cd mcq

PSM &

COMMUNITY

DENTISTRY

MCQ’S RXDENTISTRY

DR. MADAAN

1/1/2009

PSM & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY MCQ’S

WWW.RXDENTISTRY.CO.CC

1. What seating position is generally considered most successful when trying to communicate with a patient? a. Sitting alongside the patient or at a diagonal angle to

them. b. Standing opposite and facing towards the patient c. Making the patient lie down in left lateral position on

the dental chair d. Making the patient lie down in supine position

2. Which of the following food substances can act as

Antioxidants a. Food substances containing reactive oxygen species





b. Food substances containing free radicals c. Food substances containing proteins d. Food substances containing vitamin

3. Xylitol added to chewing gum can reduce the incidence

of dental caries. Which of the following is not a reasonable explanation for such anti cariogenic action of Xylitol a. It increases salivary flow b. It is a non-cariogenic sugar substitute c. It arrests incipient caries lesions d. Cariogenic bacteria are reduced in number

4. Caries spread rate can be well assessed by graphic

analysis of various factors. Which of the following factors are depicted in ‘Stephan’s curve’. a. pH of saliva following a sucrose rise is plotted against

time b. Consumption of sugary snacks between meals plotted

against time c. The effect of acid binding to calcium salts and

removing them from the tooth surface d. Increase in salivary flow and rate of remineralisation

5. Which of the following is NOT a major mechanisms of

action for fluoride in caries inhibition? a. Increases remineralization of enamel. b. Inhibits carbohydrate metabolism c. Reduces enamel solubility. d. ability to prevent reduction of the pH of plaque

6. A parent of a 6-year old child asks about fluoride

supplementation. The child weighs 20 kg and lives in a fluoride-deficient area with less than 0.3 ppm of fluoride ion in drinking water. What do you recommend? a. Sodium fluoride, 1-mg tablets, to be chewed and

swallowed at bedtime. b. Sodium fluoride, 2-mg tablets, to be chewed and

swallowed at bedtime. c. Topically applied gels of 2.0% NaF d. Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF weekly

7. How much fluoride is contained in an average 4.6-ounce

tube of toothpaste? a. 50 mg b. 100mg c. 130mg d. 150mg.

8. The proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time, i.e., (cases)/(population) refers to as

a. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Sensitivity d. Specificity 9. The proportion of persons with the disease who are

correctly identified by a positive test or a true-positive rate refers to as

a. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Sensitivity d. Specificity

10. The middle-most measurement (50th percentile)—i.e., half the observations are below it and half are above refers to as

a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Mid line

11. Alternatives to systemic fluoride supplementation tablets are gels and mouth rinses. Stannous fluoride SnF used

in the form form of gels and mouth rinses is in the concentration of a. Topically applied gels of 0.4% SnF and Mouth rinses of

0.1% SnF daily b. Topically applied gels of 0.04% SnF and Mouth rinses

of 0.5% SnF daily c. Topically applied gels of 0.4% SnF and Mouth rinses of

0.5% SnF daily d. Topically applied gels of 0.04% SnF and Mouth rinses

of 0.1% SnF daily

12. For effective caries control a 5 year old child staying in a area where concentration of fluoride ion in drinking water is 0.3 - 0.6 PPM should consume a fluoride tablet of

a. 0.25 mg b. 0.50 mg c. 1 mg d. 2 mg

13. Which type of study most closely resembles a true experiment?

a. Cohort study b. Case-control study c. Retrospective study d. Clinical trial study

14. The Vipeholm study revealed the effect of various diet factors on dental decay? The occurrence of dental caries is most dependent on which factors

a. Amount and form of diet b. Form and Frequency of diet c. Amount and Frequency of diet d. All of the above

15. Root caries is seen predominantly in what patient population?

a. Infants b. Teenagers c. Adults d. Elderly

16. The useful physical attending skills that comprise the nonverbal component of communication are all except

a. Eye contact b. Facial expression c. Forward lean and proximity d. Open-ended questioning

17. The categories of disease are based on clinical criteria such as the amount of bone loss, pocket depth, and mobility. Type III of disease is synonymous with

a. Gingivitis b. Mild penodontitis c. Moderate periodontitis d. Severe or advanced periodontitis

18. All of the following Indicators are included In physical quality of life index (PQLI) except:

a. Infant mortality rate b. Literacy rate c. Per capita income d. Life expectancy at age one 19. 85% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette

smoking. It is a measure of a. Incidence rate b. Relative risk c. Attributable risk d. Absolute risk 20. All are true about herd immunity, except:

a. Depends on clinical and subclinical cases b. Influenced by immunization. c. Depends on the presence of alternative host. d. Herd immunity is constant.

21. Endemic Disease means that a disease: a. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy b. Is constantly present in a given population group c. Exhibits seasonal pattern d. Is prevalent among animals.

22. Which one of the following is a good Index of the



severity of an acute disease? a. Cause specific death rate b. Case fatality rate c. Standardized mortality ratio d. Five year survival

23. A study 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of:

a. Cross-sectional study b. Retrospective cohort study c. Concurrent cohort study d. Case-control study

24. All of the following are used as proxy measure for incubation period except.

a. Latent period b. Period of communicability c. Serial interval d. Generation time

25. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate Includes: a. All the people living in next fifty houses b. All the close contacts c. All susceptible amongst close contact d. All susceptible in the whole village

26. Iron and Folic acid supplementation forms: a. Health promotion b. Specific protection c. Primordial prevention d. Primary prevention

27. The most important function of sentinel surveillance is: a. To find the total amount of disease in a population b. To plan effective control measures c. To determine the trend of disease in a population d. To notify disease.

28. Serial interval is: a. Time gap between primary and secondary case b. Time gap between index and primary case c. Time taken for a person from infection to develop

maximum infectivity d. The time taken from infection till a person infects

another person.

