee

bn What behavior do some spiders engage in to catch food?

A They suck blood.B They construct webs.C They molt five to ten times.D They communicate in a waggle dance.

bo During the summer, you find a perfectly formed, empty insect exoskeleton stuck to the bark of a tree. What happened?

A moltingB dehydrationC sheddingD parthenogenesis

bp Which pairs of arachnid appendages is located most anterior on its body?

A chelipedsB pedipalpsC cheliceraeD spinnerets




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1 Echinoderms are the first animals in evolutionary history to have .

A a protostome mouthB an endoskeletonC pheromonesD spiracles

2 All echinoderms have radial symmetry as adults and as larvae.

A bilateral symmetryB asymmetryC radial symmetryD pentagonal symmetry

Use the diagram below to answer questions 3, 4, and 5.

3 What characteristic (labeled A) of the water vascular system helps a sea star to move and get food?

A ring canalB tube feetC madreporiteD pedicellaria

4 Which identifies the structure labeled B through which water is pulled into the water-vascular system?

A ampullaB tube feetC madreporiteD eyespots

5 At which position are eyespots located?

A at AB at BC at CD at D

6 The feeding role of echinoderms is classified as .

A predatorB preyC parasiteD commensalism

7 Which characteristic indicates that some echinoderms are sessile?

A grazing sand for foodB short arms with active tube feetC a leathery outer body with musclesD long arms that trap food

8 In a tide pool, you find a sea star with four regular length arms and one very short arm. What is probably happening?

A regenerationB sexual reproductionC test developmentD gastrula development



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b, 4a, 4f, 5b, 5d.


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Dorsal tubularnerve cord Notochord

Mouth

Pharyngealpouches

Ancestralthyroid gland

Muscle blocks

AnusPostanaltail

9 What feature in the diagram above is eventually replaced by bone or cartilage in a vertebrate?

A dorsal tubular nerve cordB notochordC pharyngeal pouchesD postanal tail

bk Which feature in the diagram above eventually became gills for gas exchange in water?

A dorsal tubular nerve cordB notochordC pharyngeal pouchesD postanal tail

bl Invertebrate chordates have all of the characteristics of vertebrate chordates except for .

A a postanal tailB a backboneC a notochordD pharyngeal pouches

bm How does a lancelet obtain food?

A It swims after its food.B It filter feeds while buried in sand.C It spreads enzymes over the food.D It scrapes food from its gills.

bn What enables an invertebrate chordate to make side-to-side movements of the body and tail?

A a flexible notochordB muscle blocksC an anterior brainD the postanal tail

bo Which chordate feature is the only one remaining in adult tunicates?

A notochordB dorsal tubular nerve cordC gill slitsD postanal tail

bp In the vertebrate body, what is needed for production of thyroid hormone?

A oxygenB saltwaterC iodineD nitrogen




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1 During embryonic development, what replaces the notochord in vertebrates?

A the dorsal nerve cordB cartilageC the vertebral columnD the neural crest

Use the diagram below to answer question 2 and 3.

Dorsal fins

Caudal fin

Anal fin

Pectoral fin

Pelvic fins

2 On what part of the body is the caudal fin located?

A anteriorB posteriorC dorsalD ventral

3 What feature of many fins reduces the chance of fishes rolling to the side?

A dorso-ventral arrangementsB posterior locationC paired finsD balanced distribution over the body

4 You are fishing, and notice that every time you drop your line into the water, the fish move down. What is this adaptation?

A depth perception systemB swim bladdersC motion sensorD lateral line system

5 What feature of amphibians probably prevents them from inhabiting colder climates?

A They are endothermic.B They breathe through their skin.C They have a three-chambered heart.D They are ectothermic.

6 Why couldn’t amphibians use gills to breathe once they started walking on land?

A There isn’t enough oxygen in the air.B Air temperature fluctuates too much.C Gills need to be moist for gas exchange.D There is too much oxygen in the air.

7 What enables a fish to remove up to 85 percent of the dissolved oxygen from water?

A The fish mouth stays open.B Blood in the gills flows opposite to the flow

of water over the gills.C Blood flows in the same direction as water

flows over the gills.D The fish has lungs.

