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1. राज्य विधान मण ्डल के मामले में राष्ट्रपति कर सकिे है? A) केिल स ्थगन िीटो शक्ति का प्रयोग B) धन विधेयक को छोड़कर अपने विचार के ललए आरक्षिि ककसी भी विधेयक के अपिाद को रोकना C) अपने विचार के ललए आरक्षिि, ककसी भी विधेयक को अपनी सहमति न देना D) इनमें से कोई नह ीं

2. भारिीय सींविधान में सींशोधन की प्रकिया ककसके प्रतिमान (नमूना) पर बनाई गई है? A) अमेररका B) दक्षिण अफ्रीका C) कनाडा D) आयरलैंड

3. तनम्नललखिि में से कौन से अधधतनयम में सरकार के सींघीय स ्िरुप की पररकल्पना की गई है? A) भारि सरकार .अधधतनयम 1909 B) भारि सरकार .अधधतनयम 1935 C) भारि सरकार .अधधतनयम, 1919 D) इनमें से कोई नह ीं

4. हमारे सींविधान में नीति तनदेशक लसदधाींिों की सींख्या ककिनी हैं? A) 10 B) 15 C) 14 D) 7

5. सींघ सूची के ककिने विषयों पर सींसद के पास कानून बनाने का एकमात्र अधधकार है? A) 99 विषयों B) 97 विषयों C) 98 विषयों D) 105 विषयों

6. भारि में एकल नागररकिा की अिधारणा को कह ीं से अपनाया गया है? A) इींग्लैंड B) फ्राींस C) कनाडा D) अमेररका

7. भारिीय विलशष्ट्ट पहचान प्राधधकरण ककस विभाग के अींिगगि आिा है? A) योजना आयोग (Planning Commission) B) गहृ मींत्रालय (MHA) C) रिा मींत्रालय (M/O Defence) D) DeitY

8. भारिीय राष ्र य इींटरनेट एतसचेंज ककस विभाग के अींिगगि आिा है? A) इलेतर तनकी एिीं सूचना प्रौदयोधगकी विभाग B) विज्ञान और प्रौदयोधगकी विभाग C) आधथगक कायग विभाग D) डाक एिीं िार विभाग

9. राज्य में राष्ट्रपति शासन को मींजूर देने का अधधकार ककसके पास है? A) सींसद B) लोकसभा C) राज्य विधानमींडल D) राज ्य पररषद

10. मुख्य चुनाि आयुति की तनयक्ु ति कौन करिा है? A) राष्ट्रपति B) प्रधानमींत्री C) सींसद D) उपयुगति में से कोई नह ीं


1. In the matter of state legislation, the President may A) exercise only suspensive veto power B) withhold exception to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills C) withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration D) none of these 2. The amendment procedure of Indian constitution is modelled on that of A) USA B) South Africa C) Canada D) Ireland 3. Which of the following Acts envisaged the Federal form of government? A) Govt. of India Act 1909 B) Govt. of India Act 1935 C) Govt. of India Act, 1919 D) None of these 4. The number of Directive principles in our constitution are: A) 10 B) 15 C) 14 D) 7 5. How many subjects the Parliament has the exclusive authority to make laws of the Union List A) 99 Subjects; B) 97 Subjects; C) 98 Subjects; D) 105 Subjects; 6. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from A) England B) France C) Canada D) USA 7. The Unique Identification Authority of India comes under which department? A) Planning Commission B) M/o Home Affairs C) Ministry of Defence D) DeitY 8. The National Internet Exchange of India comes under which department? A) Department of Electronics & Information Technology B) Department of Science & Technology C) Department of Economic Affairs D) Department of Posts & Telegraphs 9. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state? A) Parliament B) Lok Sabha C) State Legislature D) Council of State 10. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner? A) President B) Prime Minister C) Parliament D) None of the above


11. भारि के सुरिा मामले या भारि के ककसी िेत्र के अतििमण की क्थथति में तनम्न में से ककसकी सींिकु्ष्ट्ट होने पर, आपािकाल क्थथति को लागू ककया जा सकिा है?

A) प्रधानमींत्री B) गहृ मींत्री C) भारि के राष्ट्रपति D) भारि के उपराष्ट्रपति

12. भारिीय सींविधान के िहि, राष्ट्रपति और राज्यपालों के सींरिण के पीछे की अिधारणा तया है? A) राष्ट्रपति और राज्यपाल काननू से ऊपर हैं B) राष्ट्रपति और राज्यपाल सींविधान के ललए कोई काननू बनािे हैं C) राष्ट्रपति और राज्यपाल की प्रधानमींत्री के प्रति जिाबदेह हैं D) राष्ट्रपति और राज्यपाल अपने कायागलय की शक्तियों और किगव्यों के इथिेमाल और तनष ्पादन करने के ललए ककसी भी

अदालि के प्रति जिाबदेह नह ीं होंगे

13. भारि की राजनीतिक प्रणाल की प्रकृति तया है? A) राष्ट्रपति प्रणाल B) सींसद य प्रणाल C) A) और B) D) उपयुगक् ि में से कोई नह ीं

14. ककस विधेयक को राष्ट्रपति न िो िापस भेज सकिे है और न ह अपनी से सहमति रोक सकिे है? A) रिा विधेयक B( धन विधेयक C) काननू विधेयक D) वित्तीय िािा सलमति विधेयक

15. भारि में वित्तीय िषग कब शुरू होिा है? A) एक अप्रैल B) दो अप्रैल C) एक माचग D) पींद्रह माचग

16. लोकसभा को ककस विषय में सिोच ्चिा प्राप ्ि है? A) रेल बजट B( रिा बजट C) विदेशी मामले D) वित्तीय विधेयक

17. सींसद ककस सत्र में रेलिे और सामान्य बजट प्रथििु ककये जािे हैं? A) मानसून सत्र B( प्रथम सत्र C) शीिकाल न सत्र D( उपयुगक् ि में से कोई नह ीं

18. सींसद में सदन थथधगि करने का अधधकार ककस के पास है? A) राज्य सभा के सभापति और लोक सभा अध्यि B) राष्ट्रपति C) सींसद य कायग मींत्री D) प्रधानमींत्री