29. The association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be as follows:

CAD No CAD Smokers 30 20 Non smokers 20 30 The odds ratio can be estimated as: a. 0.65 b. 0.8 c. 1.3 d. 2.25

30. In a community, an increase in new cases denotes: a. Increase in incidence rate b. Increase in prevalence rate c. Decrease in incidence rate d. Decrease in prevalence rate

31. Primary prevention does not include: a. Early diagnosis and treatment. b. Health promotion c. Specific protection d. Health education 32. All are true regarding point-source epidemic except:

a. All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously; b. Children are most commonly affected c. Occurs within a specified period d. No secondary waves.

33. Study of time place and person is called as: a. Experimental epidemiology b. Analytical epidemiology c. Descriptive epidemiology d. Randomised controlled trial

34. Incidence rate is measured by:

a. Case control study b. Cohort study c. Cross sectional study d. Crossover study.

35. True statements about case fatality rate is: a. It is a ratio b. It is a proportion c. Numerator is always constant d. Numerator and denominator are separate entities

36. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect. a. True positives b. True negatives c. False negatives d. False positives

37. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy people:

a. Screening b. Surveillance c. Case finding d. Notification. 38. To test the association between risk factor and disease,

which of the following is the weakest study design: a. Case-control study b. Ecological study c. Cohort study d. Cross-sectional study

39. Quarantine is treated to: a. Minimum incubation period b. Maximum incubation period c. Serial interval d. Generation time 40. In case control study of buccal carcinoma:

a. CA is commoner in zarda pan users than non users b. Zarda pan is a cause of buccal CA c. Zarda pan is associated with buccal CA d. If use of zarda pan is stopped, number of cases will reduce

41. Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied, which represents

a. Nominal scale b. Ordinal scale c. Interval scale d. Ratio scale

42. In a stable situation: a. Incidence = Prevalence + Duration b. Prevalence = Incidence × Duration c. Incidence = Prevalence × Duration d. Prevalence = Incidence + Duration

43. Consider the following statements: Digestibility coefficient of protein is the:

1. Percentage of nitrogen retained out of the nitrogen absorbed from the diet

2. Gain in weight of living animals per unit weight of protein consumed

3. Percentage of ingested protein absorbed into the blood stream after the process of digestion is complete

Of these statements: a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 1 and 2 are correct c. 3 alone is correct d. 1 alone is correct

44. An ideal mid-day school meal should provide a daily intake of at least: a. 1/2 of calories and 1/2 of proteins b. 1/2 of calories and 2/3 of proteins c. 1/3 of calories and 1/2 of proteins d. 1/2 of calories and 1/3 of proteins

45. The best way of studying ‘perinatal mortality rate’ in a rural area is by: a. Studying hospital data



b. Following a group of pregnant women admitted in a maternity ward

c. Following up to confinement stage, a group of antenatal cases registered in a health centre

d. Studying all still births and neonatal deaths

46. Which one of the following is the most sensitive indicator of recent transmission of malaria in a community? a. Annual parasite index b. Slide positivity rate c. Spleen rate d. Infant parasite rate

47. The period of life cycle of plasmodium in the anopheles mosquito is referred to as the: a. Incubation period b. Extrinsic incubation period c. Intrinsic incubation period d. Latent period

48. Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in: A. Fleas B. Fleas & Mosquitoes C. Mosquitoes & Ticks D. Sandfly

49. Consider the following statements: The term “disease control” describes ongoing operations aimed at reducing the: 1. Incidence of disease 2. Financial burden to the community 3. Effect of infection including both physical and

psychological complications 4. Duration of disease and its transmission

Of these statements: a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

50. Investigation of an epidemic in a community includes all of the following except: a. Verification of case b. Confirmation of the epidemic c. Isolation of cases d. Studying ecofactors

51. The relative risk of disease associated with exposure is obtained from the: a. Ratio of incidence among the exposed divided by

incidence among the non-exposed b. Ratio of incidence among the non-exposed divided by

incidence among the exposed c. Ratio of prevalence among the exposed divided by

prevalence among the non-exposed d. Rate of incidence among the exposed minus the rate of

incidence among the non-exposed.

52. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Growth monitoring – Growth chart 2. Primary prevention – Immunization 3. Nutritional surveillance – Health education

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2

53. What is the elemental iron content in the iron and folic acid tablets supplied by the hospitals and health centres to the pregnant women under the CSSM programme? a. 60 mg b. 66 mg c. 100 mg d. 200 mg

54. In a district, the immunization programme was evaluated by assessing the reduction in prevalence of disease in terms of the monetary expenditure involved. This process is called:

a. Cost accounting b. Cost benefit analysis c. Cost effectiveness analysis d. Programme evaluation and review

55. The multidrug regimen under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme for the treatment of all multibacillary leprosy would include: a. Clofazimine, thiacetazone and dapsone b. Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone c. Ethionamide, rifampicin and dapsone d. Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone

56. Which of the following indicators are consolidated in computing the ‘physical quality of life index’ (PQLI)? 1. Infant mortality 2. Economic status 3. Life expectancy at age one 4. Literacy 5. Maternal mortality

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: a. 2, 3 and 5 b. 1, 2 and 4 c.1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 4 and 5

57. Prevention of emergence of risk factors is: a. Primordial prevention b. Primary prevention c. Secondary prevention d. Tertiary prevention

58. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a. Serial interval – Time interval between the onset of primary case and secondary case b. Generation time –Time required for the completion of desired family size by an eligible couple c. Median incubation period –Time required for 50% of the case to occur, following exposure d. Latent period – The period from disease initiation to disease detection

59. Consider the following types of epidemics: 1. Common source epidemics 2. Periodic epidemics 3. Propagated epidemics 4. Slow epidemics

The three major types of epidemics would include: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4

60. Consider the following statements: Propagated epidemic curve is characterised by:

1. Many peaks 2. More than one incubation period 3. Steep and abrupt onset 4. Prolonged epidemic tail

Of these statements: a. 1 and 4 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct d.1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

61. Which one of the following is the best indicator of

protein quality for recommending the dietary protein requirement? a. Protein efficiency ratio b. Biological value c. Digestibility coefficient d. Net protein utilization

62. Provision of carotene rich diet in order to prevent

xerophthalmia is a measure under:



a. Health promotion b. Specific protection c. Early diagnosis and treatment d. Rehabilitation