8 The development of what feature enabled fish to begin to feed on larger, more active prey?

A slime glands in the skinB paired finsC jawsD scales


Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 3b, 4d, 4f, 5d.


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9 Identify the adaptation for land, labeled A, in the drawing.

A

A cloacaB gillC nictitating membraneD tympanic membrane

bk You are comparing toads and frogs. What is characteristic of toads but not of frogs?

A Toads have moist, smooth skin.B Toads have more powerful legs.C Toads need water for reproduction.D Toads have poison glands.

bl In the figure below, what will have to change in this stage of development for the organism to become a frog and live on land?

A Lungs will have to replace gills.B Gills have to develop.C It will need a tail for balance on land.D The heart will change from three to four

chambers.

bm Why do many fish eggs and juvenile fishes become prey for other animals?

A Most fertilization and development of fish is internal.

B Most fertilization and development of fish is external.

C Fish lay very few eggs.D Most fertilized fish eggs are guarded through

development.

bn How would you distinguish a newt from a salamander?

A Compare their body shapes.B Compare where they lay eggs.C Compare their habitats.D Compare their skin.

bo What is a major limiting factor that affects all fish populations?

A habitat alterationB hagfish and lampreysC lack of waterD dams

bp How have exotic species affected amphibian populations?

A They have increased the variety of amphibian species.

B They have competed with amphibians for food and habitat.

C They have drained wetland habitats.D They have caused increased UV light exposure.




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1 Why was the shelled amniotic egg an important advance for reptiles?

A It enabled them to lay protected eggs in water.

B It enabled them to lay more eggs.C It meant they were not dependent on water

to lay eggs.D It meant that they could lay eggs and ignore

them.


Embryo

Leatheryshell

Amnion

Chorion

AllantoisYolk sac

2 What in the diagram contains nutrients for the embryo?

A allantoisB amnionC chorionD yolk sac

3 Which membrane allows oxygen to enter while keeping fluids in the egg?

A allantoisB amnionC chorionD yolk sac

4 Which animal would depend on the surrounding environment to regulate its body temperature?

A cardinalB gerbilC lizardD house cat

5 What adaptation keeps reptiles from losing internal fluids?

A dry, scaly skinB kidneys that filter bloodC skin that grows with the animalD the ability to control body temperature

6 What do crocodiles and alligators have in common with birds and mammals but not with other reptiles?

A a four-chambered heartB ability to control body temperatureC amniotic eggD Jacobson’s organ

7 Amniotes are hypothesized to have separated into three groups based on .

A body scalesB skull structureC molting abilitiesD hip structure

8 What do birds have that distinguishes them from other organisms?

A four-chambered heartB wingsC amniotic eggsD feathers

9 Endothermy, feathers, and which adaptation equip a bird for flight?

A solid bone structureB maintaining a low body temperatureC light-weight bone structure D urinary bladder



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b, 4f, 5c.


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Use the diagram below to answer question 10.

A

B

C

D

bk Which direction does oxygenated air move when a bird exhales.

A from A to BB from A to CC from C to AD from B to A

bl In a bird’s digestive tract, what performs mechanical digestion?

A teeth in its billsB rough surfaces in the cropC stones in the gizzardD scales in the small intestine

bm A bird with eyes on the front of its head, such as the one shown below, will probably have which life habit?

A live in an aquatic habitat and dabble for foodB be flightlessC perch on small branches and eat seedsD be a bird of prey

bn Birds that have feet with two toes forward and two toes backward to cling to tree trunks are members of which order?

A Passiformes (perching song birds)B Ciconiiformes (wading birds)C Piciformes (cavity nesters)D Anseriformes (waterfowl)

bo In which structure do both reptiles and birds reabsorb water from uric acid?

A the cropB cloacaC small intestineD kidney

bp Downy feathers on birds have which function?

A insulation B flightC waterproofingD to preen contour feathers




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1 What characteristics are key for distinguishing a mammal from other animals?