19. जब एक विधेयक, सींसद और राष्ट्रपति दिारा पाररि कर ददया है िो उस क्थिधथ में उसे तया कहा जािा है? A) काननू B( अनुमोददि विधेयक C) प्रशासन हेिु प्रयुक् ि विधेयक D( सरकार प्रकिया


11. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of

India or any part of the Indian Territory is threatened- A) Prime Minister B) Home Minister

C) President of India D) Vice-President of India 12. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and

Governors? A) President & Governors are above the law B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance

of the powers and duties of their office 13. What is the nature of India's political system? A) Presidential System B) Parliamentary System C) A) & B) D) None of the above 14. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent? A) Defence Bill B) Money Bill C) Law Bill D) Financial Account Committee Bill 15. In India, when does the financial year commence? A) First April B) Second April C) First March D) Fifteenth March 16. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter- A) Railway Budget B) Defence Budget C) Foreign affairs D) Financial Bill 17. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented- A) Monsoon session B) First session C) Winter session D) None of the above 18. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House? A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha B) President C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister D) Prime Minister 19. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name? A) Law B) Bill approved C) Bill exercised for administration D) Government procedure


20. चुनाि आयोग से अधधसूचना प्राप्ि होने के बाद कौन सींसद के दोनों सदनों के प्रत्येक सदथय को तनयतुि करिा है? A) राष्ट्रपति B( लोक सभा अध्यि C) राज्य सभा के सभापति D) प्रधानमींत्री

21. ककस प्रचललि सींिैधातनक विषय के िहि लोक सभा की अिधध को एक िषग के ललए बढाया जा सकिा है? A) आपाि काल की घोषणा B( राज्य में राष्ट्रपति शासन की घोषणा C) सींविधान में सींशोधन की घोषणा D( उपयुगक् ि में से कोई नह ीं

22. सींसद के दोनों सदनों के सींबींध में राष्ट्रपति ककन गतिविधधयों को सम्पन्न करिे है? A) समय-समय पर सींसद के प्रत्येक सदन को बुलाने के ललए B) सींसद के ककसी सदन के थथधगन पर C) लोकसभा भींग D) उपयुगक् ि सभी

23. सींसद में तनचले सदन को क् या कहा जािा है? A) विधान सभा B) विधान पररषद C) राज्य सभा D) लोक सभा

24. सींिैधातनक सभा को सींबोधधि करने िाले अींतिम ब्रिदटश गिनगर जनरल कौन थे? A) ल डग एटल B) ल डगमाउीं ट बटैन C) ल डग बेंदटींक D) उपयुगक् ि ् में से कोई नह ीं

25. भारि सरकार अधधतनयम 1935 में समििी सूची में ककन विषयों को शालमल ककया जािा है? A) आपराधधक कानून और प्रकिया, लसविल प्रकिया B) वििाह C) िलाक, पींचाट पींच फैसला D) उपयुगक् ि सभी

26. आजाद के बाद, ककसने भविष्ट्य के, भारि के सींविधान को, तनधागररि करने का तनणगय ललया? A) जिाहर लाल नेहरू B( सरदार बल्लभभाई पटेल C) सींविधान सभा D ( उपयुगक् ि कोई नह ीं

27. भारिीय राष्ट्र य काींगे्रस की थथापना कब हुई थी? A) 1888 B) 1885 C) 1889 D) 1890

28. समििी सूची में, ककिने विषयों को शालमल ककया गया है? A) 42 B) 43 C) 45 D) 47

29. कौन से दो सदनों की सींयुति बठैक हो सकिी है A) विधान सभा और सींसद B) लोक सभा और राज्य सभा C) राज्यपररषद और विधान पररषद D) उपयुगति में से कोई नह ीं


20. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is

received from the Election Commission? A) President B) Speaker of Lok Sabha C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha D) Prime Minister 21. Under which Constitutional subject in operation, life of Lok Sabha can be extended by one year- A) Proclamation of Emergency B) Proclamation of President Rule in the State C) Proclamation of Amendment to the Constitution D) None of the above 22. What activities does the President perform in respect of both the Houses of the Parliament? A) Time to time to summon each house of Parliament B) Prorogue either of the Houses of the Parliament C) Dissolve the Lok Sabha D) All the above 23. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as- A) Legislative Assembly B) Legislative Council C) Rajya Sabha D) Lok Sabha (House of People) 24. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly? A) Lord Attlee B) Lord Mount Batten C) Lord Bentinck D) None of the above 25. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list? A) Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Procedure B) Marriage C) Divorce, Arbitration D) All the above 26. After independence, who decided to determine the Future Constitution of India? A) JawaharLal Nehru B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel C) Constituent Assembly D) None of the above 27. When was the Indian National Congress established? A) 1888 B) 1885 C) 1889 D) 1890 28. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included? A) 42 B) 43 C) 45 D) 47 29. Which two houses can have a joint sitting? A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha C) Council of State and Legislative Council D) None of the above


30. राष्ट्रपति कब विधेयक को थिीकृति प्रदान करिे है? A) लोकसभा विधेयक पास करिी है B) राज्य सभा विधेयक पास करिी है C) लोकसभा और राज्यसभा दोनों विधेयक पास करिे हैं D) उपयुगक् ि में से कोई भी पास नह ीं

31. लोकसभा के भींग होने की क्थथति में, ककसे इथिीफा देने याउसे िुरींि िाररज करने की जरुरि नह ीं है? A) प्रधानमींत्री B) गहृ मींत्री C) कें द्र य मींब्रत्रयों की पररषद D) उपयुगक् ि कोई नह ीं

32. सींविधान सभा में कौन से दल सदथय थे A) काींगे्रस, मुक्थलम ल ग,मुसलमान सींघ B) अनुसूधचि जाति सींघ, कृषक पोजा, अनुसूधचि जाति फेडरेशन, लसि (गैर काींगे्रस) C) साम्यिाद , तनदगल य D) उपयुगति सभी

33. सींसद य प्रकिया के िहि थथगन प्रथिाि का तया अथग है? A) महत्िपूणग विषय के मामलों के सींबींध में सदस ्य ध्यान आकवषगि करिे हैं B) सदथय सदन से अपनी विषय िथिु पर चचाग करना चाहिा है C) सदथय जदटल मुददा उठाना चाहिा है D) सदथय गींभीर पररणाम होने िाले अति ित्काल के सािगजतनक महत्ि के हाल ह के मामलों का मागग सुझाने के ललए

