CAPF AC 2021 : PAPER-1 FULL MOCK TEST Test Booklet Series

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

CAPF AC 2021 : PAPER-1 FULL MOCK TEST Test Booklet Series

GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 250

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Booklet does not have

any unprinted or turn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.

2. Encode clearly the Test Booklet Series P1M5 as the case may be in the appropriate place in the Answer

sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll number on the test booklet in the box provided alongside. Do not write

anything else on the test booklet.

4. This test booklet contains 125 (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four

responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case you

feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose only one

response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses only on the separate answer sheet provided. See direction in the

answers sheet.

6. All items carry two marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct

responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response one-third marks will be deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the test booklet, you have

to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your admission certificate.

8. Sheet for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

P1M5

© NATIONAL DEFENCE INSTITUTE | CAPF AC 2021 | FULL MOCK TEST-5 | PAPER-1 1 | P a g e

1. Which type of mirror is utilized as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?

a) Plain mirror b) Concave mirror c) Convex mirror d) None of the above

2. An athlete jumps off a high springboard can do a variety of exercises in the air before entering the water below. Which parameter will remain constant during the fall?

a) The athlete’s angular momentum b) The athlete’s kinetic energy c) The athlete’s moment of inertia d) The athlete’s linear momentum

3. The dispersion process forms a spectrum due to white light falling on a prism. The light wave with the shortest wavelength

a) Does not change the path b) Refract the most c) Refracts the least d) Is reflected by the prism

4. Identify the SI unit of electrical resistance.

a) Ohm b) Watt c) Coulomb d) Ampere

5. According to the law of reflection, ______________.

a) Angle of incidence is greater than angle of reflection b) Angle of incidence is smaller than angle of reflection c) Angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection d) Both angles are always unequal


6. What is the chemical formula of ‘quartz’?

a) SiO4 b) SiO2 c) SiO3 d) SiO5

7. Which blood vessels have the smallest diameter?

a) Capillaries b) Arterioles c) Venules d) Lymphatic

8. Faraday’s Law is related to _______.

a) Electrolysis b) Temperature c) Pressure of gases d) Reaction of gases

9. Which of these will turn red litmus blue?

a) Lemon water b) Baking soda solution c) Vinegar d) Hydrochloric Acid

10. In a periodic table, while moving from left to right in a period, number of ________ remains same.

a) electrons b) protons c) shells d) All of these

11. The pH of pure water (H2O) at 25° C is __________. a) 8 b) 7 c) 9 d) 6


12. Mitochondria: ATP : : Ribosome : ?

a) Fat b) Protein c) Vitamin d) Carbohydrate

13. The ability of eye to adjust its focal length is called _______.

a) Accommodation b) Correction c) Presbyopia d) Adjustment

14. Consider the following statements?

1. It is small sized (12-14cm) conical part. 2. Here, food and air passages crosses each other. 3. It is divided into three parts.

Which part of the alimentary canal are we talking about?

a) Buccal Cavity b) Pharynx c) Oesophagus d) Stomach

15. Which of the following are processes of asexual reproduction?

1. Pollination 2. Fertilisation 3. Spore Formation 4. Fragmentation 5. Budding

Select the correct code

a) 2,3,4,5 b) 1,3,4,5 c) 3,4,5 d) All the above


16. Does a charged body attract nearby an uncharged body:

a) Yes b) No c) Depend upon the magnetic property of the uncharged body d) Depend upon the magnetic property of the charged body

17. An electron and a proton are situated in a uniform electric field:

a) The force exerted on them will be equal b) The magnitude of the forces will be equal c) The acceleration will be equal d) The magnitude of the acceleration will be equal

18. If a positive point charge is taken into a higher potential region to lower potential region, then its potential energy:

a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains constant d) May decrease or increase

19. Which of the following hormones has a role in anxiety, maternal behaviour and social recognition?

a) Ptyalin b) Renin c) Oxytocin d) Pepsin

20. Ramu sold one kg of Basmati rice for Rs. 152 and suffered a 5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. x more, he would have got a profit of 15%. Which one of the following is correct?