A location of eyes and hairB teeth and having a diaphragmC kidneys and having a diaphragmD hair and mammary glands

2 Why are mammals able to live throughout the world in a variety of ecosystems?

A They have a low metabolic rate.B They regulate body heat internally.C They are ectotherms.D Hair is a sensory device.

3 The hair of a mammal is made of .

A celluloseB keratinC chitinD chlorophyll

4 Which structure, modeled in the diagram below and found only in mammals, helps them to maintain a high intake of oxygen?

Air movement

Chest cavity

Lung

Diaphragm

A lungsB kidneysC diaphragmD cecum

5 Under what circumstances would blood vessels near the surface dilate and deliver more blood than usual?

A when body temperature increasesB when the body is losing heatC when there is too little oxygen in the bloodD when blood vessels contract

6 Which would an animal with a long digestive system and a large cecum probably feed on?

A insectsB bacteriaC plantsD herbivores

7 Which is the only egg-laying mammal?

A monotremesB marsupialsC placental animalsD manatees

8 An animal that explores an area, finds sources of food, and returns later to feed, exhibits which complex behavior?

A hordingB learning and rememberingC good eyesightD acute hearing

9 Which type of mammal develops for a short period in the uterus, followed by extended development in the mother’s pouch?

A placental animalB monotremeC marsupialD nocturnal primate



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB3b, 4a, 4f, 5b.


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bk Which statement best supplies information to complete the diagram below?

plac

enta

l mam

mal

s

mar

supi

als

mon

otre

mes

Therapsids

A Adults give birth to live young.B Adults lay eggs.C Offspring live in the mother’s pouch after

birth.D Offspring receive milk from the mother.

bl Which structure provides food and oxygen and removes wastes from developing young?

A uterusB placentaC diaphragmD mammary glands

bm Which order of placental animals has the most developed brain of all mammals?

A InsectivoraB CarnivoraC ProboscideaD Primates

bn What is a characteristic of bats, which belong to Order Chiroptera?

A They are all gnawing mammals.B They are all carnivorous.C They are all bats.D Their hind limbs are modified as wings.

bo What might have been responsible for the expansion of mammalian diversity in the Cenozoic Era?

A Flowering plants increased and new niches and habitats formed.

B Water became increasingly available.C Dinosaurs became less competitive.D Flowering plants decreased in variety.

bp What do deer, cattle, and hippopotamuses have in common that places them in Order Artiodactyla?

A They have one or three toes on each hoof.B They have horns or antlers.C They have two or four toes on each hoof.D They are carnivores.




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1 Changes in temperature, duration of daylight, and the presence of a predator are examples of

.

A behaviorB reflexesC stimuliD instinct

2 An animal that forms a social attachment to its mother shortly after birth demonstrates which learned behavior?

A operant conditioningB habituationC imprintingD classical conditioning

3 What kind of behavior is demonstrated in the illustration below?

A territorial behaviorB dominance hierarchy behaviorC courting behaviorD altruistic behavior

4 What behavior do many animals exhibit to reduce competition and gain control of an area?

A courtshipB fight-or-flight responsesC habituationD territoriality

5 Every year chipping sparrows are at feeders in yards from April to October. They are not there during the winter months. What probable behavior does this reflect?

A foraging B nurturingC migratingD competing

6 In the graph below, when does human body temperature decrease significantly?

Hour of the day

Human

Body

tem

pera

ture

0

99

100

101

244 8 12 16 20

Circadian Pattern ofBody Temperatures

A between hours 20 and 4B between hours 6 and 14C between hours 14 and 18D between hours 18 and 20

7 What happens because pheromones are species specific?

A Predators are warned to keep away.B Food sources are identified.C The chemicals attract only members of the

same species.D The chemicals attract members of other species.

8 What is the energy cost associated with nurturing behavior?

A Much energy is spent when many offspring are produced at one time.

B Much energy is spent nurturing many offspring after birth.

C Much energy is spent nurturing fewer offspring.D More energy is spent before the birth of a

single individual than after.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB4a, 4d, 4f.


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9 In the graph below, what is the rank of the male seal whose genes will increase in frequency in the seal gene pool?