सदन का ध्यान आकवषगि करना चाहिा है

34. सदन में थथगन को थिीकार करने की शक्ति ककसके पास है? A) प्रधानमींत्री B) गहृ मींत्री C) लोकसभा अध ्यि और राज ्य सभा के सभापति D) उपयुगक् ि सभी

35. ककसने कहा ‘राष्ट्रपति के रूप में, मेरे पास आँिें नह ीं हैं लेककन सींिैधातनक आँिें है। मैं आपको नह ीं देि सकिा’ - A) ड .राजेंद्र प्रसाद B) ड .राधाकृष्ट्णन C) अिाहम ललींकन D) महात्मा गाींधी

36. भारि में लोकसभा और राज्य विधानसभाओीं के चुनािों के ललए प्रयतुि प्रतितनधधत्ि की प्रणाल ककस प्रकार की है? A) आनुपातिक प्रतितनधधत्ि B) िेत्रीय प्रतितनधधत्ि C) कायागत्मक प्रतितनधधत्ि D) लभन ्न प्रतितनधधत्ि

37. सींशोधन के ककस अनुच ्छेद के िहि राज ्य में सींिैधातनक िींत्र की असफलिा के कारण राष ्रपति शासन लागू ककया जािा है

A) 350 B) 356 C) 360 D) 352

38. प्रशासतनक न्यायाधधकरण ककसके ललए बनी है? A) सींघ B) प्रत्येक राज्य C) दो या अधधक राज्यों D) उपयुगति सभी


30. When does the President assent the Bill? A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill D) None of the above 31. In the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha, who need not resign or get dismissed immediately? A) Prime Minister B) Home Minister C) Union Council of Ministers D) None of the above 32. In the Constituent Assembly, which parties were members? A) Congress, Muslim League, Unionist Muslim B) Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak Poja, Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh (Non Congress) C) Communists, Independents D) All the above 33. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure? A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter C) Member wants to raise complicated issue D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public

importance having serious consequences. 34. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House? A) Prime Minister B) Home Minister C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha D) All the above 35. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’ - A) Dr.Rajendra Prasad B) Dr.Radhakrishnan C) Abraham Lincoln D) Mahatma Gandhi 36. The system of representation used in India for elections of the Lok Sabha and the State

Assemblies is that of A) Proportional representation; B) territorial representation C) Functional representation; D) differential presentation 37. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a State due to the

failure of the constitutional machinery? A) 350 B) 356 C) 360 D) 352 38. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom? A) Union B) Each State C) Two or more States D) All the above


39. तनम्नललखिि में से कौन सी शक्तियों का प्रयोग राष्ट्रपति और राज्यपाल दोनों के दिारा ककया जा सकिा है? A) यदद कोटग माशगल दिारा सजा को िमा करने की शक्ति B) राज ्य सूची के मामले से सींबींधधि अपराध में सजा माफ करने की शक् ति C) कुछ पररस ्धथतियों में मौि की सजा माफ करने की शक्ति D) कोटग माशगल दिारा सजा माफ करने की शक्ति

40. यदद राष्ट्रपति विधानसभा के पुनविगचार के ललए एक विधेयक िापस कर देिे है िो? A) विधेयक दो तिहाई बहुमि से पाररि ककया जा सकिा है B) विधेयक साधारण बहुमि से पाररि ककया जा सकिा है C) इसे पाररि करने के ललए पनु: एक सींयुति बैठक बुलाई जा सकिी है D) उपयुगक् ि में से कोई नह ीं

41. मुख्य चुनाि आयुति के रूप में ट .एन .शेषन, की अिधध के दौरान, चुनाि आयोग में अन्य आयुति कौन थे A) एम.एस .धगल B) जी.िी .कृष्ट्णमूति ग C) A) और B) D) उपयुगति में से कोई नह ीं

42. दहन्द में सींविधान के प्राधधकृि सींथकरण के ललए कौन सा सींशोधन ककया जािा है? A) 56 ि ीं B) 58 ि ीं C) 61 ि ीं D) 60 ि ीं

43- Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk ------------------ dks cnydj uhfr vk;ksx dh LFkkiuk dh xbZ gS%

A) fof/k vk;ksx B½ ekuo vf/kdkj vk;ksx

C½ foÙk vk;ksx D½ ;kstuk vk;ksx

44- jsyos deZpkfj;ksa ¼dk;Z vkSj vkjke dh vof/k ds ?kaVs½ fu;e] 2005 ds rgr vihy izkf/kdj.k ds fy, lacaf/kr dk;Z

-----------ea=ky; }kjk ns[kk tkrk gS%

A) Je vkSj jkstxkj B½ dkfeZd] yksd f’kdk;r vkSj isa’ku

C½ jsyos D½ fof/k vkSj U;k;

45- fuEufyf[kr foHkkxksa esa ls dkSu lk foHkkx ‘kgjh fodkl ea=ky; ds v/khu gS\

A) dsanzh; yksd fuekZ.k foHkkx B½ izdk’ku foHkkx

C½ u rks A) u gh B½ D½ A) vkSj B½ nksuksa

46- j{kk ea=ky; ds v/khu fdrus foHkkx gSa%

A) 5 B½ 4

C½ 3 D½ 2

47- fuEufyf[kr foHkkxksa esa ls dkSu ls foHkkx LokLF; vkSj ifjokj dY;k.k ea=ky; ds v/khu gS\

1) LokLF; vkSj ifjokj dY;k.k foHkkx 2½ vk;q”k foHkkx

3½ ,M~l fu;a=.k foHkkx 4½ LokLF; vuqla/kku foHkkx

A) 1)] 2)] 3)] 4) B½ 1)] 4)

C½ 1)] 2)] 3) D½ 1)] 3)] 4)


39. Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and the Governor? A) Power to pardon a sentence by court martial B) Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State List C) Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances D) Power to remit a sentence by court martial 40. If the President returns a bill to the legislature for reconsideration, A) the bill can be passed by two thirds majority B) the bill can be passed with ordinary majority C) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again D) none of the above 41. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner

in the Election Commission? A) M. S. Gill B) G. V. Krishnamurthy C) A) & B) D) None of the above 42. Which amendment is provided for an authoritative version of the constitution in Hindi? A) 56th B) 58th C) 61st D) 60th

