Carrier Air Wing ELEVEN EAWS Common Core Tutorial

Created by:NCC(AW) M. J. WILSON

Command Career Counselor

First Aid Fundamentals

State the three objectives of first aid

1. Save Life

2. Prevent Further Injury

3. Prevent Infection

State the methods of controlling bleeding

• Direct Pressure

• Elevation

• Pressure points

• Tourniquet (last resort)

State the location of principal pressure points on each side of

the body (10)• Temple• Jaw• Neck• Collar Bone• Inner Upper Arm• Wrist• Upper Thigh• Groin• Knee• Ankle

Describe the symptoms of shock

• Vacant / Lackluster Eyes

• Shallow or Irregular Breathing

• Cold, Pale Skin

• Nausea

• Weak or Absent Pulse

• Feeling Faint

State the treatment for shock

• Lay victim down with feet elevated 6” - 12”

• Cover victim to maintain body heat

Describe the three classifications of burns

• First Degree- mildest, producing redness, increased warmth, tenderness and mild pain

• Second Degree- red and blistered skin; severe pain

• Third Degree- destroyed tissue, skin and bone in severe cases. Pain maybe absent due to nerve endings being destroyed

Describe the symptoms for heat exhaustion

• Skin is cool, moist, and clammy

• Pupils are dilated

• Normal or Subnormal body temperature

• Sweating profusely

Discuss treatment for heat exhaustion

• Move the victim to cool or air conditioned area

• Loosen clothing

• Apply cool wet cloths to head, groin and ankles

• Fan victim; do not allow victim to become chilled

• If conscious, give a solution of one teaspoon salt dissolved in a liter of cool water

• Transport to Medical Facility

Discuss the symptoms for heat stroke

• Hot and/or dry skin

• Uneven pupil dilation

• Weak, rapid pulse

Discuss treatment for heat stroke

• Reduce heat immediately by dousing the body in cold water

• Apply wet, cold towels to the body around the shoulders and neck. Additional packs can be placed on ankles and groin area

• Move victim to coolest possible place

• Maintain an open airway

State the difference between and “open” and “closed” fracture

• Closed (Simple) fractures are internal and do not break the skin

• Open (Compound) fractures cause an open wound in the tissue or skin

State the steps in rescuing a person from electrical shock

• Turn off the current immediately

• If unable to secure power, remove victim using a non-conductive object (dry broom handle, oar, board, etc)

• Administer artificial ventilation

• Check for pulse and start CPR if necessary

Describe the method for clearing an obstructed airway

• Stand behind victim and wrap your arms around the victim’s waist.

• Grasp your wrist and place thumb side of your fist against the victim’s abdomen above the navel and just below the rib cage.

• Give 4 quick upward thrusts to the victim

Define hypothermia

• General cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice

Give symptoms of hypothermia

• Slow and shallow breathing

• Faint or undetectable pulse

• Body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff

Discuss treatment for hypothermia

• Wrap patient in warm blankets and place in a warm room

• Do not give hot drinks or other stimulants until he/she regains consciousness

• Get medical attention immediately

Discuss the two types of frostbite and treatment

• Superficial- Ice crystals form in the upper skin layers after exposure to temperatures of 32 degrees or lower

• Deep Frostbite- Ice crystals form in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.

• Treatment- Get victims indoor, re-warm the area by placing them in warm water or with hot water bottles. Never rub frostbite areas and seek medical attention immediately

General Safety Fundamentals

Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program

• Preserve human and material resources

– Material resources include naval aircraft, ships, facilities and weapons

Who is the principal advisor to the CO on all aviation safety

matters

• Aviation Safety Officer

Who is the principal advisor to the CO on all ground safety

matters?

• Ground Safety Officer

Who must comply with established safety standards?

• All Hands

List factors that can contribute to aviation mishaps

• Human Error

• Maintenance & Support Factors

• Administrative & Supervisory Factors

• Material failures or malfunctions

• Environmental factors

Define a Class A mishap

• Resulting in property damage of $ 1,000,000,000 or more

• Or an injury or occupational illness resulting in a fatality or permanent total disability

Define a Class B mishap

• Resulting in property damage is $200,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000,000

• Or an injury or occupational illness resulting in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized

Define a Class C mishap

• Property damage is $10,000 or more, but less than $200,000

• Or a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disability at any time

Define a Class D mishap

• Property damage is less than $10,000

• Or a non-fatal injury (no lost time or first aid case) that does not meet the criteria of a Class C mishap

State the objective of the Aviation Gas-Free Engineering

Program (AVGFE)

• To ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel systems

AVGFE technician shall have what qualifications and training

• Must be a Quality Assurance Representative (QAR) or Collateral Duty Quality Assurance Representative (CDQAR)

• Must be a graduate of the AVGFE course

Explain the hazards of Radio Frequency energy

• Can cause life-threatening electric shock, burns, biological changes, and cataracts.

• Can cause premature or unwanted activation of electro-explosive devices in ordnance

Discuss the concept of Operational Risk Management

(ORM)

• Systematic, decision-making process used to identity and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.

State the 5 steps or ORM

• Identify hazards

• Assess hazards

• Make risk decisions

• Implement controls

• Supervise

Chain of Command Fundamentals

What are the two chain of commands for operating forces

• Operation- From the President, through the Secretary of the Navy to a commander of a unified or specified command

• Administrative- through the Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations to the operating forces

What is a unified command

• Composed of elements of two or more services. It has a broad continuing mission, and has a single commander. Examples:

• Atlantic Command• Pacific Command• European Command• Southern Command• Central Command • Readiness Command

Name the three Fleet Commanders

• Commander, U.S. Pacific Fleet

• Commander, U.S. Atlantic Fleet

• Commander, U.S. Naval Forces Europe

Which fleets fall under each commander

• Atlantic Fleet = 2nd Fleet

• Pacific Fleet = 3rd & 7th Fleets

• Europe = 6th Fleet

Who is the Secretary of the Navy?

• Honorable Gordon R. Englund

Who is the Chief of Naval Operations?

• Admiral Vern Clark

Who is the MCPON

• MCPON Terry Scott

Who is the PACFLT Master Chief?

• Fleet Master Chief Rodriguez

Who is our Force Master Chief?

• Force Master Chief Keith Goosby

How many personnel must be assigned to rate a Command

Master Chief?

• 250

State the 6 areas of Naval doctrine

• Naval Warfare

• Naval Intelligence

• Naval Operations

• Naval Logistics

• Naval Planning

• Naval Command and Control

On what day was the U.S. Navy born?

• October 13th, 1775

State the 3 levels of war

• Tactical- involves individual engagements

• Operational- concerns forces collectively in a theater

• Strategic- focuses on supporting national goals

Discuss the importance of the battle of Coral Sea as it relates to

naval aviation

• The first carrier vs. carrier battle.

• The USS Lexington was sunk and the USS Yorktown was damaged.