63. Pasteurisation of milk is an example of: a. Precurrent disinfection b. Concurrent disinfection c. Terminal disinfection d. Absolute disinfection

64. Dietary fats are often classified as visible and invisible fats. Visible fats are so classified because: a. The fats in the diet are visible to the naked eye b. It is easy to estimate their content in the diet c. The deficiency manifestations due to these fats are

easily visible d. Of no particular reason other than the need to

distinguish between one set of fats from another 65. As per nutritional surveys, the diet of an average Indian

of lower socio-economic strata is highly deficient in: a. Thiamin b. Riboflavin c. Nicotinic acid d. Vitamin C

66. Low birth-weight babies are at a higher risk of dying in the first week of life due to: a. Congenital anomaly, birth injury and infections b. Birth injury, convulsions and asphyxia c. Convulsions, congenital anomaly and hypothermia d. Hypothermia, asphyxia and infections

67. Which of the following should be stored in a deep freezer in order to preserve their potency? 1. BCG vaccine 2. Oral polio vaccine 3. Measles vaccine 4. DPT vaccine

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

68. A Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) of one by 2000 AD

would help to achieve stabilization of population in about 50 years. For this purpose, the Couple Protection Rate (CPR) by 2000 AD should be at least: a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60%

69. Match List-I (Diseases) with List-II (Animal reservoirs) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II a. Balantidiasis 1. Rat b. Endemic typhus 2. Cattle c. Q-fever 3. Dog d. Echinococcosis 4. Pig Codes: a. a b c d b. a b c d c. a b c d d. a b c d 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 4 3 2

70. The recommended total dose of diethylcarbamazine (DEC) for mass drug administration in areas where W. bancrofti infection is endemic is: a. 36 mg/kg body weight b. 46 mg/kg body weight c. 60 mg/kg body weight d. 72 mg/kg body weight

71. Which one of the following represents filaria endemicity rate? a. Microfilaria rate b. Filaria disease rate

c. Mosquito infestation rate d. Combination of microfilaria and disease rate

72. Match List-I (Trace elements) with List-II (Deficiency states) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List-I List-II a. Magnesium 1.Growth failure b. Iodine 2.Tetany c. Zinc 3.Protein energy malnutrition d. Selenium 4.Goitre Codes: a. a b c d b. a b c d c. a b c d d. a b c d 4 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 1

73. Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition given by Indian Academy of Paediatrics has adopted: a. ICMR standards b. Standards developed by National Institute of Nutrition,

Hyderabad c. Local standards d. NCHS standards

74. The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of a xerophthalmia problem in the community is: a. Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6

months to 6 years age group b. Prevalence of Bitot’s spots more than 2% in 6 months

to 6 years age group c. Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/100 ml in

more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years age group d. Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6

months to 6 years age group

75. The index for chronic malnutrition is: a. Weight for age b. Height for age c. Weight for height d. Quetlet’s index

76. All the following steps are recommended under Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative promoted by the WHO and UNICEF except: a. Allowing mothers and infant to remain together for 24

hours a day b. Mother to initiate breast feeding after 4 hours of normal

delivery c. Giving newborn infant no food or drink other than

breast milk d. Encouraging breast feeding on demand

77. When considering communication, what percentage is

'verbal' communication considered to contribute? a. 7%. b. 20%. c. 33%. d. 60%.

78. 'How often do you attend the hygienist?' is an example of a: a. Leading question. b. Closed question.

c. Open question. d. Focused question. 79. Perceived need is:

a Need perceived by a professional. b Need perceived by health agency.

c. Need perceived by government. d. Need perceived by a patient.



80. In a general conversation, what percentage of the time has mutual eye contact been shown to occur? a. 5%. b. 15%. c. 25%. d. 35%.

81. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin? a. D. b. B6. c. E. d. K. 82. Which of the following conditions is not linked to

excessive consumption of specific foods? a. Obesity. b. Diabetes mellitus type I. c. Cardiovascular disease. d. Dental caries. 83. Which of the following provides the greatest source of

energy (kcal/g)? a. Alcohol. b. Protein. c. Carbohydrates. d. Fat. 84. What is the maximum percentage of total carbohydrate

intake that sugars should form? a. 25%. b. 15%. c. 30%. d. 35%. 85. The most commonly used index for recording tooth wear

was reported by: a. Turesky. b. Quigley Hine. c. Smith and Knight. d. Thylstrup and Fejerskov. 86. After drinking fruit juice the teeth should be brushed: a. After 5 minutes. b. After 10 minutes. c. After 15 minutes. d. After 20 minutes. 87. Fluoride gel for home use has an approximate

concentration of: a. 12 000–15 000 ppm. b. 8000–12 000 ppm. c. 6000–8000 ppm. d. 1000–5000 ppm. 88. Which of the following is not added to toothpaste as a

detergent? a. Sodium bicarbonate. b. Sodium lauryl sulphate. c. Sarcosinate. d. Sodium N-lauryl. 89. What type of fluoride is most commonly found in

toothpaste? a. Stannous fluoride and potassium chloride. b. Strontium chloride and potassium fluoride. c. Sodium monofluorophosphate and sodium fluoride. d. Potassium fluoride and sodium fluoride. 90. What concentration of fluoride in toothpaste should be

recommended for a 6-year-old child with a low caries risk, living in a fluoridated area?

a. 100 ppm. b. 600 ppm. c. 1450 ppm. d. 2600 ppm. 91. The concept of pit and fissure sealants was introduced

by: a. Mckay. b. Black. c. Buonocore. d. Bowen. 92. What is the correct sequence of the four As of smoking

cessation advice? a. Ask, advise, arrange, assist.

b. Ask, arrange, advise, assist. c .Assist, advise, arrange, ask. d .Advise, arrange, ask, assist. 93. One of the constituents of a mercury spillage kit is: a. Calcium chloride. b. Sodium chloride. c. Flowers of sulphur. d. None of these. 94. It is a legal requirement for a first aid box to have: a. A white cross on a green background. b. A green cross on a white background. c .A red cross on a white background. d. A white cross on a red background. 95. Which of these treatments is a dental therapist not

permitted to carry out? a. Fissure sealants. b. A simple filling in a permanent tooth. c. Treat a patient under sedation without a dentist

sedationist. d. Place a pre-formed crown on a deciduous tooth.