43. The Government of India has established the NITI Aayog to replace the: A) Law Commission B) Human Right Commission C) Finance Commission D) Planning Commission 44. The work relating to Appellate Authority under the Railway Servants (hours of work and Period

of Rest) Rules, 2005 is looked after by the Ministry of: A) Labour and Employment B) Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions C) Railways D) Law and Justice 45. Which of the following is/are the Departments under the Ministry of Urban Development? A) Central Public Works Department B) Department of Publication C) Neither A) Nor B) D) both A) & B) 46. How many departments are there under the Ministry of Defence? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 47. Which of the following is/are the Departments under the Ministry Health and Family Welfare? 1) D/o Health & Family Welfare 2) Department of Ayush 3) D/o Aids Control 4) Department of Health Research

A) 1), 2), 3), 4) B) 1), 4) C) 1), 2), 3) D) 1), 3), 4)


48- fuEufyf[kr fooj.kksa ij fopkj djsa %

1½ laln l= dks nks Hkkxksa esa vk;ksftr fd;k tk ldrk gS

2½ laln ds ctV l= dks ges’kk nks Hkkxksa esa vk;ksftr fd;k tk,xk

mijksDr esa ls dkSu lk/ls fooj.k lgh gS\

A½ 1½ vkSj 2½ nksuksa B½ u rks 1½ u gh 2½

C½ dsoy 1½ D½ dsoy 2½

49- laln esa ,d v/;kns’k dks cnyus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls fo/ks;d dks dkSu ykrk gS\

A½ iz/kku ea=h B½ v/;kns’k ds fo”k; ekeys ds izHkkjh ea=h

C½ dsanzh; fof/k ea=h D½ yksdlHkk ds v/;{k ;k lHkkifr] jkT; lHkk

50- jkT; lHkk esa ,d fnu esa tek fd, x, iz’uksa ¼175½ dh vf/kdre la[;k ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu

lh la[;k lgh gS\

A½ rkjkafdr iz’u 20 vkSj vrkjkafdr iz’u 155

B½ rkjkafdr iz’u 15 vkSj vrkjkafdr iz’u 160

C½ rkjkafdr iz’u 20] vYi lwpuk iz’u 1 vkSj vrkjkafdr iz’u 154

D½ rkjkafdr iz’u 15] vYi lwpuk iz’u 1 vkSj vrkjkafdr iz’u 155 vkSj iwjd iz’u 4

51- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh ,d eaf=eaMy dh LFkk;h lfefr gS\

A½ ewY;ksa ij eaf=eaMy lfefr B½ fofuos’k ij eaf=eaMy lfefr

C½ MCY;wVhvks dk;Z ij eaf=eaMy lfefr D½ jktuhfr dk;Z ij eaf=eaMy lfefr

52- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh laln ds ,d foHkkx ls lacaf/kr LFkk;h lfefr ugha gS\

A½ ÅtkZ lfefr B½ m|ksx lfefr

C½ okf.kT; lfefr D½ dkS’ky fodkl lfefr

53- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh ,d yksdlHkk@jkT; lHkk dh LFkk;h lfefr ugha gS\

A½ lkoZtfud ys[kk lfefr B½ vuqeku lfefr

C½ v- fi- oxZ dY;k.k lfefr D½ jsyos la?k lfefr 54- vYi lwpuk iz’uksa dh vf/kdre la[;k tks yksdlHkk esa ,d fnu ij tek dh tkrh gS\

A½ 1 B½ 2

C½ 3 D½ 4

55- jk”Vªifr }kjk lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn ------------------ esa iznÙk vf/kdkjksa ds mi;ksx ls 14oha foÙk lfefr xfBr dh xbZ

gSA

A½ 360 B½ 280

C½ 260 D½ 240

56- yksdlHkk esa eaf=;ksa dh ifj”kn esa fo’okl izLrko buds }kjk ikfjr fd;k tkrk gS%

A½ foi{k ds usrk] yksdlHkk B½ iz/kku ea=h

C½ futh lnL; D½ foi{kh ny ds fdlh Hkh lnL; }kjk


48. Consider the following statements:

1) A session of Parliament can be held in two parts, 2) Budget Session of Parliament shall always be held in two parts, Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Both 1) & 2) B) Neither 1) nor 2) C) 1) only D) 2) only 49. Who one of the following moves a bill to replace an ordinance in Parliament? A) Prime Minister B) Minister-in-Charge of subject matter of the ordinance C) Union Law Minister D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairman, Rajya Sabha 50. Which one of the following is correct with regard to maximum number of questions (175)

admitted on a single day in Rajya Sabha? A) Starred Question 20 and Unstarred Question 155, B) Starred Question 15 and Unstarred Question 160, C) Starred Question 20, Short Notice Question 1, and Unstarred Question 154, D) Starred Question 15, Short Notice Question 1, Unstarred Question 155 and supplementary

question 4. 51. Which one of the following is a Standing Committee of Cabinet? A) Cabinet Committee (CC) on Prices B) Cabinet Committee on Disinvestment C) Cabinet Committee on WTO Affairs D) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs 52. Which one of the following is not a Departmentally Related Standing Committee of Parliament? A) Committee on Energy B) Committee on Industry C) Committee on Commerce D) Committee on Skill Development 53. Which one of the following is a not a Standing Committee of Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha? A) Public Accounts committee B) Estimates Committee C) Committee on Welfare of OBCs D) Railways Convention Committee 54. The maximum number of short notice questions that can be admitted on a day in Lok Sabha is? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 55. 14th Finance Commission has been constituted by the President in exercise of the Powers

conferred by Article ______ of Constitution. A) 360 B) 280 C) 260 D) 240 56. The motion for confidence on the council of Ministers in the Lok Sabha is moved by: A) Leader of Opposition, Lok Sabha B) Prime Minister C) A Private Member D) Any Member from the Opposition Party


57- lafo/kku dh izLrkouk esa -------------------- eku dks O;Dr fd;k tkrk gS tks bls c


57. The Preamble of the constitution expresses the ______ value(s) which it is intended to promote. A) Political B) Moral C) Religious D) All A), B), C) 58. The words “SOCIALIST” AND “SECULAR” were added to the preamble by the Constitution

