CQE Sample Test #3

1. If prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, and this results in a

reduction in the number of product defects, this yields a reduction in

A. Appraisal costs. B. Operation costs. C. Quality costs. D. Failure costs.

2. A method of improving the performance in any function area of your company including product or

service quality would be

A. Utilizing FMEA or FMECA techniques.

B. Applying the benchmarking process.

C. Instituting an improved design review procedure.

D. Reading the Malcolm Baldrige application guidelines.

3. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough

benchmarking ?

A. Researching the competitive and non-competitive intelligence.

B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarks source.

C. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient.

D. Identifying all major critical success functions.

4. An essential technique in making training programs effective is to

A. Have training classes which teach skills and knowledge required.

B. Feedback to the employee meaningful measures of his performance.

C. Post results of performance before and after the training program.

D. Set individual goals instead of group goals.

5. One of the requirements for post-process control of quality information equipment is the testing of

completed large-scale products. Such engineering tests must

. Be comprehensive and accurate.

. Meet customer requirements.

. Meet reliability and safety standards.

. Be performed within a cost effective time frame.

A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

6. When giving instructions to those who will perform a task, the communication process is completed

A. When the worker goes to his work station to do the task.

B. When the person giving the instruction has finished talking.

C. When the worker acknowledges these instructions by describing how he will perform the task.

D. When the worker says that he understands the instructions.

7. Acceptable corporate quality goals are normally derived from

. The quality department.

. Identified customer needs.

. Top management objectives.

. The quality council.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and IV only D. II and IV only

8. When considering human motivation in solving quality problems, it is MOST important to recognize that

A. Individuals have wants and needs.

B. Individuals have different levels of needs.

C. Individual motivation is of little concern in quality problem solving.

D. All individuals have basic needs.

9. Consider the following information system planning steps

1. Determine the processing / analysis requirements.

2. Identify data inputs.

3. Define the QIS scope and objectives.

4. Define outputs and their uses.

5. Flow chart the system.

Arrange the above steps into a logical development sequence.

A. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 B. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 D. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

10. Which of the following quality leaders is associated with the definition of quality as "fitness for use" ?

A. Joseph M. Juran. B. Philip B. Criosby.

C. W.Edwared Deming. D. Armand V. Feigenbaum.

11. Which one of the following usually represents the greatest problem in quality team operations ?

A. Facilitator/leader conflicts. B. Lack of ideas of team members.

C. Interruptions in meetings. D. Lack of time by team members.

12. Often costs of quality reports reflect 4-5% of sales when the true amount is 15-20%. Which of the

following cost categories is generally neglected ?

A. Direct quality department expenses. B. Indirect internal and external failure costs.

C. Preventative quality costs. D. Combined appraisal and preventative expenses.

13. A fundamental step in the establishment of Strategic Quality Management is

A. Making sure that the quality organization reports to the Chief Executive.

B. Surveying customers to determine their level of satisfaction.

C. The formation of teams to implement continuous improvement.

D. The creation of a quality council (committee, advisory board, etc.).

14. The cause(s) for declining productivity rates in the United States is (are)

. Management's refusal to invest more in research and development.

. Lack of quality in marketed products.

. Poor communication channels.

A. II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and Ill

15. Which of the following action steps is MOST recommended to change a satisfied product customer

into a delighted customer ? (A delighted customer won't buy anything but your product.)

A. Exceed the customer's reliability requirements.

B. Have an exceptionally quick warranty claim system.

C. Provide an initial cost substantially below your competition.

D. Consistently exceed the quoted delivery schedule.

16. What is the principal function of the quality department ?

A. A service department for all other departments. B. To coordinate the quality effort.

C. Inspection and process control. D. Organizational focus.

17. In preparing a quality policy concerning a product line for your company you should NOT

A. Specify the means by which quality performance is measured.

B. Develop criteria for identifying risk situations, and specify whose approval is required when there are

known risks.

C. Include procedural matters or ordinary functional responsibilities.

D. Identify responsibilities for dispositioning defective hardware.

18. What association does the expression "house of quality" normally make ?

A. Our entire organization is quality minded.

B. Full quality functional deployment.

C. The organization listens to the voice of the customer.

D. Prompt service and product quality.

19. Which of the following would be considered key elements in determining the ability of a vendor to

supply a satisfactory product ?

. The capability of the supplier's process.

. The extent of the supplier's internal and external product inspection.

. The supplier's corrective action system.

A. I and II only B. I only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

20. Identify the ISO 9000/Q9000 Standard(s) which contain(s) elements for quality assurance in design

and development

. ANSI/ASQ Q9000.

. ISO 9001.

. ANSI/ASQ Q9002 and ISO 9003.

. ANSI/ASQ Q9001.