Discuss the importance of the battle of Midway as it relates to

naval aviation

• Turning point in the Pacific War

• Admiral Nimitz positioned 3 carriers out of reconnaissance range and after Japanese fighters left for Midway, US forces attacked sinking 3 Japanese carriers the first day and 1 on the second day.

Discuss the significance of May 8th, 1911, as it applies to naval

aviation

• May 8th is considered to be the birthday of naval aviation. It was the date the first two aircraft were ordered

What is the name of the first aircraft carrier

• USS Langley

What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?

• FJ-1 Fury

Who was the first naval aviator in space

• Alan Shepard (May 5th, 1961)

What two aviation ratings do not start with the letter A?

• PR & PH

Which aviation rate maintains, adjusts, and repairs aircraft electrical power generating and converting systems;

lighting, control and indicating systems?

• Aviations Electrician’s Mate (AE)

Aviation Fundamentals

Describe the following terms pertaining to motion: Inertia;

Acceleration; Speed; and Velocity

• Inertia- willingness of an object to remain at rest or continue in motion unless acted upon by an outside force

• Acceleration- The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time

• Speed- The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time

• Velocity- The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction

Define Newton’s First Law of Motion

• An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will remain in motion at the same speed and direction, until acted upon by an outside force

Define Newton’s Second Law of Motion

• States that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change in motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.

Define Newton’s Third Law of Motion

• States that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

Define Bernoulli’s Principal

• States that when a fluid is flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased

Discuss the following wind warnings: Small Craft; Gale;

Storm

• Small Craft- 33 knots or less, of concern to small craft

• Gale- 34 – 47 knots

• Storm- 48 knots or greater

Discuss the following tropical cyclone warnings: Tropical Depression; Tropical

Storm; Hurricane/Typhoon; Thunderstorm/Tornado

• Tropical Depression- 33 knots or less

• Tropical Storm- 34 – 63 knots

• Hurricane/Typhoon- 64 knots or greater

• Thunderstorm- Small scale storm accompanied by lighting and thunder

• Tornado- Violently rotating column of air in the form of a funnel. 100 to 250 knots

Discuss the following warnings: Thunderstorm; Severe

Thunderstorm; Tornado

• Thunderstorm- Thunderstorms within 3 miles of the airfield

• Severe Thunderstorm- Wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and/or ¾ inch in diameter or greater hail is forecast for the warning area

• Tornado- Tornados have been sited or detected on RADAR in or adjacent to the warning area

What is lift?

• The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air

What is Weight?

• The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft

What is Drag?

• The force that tends to hold the aircraft back.

What is Thrust?

• Force developed by the aircraft’s engine, and it acts in the forward direction.

What is the Longitudinal axis?

• Imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and the tail. The axis about which roll occurs.

What is the Lateral axis?

• Imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occurs

What is the Vertical axis?

• Imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft. The movement associated with this axis is yaw

State the three primary movements of aircraft about the

axis

• Pitch- Movement about the lateral axis. Up and down motion of the nose.

• Yaw- Movement about the vertical axis. Drift right or left movement of the nose.

• Roll- Movement about the longitudinal axis. Movement of the wingtips one up and one down.

Identify and state the purpose of the primary flight controls for fixed wing

aircraft

• Ailerons- provide control about the longitudinal axis (Roll)

• Elevators- provide control about the lateral axis (Pitch)

• Rudder- provides control about the vertical axis (Yaw)

State the purpose of the: flaps; spoiler; speed brakes

• Flaps- provides extra lift for the aircraft, reducing landing speed.

• Spoiler- used to decrease wing lift by destroying the smooth air flow over the wing.

• Speed brakes- moveable control surfaces used for reducing speed.

State the purpose of the: slats; horizontal stabilizer; vertical

stabilizer

• Slats- moveable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. Used to improve the lateral control handling.

• Horizontal Stabilizer- Provides stability of the aircraft about its lateral axis.

• Vertical Stabilizer- Provides stability of the aircraft about its vertical axis. Usually serves as the base to which the rudder is connected.

Explain the term angle of attack

• The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow of air. – Defined as the angle between the chord line of

the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind.

– Measured in “units” as opposed to degrees.

Explain the term autorotation

• Method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the rate of descent.

State the components of a basic hydraulic system

• Reservoir – holds the supply of fluid• Pump- provides fluid flow• Tubing- transmits fluid• Selector valve- directs the fluid flow• Actuating unit- converts the pressure into

useful work

Describe and explain the purpose of the main landing gear components

• Shock Strut Assembly- Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be transmitted to the airframe

• Tires- Allows roll and provides traction during takeoff and landing

• Wheel Brake Assembly- Used to slow / stop the aircraft, and prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked

• Retraction/Extending Mechanism- The hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend / retract the landing gear

• Side Struts / Supports- Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear

State the safety precautions used when service aircraft tires

• Always approach the tires from fore and aft

• When inflating, stand off to the side

• Deflate when removing the tire from the aircraft

State the 5 basic section of a jet engine

• Intake- allows outside air to enter the engine• Compressor- a series of rotating blades and stationary

vanes that provides high-pressure air to the combustion chamber

• Combustion Chamber- where fuel enters and combines with air

• Turbine- drives the compressor and accessories by extracting energy and pressure from combustion gases

• Exhaust- eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet, thereby giving maximum velocity

Describe the following engine systems: Turbojet; Turbo shaft; Turboprop;

Turbofan

• Turbojet- Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity to propel the aircraft

• Turbo shaft- Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller

• Turboprop- Converts the majority of the gas energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller

• Turbofan- Converts gas energy into mechanical power to drive a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan

State the purpose of the afterburner

• Used during takeoff and maneuvering to boost the normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional burning of the remaining unused air in the exhaust section

List and explain the characteristics and uses of: JP4; JP5; and JP8

• JP4- Flame spread rate of 700-800 feet per minute and a flashpoint of –10 degrees F. Never used on ships

• JP-5- Flame spread rate of 100 feet per minute and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F. Used aboard naval vessels

• JP8- Flame spread rate of 100 feet per minute and a flashpoint of 100 degrees F. Never used on ships

List the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel

• Explosion of fuel fumes

• Vapor inhalation

• Toxic contact with skin or eyes

Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation

• Nausea• Dizziness• Headaches

• Note: Fuel Vapor inhalation can cause death

Explain the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

• Furnish electrical power when engine drive generators are not operating and external power is not available

• Provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine starting

• Makes the aircraft independent of the need for ground power

Identify the reasons and methods of Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)

• Provides 100% sampling with no affect to the use of the part or system being inspected

• Methods: visual, optical, liquid penetrate, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, and radiographic

Discussing icing and its effects on performance

• Ice on the airframe decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed. Ice on the exterior movable surfaces effects control. On propellers it decreases efficient and increases power requirements. Engine icing can cause loss of power.