(_________ Amendment) Act. A) 1st B) 21st C) 42nd D) 44th

59. The Apex Court on numerous occasions held that the Preamble may be invoked to determine

the ambit of: A) Fundamental duties B) Directive Principles of State Policy C) Both A) & B) D) Neither A) nor B) 60. The word “SOVEREIGNTY” in the Preamble means that: A) The State has no religion; B) There is no subordination to any external authority C) The state has power to legislate on any subject in conformity with constitutional provisions; D) All of the above 61. The original Constitution of India contained _______ Articles _______ Schedules. A) 400 & 10 B) 400 & 8 C) 395 & 8 D) 395 & 10 62. The concept of Fundamental Duties and Emergency Provisions were borrowed from _______

and _________ respectively: A) USSR & Germany B) Germany and USSR C) USSR & France D) France and USSR 63. The Territory of India shall comprise: A) the territories of the States B) the UTs specified in the 1st Schedule C) such other territories as may be acquired D) All the above 64. Which of the following is not a federal feature of the Constitution? A) Bill of Rights B) Emergency Provision C) Supreme Court D) Division of Powers 65. Which of the following is not a Unitary feature of the Constitution? A) Flexible in Amending the Consitution B) Two house of Parliament C) Residuary Powers D) Single Citizenship 66. “Right to Education” inserted by the Constitution (85th Amendment Act, 2002) relates to: A) Right to Freedom B) Right to Equality C) Right to Property D) Right to Freedom & Religion


67- vuqPNsn 21&d lacaf/kr gS%

A½ dk;Z dk vf/kdkj B½ vkJ; dk vf/kdkj

C½ f’k{kk dk vf/kdkj D½ jkstxkj dk vf/kdkj

68- lafo/kku dh vfHkO;fDr ds izkjaHk esa ^^izR;sd O;fDr** vu qPNsn 5 & ukxfjdrk esa ‘kkfey gS%

A½ dSnh B½ l’kL= cy ds lnL;

C½ u rks A½ u gh B½ D½ A½ vkSj B½ nksuksa

69- vuqPNsn 51 d ¼Hkkx 4 A½ esa ‘kkfey ekSfyd drZO;ksa dh ------------ la[;k%

A½ 9 B½ 10

C½ 11 D½ 12

70- fuEufyf[kr dk feyku djsa%

vuqPNsn ekSfyd vf/kdkj

A. 14 1- ‘kh”kZd dk mUewyu

B. 17 2- vLi`’;rk dk mUewyu

C. 18 3- f’k{kk dk vf/kdkj

D. 21&A 4- dkuwu ds le{k lekurk

A½ A&4] B&2] C&1] D&3 B½ A&4] B&2] C&3] D&1

C½ A&2] B&4] C&1] D&3 D½ A&3] B&4] C&2] D&1

71- vuqPNsn 22 ¼1½ vkSj ¼2½ esa ^^fxj¶rkjh** vkSj ^^fujks/k** ‘kCn ds :Ik esa ;s ‘kkfey gSa%

A½ flfoy fxj¶rkjh B½ vkijkf/kd fxj¶rkjh

C½ ,d fons’kh dk fuokZlu D½ mijksDr lHkh

72- tc ,d O;fDr dks ^^fuokjd fujks/k** ds v/khu fgjklr esa fy;k x;k gS rks mls ------------- ekg ls vf/kd le;

vof/k ds fy, fgjklr esa ugha fy;k tk,xkA

A½ 1 B½ 2

C½ 3 D½ 4

73- 14 lky ls de vk;q ds cPps ds fy, ;s dk;Z ugha gSa%

A½ vU; QSDVjh ;k [kku esa dk;Z ds fy, jkstxjjr

B½ fdlh vU; [krjukd jkstxkj esa rSukr

C½


67. Article 21-A relates to: A) Right to Work B) Right to Shelter C) Right to Education D) Right to Employment 68. In Article 5 – Citizenship at the commencement of the constitution the expression “every person” Includes: A) A prisoner B) A member of the Armed Forces C) Neither A) nor B) D) Both A) and B) 69. The ______ number of Fundamental duties incorporated in Article 51A (part IV A): A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12 70. Match the following: Articles Fundamental Rights

A. 14 1. Abolition of Titles B. 17 2. Abolition of Untouchability

C. 18 3. Right to Education D. 21-A 4. Equality before Law

A) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 B) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 C) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 D) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 71. The words “arrest” and “detention” in Article 22(1( & (2( cover: A) Civil arrest B) Criminal Arrest C) Deportation of an Alien D) All the above 72. When a person is detained under “preventive detention” he shall not be detained for a period

longer than _____ months. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 73. No child below the age of 14 years shall be: A) Employed to work in any factory or mine; B) Engaged in any other than hazardous employment C) Employed to work in Dhabas (Resturant) D) All the above 74. Which of the following does not have a religion of its own? A) A person B) State C) Citizen D) Religious denomination


75- lafo/kku lHkh O;fDr;ksa dh ---------------------- ds Hkqxrku ls j{kk djrk gS] ftldh izkfIr;ka /kkfeZd mís’; ds fy, gSa%

A½ ‘kqYd B½ nku

C½ dj D½ migkj

76- fo’ks”k Hkk”kk] fyfi ;k laLÑfr ds laj{k.k ds vf/kdkj ds fy, ------------- }kjk nkok fd;k tk ldrk gS%

A½ cgqer lewg B½ vYila[;d lewg

C½ A½ vkSj B½ nksuksa D½ u rks A½ u gh B½

77- canh izR;{khdj.k dh ;kfpdk vuqPNsn ------------ esa izfrikfnr ,Qvkjl ds izorZu ds fy, tkjh dh tk ldrh gSA

A½ vuqPNsn 21 B½ vuqPNsn 22

C½ vuqPNsn 23 D½ vuqPNsn 14

78- fdl ;kfpdk dk vFkZ vkns’k gS\

A½ dks okjaV B½ ijekns’k

C½ mRizs”k.k ys[k D½ fu”ks/k

79- ---------------- dh ;kfpdk tkjh dh tk ldrh gS tc dkjZokbZ dh tkrh gS\



80- lhohlh dh fu;qfä ds f[kykQ ---------------- ;kfpdk dks tkjh djus ds fy, mPp U;k;y; esa ,d tufgr ;kfpdk

nk;j dh xbZ Fkh



81- ----------------------- ;kfpdk dsoy U;kf;d ;k v/kZ&U;kf;d izkf/kdkfj;ksa ds fy, miyC/k gS\



