Chapter-1 Industrial Relation Management Self Assessment Questions 1. Which frame of reference views the natural state of organisations as one of harmony and co- operation? a. Radical. b. Pluralism. c. Unitarism. d. All of these 2. The analogy of a 'football team' refers to which frame of reference? a. Unitarism. b. Pluralism. c. Radical. d. None of these 3. In explaining why employees join unions, what term is used to describe employee dissatisfaction with their work situation? a. The frustration-aggression thesis. b. The rational choice explanation. c. Interactionist explanation. d. Both A and B 4. What is the main reason UK employee giving for joining unions? a. Because I believe in trade unions. b. Most people at work are members. c. Improved pay and conditions. d. Support if I had a problem at work. 5. What percentage of Indian workplaces are effectively union free? a. Around three quarters. b. Around one half. c. Around one third.
Transcript
Chapter-1 Industrial Relation Management
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which frame of reference views the natural state of organisations as one of harmony and co-
operation?
a. Radical.
b. Pluralism.
c. Unitarism.
d. All of these
2. The analogy of a 'football team' refers to which frame of reference?
a. Unitarism.
b. Pluralism.
c. Radical.
d. None of these
3. In explaining why employees join unions, what term is used to describe employee
dissatisfaction with their work situation?
a. The frustration-aggression thesis.
b. The rational choice explanation.
c. Interactionist explanation.
d. Both A and B
4. What is the main reason UK employee giving for joining unions?
a. Because I believe in trade unions.
b. Most people at work are members.
c. Improved pay and conditions.
d. Support if I had a problem at work.
5. What percentage of Indian workplaces are effectively union free?
a. Around three quarters.
b. Around one half.
c. Around one third.
d. Around two thirds.
6. Which parties are generally considered to be the main actors in the employment relationship?
Select all that apply.
a. Academics.
b. Managers.
c. Unions.
d. The state.
7. Unionised workers have traditionally received higher wages than their non-unionised
counterparts. What phrase is normally used to describe this phenomenon?
a. Sword of justice effect.
b. The representation gap.
c. The shock effect.
d. Union wage premium.
8. In 2005, how high was the union wage effect in Indian workplaces?
a. 5% of gross hourly earnings.
b. 10% of gross hourly earnings.
c. 2% of gross hourly earnings.
d. 15% of gross hourly earnings.
9. Employees in the workplace often talk of 'us' and 'them'. Which frame of reference does this
reflect?
a. Pluralism.
b. Unitarism.
c. Radical.
d. All of these
10. In terms of collective bargaining, which of the following would be considered to be
'substantive' issues? Select all that apply.
a. Pay.
b. Discipline and grievance.
c. Working hours.
d. Hours.
11. What is meant by the term 'union density'?
a. The number of workers whose pay is set by collective bargaining.
b. The total number of workers who are union members.
c. The proportion of workers who are union members.
d. The proportion of workers who are not members of a trade union.
12. Which of the following is not typically a component of partnership agreement?
a. Commitment to high levels of pay.
b. Legitimacy of employees rights' to be informed.
c. Commitment to information and consultation.
d. Sharing success with employees.
13. Which of the following statements are true?
a. Partnership agreements have been more common in the public sector than in the private
sector.
b. Partnership agreements have been equally common in both the public sector and private
sector.
c. Partnership agreements have been more common in the private sector than in the public
sector.
d. All of these
14. Which of the following definitions reflects a 'bleak house' strategy?
a. Where an employer invests in staff development and human resource management
practices.
b. Where an employer seeks to build the loyalty and commitment of staff through
consideration of employee welfare.
c. Where an employer attempts to minimise labour costs and avoid unionisation.
d. None of these
15. Which of the following regions have the highest rate on union membership?
a. North America.
b. China.
c. Russia, Ukraine, Belarus.
d. Asia.