96. The definition of prevalence rate is:

a. The total number of new cases of disease in a given period of time.

b. The change in the number of new cases of disease in a given period of time.

c. The total number of the population which have a disease during a given period of time.

d. The change in the total number of the population which have a disease during a given period of time.

97. Within epidemiology, rates can be defined as:

a. Specific, standardised and crude. b. Detailed, benchmarked and basic. c. Exact, measured and simple. d. Detailed, averaged and complex.

98. The term ‘dmft’ means:

a. Decayed missing, filled permanent teeth. b. Decomposed, misplaced, full permanent teeth. c. Decayed, missing, filled deciduous teeth. d. Dying, malformed, fissured deciduous teeth.

99. Against which main criterion is primary dental care

funding considered? a. National health trends. b. Local community and population needs. c. International evidence-based surveys. d. National prevention strategies.

100. 24 year female has loss of enamel anterior teeth, it must

be due to a. Caries b. Fracture c. Erosion d. Abrasion

1. Ans. A



2. Ans. D. Antioxidants counter the effect of reactive oxygen species (free radicals). Free radicals are produced as part of the body’s natural metabolic processes and can damage DNA and proteins; these cells may be more prone to developing cancer. Many food substances such as vitamins have antioxidant properties.

3. Ans. C Xylitol is a non-cariogenic sugar substitute. Chewing gum increases salivary flow and aids remineralisation. It

reduces the Streptococcus mutans count. 4. Ans. A. The fall in pH of saliva following a sucrose rise is plotted against time, showing that the pH drops rapidly and can

take up to 60 minutes to return to a neutral pH. 5. Ans. D 1. The topical effect of constant infusion of a low concentration of fluoride into the oral cavity is thought to increase

remineralization of enamel. 2. Fluoride inhibits glycolysis in which sugar is converted to acid by bacteria. 3. During tooth development, fluoride is incorporated into the developing enamel hydroxyapatite crystal, which reduces enamel

solubility. 6. Ans. A: Tablets are available in doses of 1.0 mg and 0.5 mg for children and toddlers. For infants, supplemental fluoride is

available as 0.125-mg drops. 7. Ans. C Either sodium monoflurophosphate or sodium fluoride toothpaste contains approximately 1.0 mg of fluoride per gram

of paste. Therefore, a 4.6-oz tube of toothpaste contains 130 mg of fluoride. A level of 435 mg of fluoride consumed in a 3-hour period is considered fatal for a 3-year-old child. Therefore, only a little over 3 tubes of toothpaste need to be consumed to reach a fatal level

8. Ans. B. Prevalence is the proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time, i.e., (cases)/(population). A dentist counts the number of patients presenting to the office with newly diagnosed periodontal disease in a 6-month

period. Ten of the 100 people who came to the office had periodontal disease. The incidence rate is calculated as 10/100 in 6 months, or 0.2 per year. The range for incidence rates is from zero to infinity. The prevalence of periodontal disease may be obtained by counting all patients with periodontal disease in the same period—that is, if 50 of the 100 patients have periodontal disease, the prevalence is 50%. Remember, incidence is a rate and requires a unit of time, whereas prevalence is a proportion and is expressed as a percentage of the population.

9. Ans. C Sensitivity and specificity are measures that describe how good the radiograph is in such differentiation. Sensitivity

measures the proportion of persons with the disease who are correctly identified by a positive test (true-positive rate). Specificity measures the proportion of persons without disease that are correctly identified by a negative test (true-negative rate). Sensitivity and specificity are inversely proportional; as the specificity of a test increases, the sensitivity decreases.

10. Ans. B The three terms are measures of central tendency and are used to provide a summary measure to characterize a group

of people. The mean represents the average. It is calculated by adding together all of the observations and then dividing by the total number of measurements. The mean takes into account the magnitude of each observation and, as a result, is easily affected by extreme values. The median is defined as the middle-most measurement (50th percentile)—i.e., half the observations are below it and half are above. Therefore, the median is unaffected by extreme measures. The mode is the most frequently used observation.

11. Ans. A 1. Topically applied gels of 2.0% NaF, 0.4% SnF, 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) 2. Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF weekly, 0.05% NaF daily, 0.1% SnF daily 12. Ans. A: Supplemental Fluoride Dosage Schedule

CONCENTRATION OF FLUORIDE ION IN DRIN KING WATER AGE < 0.3 0.3 - 0.6 >0.6 PPM 6 mo to 3 yr 0.25 mg 0 0 3-6 yr 0.50 mg 0.25 mg 0 6-16 yr 1 mg 0.50 mg 0 13. Ans. D. In a clinical trial, the investigator allocates the participants to the exposure groups of interest and then follows the

groups over time to observe how they differ in outcome. This method most closely resembles an experiment. 14. Ans. B. This study, conducted in a mental institution in Vipeholm, Sweden, is considered unethical and will not be repeated.

The study divided patients into groups who received different doses of sugars. The sugar differed in amount, form, frequency, and whether it was consumed between meals. The most significant finding of the study was that the form and frequency of sugar consumption were most related to the occurrence of dental caries—that is, frequent consumption of sticky sugars increased the occurrence of dental caries.



15. Ans. D. The elderly. The rising incidence of root caries can be attributed to the aging of populations in industrialized societies and the fact that most adults are retaining more teeth. Increased gingival recession with exposure of root surfaces leads to the development of root caries.

16. Ans. D The adept use of face, voice, and body facilitates the classic bedside manner, including the following: Eye contact. Looking at the patient without overt staring establishes rapport. Facial expression. A smile or nod of the head to affirm shows warmth, concern, and interest. Vocal characteristics. The voice is modulated to express meaning and to help the patient to understand important issues.