A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

21. A work instruction does NOT give information about which one of the following ?

A. The steps necessary to perform certain work. B. Which specifications are applicable.

C. The identity of the person who does the work. D. Normal set-up information.

22. Consider the following action steps

1. Train employees in customer satisfaction techniques.

2. Gather pertinent customer data.

3. Measure customer satisfaction.

4. Develop strategies to fulfill customer satisfaction.

What is the BEST sequence for developing a customer driven company ?

A. 3, 2, 1, 4 B. 2, 4, 1, 3 C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

23. In consumer products, the complaint rate is MOST directly a measure of

A. Product quality. B. Customer satisfaction.

C. Market value. D. Rejection rate and specification conformance.

24. A quality control program is considered to be

A. A collection of quality control procedures and guidelines.

B. A step by step listing of all quality control check points.

C. A summary of company quality control policies.

D. A system of activities to provide quality of products and service.

25. On surveys from customers, what do high customer satisfaction numbers NOT indicate ?

A. Customer satisfaction. B. Customer service.

C. Customer loyalty. D. Product quality satisfaction.

26. Which of the following functions are normally considered work elements of quality control engineering ?

. Preproduction planning.

. Process capability studies.

. Classification of characteristics.

. Quality cost analysis.

A. I and III only B. II and III only C. I, II and III only D. I, II, III and IV

27. Upon completion of a branch plant or division quality systems audit, an "exit briefing" of concerned

personnel should be conducted by the audit team. Which of the following is usually a violation of quality

audit integrity ?

A. Identifying major quality system deficiencies found during the last audit.

B. Comparing audit results with the branch, plant or division last audited.

C. Obtaining corrective action commitments.

D. Highlighting key areas of improvement since the last audit.

28. An auditor's responsibilities include

. Taking action on important audit findings.

. Complying with audit standards and procedures.

. Clarifying the audit objectives.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

29. If a minor observation is suitably corrected by the auditee during the course of an audit, it is

customarily

A. Omitted from the exit review.

B. Included in the exit review but not the written report.

C. Omitted from both the exit review and written report.

D. Included in the written report only.

30. The audit findings would typically NOT include

. The audit team qualifications.

. The deficiencies found during the audit.

. The working papers used during the audit.

. The extent of the auditee's compliance

A. II only B. I and III only C. I and IV only D. I, II and IV only

31. An auditor's responsibilities would typically include which of the following ?

. Documenting and reporting the results of the audit.

. Taking action on important audit findings.

. Maintaining the confidentiality of the audit.

. Determining the scope, purpose and structure of the auditing organization.

A. I and IV only B. I and III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

32. The physical survey of a potential supplier is NOT performed to assess which one of the following ?

A. Condition of equipment. B. Nature of the product lines.

C. Level of training of employees. D. The inspection system.

33. What item(s) should be included by management when establishing a quality audit function within their

organization ?

. Proper positioning of the audit function within the quality organization.

. A planned audit approach, efficient and timely audit reporting and a method for obtaining effective

corrective action.

. Selection of capable audit personnel.

. Management objectivity toward the quality program audit concept.

A. II only B. I, II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

34. For optimum results, the audit function should be an independent organization reporting to

A. Top management. B. Production control. C. Manufacturing. D. Quality control.

35. What is the purpose of a quality audit program ?

A. Catch defects missed by inspection.

B. Insure that people follow procedures.

C. Provide a super system for continuous improvement.

D. Measure and report the effectiveness of the control functions.

36. An audit will be viewed as a constructive service to the function which is audited when it

A. Is conducted by nontechnical auditors.

B. Proposes corrective action for each item uncovered.

C. Furnishes enough detailed facts so the necessary action can be determined .

D. Is general enough to permit managerial intervention.

37. One of the MOST important reasons for a checklist in an "in-process" audit is to

A. Assure that the auditor is qualified.

B. Obtain relatively uniform audits.

C. Minimize the time required to complete the audit.

D. Notify the audited function prior to the audit.

38. An annual supplier audit schedule should list which of the following ?

. The scope of the audit.

. The proposed audit date(s).

. The type of audit to be performed.

. The anticipated audit team size.

A. I only B. I, II and IV only C. I and III only D. I, II, III and IV

39. Audit inspectors should report to someone who is independent from

A. Middle management. B. Sales and marketing.

C. Inspection supervision. D. Production staff functions.

40. On blueprints, the extreme measurements permitted by the maximum and minimum size of the feature

of an object are called

A. Limit tolerances. B. Nominal dimensions.

C. Single limit tolerances. D. Unilateral tolerances.

41. Which of the following terms represents permission in writing to accept for use, a completed but

nonconforming item, either as is or upon completion of rework for a given number of units or specified

period of time ?