What is the purpose of the Pitot-static?

• Using the principals of a barometer it consist of the pitot-static tube and 3 indicators. The 3 indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and rate-of-climb indicator.

What is the purpose of the Airspeed Indicator?

• Displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying.

What is the purpose of the Altimeter?

• Shows the height of the aircraft above sea level

What is the purpose of the Rate-of-climb indicator?

• Shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing or descending

What is the purpose of the Attitude Indicator

• Shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earth’s horizon

What is the purpose of the Turn and Bank Indicator?

• Shows the correct execution of a turn and bank. Also show the lateral attitude of the aircraft in straight flight.

What is the purpose of the Navigation Systems?

• Direct, plow and control the course or position of the aircraft

What is the purpose of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)

• Electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten the security of other naval units

What is the purpose of Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)

• Radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible.

What is the purpose of the Magnetic (standby) Compass?

• A direct-reading magnetic compass mounted in the instrument panel. Provides a back up to main compass

What is the purpose of Communication Systems?

• Equipment that allows for communication between aircraft,ships, and other stations and does not require interconnecting wires between the sending and receiving stations

What is the definition and purpose of a bomb?

• Any weapon other than a torpedo, mine, rocket or missile, dropped from an aircraft.

• Free falling explosive weapon that may be unguided or “smart” or guided

• Designed for release over enemy targets to reduce and neutralize the enemy’s potential war potential by explosion, fire, nuclear reaction, etc

What is the definition of a Rocket?

• A weapon containing an explosive section and a propulsion section that is unable to change its direction of movement once fired

What is the definition of a Missile?

• A vehicle containing an explosive section, propulsion section and a guidance section that is able to change direction or movement after being fired.

What is the definition and purpose of a Mine?

• Underwater explosive put into position by ships, submarines, or aircraft that explodes only when a target comes near or in contact with it.

• Primary objective is to effectively defend or control vital straits, ports, convoy anchorages or seaward coastal barriers

What is the definition and purpose of a Torpedo?

• Self-propelled underwater missile used against surface and underwater targets.

• They are designed to search, detect, attack and destroy submarines and ships

Explain the purpose of a Circuit Breaker and a Fuse

• Circuit Breaker- protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Can be reset

• Fuse- Protective device inserted in-line with a circuit, designed to melt or break when current is increased beyond a specified value. Cannot be reset

Explain the components of Ohm’s Law (E=IR)

• Voltage (E)- the driving force behind current.

• Current(I)- the flow of electrons

• Resistance (R)- opposing force to the flow of electrons.

Airfield Familiarization

Define aircraft handling

• A general term that describes any movement of aircraft or associated equipment

State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals

• Used by all branches of the Armed Forces so that there will be no misunderstanding when signalman of one service is signaling a pilot of another

State the vehicle speed limits on the flight line and around aircraft

• Within 50 ft of aircraft- 5 mph

• On runways, taxiways, parking ramps, and working areas- 10 mph

What is the maximum towing speed of an aircraft

• As fast as the slowest walker

Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements

• Initial

• Intermediate

• Permanent

• Heavy Weather

What is the purpose of emergency shore based recovery equipment

• To arrest an aircraft and stop it in the shortest distance in emergency situations such as blown tire, landing gear not down, etc

What is the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier

• Designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks, but the aircraft must have a nose wheel.

What is the minimum Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) required

during routine maintenance

• Work area should be assessed for hazards and each worker given and briefed on the proper PPE for that area

What is the minimal PPE required during flight operations

• Cranial• Jersey (appropriate color)• Goggles• Sound Attenuators• Flight Deck Shoes• Flotation Gear• Survival Light• Whistle

Identify the safety hazard areas associated with intakes

• Suction is the ever present hazard when engines are in operation. Personnel should stand clear and ensure debris is kept clear

Identify the safety hazard areas associated with exhaust

• The 2 most serious hazards are high gas temperatures and high velocity

• During engine start up excess fuel can accumulate in the tailpipe causing flames to shoot out

What safety precaution should personnel use with working

around propellers

• Personnel should NOT approach or depart an aircraft with the propellers turning.

What safety precaution should personnel observe when working

around rotor blades

• Personnel should NOT approach or depart a helicopter while the rotors are being engaged or disengaged

What safety precautions should be observed when working

around hot brakes?

• Never face the side of the wheel, as a tire explosion will travel along the line of the axle

• Always approach the wheel from forward or aft

Explain the significance of the runway numbering system

• Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees.

• If there are two or three parallel runways, they will be designated as Left (L), Right (R), or Center (C)

Explain the significance of Threshold Markings

• Runways 200 feet wide have 10 stripes marking the landing threshold, each 12 wide by 150 feet long that designate the landing area

• For runways less than 200 feet wide, the markings cover the width of the runway less 20 feet on both sides.

Explain the significance of the Airfield Lighting System

• Install to provide visual guidance at night and under low visibility conditions

• Systems are standardized by the Air Force, Navy and FAA to present a uniform appearance.

• When shut down the following lights remain on: Navigable airspace obstruction lights and rotating beacons

Explain the significance of the arm/dearm areas

• An area where ordnance is changed from a state of safe condition to a state of readiness

Explain the significance of the Overrun area

• Provides a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.

• Some are paved and some have yellow chevrons across them

Explain the significance of the Parking Apron

• Used for parking, servicing and loading aircraft

Explain the purpose of the; Wind Indicator; Airfield Rotating Beacon;

Tower Visual Communications

• Wind Indicator- Provides a method of prompt issuance of wind directions and velocities to pilots

• Used to identify the airport’s location, rotation is clockwise when viewed from above

• Coordination device between the radar controller and the control tower. Provides a sequence of lights and switches that supplement other circuits and serve to reduce voice contact between the two

What is the flashing rate on a airfield rotating beacon?

• 12 to 15 flashes per minute

What is TACAN?