Body orientation. Facing patients as you stand or sit signals attentiveness. Turning away may seem like rejection. Forward lean and proximity. Leaning forward tells a patient that you are interested and want to hear more, thus facilitating

the patient’s comments. Proximity infers intimacy, whereas distance signals less attentiveness. In general, 4—6 feet is considered a social, consultative zone.

17. Ans. C: The disease is classified according to its severity: Type I Gingivitis Type II Mild penodontitis 18. Ans: C Ref: Park 18E p 16: Components of physical quality of life index (PQLI) includes. • Infant Mortality Rate

• Life expectancy at Age one • Literacy

• Scale 0 to 100 • Ultimate object is to attain a PQLI =100

19. Ans : C Ref. Park 18E P 72 : Attributable risk AR It indicates to what extent the disease under study can be attributed to exposure. AR gives a better idea than relative risk of the impact of successful preventive or public health Programme might have in reducing the problem.

AR = Incidence rate among exposed Cohort study Yields Attributable risk Incidence rate Relative risk 20. Ans D : Ref. Park 18E, p95 It is the level of resistance of a community or group of people to a particular disease. Herd immunity provides an immunological barrier to the spread of disease in the human herd. The epidemic wave declined with a build-up of herd immunity following natural infection. Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in a community is responsible for herd immunity. 21. Ans :B Ref. Park 18e, p 86 It refers to the constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic area or population without

importation from outside. Hyper endemic - Disease constantly present at high incidence or prevalence rate. - Affect all age group. Holo endemic - High level of infection early in life. - Affect most of child population. 22. Ans. B: Ref. Park 18E, p 52 Case fatality rate = Total number of death due to particular disease / Total number of cases due to the same disease x 100 It denotes killing power of disease, like severity. No time interval specified.

Useful in acute infectious diseases. It denotes virulence of an agent.

23. Ans: c Ref Park 18E, p 69 – 70 Prospective cohort study (concurrent cohort study) When investigation begun, outcome (disease) has not yet occurred. Retrospective (Historical) cohort study Outcome has all occurred before the start of study. The investigator goes back in time to select his study group and trace them forward through time. 24. Ans B: Ref. Park 18E, p 92 : Incubation period = Latent period = Serial interval = Generation time 25. Ans. C: Secondary attack rate - is an important measure of communicability. It is defined as the number of exposed person

developing the disease within the range of incubation period owing exposure to primary case 26. Ans. B Ref. Park 18E p 38: Specific protection Includes

Incidence of disease rate among exposed Incidence of disease rate among non-exposed

Type III Moderate periodontitis

Type IV Severe or advanced periodontitis



a. Immunization. b. Use of specific Nutrients. c. Chemoprophylaxis. d. Protection against accident, carcinogen etc. e. Protection against occupational hazards 27. Ans. A Ref. Park 18E, p 36 Sentinel surveillance is A method for identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases is known as.

The sentinel data is extrapolated to the entire population to estimate the disease prevalence in the total population. So it helps in estimating the total amount of disease in a community

28. Ans: A: Serial interval: The time gap between the onset of primary case and secondary case is called serial interval. Incubation period: The time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and appearance of the first sign or symptom of the

disease. 29. Ans: D Ref. Park 18E, p 67 : Odds Ratio - It is measure of strength of Association between risk factor and outcome. Derivation of odd ratio is based on three assumptions. 1. Disease being investigated must be rare. 2. Case must be representative of those with disease. 3. Control must be representative of those without disease 30. Ans: A Ref. Park 18E,p 55 : Incidence rate is defined as the number of new cases occurring in a defined population during

specific period of time. P (Prevalence) = I x D= (Incidence x Mean duration of disease) 31. Ans. A Ref. Park 18E, p 37 : Early diagnosis and treatment is a component of secondary prevention. Use of specific nutrient (Fe and folic acid) to prevent anemia is specific protection which come under primary prevention. 32. Ans. A Ref. Park 18E, p 58 : Characteristics of Point source epidemic are: 1. Epidemic curve has rapid rise and rapid fall 2. Epidemic tends to be explosive 3. All the cases develop within one incubation period of the disease. 33. Ans C: Description of disease in term of time, place and person is a feature of 'Descriptive epidemiology. All other option

involve to analyse hypothesis formulated by descriptive epidemiology 34. Ans.B Ref. Park 18/e, p 63 Case control study Odd ratio calculated Cohort study Incidence rate, Relative risk, Attributed risk calculated Cross sectional study Prevalence rate is calculated (measured) 35. Ans. A Ref. Park 18E, p 5 : Case fatality rate (CFR) represent killing power of a disease. It is simply the ratio of death to cases. 36. Ans. B Ref. Park 18E, p 117: Specificity : Ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have disease. It identifies

TRUE NEGATIVE so that test having specificity is used for conformation of diagnosis. Specificity = True negative / False positive + True negative x 100 37. Ans. A: Ref. Park 18E, p 119 Screening is the Active search for disease among apparently healthy people is a fundamental aspect of prevention. 38. Ans. D 39. Ans B Ref. Park 18E, p 101 1. There is restriction on the healthy contacts. 2. Time of restriction is longest incubation period of disease. Types: Absolute Quarantine Modified quarantine Segregation 40. Ans C : Case control study does not establish the cause and effect relationship but it tells the association between and effect,

hence Zarda pan is associated with buccal CA. 41. Ans B 42. Ans B Given the assumption that population is stable and incidence and duration are unchanging the relationship between

incidence and prevalence can be expressed as: Prevalence = Incidence × Mean duration. Prevalence: All current cases (old and new) existing at a given point in time or over a period time in a given population. It is of 2 types: 1. Point prevalence. 2. Period prevalence. Uses of prevalence: � Helps to estimate the magnitude of health/disease problems in the community and identify potential high risk population.

� Useful for planning and administrative purposes.



43. Ans C a. Protein efficiency ratio: It is the measure of weight gain of a growing animal with reference to its protein intake. b. Net protein utilization: It is product of biological value and digestibility coefficient divided by 100. It is the proportion of

ingested protein that is retained in the body under specified conditions for the maintenance and/or growth of the tissues. c. Biological value: d. Digestibility coefficient: It is the percentage of ingested protein that is absorbed in blood stream.