16. The Indian Labour Conference …………… , reiterated the need for a wide acceptance of
voluntary arbitration.
a. 1962
b. 1972
c. 1965
d. 1980
17. The public sector has been by and large is successful in fulfilling its social obligations.
a. True
b. False
18. The main function of collective bargaining is to see the employment and working conditions
of employees.
a. True
b. False
19. No Punishment can be awarded to the employee by the employer during the pendancy of
any conciliation, Adjudication and Arbitration
a. True
b. False
20. Workers participation should be accepted as a fundamental principle and an urgent need.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(b)
6. (c) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)
11. (c) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(c) 15.(c)
16. (a) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(a)
Chapter-2 Industries Development and Regulation
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which of the following is true about business strategies?
a. An organization should stick with its strategy for the life of the business.
b. All firms within an industry will adopt the same strategy.
c. Well defined missions make strategy development much easier.
d. Strategies are formulated independently of SWOT analysis.
e. Organizational strategies depend on operations strategies.
2. The fundamental purpose for the existence of any organization is described by its
a. policies
b. mission
c. procedures
d. strategy
e. tactics
3. Which of the following activities takes place once the mission has been developed?
a. The firm develops alternative or back-up missions in case the original mission fails.
b. The functional areas develop their functional area strategies.
c. The functional areas develop their supporting missions.
d. The ten OM decision areas are prioritized.
e. Operational tactics are developed.
4. Which of the following statements about organizational missions is false?
a. They reflect a company's purpose.
b. They indicate what a company intends to contribute to society.
c. They are formulated after strategies are known.
d. They define a company's reason for existence.
e. They provide guidance for functional area missions.
5. The impact of strategies on the general direction and basic character of a company is
a. short ranged
b. medium range
c. long range
d. temporal
e. minimal
6. The fundamental purpose of an organization's mission statement is to
a. create a good human relations climate in the organization
b. define the organization's purpose in society
c. define the operational structure of the organization
d. generate good public relations for the organization
e. define the functional areas required by the organization
7. Which of the following is true?
a. Corporate mission is shaped by functional strategies.
b. Corporate strategy is shaped by functional strategies.
c. Functional strategies are shaped by corporate strategy.
d. External conditions are shaped by corporate mission.
e. Corporate mission is shaped by functional strategies.
8. According to the authors, which of the following strategic concepts allow firms to achieve
their missions?
a. productivity, efficiency, and quality leadership
b. differentiation, cost leadership, and quick response
c. differentiation, quality leadership, and quick response
d. distinctive competency, cost leadership, and experience
e. differentiation, distinctive competency, quality, leadership, and capacity
9. A firm can effectively use its operations function to yield competitive advantage via all of the
following except
a. customization of the product
b. set equipment utilization goals below the industry average
c. speed of delivery
d. constant innovation of new products
e. maintain a variety of product options
10. Which of the following is not an operations strategy?
a. response
b. low-cost leadership
c. differentiation
d. technology
e. marketing
11. Which of the following is not a key way in which business organizations compete with one-
another?
a. production cost
b. quality
c. product duplication
d. flexibility
e. time to perform certain activities
12. A strategy is a(n)
a. set of opportunities in the marketplace
b. broad statement of purpose
c. simulation used to test various product line options
d. plan for cost reduction
e. action plan to achieve the mission
13. Which of the following statements best characterizes delivery reliability?
a. a company that always delivers on the same day of the week
b. a company that always delivers at the promised time
c. a company that delivers more frequently than its competitors
d. a company that delivers faster than its competitors
e. a company that has a computerized delivery scheduling system
14. Which of the following is an example of competing on the basis of differentiation?
a. A firm manufactures its product with less raw material waste than its competitors.
b. A firm's products are introduced into the market faster than its competitors'.
c. A firm's distribution network routinely delivers its product on time.
d. A firm offers more reliable products than its competitors.
e. A firm advertises more than its competitors.