• Tactical Air Navigation system- uses a bearing determining system to determine aircraft position and distance from the TACAN station. Primary navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft

Explain the purpose of Crash/Rescue

• Serves to effect rescue of personnel from damaged aircraft on the flight deck, fight fires, make minor emergency repairs to the flight deck

What is the compass calibration pad

• A magnetically quite area where the aircraft compass is calibrated. A minimum of 1 area is provided at every airport

Explain the significance of the Liquid Oxygen (LOX) exchange area

• Designated area used to service aircraft which require LOX

LOX has a temperature and expansion rate of what

• Temperature- - 297 degrees F

• Expansion Rate- 860 - 1

List the safety concerns when working in the LOX exchange area

• Area must be kept free from flammable materials such as wood, cloth, paper, oil, or kerosene

Naval Aircraft

Identify the following types of squadrons: HC, HCS, HM, HS, HSL, HT

• HC- Helicopter Combat Support• HCS Helicopter Combat Support Special

Squadron (Combat rescue)• HM- Helicopter Mine Countermeasures• HS- Helicopter Antisubmarine• HSL- Helicopter Antisubmarine Light• HT- Helicopter Training

Identify the following types of squadrons: VAQ, VAW, VC, VF, VFA,

VMFA, & VP

• VAQ- Tactical Electronic Warfare• VAW- Carrier Airborne Early Warning• VC- Fleet Composite (Utility & Air Services)• VF- Fighter• VFA- Strike Fighter• VMFA- Marine Fighter Attack• VP- Patrol

Identify the following type of squadrons: VQ, VR, VRC, VS VT, VX/VXE

• VQ- Fleet Air Reconnaissance• VR- Aircraft Logistics Support• VRC- Carrier Logistics Support• VS- Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare• VT- Training• VX- Test and Evaluation• VXE- Antarctic Development

What are the missions of the following aircraft: C-2, EA-6B, E-2, F/A-18, F-14,

HH-60F/H

• C-2- Carrier Logistics Support

• EA-6B- Tactical Electronic Warfare

• E-2- Carrier Early Airborne Warning

• F/A-18- Fighter/Attach

• F-14- Fighter

• HH-60F/H- Anti-Submarine Warfare

Aviation Capable Ships

Identify the following class of ships: AE, AD, AFS, AS, AO, & AOE

• AE- Ammunition Ship

• AD- Destroyer Tender

• AFS- Combat Stores Ship

• AS- Submarine Tender

• AO- Oilier

• AOE- Oilier / Ammunition Support Ship

• CG- Guided Missile Cruiser

• CV- Air Craft Carrier (Non-Nuclear)

• CVN- Air Craft Carrier (Nuclear)

• DD- Destroyer

• DDG- Guided Missile Destroyer

• FFG- Guided Missile Frigates

Identify the following class of ships: CG, CV/CVN, DD/DDG, & FFG

• LCC- Amphibious Command Ship• LHA- Amphibious Assault Ship• LHD- Amphibious Warfare Ship• LPD- Amphibious Transport Dock• LPH- Amphibious Assault Ship• LSD- Dock Landing Ship• MCS- Mine Countermeasures Support Ship

Identify the following class of ships: LCC, LHA, LHD, LPD, LPH, LSD, MCS

Other Ships and Submarines

Identify the following classes of ships: ATF, ARS, ASR, AR, MCM, MHC, PC,

SSBN, SSN

• ATF- Fleet Ocean Tug• ARS- Rescue and Salvage Ship• ASR- Submarine Rescue Ship• AR- Repair Ship• MCM- Mine Countermeasures Ship• MHC- Coastal Mine Hunters• PC- Patrol Craft• SSBN- Ballistic Missile Submarine (Nuclear)• SSN- Submarine (Nuclear)

Chemical, Biological & Radiological Warfare (CBR)

Define the term Chemical Warfare

• Intentional use of lethal or non-lethal chemical agents to produce casualties, harass or temporarily incapacitate and demoralize personnel, or contaminate or destroy areas, equipment or supplies.

Define the term Biological Warfare

• Intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people or their domestic animals, to damage crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies

Define the term Radiological warfare

• The deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death to man

Describe the purpose of the MCU-2/P

• Provides protection for the face, eyes, nose, throat, and lungs. Provides filtration of CBR agents. The mask does not provide oxygen and should not be used against smoke or toxic gases such as carbon monoxide

Describe the chemical protective over-garment

• Treated with chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and spray, but do not stop penetration by liquid agents. Consists of trousers, hip length jumper with attached hood, and associated gloves and foot coverings.

Describe wet-weather clothing

• Clothing that protects ordinary clothing and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles. Includes a parka, trousers, rubber boots, and gloves

Discuss the use of Atropine / 2 Pan Chloride auto injector

• Used for nerve agent casualties

• Issued in automatic injectors for self-aid

• If contaminated by nerve agent injections are give in the thigh

Discuss the two types of dosimeters

• IM-143- self-reading pocket dosimeter about the size of a pen. Measures exposure to radiation over a period of time

• DT-60- high-range casualty dosimeter that must be placed in a special computer to determine exposure level of gamma radiation

List the 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their symptoms

• Chocking- dryness of throat, coughing, tightness across chest, headache, nausea and watery eyes

• Nerve- runny nose, tightness of chest with difficulty breathing, contraction of pupils, nausea, cramps, headache, coma, convulsion

• Blood- Breathing becomes deep within a few seconds, violent convulsions over 20 to 30 seconds, stops breathing regularly after 1 minute, heart stops a few minutes after exposure

• Blister- redness of skin, intense itching, blisters, stiffness, throbbing pain and swelling

Describe a high altitude air burst

• Point of detonation is above 100,000 feet

• Causes widespread disturbances in the ionosphere effecting radio waves and other electromagnetic radiations

Describe an air burst

• Develops a huge fireball that does not touch the earth’s surface. All materials within the fireball are vaporized. Vapors condense creating a highly radioactive cloud.

Describe a surface burst

• Develops a fireball that does touch the earth’s surface. Vast amounts of surface material is vaporized and pulled into the cloud and then returns to the earth as fallout

Describe a shallow underwater burst

• Fireball is formed but is normally not visible. Explosion creates a large bubble or cavity upon rising to the surface, expels steam, gases, and debris into the air. Water forms in a column that may reach several thousand feet. A highly destructive shock wave is formed and large wave are created.

Describe a deep underwater burst

• Same a shallow underwater burst, but more of the impact is absorbed by the deep ocean currents contaminating more water

Describe blast effect

• Injuries result from direct action of the air shock wave on the body. Secondary blast injuries are caused by collapsing structures and debris flung about by the blast

Describe flashburn/blindness

• Primary burns are a direct result of thermal radiation. Secondary burns result from fires caused by the explosion.

• Blindness is caused by the intense flash of light and can last between 15 – 45 minutes.

Describe radiation hazards of a nuclear explosion

• Body is contaminated by Alpha & Beta particles and Gamma rays. The greatest concern is residual radiation .

Describe the Electromagnetic Pulse of a nuclear blast

• The pulse lasts for only fractions of a second and can induce large currents in cables and long-lead wires causing the burn out of electronic or electrical equipment.

Define and discuss the Mission Oriented Protective Posture Level I

• Suspected Attack

• Gas masks are issue to all hands and kept at battle stations. An inventory of stowed chemical/biological defense equipment is conducted.

• Possible attack

• Gas masks are carried by each person onboard. Preposition decontamination supplies at DECON stations. Set material condition ZEBRA (modified)

Define and discuss the Mission Oriented Protective Posture Level II

• Probable attack

• New filters are installed on masks. Don protective overgarment. Stow personal decontamination kit in carrier. Go to general quarters and set material condition ZEBRA. Post detection and monitoring teams and activate counter measure wash down system intermittently.