44. Ans C � Mid-day meal programme (MDMP) is also known as ‘school lunch programme’ since 1961. � Principles for mid-day meal programme: – Meal should be a supplement and not a substitute to the home diet. – Meal should supply at least 1/3rd of the total energy requirement and 1/2 of the protein need. – Cost of the meal should be reasonably low. � Meal should be such that it can be prepared easily in schools. � Menu should be frequently changed to avoid monotony.

45. Ans D Perinatal mortality is a significant yardstick of obstetric and paediatric care before and around the time of birth. It gives

a good indication of the extent of pregnancy wastage as well as the quality and quantity of health care available to the mother and the newborn.

In includes both the still births and early neonatal deaths (within first week). In India, stillbirths are seldom registered. Consequently, most studies on perinatal mortality are hospital based.

46. Ans D � Infant parasite rate is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality. � Annual parasite incidence is a sophisticated measure of malaria incidence in a ccomunity. � Spleen rate is widely used for measuring the endemicity of malaria in a community. � Slide positivity rate provides information on the trend of malaria transmission.

47. Ans B Period of time required for the development of parasite from gametocyte to sporozoite stage in the body of the mosquito is about 10-20 days depending upon favourable conditions of atomspheric temperature and humidity. This period is also referred to as the extrinsic incubation period. 48. Ans C : Transovarian transmission of the yellow fever virus in mosquitoes has been shown to occur in adverse conditions

(during extended dry seasons), in the absence of susceptible hosts. � When the infectious agent is transmitted vertically from the infected female to her progeny in the vector, it is known as

transovarian transmission. In yellow fever transovarian transmission of virus occurs in adverse conditions. In ticks and mite there is transovarian transmission of rickettsial diseases, thus acting as arthropod reservoir.

� Transmission of the disease agent from one stage of life cycle to another as for example nymph to adult is known as trans-stadial transmission. In ticks infection is maintained trans-stadially. Experiments have also shown transovarian transmission of infection through successive generations in ticks.

49. Ans D Disease control: Operation aimed at reducing:

1. The incidence of disease. 2. The duration of disease and consequently the risk of transmission. 3. The effects of infection, including both the physical and psychological complications.

4. The financial burden to the community. Most of disease control programme combine both primary prevention or secondary prevention. � In disease control, disease ‘agent’ is permitted to persist in the community at a level where it ceases to be pubic health

problem according to the tolerance of the local population. Disease elimination is used to describe ‘interruption of transmission of disease’. Disease eradication means tear out by roots. Eradication of disease implies termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of the infectious agent.

50. Ans C Investigation of an epidemic In investigation of an epidemic, it is desired to have an orderly procedure or practical guidelines as outlined below which are

applicable for almost any epidemic study. 1. Verification of diagnosis. 2. Confirmation of the existence of an epidemic. 3. Defining the population at risk. 4. Rapid search for all cases and their characteristics. 5. Data analysis. 6. Formulation of hypothesis. 7. Testing of hypothesis. 8. Evaluation of ecological factors. 9. Further investigation of population at risk. 10. Writing the report.

51. Ans A Relative risk/risk ratio: Ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed persons and incidence among non-

exposed. Case-control study does not provide incidence rates from which relative risk can be calculated directly, because there is no appropriate denominator or population at risk, to calculate these rates. Relative risk can be exactly determined only from cohort study.



52. Ans D Growth chart or road to health chart is designed primarily for the longitudinal follow up of physical growth and development (growth monitoring) of a child.

Primary prevention is action taken prior to the onset of disese, which removes the possibility that a disease will ever occur. It can be accomplished by measures designed to promote general health and well being and quality of life of people or by specific protective measures. Primary prevention strategies include health promotion and specific protection. Health promotion measures include health education, environmental modifications, nutritional interventions, lifestyle and behaviroual changes.

The specific protection measures include: a. Immunization. b. Use of specific nutrients. c. Chemoprophylaxis. d. Protection against occupational hazards. e. Protection against accidents. f. Protection from carcinogens. g. Avoidance of allergens. h. Control of specific hazards in the general environment e.g., air pollution, noise control. i. Control of consumer product quality and safety of foods, drugs, cosmetics etc.

Nutritional surveillance is defined as keeping watch over nutrition, in order to make decisions that will lead to improvement in nutrition in population. Three distinct objectives have been defined for surveillance systems:

a. To aid long term planning in health and development. b. To provide input for programme management and evaluation. c. To give timely warning and intervention to prevent short term food consumption crises.

Health education is a process aimed at encouraging people to want to be healthy, to know how to stay healthy, to do what they can individually and collectively to maintain health and to seek help when needed.

53. Ans C Under the CSSM programme to make up for the extra iron requirements during pregnancy, the diet of pregnant women

must be supplemented with iron and folic acid (IFA) tablets. � All pregnant women must be given 1 tablet daily of IFA-large (containing 100 mg of elemental iron) for at least 100 days.

IFA tablets should be continued till delivery. � Women with visible signs of anaemia must be given 2 tablets of IFA-large daily. � Those with haemoglobin levels below 11 gm% should also receive 2 tablets daily.

54. Ans C Cost-benefit analysis: Management technique in which economic benefit of any programme are compared with the cost

of that programme. The benefits are expressed in monetary terms to determine whether a given programme is economically sound and to select the best out of several alternate programmes.

Cost-effective analysis is more promising tool than cost-benefit analysis. In it the benefit instead of being expressed in monetary terms is expressed in terms of results achieved e.g., number of lives saved or number of days free from disease.

Cost accounting provides basic data on cost structure of any programme. Financial records are kept in a manner permitting costs to be associated with the purpose for which they are incurred.

Programme evaluation and review technique is a management technique which makes possible more detailed planning and more comprehensive supervision. In it an arrow diagram is constructed which represents the logical sequence in which events must take place.