15. Which of the following statements best characterizes delivery speed?
a. a company that uses airlines, not trucks, to move its goods
b. a company that delivers frequently
c. a company that delivers faster than its competitors
d. a company that always delivers on the promised due date
e. a company that has a computerized delivery scheduling system
16. Which of the following is the best example of competing on low-cost leadership?
a. a firm produces its product with less raw material waste than its competitors
b. a firm offers more reliable products than its competitors
c. a firm's products are introduced into the market faster than its competitors'
d. a firm's research and development department generates many ideas for new products
e. a firm advertises more than its competitors
17. Which of the following is an example of competing on quick response?
a. a firm produces its product with less raw material waste than its competitors
b. a firm offers more reliable products than its competitors
c. a firm's products are introduced into the market faster than its competitors'
d. a firm's research and development department generates many ideas for new products
e. a firm advertises more than its competitors
18. Which of the following influences layout design?
a. inventory requirements
b. capacity needs
c. personnel levels
d. purchasing decisions
e. all of the above influence layout decisions
19. Response-based competitive advantage can be
a. flexible response
b. reliable response
c. quick response
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
20. Which of these organizations is most apt to have quality standards that are relatively
objective?
a. a university
b. a discount retailer
c. a law firm
d. a car manufacturer
e. a bookstore
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(c)
6. (b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(d)
11. (c) 12.(d) 13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(c)
16. (a) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(d) 20.(d)
Chapter-3 Collective Bargaining
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which Act of Parliament defines a `trade union’ and governs much of the law on industrial
relations?
a. The Trade Union Act 1955.
b. The Trade Union and Labor Relations (Consolidation) Act 1991.
c. The Trade Union and Labor Relations Act 2005.
d. The Trade Union and Labor Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992.
2. Under which of the following situations may a union refuse to admit a person or expel a
member?
a. Because of misconduct.
b. Because of their financial means.
c. Because they do not feel that they are a suitable member.
d. Because of their current state of health.
3. Who is responsible for the maintenance of the `lists’ of independent trade unions?
a. Acas.
b. The Central Arbitration Committee.
c. The Health and Safety Executive.
d. The Certification Officer.
4. Which of the following best explains the term `union ballots’?
a. A ballot is the method by which a union recruits new members.
b. A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action.
c. A ballot is the system by which union members put forward information for `listing’.
d. A ballot is the method by which a union expels members.
5. What is the role of the `independent scrutineer’?
a. To oversee the operation of union sickness and absence schemes.
b. To oversee the discipline of union members who have committed gross misconduct
offences.
c. To oversee union recruitment and selection.
d. To oversee the operation of any ballot (unless the ballot is on industrial action and the
number of members entitled to vote does not exceed 50.)
6. What is meant by the term `collective bargaining’?
a. A process by which a union recruits new members.
b. A process by which a union negotiates with an employer on behalf of its members on
matters concerning the terms and conditions of employment.
c. A process by which a union negotiates with suppliers for the provision of e.g. office
furniture.
d. A process by which a union meets with another union to discuss recruitment.
7. Which of the following is not an `industrial tort’?
a. Conspiracy.
b. Gross misconduct.
c. Intimidation.
d. Inducement.
8. Which of the following can a union do once it is `recognised’?
a. Engage in collective bargaining with an employer.
b. Apply to engage in the `closed shop’.
c. Apply for union status.
d. Apply to be referred to as a `workplace union’.
9. Can the members of a union who feel that they have been unjustifiably disciplined complain
to the Employment Tribunal?
a. Yes
b. No, because a union can make its own decisions re: disciplinary action.
c. No, because the union is not listed.
d. Yes, but only if they pay the union £500.
10. When will the actions of a union attract statutory immunity?
a. When they are in contemplation or furtherance of a trade dispute.
b. When they are in contemplation of mass union recruitment.
c. When the government allows this to be the case.
d. When they are discussed with the Certification Officer.