Define and discuss the Mission Oriented Protective Posture Level III

• Imminent attack

• Don gas mask and secure the hood. Continuous monitoring of detection equipment. Set material condition Circle William and activate wash down system continuously.

Define and discuss the Mission Oriented Protective Posture Level IV

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS)

Fundamentals

What instruction covers the NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions

• OPNAVINST 3710.7Q

What is the purpose of NATOPS?

• Positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps.

• Prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities

Explain general aircraft pre-start procedures

• Wheels shall be chocked and parking brake set• Where applicable, install intake screens• Inspect area for FOD• When engine is started by non-pilot personnel the

plane shall be tied down• Adequate fire extinguishing equipment shall be

stationed in the immediate vicinity

What is the meaning of “WARNING” as applied to NATOPS

• An operating procedure, practice or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.

• An operating procedure, practice, or condition, that may result in damage to equipment in not carefully observed or followed.

What is the meaning of “Caution” as applied to NATOPS

• An operating procedure, practice or condition that must be emphasized

What is the meaning of “NOTE” as applied to NATOPS

• Means a procedure that is mandatory

What is the meaning of “SHALL” as applied to NATOPS

• Means a procedure that is recommended

What is the meaning of “SHOULD” as applied to NATOPS

• “May” and “need not” mean the procedure is optional

What is the meaning of “MAY” as applied to NATOPS

• Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure

What is the meaning of “WILL” as applied to NATOPS

What is the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation?

• Intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherence to NATOPS procedures.

What is the purpose of the Naval Flight Records Subsystem (NAVFLIRS)

• Provides a standardized flight activity data collection system. NAVFLIRS is the single-source document for recording flight data and is applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators. Prepared for each attempt at flight. OPNAV 3710/4

State the purpose of master flight files

• The only official flight record of naval aircraft and shall be maintained IAW OPNAVINST 3710.7

Explain the aircraft visual identification system for COMNAVAIRLANT

• First character shall be A through M; second character shall be A through Z

• First character shall be N through Z; second character A through Z

Explain the aircraft visual identification system for COMNAVAIRPAC

• First character shall be A through G; there is no second character

Explain the aircraft visual identification system for CNATRA

General Administration

Discuss the scope of a CO’s authority & responsibility and what establishes it

• CO is ultimately responsible for those under his/her command and their actions

• CO’s authority & responsibility are established by U.S. Navy Regulations, general orders, customs, and tradition

What are the Executive Officer’s primary responsibilities

• The XO is primarily responsible for the organization, performance of duty, and good order and discipline of the entire command.

What policy areas is the Command Master Chief mainly involved with

• Policies pertinent to moral, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of enlisted personnel

What does CMEO stand for and what are program is the individual responsible for

• Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer

• Provides equal opportunity training to the command, including the education and emphasis on giving equal opportunity to all members regardless of race, creed, or religious preference

The position of OMBUDSMAN is a link between who?

• Command and Families

What are the 4 major areas the Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor should be focused on?

• Drug and Alcohol:– Education– Rehabilitation– Identification– Enforcement

Discuss the purpose of personnel counseling

• To discuss personal problems that may require help to solve. Key element is to recognize the scope of the problem and determining if specialists such as a chaplain, medical officer, or legal maybe be needed.

Discuss the purpose of performance counseling

• Counsel personnel on a regular basis to let them know how they are performing and what areas need improvement

Describe the effects of the evaluation on the type of discharge

• Members must maintain an average of 2.7 and 3.0 in conduct average, otherwise a “general” discharge is awarded

• Single most important factor for determining who will be selected for advancement

• 4.0 = Early Promote• 3.8 = Must Promote• 3.6 = Promotable• 3.4 = Progressing• 2.0 = Significant Problems

Describe the effects of the evaluation on advancement

• A good conduct medal will not be awarded to anyone with a performance mark below 3.0 or prior Non-Judicial Punishment or Courts Martial conviction within a three year timeframe

Describe the effects of the evaluation on Good Conduct Medals

• A member with marks under 3.0 will not normally be able to reenlist.

Describe the effects of the evaluation on reenlistment

• Certain assignments require good evaluations. Requirements can be found in the ENLTRANSMAN Chapter 9

Describe the effects of the evaluation on assignment

Explain the use of a naval message

• Principal means by which commanders communicate. They are written thoughts, ideas or information expressed briefly and to the point. It is transmitted electronically to avoid delays.

Explain the purpose of the following message components: Date Time Group; Classification, Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC);

Passing Instructions

• Date Time Group- Includes the date and time expressed in Greenwich Mean Time. (example: 310800ZOCT02)

• Classification- Denotes if the message contains Confidential, Secret, or Top Secret information

• SSIC- 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document. Required on all messages

• Passing Instructions- These guides assist in the automatic internal routing of messages and include flagwords, codewords, etc

What is contained on each of the following service record pages: Page 2, Page 4, Page 13

• Page 2- Emergency Data. Used as a reference for beneficiary data should a service member die on active duty

• Page 4- Enlisted Qualifications History. Chronological history of occupational and training related qualifications, awards, and commendations

• Page 13- Administrative Remarks. Chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere

State the purpose and discuss the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)

• A monthly statement of an activity’s enlisted personnel.

• Lists all individuals assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status.

What is an Operation Report (OPREP) used for

• Used to provide National Command Authorities and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of outbreak of nuclear war

What is a Movement Report (MOVEREP) used for

• Primary source of location information concerning ships. Assist the chain of command in the knowledge of locations, tracks, destinations of all vessels for emergency or operational use

What is a Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ) used for

• Submitted by a ship prior to entering port to notify the proper commands of its logistics requirements while visiting

What is a Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS) used for

• Reports the ship’s status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas and the ability to conduct operations

What is a Situation Report (SITREP) used for

• Used by any unit commanding officer, officer in charge, or other commander to provide appropriate operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification for any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria. Includes: hoax bomb threats, violent crimes, discrimination, or suicide or attempted suicide

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)

What instruction covers the NAMP program

• OPNAVINST 4790.2G

State the objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

• Supports naval operations by the upkeep of aircraft and associated Support Equipment to the assigned level of maintenance.

State the titles and briefly describe the five volumes of NAMP

• Volume I- Concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and Organizational and Intermediate Level Maintenance

• Volume II- Depot Level Maintenance• Volume III- Maintenance Data System (MDS)• Volume IV- Aviation 3M data processing

requirements• Volume V- Standard Operating Procedures

Describe the three levels of aviation maintenance

• Organizational- Performed by an operating unit day to day in support of its own operations

• Intermediate- Performed by designated maintenance activities in support of using organizations.

• Depot- Performed at naval aviation industrial establishments to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods

Discuss the responsibilities of the Maintenance Officer

• Responsible for the accomplishment of the maintenance department mission. Administers procedures in accordance with NAMP.