A. Deviation permit. B. Waiver. C. Reworkable acceptance. D. Equivalent item.

42. Final disposition by quality control of nonconforming material can include

. Completing missed operations.

. Rework.

. Using as is.

. Scrapping.

A. II and III only B. II and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

43. Which of the following approaches will MOST likely lead to a decrease in internal and external

corrective action requests ?

A. Ensuring participation of the quality department in design review.

B. Using automated processed wherever possible.

C. Soliciting suppliers that have secured ISO 9000 certification.

D. Hiring and training competent people with quality attitudes.

44. A technique whereby various product features are graded as to relative importance is called

A. Classification of defects. B. Quality engineering.

C. Classification of characteristics. D. Feature grading.

45. Which of the following is the responsibility of the MRB Board ?

A. Identifying potential suppliers. B. Disposition of nonconforming material.

C. Appraising suppliers. D. None of the above.

46. Which of the following would be considered to be feature(s) of form in G D & T terminology ?

. Angularity.

. Perpendicularity.

. Circularity.

. Straightness.

A. II and IV only B. I, III and IV only C. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

47. A surface of revolution (a cylinder, cone or sphere) is considered which of the following when all

points on the surface intersected by a plane are equidistant from the axis ?

A. Round. B. Symmetrical. C. Concentric. D. Cylindrical.

48. Which of the following is typically created during product design ?

. Safety features.

. Manufacturing specifications.

. Product reliability.

. Product identification.

A. I and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

49. Usually three-view orthographic drawings are used to fully dimension objects. Which of the design

forms need only two views to achieve full dimensioning ?

A. Symmetrical. B. Cylindrical. C. Perpendicular. D. Chamfered.

50. Automated inspection operations have been successfully applied to which of the following applications ?

. Visual inspection.

. Mechanical gaging.

. Color determination.

. Chemical analysis.

A. II and IV only B. I, II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

51. Which of the following activities may be the MOST important action of the MRB ?

A. Deciding what to do with scrap material.

B. Deciding what to do with non-conforming material.

C. Deciding when to call the customer regarding border-line material.

D. Deciding when corrective action is necessary.

52. Problems are often not fully solved because :

A. The problem is poorly defined.

B. The production department hates change.

C. Top management does not provide support.

D. The quality department is understaffed.

53. The principal use of V-blocks is to hold which of the following items in fixed relation to the surface

plate ?

A. Stacked parts. B. Measuring tools. C. Angular pieces. D. Cylindrical pieces.

54. When considering whether to use radiographic or ultrasonic inspection to examine critical welds in

thick materials, which of the following criteria is the BEST reason for this selection ?

A. Ultrasonic, since greater thicknesses can be penetrated.

B. Radiography, since ultrasonic is less sensitive to porosity and inclusions.

C. Both, since the methods complement rather than supplant one another.

D. Both since each is equally effective, the chance of missing a serious flaw is reduced.

55. Several types of good instruments are usually equipped with a mirror behind the dial-pointer to reduce

which of the following measurement errors ?

A. Interpolation rounding. B. Parallax.

C. Nonlinearity in lower scale regions. D. Meniscus.

56. In comparison with attributes sampling plans, variables sampling plans

A. Have the advantage of greater simplicity.

B. Usually require a larger sample size for comparable assurance as to the correctness of Decisions in

judging a single quality characteristic.

C. Have the advantage of being applicable to either single or multiple quality characteristics.

D. Provide greater assurance, for the same sample size, as to the correctness of decisions in judging a

single quality characteristic.

57. Using ANSI/ASQ Z1.4, determine the sample size for a lot size of 100, AQL = 6.5, Level II, normal

inspection, single sampling.

A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 50

58. When measuring part angles to great accuracy, the BEST instrument to select would be which of the

following ?

A. A sine bar. B. An optical flat. C. A bevel protractor. D. An optical comparator.

59. True testing variability can be obtained in a destructive testing situation under which of the following

conditions ?

A. Enough samples have been tested. B. It cannot be obtained.

C. All samples are taken closely together. D. The same person and instrument are used.

60. Which of the following are TRUE statement(s) regarding liquid penetrant testing ?

. Subsurface defects cannot be detected.

. It is faster than eddy current methods.

. Will not work on porous materials.

. Will not work on ferromagnetic parts.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. I, II and IV only D. I, III and IV only

61. What distribution is used to determine the OC curve for an attributes sampling plan ?

A. Normal. B. Binomial.

C. Exponential. D. The binomial or the hypergeometric distribution.

62. Given the following probabilities

1 or more defects = .70

2 or more defects = .35

3 or more defects = .15

4 or more defects = .03

What is the probability of 2 or fewer defects ?

A. 0.20 B. 0.35 C. 0.65 D. 0.85

63. Which of the following would NOT be a true statement regarding the use of pneumatic gages ?

. A high level of skill is required for use.