Male Dominance v. Mating Success

10

20

30

40

Perc

ent

of t

otal

mat

ings

21 109876543

Rank in male dominance heirarchy

A 1B 6C 7D 10

bk What is characteristic of agonistic behavior?

A It occurs between members of the same species.B It occurs between members of different species.C It usually results in the death of one individual.D It is an example of operant conditioning.

bl A honeybee’s waggle dance signals the location of food to other members of a hive. Which form of behavior is a waggle dance?

A communication behaviorB altruistic behaviorC territorial behaviorD learned behavior

bm Expelling or ejecting eggs from a nest by a newly hatched cuckoo is an example of which behavior?

A habituationB fixed action patternC operant conditioningD imprinting

bn Farmers use loud blasts from sound guns to scare crows away from corn crops, but the crows eventually stop reacting. What is the crows’ response?

A territorialityB habituationC cognitive behaviorD imprinting

bo Seagulls often drop clams from a great height onto rocks to crack open the shells. Why is this an example of cognitive behavior?

A The gulls are imprinting.B The gulls are being territorial.C The gulls are salivating.D The gulls are using rocks as tools.

bp During what type of communication might you see a male animal display bright colors or movements?

A nurturing B peckingC altruismD courtship




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1 Identify the layer of skin labeled A that contains hair follicles, sweat and oil glands, and muscles.

A

A epidermisB dermisC subcutaneous layerD nerve tissue layer

2 Which layer of the skin continually divides by mitosis to replace cells that are lost from the skin’s surface?

A fatty connective tissueB inner epidermal layerC the dermisD melanin-producing cells

3 Which type of tissue contracts causing hair and skin to stand up and form a “goose bump?”

A muscleB hair follicleC sweat glandD hair shaft

4 What characteristic of skin is important for bone formation?

A Sweat absorbs body heat when it evaporates and cools skin.

B Vitamin D is made when skin is exposed to ultraviolet light.

C Nerve endings in the dermis protect from scrapes and breaks.

D Intact skin prevents entry of manymicroorganisms and foreign substances.

5 What type of damage to skin is characterized by redness, mild discomfort, and the death of only epidermal cells?

A first degree burnsB deep scrapesC third degree burnsD uncontrollable division of cells


B

CD

A

6 What type of tissue is located at the area labeled A in the illustration above?

A compact boneB spongy boneC marrowD cartilage

7 Where is spongy bone located in the diagram above?

A AB BC CD D

8 What produces red and white blood cells and platelets?

A osteoblastsB osteoclastsC red bone marrowD yellow bone marrow

9 An elbow is an example of what type of joint?

A ball-and-socketB pivotC hingeD gliding



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 3b, 4f.


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bk What happens when you twist your arm and damage the ligaments at your elbow?

A bursitisB osteoarthritisC sprainsD rheumatoid arthritis

bl Which type of muscle is under conscious control?

A smooth muscleB skeletal muscleC cardiac muscleD involuntary muscles

bm What does the illustration below describe about muscles?

A Muscles always push but never pull.B One muscle in a pair relaxes as the other

contracts.C Sarcomeres lengthen as muscles contract.D Paired muscles contract at the same time.

bn In contrast to muscles in a long-distance runner, muscles in a weight lifter have .

A more myoglobinB more mitochondriaC fewer mitochondriaD fewer fast-twitch muscles

bo During strenuous activity, lack of which substance limits ATP available for muscle contraction?

A lactic acidB calciumC oxygenD melanin

bp The part of the muscle that contracts is the .

A sarcomereB muscle fiberC myosinD actin




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1 In the illustration below, what is the structure labeled B?

A

B

C

D

A dendriteB axonC nucleusD cell body

2 Which structure in the illustration above receives impulses?

A AB BC CD D

3 Predict what will happen as an impulse travels along the axon in the diagram below.

[Na1 ] [K1 ]

[Na1 ] [K1 ]

1 1 111 111

2 2 222 222

2 2 222 222

1 1 111 111

Resting potential

Insidecell

Outsidecell

A More potassium will be pumped into the cell.B More sodium will be pumped into the cell.C Potassium will be pumped out of the cell.D Sodium will be pumped out of the cell.