• Assistant Department Head. Assist the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department. Receives the same training, and is qualified under the guidelines as the MO

Discuss the responsibilities of the Aircraft Maintenance Officer

• Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department. Responsibilities include coordinating and monitoring the department workload, maintaining liaison between supported activities and supply, reviewing Maintenance Data Reports

Discuss the responsibilities of the Maintenance / Material Control Officer

• Maintenance control strives to maintain full mission capable aircraft.

• Production control strives to process item received to keep all non-mission capable and partial-mission-capable parts processed and back to the respective command

Discuss the basic responsibilities of the

maintenance/production control

Describe the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance

• Schedule maintenance is the program of formally ensuring timely discovery and correction of defects. These are periodic prescribed inspections and servicing of equipment, done on hours, cycles or landing and calendar or mileage basis

• Unscheduled maintenance is done on discrepancies and deficiencies found during operations. It consists of fault isolation or troubleshooting, repair, replacement, test, and calibration

What is the purpose of the daily inspection

• Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth that the turnaround or post flight inspections. Valid for 72 hours provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance, other than servicing, is performed. Aircraft may be flown for 24 hours without another daily.

• Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. Valid for 24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing is performed

What is the purpose of the turnaround inspection

• Inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily, calendar, or phase. Special inspections always have a number in them; 14 day, 2000 landing, 2000 hours. These intervals are specified in the Periodic Maintenance Information Card deck

What is the purpose of the special inspection

• Unscheduled conditions requiring and inspection such as a bird strike inspection, lighting strike inspection, hard-landing inspection, Foreign Object Damage (FOD) inspection

What is the purpose of the conditional inspection

• This inspection divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages. Inspects the entire aircraft over a period phases (Cycle A, B, C, D) For F/A-18 phases occur over 800 hours

What is the purpose of the phase inspection

• Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft, from any source, and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance. Includes: inventory of equipment listed in the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR), verification of cartridge actuated devices, escape propulsion systems, configuration verification, hydraulic fluid sampling, daily inspection, and complete a functional check flight

What is the purpose of the acceptance inspection

• Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfer an aircraft or support equipment. It includes an inventory of all items listed on the AIR, configuration verification, hydraulic fluid sampling, and daily inspection

What is the purpose of the transfer inspection

State the purpose of a Functional Check Flight (FCF)

• Used to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories and equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards which subjected to the intended operating environment. Completed at completion of SDLM, acceptance, after engine installation / reinstallation, flight control surface component replacement, attitude system component replacement, certain PHASE inspections, or if the the aircraft has not been flown for 30 days.

State the purpose of the Weight and Balance Program

• Provides service activities with a standard system of field weight and balance control. It also gives the maximum operating weights, center of gravity restrictions and method of loading that is satisfactory for safe flight.

State the purpose of the Aircraft Log Book

• Contains the history of the aircraft and includes the following sections:

– Non-aging record– Flight Time– Inspection Records– Repair and Rework – Technical Directive– Miscellaneous history– Preservation / De-preservation record– Installed explosive devices section– Inventory Record– Assembly service record– Equipment History Record– Scheduled Removal Component Cards– Aviation Life Support Equipment Records– Seat Survival Kit Records, and Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs)

Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?

• Anyone designated in writing by the Commanding Officer

– Usually the Maintenance Officer, Maintenance Senior Chief Petty Officer, Maintenance Chief Petty Officer

Who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight

• Maintenance Officer, Maintenance Senior Chief Petty Officer, or maintenance control officer. Other persons authorized and designated in writing by the Commanding Officer

Discuss the Maintenance Requirement Card (MRC)

• Provides instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks. Each card contains tasks related to a particular system, subsystem, area, or component using a logical sequence for accomplishment.

• Identifies the recommend rating, performance time, work area or zone involved, support equipment needed, consumables, replacement parts, and assistance requirement.

Discuss the Periodic Maintenance Information Cards

(PMIC)

• Used to identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals. They contain component or assembly removal and replacement, airframe structural life limits, maintenance requirements system indexes such as MRCs, conditional inspections, phase change implementation cards

Define an Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)

• Contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued. Contains information required for ordering parts, and for identifying parts and arrangements of parts in assemblies

Define Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs)

• Contains instructions for “O” and “I” level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft. Identifies each maintenance task to the responsible maintenance level

What is the purpose of the Quality Assurance program?

• Prevent the occurrence of defects. The achievement of QA depends on prevention, knowledge and special skills

Explain the responsibilities of a Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)

• Direct representative of the CO for ensuring safety of flight of the item concerned. Certify that the work involved has been personally inspected by them, that it has been properly completed, and is in accordance with current instructions and directives

• Assigned on a temporary or permanent basis. May be assigned when temporary sever shortages of skills will not support the assignment of a QAR.

Explain the responsibilities of a Collateral Duty Quality Assurance

Representative (CDQAR)

• Assigned to production work centers to inspect all work and comply with the QA inspections required during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers.

Explain the responsibilities of a Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)

What is the purpose of a Special QA Audit

• Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs.

• Maybe requested by the work center or when a new work center supervisor is assigned.

• Copies are maintained for one year

What is the purpose of a Quarterly/Work Center QA Audit

• Conducted quarterly to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. All areas of the work center are evaluated.

What is the function of the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)

• Function includes the determination of technical manuals required, receipt and distribution control of manuals, and ensuring manuals are updated throughout the maintenance organization.

• Managed by the QA department

What are the elements of a successful Foreign Object Damage (FOD) program

• Identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors which are a command responsibility and must be a part of the maintenance program.

What is the primary objective of the Tool Control Program?

• Provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task, thus reducing the potential for FOD

What is the purpose of the Fuel Surveillance program

• Provides a system to testing fuel samples for free water, foreign contaminants and microbiological growth in tanks and systems.

• QA monitors this program

What is the purpose of the Navy Oil Analysis program?

• Provides a diagnostic technique to monitor aeronautical equipment without removal or extensive disassembly. QA ensures samples are taken at intervals specified in the appropriate MRCs and MIMs

What is the purpose of the Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO) Surveillance program

• To ensure all personnel working with these systems are thoroughly familiar with the characteristics of ABO, Liquid Oxygen, gaseous hazards and the need for quality standards

What is the purpose of the Hydraulic Contamination Control program

• To achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems, providing for safe and efficient operation of the aircraft and/or support equipment

What is the purpose of the Tire and Wheel Maintenance program

• Provides proper safety training for personnel working with aviation tires

State the purpose of the Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP)

• Training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians. Comprehensive diagnostic testing in specific system or subsystems identifies deficiencies which are targeted for refresher training

Explain the purpose the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)

• Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work. It is prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month and used by supervisors to be award of upcoming requirements. It includes:

– Flight hours, dates of scheduled inspections, training, qualifications, chain-of-command, calibration schedules, Technical Directive compliance dates

Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge (ESD) program

• Provides protected areas for material, equipment, and procedures required to control and minimize electrostatic discharges. ESD protected areas are required when handling ESD parts, assemblies, and equipment outside of their ESD protective covering or packaging

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS)

What functional requirements of NAMP are satisfied by the organizational maintenance activity’s

NALCOMIS?