a) Rs. 30 < x < Rs. 35 b) Rs. 40 < x < Rs. 45 c) Rs. 25 < x < Rs. 30 d) Rs. 35 < x < Rs. 40

21. In the final cricket match of a tournament, Team India scored 246 runs without losing a wicket. The score comprised only byes, wide and runs scored by two openers- Sachin and Sehwag. The runs scored by both


openers are 28 times the wide runs. There are 6 more byes than wides. If the ratio of the runs scored by Sachin and Sehwag is 3:4, then the runs scored by Sachin are:

a) 88 b) 96 c) 102 d) 112

22. In CAPF paper-I, there were 75 questions - 10 of arithmetic, 30 of reasoning and 35 of reading comprehension. Every question carried 1 mark and there was no negative marking. Tina answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the reasoning and 60% of the reading comprehension questions correctly. Still she did not pass in the paper because she got less than 60% of the questions right. How many more questions should she have answered correctly to pass in CAPF paper-I?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

23. Two drums contain a mixture of milk and water. In first drum the ratio of milk and water is 1 : 3 and in second drum the ratio of water and milk is 5 : 3. If mixture from both drums are poured in another big drum in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively, then what must be the ratio of milk and water in the big drum?

a) 4 : 15 b) 3 : 7 c) 6 : 7 d) 3 : 10

24. In a school, there are two branches - Mathematics branch and Biology branch. If 10 students leave Mathematics branch and join Biology branch, then the number of students in each branch becomes the same. But if 20 students leave Biology and join Mathematics branch, then the number of students in Mathematics branch becomes double than that of Biology branch. The numbers of students in Mathematics and Biology branch respectively are


a) 60 and 40 b) 80 and 60 c) 70 and 50 d) 100 and 80

25. While numbering the pages of a book, Harshith used 3209 digits in all. How many pages does the book have, if he started numbering from page number 1?

a) 1078 b) 1080 c) 1089 d) 1079

26. Due to less production, the price of crude oil has increased. Due to this price hike, the price of petrol has increased by 6%. Earlier the price of petrol was Rs. 76 per liter. Rakesh travels 2600 kilometers every month and his car gives a mileage of 19 km/liter. How much will the monthly expenditure of Rakesh on petrol increase after the price hike?

a) Rs. 614 b) Rs. 264 c) Rs. 624 d) Rs. 524

27. Four wooden sticks of lengths 85 cm, 119 cm, 136 cm and 204 cm are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as long as possible. What is the maximum number of pieces that can be cut?

a) 36 b) 32 c) 30 d) 35

28. 10 men can do a piece of work in 4 days, 6 women can do it in 5 days, and 12 children can do it in 5 days too. In how many days can 5 men, 10 women and 5 children together complete the same piece of work?

a) 42/13 days b) 32/13 days c) 24/13 days


d) 13/24 days

29. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:

S1: The total simple interest was Rs. 19000 after 19 years.

S2: The total of principal sum and simple interest was double of the principal sum after 6 years.

Question:

What is the principal sum?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither

S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Direction for following (30-32) items:

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Five friends J, K, L, M and N like different colours, out of Red, Pink, Green, Grey and Blue. They also have different chocolates viz. Munch, Kitkat, Dairy-milk, Bornvill and Temptation and they prefer different watches viz. Timex, Titan, Fastrack, Citizen and Beneton.

J likes Red colour and has Bornvill chocolate, but does not prefer Titan or Fastrack watch. The one who has Kitkat prefers Fastrack watch. L has Temptation chocolate and likes Blue colour and prefers Beneton watch. M likes Pink colour and prefers Timex watch. N has Munch chocolate and likes Grey colour.

30. Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

a) Citizen – Red – Bornvill b) Titan – Grey – Dairy-milk c) Titan – Grey – Munch d) Beneton – Blue – Temptation


31. Which of the following is correct with respect to the information given in the question?

a) J who likes Citizen watch, doesn’t have Bornvill chocolate. b) N likes Grey colour and has Dairy-milk. c) ‘K’ is the one who likes Green colour and has Kitkat chocolate. d) Beneton watch is liked by the one who doesn’t have Temptation

chocolate.