82- ,d jk”Vªifr ds fy, egkfHk;ksx gks ldrk gS%

A½ lkfcr dj fn;k x;k xyr O;ogkj B½ v{kerk

C½ lafo/kku dk mYya?ku D½ lHkh

83- fuEufyf[kr esa ls jk”Vªifr ds fuokZpu ds fy, ik= gksus ds fy, dkSu lh iwoZorhZ fLFkfr ugha gS\

A½ os Hkkjr ds ukxfjd gSaA

B½ os igys ls mi jk”Vªifr ds dk;kZy; esa jg pqds gSaA

C½ os 35 o”kksZa dh vk;q iwjh dj pqds gSaA

D½ os yksd lHkk ds lnL; ds :Ik esa fuokZpu ds fy, ;ksX; gSaA

84- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk lalnh; fudk; ugha gS\

A½ jk”Vªh; vuq- tutkfr vk;ksx B½ fuokZpu vk;ksx

C½ ;wih,llh D½ lhohlh


75. The constitution protects all persons from payment of _____, the proceeds of which are for

Religious purposes: A) Fees B) Donations C) Taxes D) Gifts 76. The right to conserve the distinct language, script or culture can be claimed by: A) Majority Groups B) Minority Groups C) Both A) and B) D) Neither A) nor B) 77. A writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued for the enforcement of the FRs enunciated in Article

_________. A) Article 21 B) Article 22 C) Article 23 D) Article 14 78. Which Writ means a Command? A) Quo Warrant B) Mandamus C) Certiorari D) Prohibition 79. A writ of _______ can be issued when the proceedings are over? A) Quo Warrant B) Mandamus C) Certiorari D) Prohibition 80. A PIL was filed in the Supreme Court against the appointment of CVC for issue of a writ of

_____? A) Quo Warrant B) Mandamus C) Certiorari D) Prohibition 81. A writ of __________ is available only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities? A) Quo Warrant B) Mandamus C) Certiorari D) Prohibition 82. A President can be impeached for: A) Proved Misbehaviour B) Incapacity C) Violation of the Constitution D) All 83. Which of the following is not a condition precedent for a person to be eligible for election as

President? A) He is a citizen of India B) He has earlier held the office of the Vice President. C) He has completed the age of 35 years. D) He has qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha. 84. Which of the following is not a constitutional Body? A) National Commission for STs B) Election Commission C) UPSC D) CVC


85- Hkkjr dk igyk fof/k vf/kdkjh dkSu gS\

A½ fof/k lfpo] Hkkjr la?k B½ Hkkjr ds lkWfyflVj tujy

C½ Hkkjr ds ,VkWuhZ tjuy D½ dksbZ ugha

86- dkSu yksd lHkk dks lEeu vkSj Hkax djrk gS\

A½ jk”Vªifr B½ iz/kku ea=h

C½ v/;{k D½ dksbZ ugha

87- laln dh nks cSBdksa ds chp vf/kdre vof/k D;k gS\

A½ 4 ekg B½ 5 ekg

C½ 3 ekg D½ 6 ekg

88- laln esa ‘kkfey gSa%

A½ yksd lHkk B½ jkT; lHkk

C½ jk”Vªifr D½ mijksDr lHkh

89- jkT; lHkk 250 lnL;ksa ls feydj cuh gS ftlesa ------------- jk”Vªifr }kjk ukfer gSaA

A½ 10 B½ 12

C½ 13 D½ 15

90- jk”Vªifr dks fdl vuqPNsn ls Hkkjrh; ,aXyks leqnk; ds nks lnL; yksdlHkk esa euksuhr djus dk vf/kdkj gS\

A½ 80 B½ 331

C½ 330 D½ 81

91- iz/kku ea=h blds lnL; gksaxs%

A½ jkT; lHkk B½ yksd lHkk

C½ ;k rks jkT; lHkk ;k yksd lHkk D½ dksbZ ugha

92- laln ds fdlh Hkh lnu dh cSBd xfBr djus ds fy, lnu ds lnL;ksa dh dqy la[;k dk dksje ---------------- gSA

A½ ,d pkSFkkbZ B½ NBoka Hkkx

C½ nloka Hkkx D½ vkBoka Hkkx

93- ;fn lnu dh cSBd ds nkSjku dksbZ dksje ugha gS] rks dkjZokbZ ds nkSjku ;g gks ldrk gS%

A½ lnu dks LFkfxr djuk

B½ tc rc ogka dksje ugha gS cSBd LFkfxr djuk

C½ cSBd esa Hkkx ysus ds fy, lnL;ksa dks ,l,e,l

D½ ;k rks A½ ;k B½


85. Who is the first Law Officer of India? A) Law Secretary, Union of India B) Solicitor General of India C) Attorney General of India D) None 86. Who summons and dissolves the Lok Sabha? A) President B) Prime Minister C) Speaker D) None 87. What is the maximum duration between the two sittings of Parliament? A) 4 months B) 5 months C) 3 months D) 6 months 88. Parliament consists of: A) Lok Sabha B) Rajya Sabha C) President D) All the above 89. The Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members of which _____ are nominated by the President. A) 10 B) 12 C) 13 D) 15 90. Which article empowers the President to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the

Indian Anglo Community? A) 80 B) 331 C) 330 D) 81 91. The Prime Minister shall be a member of: A) Rajya Sabha B) Lok Sabha C) Either Rajya Saba or Lok Sabha D) none 92. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is _____ of the total number

of members of the House. A) One fourth B) One-sixth C) One-tenth D) One-eighth 93. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, the course of action would be: A) To adjourn the house B) To suspend the meeting until there is a quorum C) SMS the members to attend the meeting D) Either A) or B)