• To improve mission capability, improve aircraft maintenance and supply support.

• To improve upline reporting and to modernize management support

• Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system user to enter, collect, process, store, review , and report information required by the organization

What functional requirements of NAMP are satisfied by the intermediate maintenance activity’s

NALCOMIS?

Describe the purpose of the following organizational level NALCOMIS subsystems: Maintenance; Flight; Log/Records;

Personnel; Assets; Data Analysis; Reports; Ad Hoc Query

• Maintenance- Collect and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems on the data base

• Flight- Collects and processes flight related data• Logs/Records- Establishes and maintains configuration profiles for

engines, aircraft, and any Aeronautical Equipment Service Record• Personnel- Can be used to monitor qualifications• Assets- Process inventory and inspection criteria for support

equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems• Data Analysis- Approves or disapproves Maintenance Action Forms,

Naval Flight Records for upline submission• Reports- Selects and produces various reports• Ad Hoc Query- Creates user-specific needed or requested reports

Describe the purpose of the following intermediate level NALCOMIS subsystems: Maintenance; Configuration Status Accounting; Personnel Management; Asset Management; Material Requirement Processing;

System Support; Data Off-load/on-load

• Maintenance Activity- Allows maintenance personnel to document maintenance actions, order parts, maintain individual component repair list data and request inquires.

• Configuration Status Accounting- Contains 3 sections: Engines; Support Equipment; & Technical Directives

• Personnel Management- Contains information on assigned military and civilian personnel. Used for workload management and the verify authorization for discrepancy signoffs, QA inspections, MAF Reviews, etc

• Asset Management- The functions required to maintain inventory and utilization data for Support Equipment and IMRL items.

• Material Requirement Processing- Covers material requirements generated by maintenance customers at the O-level and I-level.

• System support- Permits the user to see a list of the on-screen messages that are waiting action

• Data off-load/on-load- Used to generate files, reports, documents, for data off-load / on-load. These items accompany SE and personnel transferred to/from the organization

• Technical Publications- provides an automated technical library tracking system

Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF)

• Used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions. Used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment. Also used to document the removal/installation, and processing of repairable component or item to an I-Level activity or On Site Storeroom

Explain the following blocks on a MAF: Work Unit Code; Job Control Number; MAF Control Number; Discrepancy;

Corrective Action; When Discovered; Type Equipment; Type Maintenance Code

• Work Unit Code (WUC)- Identifies the system or subsystem• Job Control Number (JCN)- 9, 10, 11 character code, that tracks the MAF

through the maintenance process• Maintenance Action Form Control Number (MCN)- 7 character alpha/numeric

code that tracks the MAF through the maintenance process• Discrepancy- Narrative description of the reported discrepancy• Corrective Action- Narrative description of the corrective action taken• When Discovered (W/D)- Single alpha/numeric code indicating when the need

for maintenance was discovered• Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP)- Identifies the type of equipment being

worked on• Type Maintenance (T/M)- One character alpha/numeric code used to describe

the type of work being performed

What is a Special Maintenance Qualification (SMQ)?

• Used to screen the level of security. It determines which screens or parts of the NALCOMIS an individual has access to

Basic Aviation Supply

Discuss the security considerations that apply to an individual’s NALCOMIS log in and password

• Protect you password• Do not share, write down or loan you password• Protect passwords from unauthorized viewing• Do not leave your terminal or computer while

logged in• Know who the security personnel are

Basic Aviation Supply

State the function and responsibilities of material control

• Provide material support to their cognizant organization and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure the material ordered is the material required and delivered to the work center.

State the various functions of Material Control

• Establish delivery / pick-up points for material• Maintain liaison with the supporting ASD on maintenance material matters to ensure the

organizations needs are satisfied• Prepare documents for material required for operational support• Furnish information to the supply activity on the identity and quantity of material• Establish procedures to ensure proper operation of tool rooms and the performance of tool

inventories• Ensure surveys are prepared in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable

material• Perform memorandum OPTAR funding, accounting , charting , and budgeting of costs• Maintain adequate accountability of material and equipment on custody• Maintain inventory control of authorized allowances of material listed in the IMRL and

authorized allowance lists• Validate NMCS / PMCS requisitions daily and maintain current NMCS / PMCS status reports• Perform an inventory of aircraft upon receipt and transfer to ensure inventory log entries are

made

Give examples of items procured with Flight Operations Fund (OFC-01)

• Aviation fuels consumed in flight• Initial & replacement issues of authorized items of flight clothing and flight

operational equipment• Consumable office supplies• Aerial film, recording tape, and chart paper consumed in flight• Flight deck shoes• LOX consumed during flight• Nitrogen used in aircraft and weapons systems• Aircraft maintenance costs/parts when obtained from any other military source• COG 1I forms when not directly used in support of maintenance• Consumable ASW operations center supplies when consumed in flight• Publications used to impart technical and professional knowledge to personnel• Plaques for the CO & XO office only• Special identification clothing (Flight deck jerseys, helmets)

Give examples of items procured with Aviation Fleet Maintenance Fund (AFM)• Paint, wiping rags, towel service, cleaning agent, cutting compounds used in preventive maintenance and corrosion

control• Consumable repair parts, miscellaneous material, and Navy stock account parts used in the direct maintenance of

aircraft• Pre-expended, consumable maintenance material meeting requirements of NAVSUP Pub 485 and NAVSUP Pub 567• Aviation fuel used at I-level in test and check aircraft engines. Oils, lubricants, and fuel additives used at both I-level

and O-level• Allowance list items used strictly for maintenance such as impermeable aprons• Fuels used in related in SE (shipboard only)• Replacement of components used in test bench repair• Maintenance or equipment replacement of aircraft loose equipment listed in AIR• Consumable hand tools used in readiness and maintenance• Safety / Flight deck shoes used in maintenance shops• Repair & maintenance of flight clothing• Authorized decal used on aircraft• Replacement of consumable tools and IMRL allowance list items• Items consumed in interim packaging of aviation fleet maintenance repairable• Items such as MAFs, MAF bags, equipment condition tags used in maintenance• Authorized special purpose clothing• Civilian labor when in direct support of AFT• Costs incurred for IMRL repair• Replacement of General purpose test equipment• IMRL/TBA replenishment/replacement

NALCOMIS Operated Material Control shall order parts utilizing what steps

• Receive requirements from work centers• Use appropriate automated procedures to

provide date to the ASD• Enter date and time ordered in the register• Approve/Disapprove indirect material

requirements from work centers by reviewing message mailbox

Receipt and delivery of parts/material will be accomplished utilizing these steps