4 In which do impulses move fastest?

A neurons that carry dull painB myelinated neuronsC nonmyelinated neuronsD all neurons.

5 How do impulses move at a synapse?

A by an electrical chargeB by a chemical neurotransmitterC by touching the next neuronD by osmosis

6 Which would play a major role in making plans for choosing a career?

A Central Nervous System, because it analyzes and stores information.

B Central Nervous System, because it control reflexes.

C Peripheral Nervous System, because it relays information to skeletal muscles.

D Peripheral Nervous System, because it responds involuntarily.

7 Which structure would be most active if you were in a hot, dry desert without water?

A medulla oblongataB ponsC cerebrumD hypothalamus

8 What is true about reflexes?

A They travel to the brain on sensory neurons.B They travel to the brain on motor neurons.C They are controlled voluntarily.D They are processed in the spinal cord and

not in the brain.

9 Fluid found in which structure of the inner ear stimulates hair cells in response to sound?

A semicircular canalsB cochleaC oval windowD ear canal

bk Ears are adapted to respond to which form of energy?

A vibrationsB lightC chemicalD heat



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 3b, 4b, 4f.


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bl Which structure in the illustration below inverts an image and focuses it on the retina?

A AB BC CD D

bm What structure can change the diameter of the pupil in response to light energy?

A irisB lensC rods and conesD cornea

bn What transmits impulses from pain, heat, and touch receptors in the skin and other body organs?

A interneuronsB motor neuronsC sensory neuronsD free nerve endings

bo How does drug use affect dopamine?

A It is not reabsorbed at the synapse.B It is reabsorbed at the synapse.C It is not released at the synapse by the sending

neuron.D It does not bind to receptor sites on the

receiving neuron.

bp What is characteristic of drug tolerance?

A psychological or physiological dependence on a drug

B craving for a drugC need for more of a drug to attain a desired

effectD withdrawal effects




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1 Which is true of the human circulatory system?

A It transports oxygen and nutrients.B It makes blood cells.C It breaks down food and releases nutrients.D It is the first line of defense against pathogens.


3

4

1

2

2 Which is the path that blood follows through the heart as it returns from the head and body?

A 1→2B 2→1C 3→4D 4→3

3 Which chamber does blood flow into once it has picked up a fresh supply of oxygen?

A 1B 2C 3D 4

4 Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?

A arteriesB veinsC capillariesD lymphatics

5 Red blood cells transport oxygen attached to which components?

A nucleiB plasma membranesC hemoglobinD nitrogen

6 A person has the blood type represented in the illustration below. What blood type can this person safely receive?

A

A

A

A

A

A

A A onlyB A or OC O onlyD AB

7 Which blood component can recognize and kill disease-causing organisms?

A red blood cellsB white blood cellsC plateletsD fibrin


A

B

8 Identify the structure labeled A in the above diagram.

A bronchiB bronchioleC alveolusD pharynx

9 What happens in the netlike structure labeled B in the above diagram?

A Carbon dioxide and oxygen diffuse into the blood.

B Nitrogen and oxygen are exchanged.C Carbon dioxide and oxygen are exchanged.D Nitrogen and carbon dioxide remain constant.



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a, 1d, 3b, 4b, 4f.


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bk At which point in the respiratory system cycle does cellular respiration take place?

A during breathingB during external respirationC during internal respirationD when air moves into the bronchioles

bl Which causes an increase in the breathing rate?

A high concentration of oxygen in the bloodB high concentration of blood in the lung

capillariesC high concentration of carbon dioxide in the

bloodD low concentration of carbon dioxide in the

blood

bm Which is taking place in this diagram?

Diaphragm

Ribs

A Inhalation; the diaphragm is contracting.B Exhalation; the diaphragm is relaxing.C Inhalation; the chest cavity is reduced.D Exhalation; the rib cage is expanding.

bn Once blood is brought to the kidneys, through which structure is it filtered?

A loop of HenleB collecting tubuleC renal veinD Bowman’s capsule

bo Into which structure are most of the water and nutrients reabsorbed after urine has been formed?