. The equipment is both fast and accurate.

. The equipment is versatile and can make a variety of measurements.

. Only variable measurements can be made.

A. II, IV only B. III only C. I and IV only D. I, III and IV only

64. The easiest method of generating random numbers for a sampling plan is to

A. Use random number tables. B. Use the mid-range technique.

C. Flip a coin. D. Use computer generated numbers.

65. The use of 100% inspection normally means

A. That the final customers will not experience defective product.

B. That selected characteristics have been evaluated against specified standards.

C. That there will be an opportunity to rework any product deemed to be outside of specifications.

D. That the lowest over-all quality costs have been considered.

66. Measuring and test equipment are normally calibrated to

A. Comply with federal regulations. B. Determine and/or assure their precision.

C. Determine and/or assure their accuracy. D. Check the validity of reference standards.

67. Which of the following is the BEST description of accuracy ?

A. A true value. B. A repeatable value.

C. A reliable value. D. A consistent value.

68. Which of the following need NOT appear on the calibration label on a unit of measuring and test

equipment ?

A. The date the unit is due for calibration.

B. The procedure by which the unit was calibrated.

C. The identification of the person who performed the calibration.

D. Any instrument error found during calibration.

69. A typical use for the optical comparator would be to measure

A. Surface finish. B. Contours.

C. Depth of holes. D. Diameters of internal grooves.

70. You are to construct an OC curve. Which of the following cannot be used as an abscissa value ?

A. AOQL B. ASN C. AQL D. LTPD

71. Consider the following information gathered from an R & R study

sigma1 = the repeatability standard deviation

sigma2 = the reproducability standard deviation

The total measurement variation may be determined by which of the expressions shown below:

A. σ σ B. σ σ C. σ σ

D. σ σ

72. When specifying the "10:1 calibration principle", we are referring to

A. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the secondary standard to that of the primary standard.

B. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the instrument to that of the primary standard.

C. The ratio of the main scale to vernier scale calibration.

D. The ratio of calibration standard accuracy to calibrated instrument accuracy.

73. Having designed a test fixture to performance requirements, the design should be carefully evaluated

by the quality engineer to insure that it has included

A. Low cost components. B. Computer input and printout capability.

C. Human motor coordination factors. D. Mass production methods.

74. The mechanical separation of undersize parts from conforming parts is :

A. Corrective action.

B. Preventive action.

C. Both corrective action and preventive action.

D. Neither corrective nor preventive action.

75. A reliability statement for a given product would be incomplete unless it included

. A numerical probability value.

. Operating time requirements.

. Successful product performance requirements.

. Operating environmental requirements.

A. I and II only B. I, III and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

76. Human factors are important considerations when designing for reliability because

. Habits are sometimes difficult to change.

. Conditions such as lighting and heating influence performance.

. Weak parts must be easily replaceable.

. Age and skill can limit one's ability to use equipment correctly.

A. I and III only B. II and III only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

77. An electronic control module has a constant failure rate. The probability of this controller surviving for

10,000 hours is 0.8. Given the controller has survived for 5,000 hours, what is the probability of the unit

failing before 15,000 hours ?

A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8

78. A reliability test conducted during the pre-production stage is called

A. Failure analysis. B. Acceptance test.

C. Qualification test. D. Significance test.

79. Products should be subjected to tests which are designed to

A. Demonstrate the basic function at a minimum testing cost.

B. Approximate the conditions to be experienced in customer's application.

C. Assure that specifications are met under laboratory conditions.

D. Assure performance under severe environmental conditions.

80. The concept of accelerated cycling (or a burn-in program) for all devices for six months under normal

operating conditions would

A. Reduce premature failures in use. B. Improve constant failure rate probability.

C. Be of little use. D. Assure an acceptable quality to the customer.

81. Find the predicted system reliability for the three parts shown if the individual part reliability is 90

percent each for the specified mission time and mission conditions

A. 72.9%

B. 70.0%

C. 89.1%

D. 90.0%

82. A transistor is rated for use at 220 volts. Using this transistor in a device that delivers 180 volts is an

example of

A. Applying a safety factor. B. Allowing for part variability.

C. Following the 1.2 electrical ratio rule. D. Derating.

83. Reliability testing of parts is performed to yield which of the following type(s) of information ?

. Application suitability.

. Environmental capability.

. Measurement of life characteristics.

A. II only B. III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

84. Basic sources of reliability data are

. In-plant testing.

. Field testing.

. Operation by user.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III only

85. The MTBF for an automotive component is 6,000 hrs. What is the probability of failure for that part

after 7,000 hrs. of operation ?