• Receive the material and a DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document (1348) from the ASD MDU

• Sign the DD 1348• Enter date and time the material is delivered• Determine if the component is ASR, HER, or SRC card

trackable and the card is available• Distribute received material• Obtain signature of work center personnel on 1348• Turn in defective repairable CRIPL components within 24

hours of receipt

Define the acronym MILSTRIP and state it purpose

• Military Standard Requisitioning & Issue Procedure- A uniform procedure established by DOD for its own use to govern requisition and issue of material within standard priorities

Define & Explain ICRL (Individual Component Repair List)

• A detailed statement of IMA’s component repair capability that contains existing repair capability data on items previously processed by the IMA

• A listing of all authorized remain in place items which is published by NAVICP and approved by the TYCOMSs and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM. Every repairable must have a turn-in

Define & Explain CRIPL (Consolidated Remain-In-Place List)

• Material condition of an aircraft that is not capable of performing any of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage

Define & Explain NMCS (Not Mission Capable Supply)

• Material condition of an aircraft that can perform at least one but not all of its missions because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage

Define & Explain PMCS (Partial Mission Capable Supply)

• A 13 digit stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services Center to identify an item of material in the supply distributions system.

• It consists of a four digit federal supply classification (FSC), and a nine digit National Item Identification Number (NIIN)

Define & Explain NSN(National Stock Number)

• 9 digit number that consist of a two digit national codification bureau (NCB) code and seven digits which, in conjunction with the NCB code, uniquely identify each NSN item in the federal supply distribution system

Define & Explain NIIN (National Item Identification Number)

• Are financed by the NWCF. Under this process, the end user finances the D-level repair and procurement of 7R COG repairable items. Although the squadron initiates repairable demands, the IMA has primary control over whether these transactions would result in AVDLR NWCF charge.

Define & Explain AVDLR (Aviation Depot Level Repair)

• Condition that exists when materials required required to complete a maintenance action are not available on ship or station. The time no work can be performed on the item due to lack of parts that are on order

Define & Explain AWP (Awaiting Parts)

• A consolidated list that shows items and quantities of certain SE required for material readiness of the aircraft ground activity to which the lists applies.

• Test equipment

Define & Explain IMRL (Individual Material Readiness List)

• Establishes a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S

Define & Explain AIR (Aircraft Inventory List)

• The processing of NIS or NC components (repairable) which must be in support of , or related to, an NMCS or PMCS mission

Define & Explain EXREP (Expeditious Repair)

Explain the importance of the aeronautical allowance lists in relation to mission

sustainability

• Lists the equipment and material determined from known or estimated requirements as necessary to place and maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition

State the purpose of the Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form

200)

• Used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed

State the purpose of the Missing/Lost/Stolen Report

• File of reports of missing, lost or stolen items based on Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200) and Report of Discrepancy (ROD) (SF Form 364. Maintained by calendar year.

What is a flight packet used for?

• Contains instructions and forms to assist pilots of aircraft involved in extended flights to obtain material or services which maybe necessary for the continuation of the flight.

What items can be found in a flight packet

• DD 1348 DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document• Purchase Order/Invoice/Voucher (SF44) to procure supplies/services from

commercial concerns• DD 1896 or DD 1897 to procure jet fuel or gas from commercial airport • Instruction for safeguarding and shipping damaged aircraft• Instructions for procuring services and supplies• Statement of Witness (SF 94)• Claim of Damage or Injury (SF 95)• VIDS/MAF (OPNAV 4790/60)• Applicable daily and turnaround inspection MRCs• Fuel Sample Log Sheets• At least 3 oil sample result for aircraft on extended cross country flights

Explain the purpose of Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R) Codes

• Used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions to various logistic support level and using commands for the logistic support of systems, equipment, and end items.

Hazardous Material (HM) / Hazardous Waste (HW)

What is the instruction number for Hazardous Material Control & Management

• OPNAVINST 4110.2

Define the term hazardous material (HM)

• Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled

Define the term hazardous waste (HW)

• Any discarded material (liquid, solid, gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority

Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements

• Storage locations shall be inspected weekly and quarterly, inspect for tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, improper or inadequate labeling, and expired shelf life

State the purpose and information contained on the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

• Technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use

What are the 6 categories of HM?

• Flammable or combustible materials

• Toxic materials

• Corrosive materials

• Oxidizing materials

• Aerosol containers

• Compressed gases

Explain the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered

• Discovery• Notification• Initiation of action• Evaluation• Containment• Damage Control• Dispersion of Gases/Vapors• Cleanup and Decontamination• Disposal

State the personal protection equipment required when handling HM/HW

• Eye protection

• Respiratory devices

• Gloves

Discuss the disposal limitations for adhesives

• Comply with ship/station procedures for handling the disposal of hazardous materials and contaminated rags, absorbents, containers, and clothing

• Planned Maintenance System (PMS) disposal methods shall be followed

• Store used/excess material in approved, labeled containers pending shore disposal

• Comply with ship/station procedures • PMS disposal methods shall be followed• Containerize spent greases or spilled greases in an

approved container, original can, or doubled plastic bags. Seal, label, and store pending shore disposal. No overboard discharge

• Never place grease in shipboard incinerators

Discuss the disposal limitations for adhesives

• Comply with ship and station procedures• PMS disposal methods shall be followed• Containerize spent or spilled hydraulic

fluids in approved containers for proper shore disposal

• Keep collected petroleum hydraulic fluids separate from synthetic hydraulic fluids

Discuss the disposal limitations for hydraulic fluid

• Comply with ship and station procedures• PMS disposal methods shall be followed• Containerize all excess fuels in fire safe

drums for proper shore disposal• Place fuel-contaminated rags/absorbent

materials in fire safe drums for shore disposal

Discuss the disposal limitations for fuels

• Comply with ship and station procedures• PMS disposal methods shall be followed• Containerize spent or spilled oils/lubricants in

approved containers for proper shore disposal• Used/excess oily solid materials maybe thrown

overboard beyond 50 nautical miles from shore• Keep collected petroleum lubricants/oils separate

from synthetic lubricants/oils

Discuss the disposal limitations for waste oils

• Comply with ship and station procedures

• PMS disposal methods shall be followed

• Containerize all used/excess paint materials in approved containers for proper shore disposal

Discuss the disposal limitations for paint / paint thinners

Describe the required HM training

• Types of HM in their work area• What HMs are and how they are disposed of• How to read and interpret hazard warning labels• What an MSDS is, how to read it, and where a

copy is available for review• Protective measures when handling HM• Emergency procedures

Describe the purpose of secondary labeling of HM when removed from the original container

• Use only approved containers, ensure that existing precautionary labeling is retained and that subsequent containers are marked with appropriate precautionary labeling

Discuss the purpose of the HM Authorized Use List (AUL)

• Current inventory of HM, chemical substances, or components know or suspected to contain HM used for local acquisition and use.