32. Who likes Pink colour?

a) J likes pink colour. b) The one who likes Titan watch. c) The one who has Munch chocolate. d) The one who likes Timex watch.

33. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?).

a) 199 b) 217 c) 195 d) 203

34. Three Statements are given followed by three Conclusions:

I. Only a few leaves are holidays. II. Few trips are funny. III. No funny is holiday.

Conclusions:

I. Some leaves are not holiday. II. Some trips are not holiday.

III. Some trips are holiday.

Which of the above Conclusions logically follows/follow from the three given Statements, disregarding commonly known facts?


a) Only l b) Only ll c) Both l and ll d) Neither l nor ll

35. How many pairs of digits in the number 543968 have as many numbers between them as in the series of natural numbers (consider both backward and forward directions)?

a) Only one b) More than one but less than three c) More than three d) Only three

36. A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. D is the son of C. E is the brother of D. F is the mother of E. G is the granddaughter of A. H has only two children - B and C. How is C related to E?

a) Father b) Son c) Mother d) Cousin

37. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, 4, 5, 11, ? , 189

a) 57 b) 39 c) 41 d) 43

38. In a certain code language, ‘NOTE’ is coded as ‘MONPSUDF’. How will ‘ROAD’ be coded as in that language?

a) QSNPZBCE b) QSMPZBCE c) QSNQZBCE d) QSNPYBCE

39. There are five vehicles A, B, C, D and E and they have different capacities when it comes to the number of passengers that they can carry.


I. A has higher capacity than D and E.

II. C has lesser capacity than only B.

III. D carries more passengers than E.

If C carries 62 passengers, then what would be the capacity of vehicle B?

a) 53 b) 24 c) 71 d) 49

40. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

A 0, D 5, H 15, M 30, S 50, ?

a) A 75 b) A 65 c) Z 75 d) Z 85

41. Six persons R, S, T, U, V and W live in a six-storey building. The ground floor is numbered as 0, first floor as 1 and so on ….. up to the top floor which is numbered as 5.

Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:

S1: Two persons live between R and T. Only one person lives between T and W. T does not live on the top Floor.

S2: T lives above R. Two persons live between U and W. V lives above S. R does not live on the ground floor.

Question: How many persons live between R and V?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question


42. There are two boxes, one of which contains 3 yellow and 4 blue balls, while the other contains 4 yellow and 3 blue balls. A dice is rolled. If the face 1 or 6 turns up, a ball is taken from the first box, and if any other face turns up, a ball is chosen from the second box. The probability of choosing a yellow ball is-

a) 12/21 b) 21/11 c) 9/21 d) 11/21

43. How many two digit numbers exist, such that the sum of the square of the number and the square of the number formed by reversing its digits, ends with the digit 7?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 4 d) 10

44. In 2012, Ramchandra purchased two apartments in the same building – one at the ground floor and other at the top floor. The ratio of prices of ground floor apartment and top floor apartment was 4 : 5 at the time of purchase. In 2016, price of the ground floor apartment was increased by 25% and that of the top floor apartment was increased by Rs. 50000, which changed the ratio of prices of ground floor and top floor apartments to 9 : 10. What must have been the price of the apartment at ground floor at the time of purchase?

a) Rs. 900000 b) Rs. 540000 c) Rs. 450000 d) Rs. 360000

45. Which of the following are party to ‘Abraham Accords’?

1. Israel 2. United Arab Emirates 3. Iran 4. Saudi Arabia 5. Egypt


Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 5 only

46. Who among the following discovered Positron?

a) John Dalton b) Goldstein c) JJ Thomson d) Carl D Anderson

47. Which of the following type of white blood cells are responsible for destroying parasites and cancer cells?

a) Neutrophils b) Eosinophils c) Monocytes d) Basophils

48. There are 18 protons and 22 neutrons in an atom of an element. What are the atomic number and mass number of the element?

a) 18, 22 b) 18, 18 c) 18, 40 d) 22, 18

49. The right to form associations and unions is a right

a) guaranteed to everybody b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only c) to equality before law d) to life and personal liberty

50. Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct?