A convoluted tubuleB Bowman’s capsuleC glomerulusD collecting tubule

bp Which makes up the body’s excretory system?

A lungsB skinC kidneysD All are part of the excretory system.




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A

C

D

B

1 In which part of the digestive system shown above does mechanical and chemical digestion start?

A AB BC CD D

2 Where does absorption take place?

A AB BC CD D

3 What does amylase break down?

A lipidsB starchesC proteinsD vitamins

4 Where is chemical digestion completed?

A liverB pancreasC small intestineD large intestine

5 What is the function of the structures shown below?

A to moisten foodB to absorb water from chymeC to absorb digested nutrientsD to produce Vitamin K

6 The alkaline fluid made by the pancreas counteracts .

A water in chymeB acidic solutions from gastric glands in the

stomachC pepsin from the stomachD bile from the liver

7 During digestion, proteins are broken down to .

A starchesB fatty acids and glycerolC simple sugarsD amino acids

8 What organic compounds are needed in small quantities for growth and metabolism?

A proteinsB vitaminsC mineralsD fats



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a-c, 3b, 4f.


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9 What is the function of simple sugars in the body?

A They are the building blocks of proteins.B They are made of the same materials as fats.C They are a source of fiber.D They provide energy for cells.

bk In the diagram shown below, where does peristalsis occur?

A

B

C

D

E

F

A A and DB C and FC C and ED E and F

bl Which body system transports hormones from endocrine glands to their target tissues?

A circulatory systemB digestive systemC excretory systemD nervous system

bm Which description explains what is occurring in the diagram between blood glucose levels and pancreatic activity?

Higher blood sugar

Lower blood sugar

Pancreas secretesless insulin

Pancreas secretesmore insulin

A It is a feedback mechanism that maintains homeostasis.

B It is an immune system responding to prevent disease.

C It describes the digestion of sugar.D It is the hormonal regulation of egg production.

bn Which structures enable most cells to communicate with each other?

A fibrinB white blood cellsC nervesD receptor molecules

bo What is characteristic of steroid hormones such as estrogen?

A They bind to starches.B They cause target cells to start protein synthesis.C They bind to a receptor in the plasma

membrane to get into cells.D They are target cells.

bp Which is a result of secretion of adrenaline?

A increased cell activityB onset of lethargyC decreased heart rateD decreased blood glucose




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1 In which part of the sperm cell are mitochondria found?

º

Acrosome Nucleus

Head(5 µm)

Midpiece(6 µm)

Tail (55 µm)

Fibroussheath offlagellum

A headB midpieceC tailD acrosome

2 Through which do sperm travel after leaving the testes?

A vas deferensB urethraC epididymisD seminal vesicles

3 Which pH value would you expect semen to have?

A 2B 5C 7D 9

4 Which hormone stimulates the production and secretion of testosterone in the testes?

A FSHB EstrogenC LHD GnRH

5 Which describes ovulation?

A A follicle ruptures and releases an egg.B An egg turns in the ovary.C The endometrium breaks down.D A sperm joins with an egg.

6 After ovulation, what does a follicle become?

A the embryoB the corpus luteumC the zygoteD the placenta

7 What organelle in a sperm acrosome weakens the plasma membrane of an egg cell?

A mitochondriaB Golgi apparatusC lysosomesD ribosomes

8 Where does fertilization take place in the below diagram?

ZygoteAMorula

Blastocyst

D

B

C

A AB BC CD D

9 Where will the blastocyst implant itself and develop?

A in the ovaryB in the oviductC in the uterusD in the vagina

bk Which sequence describes human development during the first week after fertilization?

A egg→morula→blastocyst→zygoteB egg→zygote→morula→blastocystC morula→blastocyst→egg→zygoteD morula→egg→zygote→blastocyst



Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SB1a-c, 2e, 3b, 4d, 4f.


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bl Which extraembryonic membrane develops into the fetal portion of the placenta?

A AB BC CD D

bm Identify the structure labeled C?