A. 19% B. 31% C. 69% D. 42%

86. What is the reliability of the system below if R1 = 0.6585, R2 = 0.92 and R3 = 0.92 ?

A. 0.9941 B. 0.6543

C. 0.6814 D. 0.7121

87. Component 1 has an exponential failure rate of 3 x 10-4 failures per hour. Component 2 is normally

distributed with a mean of 600 hours and standard deviation of 200 hours. Assuming independence,

calculate the reliability of the system after 200 hours.

A. 0.878 B. 0.920

C. 0.940 D. 0.977

88. The first phase in the operation life history of a population of product units is typically called the

A. De-bugging phase. B. Wear out phase.

C. Transition phase. D. Chance failure phase.

89. Given a mean time to fail of 90 hours and a constant failure rate, what is the probability of a product

surviving until 90 hours ?

A. 0.5 B. 0.3679 C. 0 D. 0.3333

90. What is the probability of an item failing in less than 5 hours if it has a constant failure rate of 1/

hour ?

A. 0.00674 B. 0.99127 C. 0.99326 D. 0.99642

91. Which one of the following will NOT increase reliability in design ?

A. Derating techniques. B. Design redundancy.

C. Designing for maintainability. D. Acceptance testing.

92. In some reliability models redundancy may take the form of standby elements. What is the major

disadvantage of such a model as regards to reliability ?

A. More costly. B. Reliability may be reduced by failure of sensing devices.

C. Failure rates are generally high. D. The system is too complex.

93. Name the continuous improvement loop normally used by teams whereby they decide what they want

to accomplish, carry out the decision, observe the effects, study the results and then repeat the steps

A. PCL. B. PDCA. C. PDM. D. PDPC.

94. The Kaizen principle is normally associated with

A. Revolutionary progress. B. Evolutionary progress.

C. Breakthrough achievement. D. Attaining the target aim.

95. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough

benchmarking ?

A. Researching the competitive and noncompetive intelligence.

B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarked source.

C. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient.

D. Identifying all major critical success functions.

96. Why are Pareto diagrams used ?

A. To show the process capability. B. To prioritize problems.

C. To show the flow of information or material. D. To facilitate a brainstorming session.

97. The sequence for the Deming Improvement cycle is

A. Design, manufacture, inspect, ship. B. Plan, document, implement, audit.

C. Plan, do, check, act. D. Vision, creation, evaluation, optimization.

98. The weights of cans of paint are considered to be which of the following ?

A. Discrete data. B. Continuous data. C. Random data. D. Attribute data.

99. Which of the following sources is most likely to NOT provide input for necessary corrective action ?

A. Calibration techniques. B. Customer returns.

C. Inspection results. D. Audit reports.

100. The arrow diagram has been converted and expanded in use as a quality management tool. It is

referred to as

A. Systematic diagram. B. Activity network diagram.

C. Interrelationship diagram. D. PDPC

101. Which of the following data are data that can be quantified ?

A. Variable data. B. Attribute data. C. Coded data. D. Locational data.

102. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a stable histogram ?

A. It describes a normal curve.

B. It has a scattered concentration of points.

C. Most of the data points accumulate near the center.

D. A few data points fall outside a normal curve.

103. Which of the following elements is LEAST necessary to a good corrective action feedback report ?

A. What caused the failure. B. Who caused the failure.

C. What correction has been made. D. When the correction is effective.

104. What is the name for the graph of a data set made of a series of rectangles each proportional in

width to the range of values in a class and proportional in height to the number in the class ?

A. Histogram. B. Bar chart.

C. Normal distribution. D. Normal curve.

105. Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the

process ?

A. Pareto Chart. B. Control chart.

C. Histogram. D. Cause and effect diagram.

106. As a problem-solving technique, which of the following would be the BEST application for an Ishikawa

diagram ?

A. Problem identification and corrective action.

B. To support the Plan, Do, Check, Act cycle.

C. Determination of potential root problem causes.

D. Determination of short-term corrective action.

107. Tabular arrays of data and graphs on the same page are especially useful in quality control work

because :

. Both are there for those who don't like graphs only.

. Graphs help spot data transposition or errors.

. Control limits can be easily applied.

A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

108. Which of the following distributions has a domain of x is greater than or equal to zero ?

A. Lognormal B. Weibull C. Exponential D. All of the above.

109. If the probability of a car starting on a cold morning is 0.6, and we have two such cars, what is the

probability of at least one of the cars starting on a cold morning ?

A. 0.84 B. 0.81 C. 0.60 D. 0.36

110. The expected value of a distribution is

. Estimated by the geometric average.

. Estimated by the arithmetic average.

. Equal to the integral of xf(x) over all x.