1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.


2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced.

3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India.

4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 4 only

51. Consider the following statements about Harappan cities:

1. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did not always cross one another at right angles.

2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average size of the bricks for houses and for city walls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?

a) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. b) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become

void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.

c) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure.

d) The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule.

53. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?


a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura d) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh

54. Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court?

a) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.

b) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India.

c) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgment or order. d) Only the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs to protect the

fundamental rights of the people.

55. The members of NAFTA are

a) USA, Canada and Mexico b) USA, Canada and India c) USA, Canada and Japan d) USA, UK and India

56. Which among the following is/are credit rating agency/agencies in India?

a) CRISIL b) CARE c) ICRA d) All of the above

57. In India, the term ‘hot money’ is used to refer to

a) Currency + Reserves with the RBI b) Net GDR c) Net Foreign Direct Investment d) Foreign Portfolio Investment

58. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the composition of national income in India?

a) The share of manufacturing sector has declined.


b) The share of services sector has increased sharply. c) The share of agriculture has remained static. d) The share of services sector has declined.

59. Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile system?

a) Akash b) Trishul c) Tatra d) Astra

60. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished. b) The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal. c) All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the

Indian Navy. d) The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General.

61. Which one of the following is not one of the Commands of the Indian Army?

a) South Western Command b) North Eastern Command c) Central Command d) Army Training Command (ARTRAC)

62. Which one of the following is correct?

a) Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanized Infantry Regiment. b) Crops of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps

of Engineers. c) Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army

Service Corps. d) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence.

63. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is

a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army b) a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles c) the name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir d) a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs


64. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Andaman and Nicobar Command?

a) It is the first integrated theatre command in India. b) Its headquarters is at Port Blair. c) It is commanded by a three-star officer. d) It was set up by the British during the Second World War.

65. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by

1. war 2. external aggression 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance


a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2 only

66. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

a) To respect the National Flag b) To defend the country c) To provide education to one’s child d) To promote village and cottage industries

67. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?

a) Habeas Corpus b) Mandamus c) Certiorari d) Quo Warranto

68. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India?


a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

b) It is a part of fundamental rights. c) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on

the ground of delay. d) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary

law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.

69. Capital deepening refers to

a) going for more fixed capital per worker b) emphasis on social overhead capital c) constant capital-output ratio d) increasing capital-output ratio

70. According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are

a) purely temporary in nature b) permanent in nature c) imaginary situations d) normal situations

71. Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the inflationary pressure?

1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation. 2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier. 3. Cost of borrowing decreases. 4. Bondholders get benefitted.


a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4

72. Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct?

a) The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day’s business


b) The ratio of bank’s total deposits and total liabilities c) A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from

the banks d) The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market

73. Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in the world?

a) Cheyenne Mountain Zoo b) Pandit GB Pant High Altitude Zoo c) Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok d) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park

74. Who among the following was defeated by Argentina to win the Copa America Football Championship, 2021?

a) Colombia b) Brazil c) Ecuador d) Peru

75. The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the

a) story of Rama b) Jaina elements in the storyline c) culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists d) cult of Shakti worship

76. Which one of the following was the earlier name of Tokyo?

a) Osaka b) Kyoto c) Samurai d) Edo

77. The term Upari refers to which one of the following?

a) A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule b) A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule c) A soldier in the Maratha army d) A village headman in the Mughal period


78. Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin?

1. They follow Indian religious practices. 2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan language. 3. They believe that they came from India. 4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in Uttar Pradesh.


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 2 and 3

79. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true?

1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879.

2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British.

3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra.

4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants.


a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4

80. Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2021?

a) Daniel Medvedev b) Rafael Nadal c) Novak Djokovic d) Andy Murray


81. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?

a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused. b) The accused must have violated an existing law. c) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again. d) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on

the date of commission of an offence.

82. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she

1. renounces Indian citizenship 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country 3. marries a citizen of another country 4. criticizes the Government


a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 4

83. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens?