A amnionB yolk sacC allantoisD umbilical cord

bn Prior to puberty, the development of eggs is stopped at which phase of meiosis?

A first meiotic divisionB second meiotic divisionC when polar bodies formD when a zygote forms

bo Which stimulates involuntary uterine muscles to contract?

A human growth hormoneB oxytocinC thyroxineD estrogen

bp Heavy cigarette smoking and use of alcohol throughout pregnancy usually increases the likelihood of .

A multiple birthsB birth of a male childC a baby with a viral infectionD a baby being born with medical problems




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1 Rules for demonstrating that a specific organism is responsible for causing a specific disease were devised by which person?

A Louis PasteurB Robert KochC Edward JennerD Robert Gallo

2 Conjunctivitis is an eye condition that is always found in the human population. How would you describe the prevalence of this disease?

A epidemicB pandemicC endemicD global

3 Which is a function of lymph nodes throughout the body?

A They are substances foreign to the body that produce an immune response.

B They filter lymph and remove foreign materials from lymph.

C They stay inside capillaries to bathe body tissues.D They store blood and destroy damaged blood

cells.

4 Which are prescription drugs that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms?

A antibodiesB antibiotics C lymphocytesD activated B cells


5 Identify the cell labeled A.

A neutrophilB macrophageC lymphocyteD lysozyme

6 What is the function of the cell labeled B?

A It causes virally infected cells to produce interferon.

B It produces antibodies and memory cells.C It engulfs foreign microorganisms.D It releases cytokines.

7 What conclusion can be reached based on the graph below about treatment of a disease with antibiotics?

1%

2%

3%

4%

5%

6%

7%

8%

9%

10%

Peni

cilli

n-re

sist

ant G

onor

rhea

0%

1980

1981

Year

1983

1982

1984

1985

1986

1987

1988

1989

1990

Resistance of Gonorrhea to Penicillin

A The success rate increased.B The number of antibiotics increased.C The number of cases of the disease increased.D The failure of penicillin to treat the disease

increased.


Georgia Performance Standards covered in this assessment: SCSh7c; SB1a, 4a, 4c-d, 4f.


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8 Which describes how cytotoxic T cells act in the body?

A bind to pathogens, release a chemical, and lyses pathogens

B bind to pathogens and produce more pathogensC bind to pathogens and produce antibodiesD bind to pathogens, release a chemical that

lyses antibodies

9 After the first exposure to an antigen, what carries the record of the exposure in the body?

A activated B cellsB a mass of antibodiesC memory B cellsD nonactivated B cells

bk Using the graph below, predict what probably happened to the memory B cell count after the second exposure?

Seru

m A

ntib

ody

leve

l

Weeks

20 4 6

ActivatedB cells

ActivatedB cells

MemoryB cells

NaiveB cells

8 10 12

FirstExposure to

Antigen X

SecondExposure to

Antigen X

Primaryanti-X

response

Secondryanti-X

response

Anti-bodies

A It increased.B It decreased.C It remained the same as after the first exposure.D No memory B cells were made.

bl As an infant and again at about age 14, you were deliberately exposed to weakened DPT toxins and organisms. However, you have shown no signs of these diseases. What happened when you were an infant and again at age 14?

A You were immunized against DPT.B You were given a booster shot.C You got a shot of interferon.D You developed one of these diseases.

bm How does HIV destroy immune response in the body?

A It reproduces in B cells that produce antibodies.B It reproduces in and destroys T helper cells,

eventually reducing the number of B cells.C It reproduces in and destroys T helper cells,

eventually increasing the number of B cells.D It encourages cells to make interferon.

bn The city health inspector closes a local restaurant when several people become ill from E. coli-contaminated food. What is the restaurant an example of ?

A a pathogenB a boosterC a reservoirD an epidemic source

bo Which occurs when an immune system forms antibodies to its own proteins?

A acquired immunityB allergiesC autoimmune diseaseD anaphylactic shock

bp When people who are allergic to pollen come in contact with it, what causes their eyes to water and itch?

A antigens from red blood cellsB enzymes from plateletsC histamines from body cellsD hormones from the pituitary gland




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