A. , B. , C. , D. , ,

111. For a certain make of car, the brake linings have a mean lifetime of 40,000 miles with a 5,000 mile

standard deviation. A sample of 100 cars has been selected for testing. Assuming that the population

correction may be ignored, the standard deviation of X bar is

A. 50 miles. B. 500 miles. C. 400 miles. D. 4000 miles.

112. An inspection plan is set up to randomly sample 3 ft.2 of a 1,000 ft.2 carpet and to accept the

carpet only if no flaws are found in the 3 ft.2 sample. What is the probability that a roll of carpet with an

average of one (1) flaw per square foot will be rejected by the plan ?

A. 0.05 B. 0.72 C. 0.90 D. 0.95

113. Distributions A and B have the same mean. The standard deviation of distribution A is 15, that of

B is 5. We may conclude that

A. The observations in distribution A are grouped closer to the mean than are those in B.

B. The observations in distribution B are grouped closer to the mean than are those in A.

C. There are three times as many values from -1s to +1s in A as in B.

D. There are one-third as many values from -1s to +1s in A as in B.

114. Most production processes follow which of the following distributions ?

A. Normal. B. Poisson. C. Exponential. D. None of the above.

115. A box contains 5 red marbles and 2 blue marbles. Given a red marble has been drawn, what is

the probability of drawing at least 2 red marbles in the next 3 draws ?

A. 0.07564 B. 0.6864 C. 0.6911 D. 0.8000

116. Estimate the standard deviation of the process that produced the following sample

22.8, 22.1, 21.9, 22.4, 22.7, 23.0, 22.2

A. 0.0587 B. 0.0029 C. 0.4036 D. 1.35

117. The average number of flaws in large plate glass is .25 per pane. The standard deviation of this

Poisson distribution is

A. 0.25 B. 0.05 C. 0.75 D. 0.50

118. The equation below represents:

A. The distribution variance. B. The distribution range.

C. The distribution mean. D. The distribution kurtosis.

119. The equation below represents

A. The probability of Events A and B occurring.

B. The probability of either Event A or B occurring.

C. The probability of Event A occurring before Event B.

D. The probability of Event B occurring given Event A has occurred.

120. Statistical quality control techniques are an application of

A. Permutation concepts. B. Probability theory.

C. Pareto's law. D. Logarithmic interpolation.

121. Which of the following statements is NOT true ?

A. Cpk is always less than or equal to Cp.

B. Cp is the ratio of specification width to 6 standard deviations of the process.

C. The Cpk value can be improved if the process can be centered.

D. A Cp of 1 is better than a Cp of 1.2.

122. You look at a process and note that the chart for averages has been in control. If the range

suddenly and significantly increases, the mean will

A. Usually increase. B. Stay the same.

C. Always decrease. D. Occasionally show out of control of either limit.

123. Recognizing the nature of process variability, the process capability target is usually

A. Looser than product specifications. B. The same as product specifications.

C. Tighter than product specifications. D. Not related to product specifications.

124. A run chart has recorded the following values

10, 8, 6, 14, 16, 14, 18, 20, 8, 10, 10, 10.

Which of the following are true statements based on a runs analysis of this data (assume a 95%

confidence level)?

. The actual number of runs is 3.

. The expected number of runs is 4.

. The centerline plotted value is 12.

. The above data would pass a runs analysis test.

A. I and III only B. I, II and III only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

125. A control chart for defects per unit uses probability limits corresponding to probabilities of 0.975 and

0.025. The central line on the control chart is at 2.0. The limits vary with the value of n. Determine the

correct position of these upper and lower control limits when n = 5

A. 3.24, 0.76 B. 2.32, 0.96 C. 4.23, 0.67 D. 3.73, 0.49

126. Compute the upper control limit for an S chart, based on a sample size of 10, if the process is in

control with a mean of 40 and a sample standard deviation of 7.

A. 11.7 B. 13.3 C. 15.7 D. 21

127. Using the range method, calculate the machine capability standard deviation to nearest 0.0001 of the

following

8 A. M 9 A.M. 10 A.M. 11 A.M.

0.001 0.003 0.001 0.005

-0.001 0.004 -0.002 0.006 0.003 0 .003 -0.003 0.005

0.002 0.004 0.002 0.005

0.001 0.002 0.000 0.006

A. 0.0024 B. 0.0470 C. 0.0013 D. 0.0030

128. You have just returned from a two-week vacation and are going over with your QC manager, the

control charts which have been maintained during your absence. He calls your attention to the fact that

one of the - charts shows the last 50 points to be very near the center line. In fact, they all seem to

be within about one sigma of the center line. What explanation would you offer him ?

A. Somebody "goofed" in the original calculation of the control limits.

B. The process standard deviation has decreased during the time the last 50 samples were taken and

nobody thought to recompute the control limits.