1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech) 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination) 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)


a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 4 only

84. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to

1. the power of judicial review 2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)


3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India 4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967)


a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 4

85. What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty?

a) Harihara b) Bhairava c) Rudra d) Tripurantaka

86. Directions: The following three (86-88) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded his army.

Statement II: After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and become a Buddhist.

a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

86. The following item consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India.

Statement II: The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.




c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

87. The following item consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis.

Statement II: The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress.



c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

88. Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct?

a) Sal is found in moist deciduous forests. b) Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu. c) Deodar is a coniferous species of tree. d) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya.

89. Which one of the following is correct?

a) Guindy National Park is known for tiger reserve. b) Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation. c) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve. d) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary

90. Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct?

1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content.


2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen. 3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and

potassium.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Light travels in a straight line. This statement does hold if the medium of travel for light is _________.

a) of variable refractive index b) made up of slabs of different refractive indices c) homogeneous and transparent d) inhomogeneous and transparent

92. Liquids and gases never show

a) diamagnetic property b) paramagnetic property c) ferromagnetic property d) electromagnetic property

93. Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Ganga?

a) Son b) Mahananda c) Teesta d) Sharda

94. Which of the following statements concerning atmosphere of the earth are correct?

1. In stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude. 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude. 3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper

part of mesosphere. 4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone.



a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

95. Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus?

1. Root hair cells 2. Red blood cells 3. Platelets 4. Monocytes


a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

96. Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct?

1. Madhya Pradesh: Largest tribal population 2. Mizoram: Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total

population of the State 3. Chhattisgarh: Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh 4. Arunachal Pradesh: Second highest percentage of tribal population

out of the total population of the State after Mizoram


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4

97. Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the hemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death?

a) Chlorofluorocarbon b) Fly ash


c) Carbon monoxide d) Sulphur dioxide

98. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys

a) mast cells b) platelets c) erythrocytes d) lymphocytes

99. Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change?

a) Amphibian b) Reptile c) Mammal d) Insect

100. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban areas?

a) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen c) Methane d) Oxygen

101. Recently India has signed a Strategic Partnership Agreement with International Energy Agency (IEA). Consider the following statements regarding IEA:

1. IEA is a specialized agency of United Nation. 2. India is an associate member of International Energy Agency

Which of the following statements is/are correct?



102. Consider the following statement regarding ‘Kala Utsav 2020’ organized recently:

1. It was launched to promote arts in education by nurturing and showcasing the artistic talent of school students in the country

2. It is organized by Ministry of Education.

Select the correct option using the codes given below:


103. Recently Prime Minister of India addressed the World Economic Forum’s (WEF) Davos Dialogue via video conferencing. Consider the following statement w.r.t World Economic Forum.

1. The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a non-profi t International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation foundation established in 1971 and based in Geneva, Switzerland.

2. Global Gender Gap report is published by World Economic Forum.



104. Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Survey:

1. It is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs. 2. It is usually presented on the day when the Union Budget is presented

in the Parliament. 3. The First Economic Survey of India was presented in 1935.


a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

105. Pattachitra Paintings, recently in news belong to:

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Assam c) Andhra Pradesh d) Odisha

106. Match the following straits to the water bodies they connect:

Straits Water Body

A. Strait of Hormuz 1. Java Sea and Indian Ocean

B. Bab-el-Mandeb 2. Andaman Sea and South China Sea


C. Sunda Strait 3. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden

D. Strait of Malacca 4. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman

Select the correct option using the code given below

A B C D

a) 3 4 1 2

b) 4 3 2 1

c) 4 1 3 2

d) 4 3 1 2

107. With reference to the Dispute Resolution Committee proposed in the Budget 2021, consider the following statements:

1. It will be a statutory body. 2. It will cater to small taxpayers having a taxable income of up to Rs. 50

lakh. 3. It will have the power to give immunity from any offence punishable

under the Income Tax Act.


a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

108. Corruption Perception Index (CPI) is released by

a) Transparency International

b) Global Risk Pro file

c) World Bank

d) United Nation Global Compact

109. Which of the following statements regarding the recently introduced “STARS Project” is/are correct?

1. STARS stands for Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States Program.

2. The STARS project would be implemented as a new Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Education.


3. The project will be implemented for improving the quality and governance of school education in all the Indian states.