55. Ans B Treatment of multibacillary leprosy case: � Rifampicin : 600 mg once monthly given under supervision. � Dapsone: 100 mg daily, self administered. � Clofazimine: 300 mg once monthly supervised and 50 mg daily, self-administered. Recommended duration for multibacillary leprosy is 12 months. Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy: � Rifampicin: 600 mg once a month for 6 months supervised. � Dapsone: 100 mg for 6 months self-administered. Recommended duration of treatment is 6 months. Single lesion paucibacillary leprosy: One single dose of a combination of rifampicin 600 mg, ofloxacin 400 mg and 100 mg of minocycline (ROM) is used.

56. Ans C The ‘physical quality of life index’ consolidates three indicators, viz., infant mortality, life expectancy at age one and

literacy. These three components measure the results rather than inputs. For each component, the performance of individual countries is

placed on a scale of 0 to 100. The composite index is calculated by averaging the three indicators, giving equal weight to each of them. The resulting PQLI thus is also scaled 0 to 100. � It does not measure economic growth; it measures the results of social, economic and political policies.

57. Ans A Primordial prevention is prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in

which they have not yet appeared. The efforts in it are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles. The main intervention is through individual and mass education.

58. Ans B

Serial interval: The gap between the onset of primary case and the secondary case. Latent period: Used in non infectious diseases, equivalent to incubation period and defined as period from disease initiation to disease detection. Generation time: Interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host.



Incubation period: The time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and appearance of the first sign or symptom of the disease in question. Median incubation period is defined as the time required for 50% of cases to occur following exposure.

59. Ans B

Epidemiologists have recognized three kinds of time trends or fluctuations in disease occurrence. 1. Short term fluctuations: The best example of short term fluctuation in occurrence of disease is an epidemic. Three major

types of epidemics may be distinguished. a. Common source epidemic: –Single exposure or point source epidemics. –Continuous or multiple exposure epidemics. b. Propagated epidemics: – Person to person. – Arthopod vector. – Animal reservoir. c. Slow (modern) epidemics. 2. Periodic fluctuations: a. Seasonal trend. b. Cyclic trend. 3. Long term or secular trends.

60. Ans C: A propagated epidemic is most often of infectious origin and results from person to person transmission of an infectious agent. The epidemic usually shows a gradual rise and tails off over a much longer period of time. Transmission continues until the number of susceptibles is depleted or susceptible individuals are no longer exposed to infected persons or intermediary vectors. The speed of spread depends upon herd immunity, opportunities for contact and secondary attack rate. They are more likely to occur where large number of susceptibles are aggregated or where there is a regular supply of new susceptible individuals (e.g., birth, immigrants) lowering herd immunity.

61. Ans D : The quality of protein is assessed by comparison to the reference protein which is usually egg protein. It can be evaluated by amino acid score, net protein utilization, biological value, digestibility coefficient, protein efficiency ratio.

Net protein utilization (NPU): It is a product of digestibility coefficient and biological value divided by 100. It gives a more complete expression of protein quality. It is a biological method that requires special laboratory facilities.

In calculating protein quality, 1 g of protein is assumed to be equivalent to 6.25 g of N. The NPU of protein of Indian diets varies between 50 and 80. It is the proportion of ingested protein that is retained in the body under specified conditions for maintenance and/or growth of tissues.

A knowledge of the amino acid content of protein is not sufficient for evaluation of protein quality. Information is also required about the digestibility and suitability to meet the protein needs of the body. The parameters used for such an evaluation include the estimation of biological value, digestibility coefficient, protein efficiency ratio and net protein utilization (NPU).

The NPU is considered of more practical value because it is the product of biological value and digestibility coefficient divided by 100. In exact terms, it is the ‘proportion of ingested protein that is retained in the body under specified conditions for the maintenance and/or growth of the tissues’.

62. Ans. B: Specific protection intervention measures are: a. Immunization.

b. Use of specific nutrients. c. Chemoprophylaxis. d. Protection against occupational hazards. e. Protection against accidents. f. Protection from carrcinogens. g. Avoidance of allergens. h. Control of specific hazards in general environment

e.g., air pollution, noise control. i. Control of consumer product quality and safety of

food, drugs cosmetics etc.



63. Ans. A: Disinfection is killing of infectious agents outside the body by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents. Types: 1. Concurrent disinfection: It is the application of disinfective measures as soon as possible after the discharge of infectious

material from the body of an infecetd person or after the soiling of articles with such infectious discharges. It consists of disinfection of urine, faeces, vomit, contaminated linen, clothes, hands, dressings, aprons, gloves etc. throughout the course of an illness.

2. Precurrent (Prophylactic) disinfection: Disinfection of water by chlorine, pasteurization of milk and handwashing. 3. Terminal disinfection: It is application of disinfective measures after the patient has been removed by death or to a hospital

or has ceased to be a source of infection or after other hospital isolation practices have been discontinued. 64. Ans. B: ‘Visible’ fats are those that are separated from their natural source e.g., ghee (butter) from milk, cooking oil

from oil-bearing seeds and nuts. It is easy to estimate their intake in the daily diet. ‘Invisible’ fats are those which are not visible to the naked eye. They are present in almost every article of food e.g., cereals, pulses, nuts, milk etc. It is difficult to estimate their intake.

Major contribution to total fat intake is from invisible sources rather than visible sources. 65. Ans. B: Deficiency of riboflavin is widespread in India particularly in population where rice is the staple. The most common

lesion associated with riboflavin deficiency is angular stomatitis, which occurs frequently in malnourished children and its prevalence is used as an index of the state of nutrition of groups of children. Studies conducted at National Institute of Nutrition in India showed that subclinical riboflavin deficiency (as judged by erythrocyte glutathione reductase activation test) was present in over 80 percent of low income group children and adults.

66. Ans. D According to latest data sepsis is responsible for 57% and birth asphyxia is responsible for 20% deaths in low birth

weight newborns. Hypothermia, convulsions, congenital anomalies etc. are other important causes. Congenital anomaly is a major cause of death in lowbirth weight newborn in developed countries. The leading causes of death in low birth weight babies are:

a. Atelectasis. b. Congenital malformation. c. Pulmonary haemorrhage. d. Intracranial bleeding, secondary to anoxia or birth trauma. e. Pneumonia and other infections.