C. This is a terrible situation. I'll get on it right away and see what the trouble is. I hope we haven't

produced too much scrap.

D. This is fine, the closer the points are to the center line the better our control.

129. The sensitivity of a p-chart to changes in quality is

A. Equal to that of a range chart. B. Equal to that of a chart for averages

C. Less than that of a c chart. D. Greater than that of a u chart.

130. What is the lower control limit for proportion defective if the average daily production is 5000 units

and the average fraction defective is 0.02 ?

A. 0.016 B. 0.014 C. 0 D. 0.010

131. Given that resistors are produced in lots of 1000, and that the average number of defective resistors

per lot is 12.7, what are the upper and lower limits for the control chart appropriate for this process ?

A. LCL = 2.0, UCL = 23.4 B. LCL = 3.8, UCL = 20.2

C. LCL = 0.031, UCL 0.131 D. LCL = 1.5, UCL = 26.7

132. A process is in control at X-bar = 100, R-bar = 7.3 with n = 4. If the process level shifts to 101.5,

with the same R, what is the probability that the next X-bar point will fall outside the old control limits:

A. 0.016 B. 0.029 C. 0.122 D. 0.360

133. If a process is out of control, the theoretical probability that a single point on the X-bar chart will fall

between plus one sigma and the upper control limit is

A. 0.2240 B. 0.1587 C. Unknown D. 0.3413

134. You determine that it is sometimes economical to permit X to go out of control when ?

A. The individual R's exceed .

B. The cost of inspection is high.

C. σ is appreciably less than the difference between specifications.

D. The control limits are inside the drawing tolerance limits.

135. You are plotting a control chart and the last two of three points are greater than 2 sigma , four out

of the last five points are beyond 1 sigma and eight successive points are on one side of the center line;

you should

A. Stop the process immediately. B. Take more readings and continue to plot.

C. Write a discrepancy notice to the supervisor. D. Investigate to determine what has changed.

136. A process is in control with . The three-sigma limits of the process are

approximately

A. 48.1 and 51.9 B. 45.3 and 54.7 C. 47.2 and 52.8 D. 47.0 and 53.0

137. A process is normally distributed with a mean of 200 and a variance of 25. One item is randomly

selected, what is the probability of this item having a value greater than 210 ?

A. 0.3446 B. 0.0228 C. 0.0012 D. 0.0375

138. When small samples are used to estimate the standard deviation through use of the range statistic,

sample subgroup sizes larger than 20 should not be used because

A. The number 20 causes calculation difficulties.

B. The efficiency of the range as an estimator of the standard deviation falls to 70%.

C. The distribution for n = 20 is skewed.

D. n = 20 adversely affects the location of the mean.

139. A process measurement has a mean of 758 and a standard deviation of 19.4. If the specification

limits are 700 and 800, what percent of product can be expected to be out of limits assuming a normal

distribution ?

A. 1.7% B. 7.1% C. 3.4% D. 2.9%

140. The equation below represents

σ

A. The limits for an X Bar control chart. B. The limits for a Range chart.

C. The process capability adjusted for centering. D. The probability of meeting specification.

141. An interval that contains a specific proportion of the individuals from a population with a given

confidence is a

A. Confidence internal. B. Tolerance internal.

C. Percentage bound. D. Jacobian interval.

142. Which of the following purposes are served by replicating an experiment ?

. Provide a means for estimating the experimental error.

. Increase the number of treatment effects.

. Improve the precision of estimates of treatments effects.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

143. The variance of what distribution is equal to twice its degrees of freedom ?

A. Chi-square. B. t distribution. C. F distribution. D. Exponential.

144. Ratios of two variances drawn from the same normal population are described by which one of the

following distributions ?

A. F distribution. B. Student's t C. Chi-square test. D. Normal.

145. Duplicate readings, using two separate instruments, were obtained on ten samples. What is the

tabular value of the statistic used to determine the significance of the mean difference at the .05 level of

probability ?

A. 2.26 B. 2.23 C. 2.11 D. 2.09

146. Given the following results obtained from a fixed factor randomized block designed experiment in

which the production outputs of three machines A, B, C, are compared :

A 4 8 5 7 6

B 2 0 1 -2 4

C -3 1 -2 -1 0

How many degrees of freedom are used to compute the error variance ?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 12 D. 14

147. If the plating time of a tube increases as the inside diameter decreases, then the correlation

coefficient for the inside diameter versus plating time would be

A. Between 0 and +1 B. Between 0 and -1 C. Greater than 1 D. Equal to 1

148. In a single analysis of variance, the assumption of homogeneity of variances applies to

A. The variances within the treatment groups.

B. The variances of the treatment groups.

C. The total variance.

D. All of the above.

149. The fundamental equation of analysis of variance may express the idea that

A. The total sum of squares of deviations from the grand mean is equal to the sum of squares of

deviations between treatment means and the grand mean plus the sum of squares of deviation

within treatments.