94- lafo/kku dh 7oha vuqlwph esa oS/kkfud ‘kfDr dk forj.k fn;k x;k gSA

fuEufyf[kr dks feyk,a%

lwph fo”k;

a- lwph 1 ;k la?k lwph 1- 47

b- lwph 2 ;k jkT; lwph 2- 66

c- lwph 3 ;k leorhZ lwph 3- 97

A½ a1] b2] c3 B½ a3] b1] c2

C½ a1] b3] c2 D½ a3] b2] c1

95- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk leorhZ lwph esa ugha gS\

A½ xSl vkSj xSl dk;Z B½ dkjZokbZ ;ksX; xyfr;ka

C½ f’k{kk D½ fctyh

96- ^^ ewY; fu;a=.k** dkSu lh lwph esa gS\

A½ la?k lwph B½ jkT; lwph

C½ leorhZ lwph D½ dksbZ ugha

97- ns’k esa fdrus mPp U;k;ky; ;gka gSa\ ftuesa ls dqN ds {ks=kf/kdkj ,d ls vf/kd jkT;ksa esa gSaA

A½ 18 B½ 24

C½ 28 D½ 20

98- fuEufyf[kr vkikr fLFkfr;ksa esa ls dkSu lk vc rd iz[;kfir ugha fd;k x;k gS\

A½ iz[;kfir vkikr fLFkfr ¼vuq- 352½ B½ jk”Vªifr ‘kklu ¼vuq- 356½

C½ foÙkh; vkikr fLFkfr ¼vuq- 360½ D½ lHkh vkikr fLFkfr;ka, de ls de ,d ckj iz[;kfir gaSA

99- lafo/kku dk vuqPNsn ------------------ tEew vkSj d’ehj ds laca/k esa vLFkk;h izko/kku iznku djrk gSA

A½ 369 B½ 371

C½ 370 D½ 372

100- dkSu lk jkT; 3 o”kksZa ls vf/kd dh lcls yach vof/k ds fy, jk”Vªifr ‘kklu ds v/khu Fkk\

A½ iatkc B½ tEew vkSj d’ehj

C½ ef.kiqj D½ dsjy


94. Distribution of Legislative Power is given in the 7th schedule of the Constitution. Match the following:

List Subjects a. List-I or Union List 1. 47 b. List-II or State List 2. 66 c. List-III or Concurrent List 3. 97

A) a1, b2, c3 B) a3, b1, c2 C) a1, b3, c2 D) a3, b2, c1 95. Which of the following is not in a Concurrent List? A) Gas and Gas Works B) Actionable Wrongs C) Education D) Electricity 96. “Price Control” is in which List? A) Union List B) State List C) Concurrent List D) None 97. How many High Courts are there in the Country? Some of which have jurisdiction over more

than one State. A) 18 B) 24 C) 28 D) 20 98. Which of the following Emergencies has not been promulgated so far? A) Proclamation of Emergency (Art. 352) B) President Rules (Art. 356) C) Financial Emergency (Art. 360) D) All Emergencies have proclaimed at least once 99. Article ________ of the Constitution provides temporary provisions with respect to the State of

J&K. A) 369 B) 371 C) 370 D) 372 100. Which State was under President Rules for a longest duration of more than 3 years? A) Punjab B) J&K C) Manipur D) Kerala


¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ‡ãŠãñ ¦ãºã ¦ã‡ãŠ ¶ã ŒããñÊãò •ãºã ¦ã‡ãŠ ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ ƒÔã‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† ¶ã ‡ãŠÖã •ãã†

Deity : SO/III/2015

¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã

Ôã½ã¾ã Ôããè½ãã : ¦ããè¶ã Üãâ›ñ ‚ããä£ã‡ãŠ¦ã½ã ‚ãâ‡ãŠ : 100

ãäªÍãã-ãä¶ãªóÍã

1. ‡ãðŠ¹ã¾ãã ‚ããØãñ ºãü¤¶ãñ Ôãñ ¹ãÖÊãñ ¶ããèÞãñ ãäª† Øã† ãäªÍãããä¶ãªóÍããò ‡ãŠãñ ¼ãÊããè ¼ããâãä¦ã ¹ãü¤ Êãòý

2. ¹ãÀãèàãã ¹ãÆãÀâ¼ã Öãñ¶ãñ ‡ãñŠ ¦ãìÀ¶¦ã ºããª ‚ã¹ã¶ããè ¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ‡ãŠãè •ããâÞã ‡ãŠÀ Êãò, ƒÔã‡ãñŠ ¼ããè¦ãÀ ‡ãŠãñƒÃ ¼ããè ãäºã¶ãã œ¹ãã Öì‚ãã, ¹ãŠ›ã Öì‚ãã ¾ãã Êãã¹ã¦ãã

(‚ã¶ãì¹ããäÔ©ã¦ã) ¹ãðÓŸ ‚ã©ãÌãã ÌãÔ¦ãì ‚ãããäª ¶ã Öãñý †ñÔãã Öãñ¶ãñ ¹ãÀ ‚ã¹ã¶ããè ¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ‡ãŠãñ ¦ãìÀ¶¦ã ºãªÊã Êãòý

3. ‚ã¹ã¶ãã ‚ã¶ãì‰ãŠ½ããâ‡ãŠ ¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ½ãò ãäª† Öì† ºããù‡ã‹Ôã ½ãò ãäÊãŒãòý ¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ½ãò ‡ãìŠœ ‚ããõÀ ¶ã ãäÊãŒãòý

4. ¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ½ãò 100 ¹ãðÍ¶ã Ööý ¹ãÆ¦¾ãñ‡ãŠ ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ãäÖ¶ªãè ¦ã©ãã ‚ãâØãÆñû•ããè ªãñ¶ããò ¼ããÓãã‚ããò ½ãò œ¹ãã Öì‚ãã Öõý ¹ãÆ¦¾ãñ‡ãŠ ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ‡ãñŠ ÞããÀ Ôãâ¼ãããäÌã¦ã „¦¦ãÀ ãäª†

Øã† Ööý ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ ÌãÖ „¦¦ãÀ Þãì¶ã¶ãã Öõ ãä•ãÔãñ ‚ãã¹ã „¦¦ãÀ-¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ½ãò ãäÞããä¶Ö¦ã ‡ãŠÀ¶ãã ÞããÖ¦ãñ Ööý ¾ããäª ‚ãã¹ã Ôã½ã¢ã¦ãñ Öö ãä‡ãŠ ãäª† Öì†