4. A major component of the project is the establishment of PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) as a National Assessment Centre.


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

110. Consider the following statements regarding Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021:

1. It will create a facilitative framework for an official digital currency by the RBI.

2. All private cryptocurrencies will be allowed in India once the bill is passed.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?


111. Consider the following statements:

1. NRC is the register containing details of persons usually residing in a village or rural area or town or ward or demarcated area within a ward in a town or urban area.

2. NPR is a register containing details of Indian Citizens living in India and outside India.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?


112. NetWire, seen in news recently relates to:

a) An android malware that steals data such as password and credit card details.

b) A snoopware that used a bug in WhatsApp to in filtrate users’ phones.

c) A malware that infects a user when the user visits a particular website and is served with a malicious advertisement.


d) A remote access trojan which gives control of the infected system to an attacker.

113. ‘SAKSHAM (Shramik Shakti Manch) Portal’, seen in news recently is related to:

a) A National Migration Support Portal to smooth the formulation of state and national level programs for migrant workers.

b) A job portal for mapping the skills of Shramiks vis-à-vis requirements of MSMEs.

c) Helping skilled people find sustainable livelihood opportunities. d) A central repository of migrant workers to facilitate the smooth

movement of migrant workers to their native places.

114. People of ‘Koch Rajbangshis’ community reside in which of the following Indian states?

1. Assam

2. West Bengal

3. Meghalaya

4. Odisha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only

115. Consider the following pairs: Rivers Confluence Point

1. Alaknanda, Vishnu Prayag Dhauli Ganga 2. Alaknanda, Nand Prayag Mandakini 3. Alaknanda, Prayagraj Bhagirathi 4. Alaknanda, Karna Prayag Pindar Ganga

Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 4 only


116. With reference to the World Sustainable Development Summit 2021, consider the following statements:

1. It is the flagship event of the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP). 2. The theme of the Summit is ‘Redefining our common future: Safe and secure environment for all’.



117. Which of the following is/are incorrect about INS Virat?

a) It is a longest serving warship of the world. b) It has fi rst served British Navy before its commissioning to Indian

Navy. c) It was India’s first aircraft carrier. d) It played a major role in Operation Jupiter in 1989 during the Sri

Lankan Peacekeeping operation

118. Which of the following is/are incorrect about members of Rajya Sabha?

1. The retiring members are not eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times.

2. The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament.

3. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.

4. One-fourth of its members retire every second year and their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only

119. Which of the following is/are not a component of India’s Five ‘S’ Vision to tackle global challenges?

1. Samman

2. Suraksha


3. Samadhan

4. Samvaad

5. Shanti


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 4 and 5 only d) 1, 4 and 5 only

120. Duncan Passage separates:

a) Rutland Island and Little Andaman

b) Car Nicobar and Great Nicobar

c) Long Island and North Andaman

d) Middle Andaman and South Andaman

121. With reference to National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) Project, consider the following statements:

1. NeVA is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to bring all the legislatures of the country together.

2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for its implementation.




1. India is the largest producer of silk in the world.

2. India is the only country in the world which produces all the four major varieties of silk.



123. New START Treaty, recently in news, is:

a) A treaty between ASEAN countries for economic cooperation to revive members economy post pandemic


b) A nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States and the Russian Federation

c) A peace treaty between UAE and Israel to normalize diplomatic relations

d) A trade agreement between United States and Cuba

124. Consider the following statements regarding recently erupted Mount Semeru Volcano of Indonesia (SSW):

1. Mt Semeru is located on Pacific Ring of Fire.

2. It is formed due to subduction of Sunda Plate below Indo Australian Plate.




1. Gandhi decided for cessation of the NonCooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura Incident.

2. Chauri Chaura Support Fund was set up by Gandhi as an "genuine sympathy" and to seek atonement.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

****

Date post:	14-Feb-2022
Category:	Documents
Upload:	others
View:	4 times
Download:	0 times

CAPF AC 2021 : PAPER-1 FULL MOCK TEST Test Booklet Series

Documents