B. The total standard deviation is equal to the sum of the standard deviation for the treatment effect

plus the standard deviation of the random error.

C. The degrees of freedom are not additive.

D. A basic population model can be constructed to represent the behavior of the experimentation.

150. Given the data below, compute SST.

Component A Component B Component C

12 14 16

13 12 15

11 12

A. 12.667 B. 4.104 C. 8.208 D. 2.533

151. When constructing a power of test curve one would NOT be surprised to discover that as alpha

( α ) increases:

( )

( )

( )

I. The value of mu becomes greater

II. Beta decreases

III. 1-Beta increases

IV. The sample size beomes larger

m

b

b

A. I, II and III only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I and IV only

152. An experiment has 3 factors with 2 levels and 1 factor with 3 levels. What is the minimum number

of trials necessary if all interactions are ignored ?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

153. In a random sample of 900 vehicles, 80% had anti-lock brakes. What is the 95% confidence

interval for the percent of vehicles with anti-lock brakes ?

A. 0.778 - 0.821 B. 0.771 - 0.829 C. 0.639 - 0.954 D. 0.774 - 0.826

154. A correlation of +0.95 for two variables, x and y, means that

. There is a strong linear relationship between x and y.

. y may be predicted from x using the equation y = 0.95x.

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

155. A Latin square design is an experimental design which

A. Cannot be used when estimation of the interaction effect is desired.

B. Affords a good estimate of interaction effects.

C. May not permit all treatments in every block.

D. May require the need to estimate the parameters during the experimentation.

156. When finding a confidence interval for mean μ based on a sample size of n

A. Increasing n increases the interval.

B. Having to use instead of n decreases the interval.

C. The larger the interval, the better the estimate of μ .

D. Increasing n decreases the interval.

157. A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and their gasoline

mileage. The correlation coefficient was found to be 0.35. Later, it was discovered that there was a

defect in the speedometers and they had all been set 5 miles per hour too fast. The correlation

coefficient was computed using the corrected scores. Its new value will be

A. 0.30 B. 0.35 C. 0.40 D. 0.035

158. Determine whether the following two types of rockets have significantly different variances at the 5%

level.

Rocket A Rocket B

61 readings 31 readings

1,347 miles2 2,237 miles2

A. Significant difference because Fcal < Ftable. B. No significant difference because Fcal < Ftable..

C. Significant difference because Fcal > Ftable.. D. No significant difference because Fcal > Ftable..

159. A null hypothesis assumes that a process is producing no more than a maximum allowable rate of

defective items. The type II error is to conclude that the process:

A. Is producing too many defectives when it actually isn't.

B. Is not producing too many defectives when it actually is.

C. Is not producing too many defectives when it is not.

D. Is producing too many defectives when it is.

160. Which of the following statements is not correct in regards to regression analysis ?

A. The coefficient of determination ranges from 0 to 1.

B. The correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to 1.

C. The higher the coefficient of determination, the better the fit.

D. Least squares is required to determine the best-fit straight line.

Solution #3

1 D 16 B 31 B 46 C 61 D 76 D 91 D 106 C 121 D 136 B 151 B

2 B 17 C 32 B 47 A 62 D 77 A 92 B 107 D 122 D 137 B 152 C

3 B 18 B 33 D 48 D 63 C 78 C 93 B 108 D 123 C 138 B 153 D

4 B 19 C 34 A 49 B 64 D 79 B 94 B 109 A 124 A 139 A 154 A

5 A 20 B 35 D 50 D 65 B 80 A 95 B 110 B 125 A 140 C 155 A

6 C 21 C 36 C 51 D 66 C 81 C 96 B 111 B 126 A 141 B 156 D

7 B 22 B 37 B 52 A 67 A 82 D 97 C 112 D 127 C 142 B 157 B

8 B 23 B 38 D 53 D 68 B 83 D 98 B 113 B 128 B 143 A 158 B

9 C 24 D 39 C 54 C 69 B 84 D 99 A 114 D 129 D 144 A 159 B

10 A 25 C 40 A 55 B 70 B 85 C 100 B 115 D 130 B 145 A 160 D

11 A 26 D 41 B 56 D 71 A 86 B 101 A 116 C 131 A 146 C

12 B 27 B 42 D 57 C 72 D 87 B 102 B 117 D 132 A 147 B

13 D 28 B 43 D 58 A 73 C 88 A 103 B 118 C 133 C 148 A

14 D 29 C 44 C 59 B 74 A 89 B 104 A 119 D 134 C 149 A

15 A 30 B 45 B 60 B 75 D 90 C 105 C 120 B 135 D 150 C