67. Ans. A : The vaccines which should be stored in freezer compartment in order to preserve potency are:

1. Polio. 2. BCG. 3. Measles. The vaccines which must be stored in cold part of refrigerator (4 to 8oC) and not allowed to freeze are: 1. Typhoid. 2. DPT. 3. Tetanus toxoid.

68. Ans. D: Couple protection rate (CPR) is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community. It is defined

as the percent of eligible couples effectively protected against child birth by one or the other approved methods of family planning viz. sterilization, IUD, condom or oral pills.

Demographers are of the view that the demographic goal of NRR = 1 can be achieved only if the CPR exceeds 60 percent. 69. Ans. A: Endemic typus (murine typhus): Rats are reservoir (Rattus rattus and Rattus norvegicus). It is caused by Rickettsia

typhi (R. mooseri). Balantidiasis is caused Balandium coli. It is usually carried by pigs and infection is most common in those communities that

live in close association with swine. Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetti. Cattle, sheep, goats, ticks and some wild animals are natural reservoirs.

Echinococcosis is caused by Echinococcus granulosus. Animal reservoirs are dogs, wild carnivores, domestic and wild ungulates.

70. Ans. D: Mass therapy is indicated in highly endemic areas and is not being practised currently in India.

The recommended dose for the selective treatment of human carriers and filaria cases is 6 mg DEC/kg body weight daily for 12 doses, to be completed in 2 weeks (i.e., 6 days in a week). In endemic areas, treatment must be repeated at specified intervals, usually every 2 years.

71. Ans. A: Filarial endemicity rate: It is the percentage of persons examined showing microfilariae in their blood, or disease

manifesation or both. Microfilaria rate: It is the percentage of persons showing microfilaria in their peripheral blood (20 cmm) in the sample population, one slide being taken from each person. Specify the species of the parasite.

72. Ans. B: Magnesium deficiency occurs in chronic alcoholics, cirrhosis of liver, toxemias of pregnancy, protein-energy

malnutrition and malabsorption. Magnesium is essential for the normal metaboilsm of calcium and potassium. Principal clinical features of magnesium deficiency are irritability, tetany, hyperreflexia and occasionally hyporeflexia. Daily requirements are about 200-300 mg/day for adults. Iodine is an essential micronutrient. It is needed for synthesis of thyroid hormones. Iodine is essential in minute amounts for the normal growth and development and well being of all humans.

• Goitrogens are chemical substances leading to the development of goitre. They interfere with iodine utilization by the thyroid gland. Most important dietary goitrogens are cyanoglycosides and thiocyanates.



• Iodine decifiency leads to goitre, hypothyroidism, retarded physical development and impaired mental function, increased rate of spontaneous abortion and stillbirth, neurological cretinism including deaf-mutism and myxedematous cretinism including dwarfism and severe mental retardation.

• Daily requirement of iodine for adults is 150 µg/day. • Urinary iodine excretion is useful for surveillance in goitre control programme. • Neonatal hypothyroidism is a sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency.

Zinc is a component of many enzymes. It is active in the metabolism of glucides and proteins and is required for the synthesis of insulin by the pancreas and for the immunity function. Zinc deficiency results in growth failure and sexual infantilism in adolescents and in loss of taste and delayed wound healing. Low circulating zinc levels are also seen in liver diseases, pernicious anemia, thalassemia and myocardial infarction. Suggested daily intake for adult ranges from 5 to 15 mg.

Selenium deficiency may occur in protein energy malnutrition. Selenium deficiency especially when combined with vitamin E deficiency, reduces antibody production.

73. Ans. D: The Govt. of India has adopted the growth chart as recommended by the Indian Academy of Paediatrics to indicate the

degree of malnutrition. The growth chart is based on the WHO reference standard curves, which are based on Uniited States National Centre for Health Statistics (NCHS).

74. Ans. A : Table: Prevalence criteria for determining the xero phthalmia problem in the community

Criteria Prevalence in population at risk (6 months to 6 years) Night blindness More than 1% Bitot’s spots More than 0.5% Corneal xerosis/corneal More than 0.01% ulceration/keratomalacia Corneal ulcer More than 0.05% Serum retinol (less than 10 mcg/dl) More than 5%

75. Ans. B: Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to the body weight. The weight reflects only the present health

status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also. Low height for age indicates chronic malnutrition. 76. Ans. B

The BFHI has listed the following steps for encouraging proper infant feeding practices, starting at birth. These include: 1. Helping the mother initiate breast feeding within the first hour of birth in normal delivery and 4 hours following caesarean

section. 2. Encourage breast feeding on demand. 3. Allow mothers and infants to remain together 24 hours a day, except for medical reasons. 4. Give newborn infants no food or drink, other than breast milk unless medically indicated. 5. Exclusive breast milk feeding should be promoted till 4-6 months of age. 6. No advertisement, promotional material or free products for infant feeding should be allowed in the facility.

77. Ans. A: 7%.

78. Ans. C : Open question.

79. Ans. C: Need perceived by a patient.

80. Ans. C : 25%.

81. Ans. B : B6.

82. Ans. B : Diabetes mellitus type I.

83. Ans. D : Fat.

84. Ans. B : 15%.

85. Ans. C: Smith and Knight

86. Ans. D: After 20 minutes.

87. Ans. D : 1000–5000 ppm.

88. Ans. A: Sodium bicarbonate.

89. Ans. C: Sodium monofluorophosphate and sodium fluoride.

90. Ans. B : 600 ppm.

91. Ans. C : Buonocore.

92. Ans. A: Ask, advise, arrange, assist.

93. Ans. C: Flowers of sulphur.

94. Ans. A: A white cross on a green background.

95. Ans. C: Treat a patient under sedation without a dentist sedationist.

96. Ans. C: The total number of the population which have a disease during a given period of time.

97. Ans. A: Specific, standardised and crude.

98. Ans. A: Decayed, missing, filled deciduous teeth.

99. Ans. A: Local community and population needs.

100. Ans. C: Erosion

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