Ôãâ¼ãããäÌã¦ã „¦¦ãÀãò ½ãò †‡ãŠ Ôãñ ‚ããä£ã‡ãŠ ÔãÖãè „¦¦ãÀ Öö ¦ããñ ‚ãã¹ã „Ôã „¦¦ãÀ ‡ãŠãñ ãäÞããä¶Ö¦ã ‡ãŠÀò ãä•ãÔãñ ‚ãã¹ã ÔãÌããó¦¦ã½ã Ôã½ã¢ã¦ãñ Ööý ¹ãÆ¦¾ãñ‡ãŠ

‚ãÌãÔ©ãã ½ãò ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ †‡ãŠ ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ‡ãŠã ‡ãñŠÌãÊã †‡ãŠ Öãè „¦¦ãÀ Þãì¶ã¶ãã Öõý

5. ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ Ôã¼ããè ¹ãÆÍ¶ããò ‡ãñŠ „¦¦ãÀ, ‡ãñŠÌãÊã ãäª† Öì† ‚ãÊãØã „¦¦ãÀ-¹ã¨ã‡ãŠ ¹ãÀ ªñ¶ãñ Ööý „¦¦ãÀ-¹ã¨ã‡ãŠ ½ãò ¹ãÆ¦¾ãñ‡ãŠ ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† ‡ãñŠÌãÊã †‡ãŠ ºããù‡ã‹Ôã

Öõý ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ ‚ã¹ã¶ãñ „¦¦ãÀ ‡ãñŠÌãÊã "A", "B", "C" Ìã "D" ½ãò ‚ãâØãÆñû•ããè ¼ããÓãã ‡ãñŠ ºãü¡ñ ‚ãàãÀãò ½ãò ªñ¶ãñ Ööý ‡ãŠãñƒÃ ‡ ãŠã›-œãú›, ŒãìÀÞã¶ãã (ãä½ã›ã¶ãã),

¨ãìãä› Ôãì£ããÀ¶ãã ¦ã©ãã „¹ããäÀÊãñŒã¶ã ‡ãŠãè ‚ã¶ãì½ããä¦ã ¶ãÖãé Öõ †ñÔãã ¹ãã† •ãã¶ãñ ¹ãÀ „¦¦ãÀ ‡ãŠãñ ûØãÊã¦ã „¦¦ãÀ ½ãã¶ãã •ãã†Øããý

6. Ôã¼ããè ¹ãÆÍ¶ããò ‡ãñŠ ‚ãâ‡ãŠ Ôã½ãã¶ã Ööý

7. ãäª† Öì† ¹ãÆÍ¶ããò ‡ãñŠ „¦¦ãÀ ªñ¶ãñ Ôãñ ¹ãîÌãÃ ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ „¦¦ãÀ-¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ½ãò ‡ãñŠÌãÊã ãäª† Öì† Ô©ãã¶ã ¹ãÀ ‚ã¹ã¶ãã ãäÌãÌãÀ¥ã ¼ãÀ¶ãã Öõý

8. „¦¦ãÀ-¹ã¨ã‡ãŠ ½ãò Ôã¼ããè ¹ãÆÍ¶ããò ‡ãñŠ „¦¦ãÀ ¼ãÀ¶ãñ ‡ãñŠ ºããª ‚ã¹ã¶ãã „¦¦ãÀ-¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ãä¶ãÀãèàã‡ãŠ ‡ãñŠ ÖÌããÊãñ ‡ãŠÀ ªòý

9. À¹ãŠ ‡ãŠã¾ãÃ ‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† À¹ãŠ-Íããè› „¦¦ãÀ-¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ‡ãñŠ ‚ã¶¦ã ½ãò •ãìü¡ãè ÖìƒÃ Öõý

10. ûØãÊã¦ã „¦¦ãÀãò ‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† ª¥¡:

‚ã¼¾ã©ããê ¹ãÀ ãäÌãÓã¾ããä¶ãÓŸ ¹ãÆ‡ãŠãÀ ¹ãÆÍ¶ããò(Objective Type) ‡ãñŠ ûØãÊã¦ã „¦¦ãÀ ªñ¶ãñ ¹ãÀ ªâ¡ ÖãñØãã

i) ¹ãÆ¦¾ãñ‡ãŠ ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ‡ãñŠ ÞããÀ Ìãõ‡ãŠãäÊ¹ã‡ãŠ „¦¦ãÀ ãäª† Øã† Ööý ¹ãÆ¦¾ãñ‡ãŠ ûØãÊã¦ã „¦¦ãÀ ‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† „Ôã ¹ã ÆÍ¶ã ‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† ãä¶ã£ããÃãäÀ¦ã ‡ãìŠÊã ‚ãâ‡ãŠ ‡ãŠã

†‡ãŠ-ãä¦ãÖãƒÃ (1/3) ªâ¡ ÔÌãÂ¹ã ‡ãŠã› ãäÊã¾ãã •ãã†Øããý

ii) ãä‡ãŠÔããè ¼ããè ¹ãÆ‡ãŠãÀ ‡ãñŠ ªãñÓã-Ôãì£ããÀ/„¹ããäÀÊãñŒã¶ã ‡ãŠãñ ûØãÊã¦ã „¦¦ãÀ ½ãã¶ãã •ãã†Øããý

iii) ¾ããäª ‡ãŠãñƒÃ ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ãäÀ‡ã‹¦ã œãñü¡ã Øã¾ãã Öõ ¦ããñ ƒÔã‡ãŠã ‚ã©ãÃ ¾ãÖ ½ãã¶ãã •ãã†Øãã ãä‡ãŠ ‚ã¼¾ã©ããê ¶ãñ „Ôã ¹ãÆÍ¶ã ‡ãŠã „¦¦ãÀ ¶ãÖãé ãäª¾ãã Öõ ¦ã©ãã

„Ôã ¹ãÀ ‡ãŠãñƒÃ ªâ¡ ÊããØãî ¶ãÖãé ÖãñØããý

¹ãìãäÔ¦ã‡ãŠã ‡ãŠãñ ¦ãºã ¦ã‡ãŠ ¶ã ŒããñÊãò •ãºã ¦ã‡ãŠ ‚ãã¹ã‡ãŠãñ ƒÔã‡ãñŠ ãäÊã† ¶ã ‡ãŠÖã •ãã†

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