11. After presentation of the grievance, an aggrieved worker should be given a reply within
three days
a. True
b. False
12. Minimum wages was formulated in the year ………………….
a. 1984
b. 1948
c. 1985
d. 1950
13. When did the first collective bargaining agreement was concluded in India?
a. 1920
b. 1925
c. 1921
d. 1924
14. P.F. contribution was applicable to employees from the following days in service:-
a. 50 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 10 days
15. In a factory employing 500 or more workers the occupier shall employ one or more welfare
officers depending on number of workers.
a. True
b. False
16. Minor accidents need not be reported to ESI
a. True
b. False
17. The ............................._ participating in collective bargaining process must be strong
democratic and enlightened.
a. Union
b. Mark
c. Worker
d. Labor
18. As per the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the limit of membership for outsiders?
a. 0.5
b. 0.10
c. 0.6
d. 0.20
19. The process of negotiations under collective bargaining involves ……………… steps.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5
d. 1
20. Incentive systems link performance with compensation by paying employees for the no of
hours worked.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(d)
6. (b) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(a)
11. (a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(c) 15.(a)
16. (b) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-4 Quality of Work Life
Self Assessment Questions
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the five contractual areas identified by Mumford?
a. Alienation.
b. Psychological.
c. Task.
d. Ethical.
2. Which four of the following does Blauner consider to be a dimension of alienation at work?
a. Powerlessness.
b. Self-estrangement.
c. Meaninglessness.
d. Popularity.
3. Blauner suggests that the nature of ……………… is a major influence on job satisfaction.
a. management
b. technology
c. control
d. all of the above
4. ……………………is a source of tension and frustration and is one of the major adverse
influences on job satisfaction, work performance and productivity, and absenteeism and
turnover.
a. Power
b. Control
c. Stress
d. Alienation
5. Which of the following, according to Handy, are likely to create role problems and therefore
stress for the individual?
a. Relationship problems.
b. Career uncertainty.
c. Integrative or boundary functions.
d. All of the above.
6. Which of the following best describes job enrichment?
a. Increasing the scope of the job and range of tasks that a person carries out with the aim
of offering greater variety of work.
b. Incorporating motivating or growth factors such as increased responsibility and
involvement, opportunities for advancement and the sense of achievement.
c. Moving a person from one task to another in an attempt to introduce greater variety of
work.
d. None of the above.
7. Increased interest in job design has been associated with the concern for the quality of
working life. Central to improving the quality of working life is a ............................._____ style of
management.
a. authoritarian
b. laissez-faire
c. participative
d. bureaucratic
8. Which of the following processes must a manager attempt in improving the quality of
working life for employees?
a. Manage change in ways that ensure the best outcomes for both organisations and
people.
b. Develop a relationship of trust among members of the organisation.
c. Encourage a partnership approach when working with trade unions.
d. All of the above.
9. In order to manage time effectively, managers should have clear objectives, forward plan
carefully, define priorities and actions and..............................
a. motivate
b. control
c. delegate
d. direct
10. Why might generous Work Life Balance policies not be used? Select all that apply.
a. Working time expectations.
b. Supportiveness of colleagues.
c. Flexible workers are perceived to have greater employee commitment.
d. Perceived career consequences.
11. When were maternity rights introduced in the UK?
a. 2000.
b. 1975.
c. 1960.
d. 1990.
12. What is meant by the acronym ILO?
a. International Law Organisation.
b. International Labour Organisation.
c. International Legal Organisation.
d. International Logistics Organisation.
13. When were the Maternity and Parental Leave Regulations introduced in the UK?
a. 1979.
b. 1989.
c. 1969.
d. 1999.
14. In which countries is there no formal entitlement to paid maternity leave? Select all that
apply.
a. France.
b. UK.
c. USA.
d. Sweden.
15. What is meant by the acronym WLB?
a. Work Life Balance.
b. Work Life Blurring.
c. Work Level Balance.
d. Work Life Boundaries.
16. What is the statutory working week in France?
a. 35 hours.
b. 30 hours.
c. 45 hours.
d. 40 hours.
17. When was the right to request flexible working introduced for parents of young and
disabled children in the UK?
a. 2006.
b. 2003.
c. 1997.
d. 2000.
18. How many weeks maternity leave is generally considered to be essential to promote equal
opportunity and treatment of women workers?
a. 20 weeks.
b. 14 weeks.
c. 25 weeks.
d. 6 weeks.
19. Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.
a. In Germany all workers can request flexible working regardless of their parental status.
b. In the UK eligible employees can request a flexible working pattern.
c. In the Netherlands employees have the right to change their working hours via their
employment contract.
d. In the USA employers are obliged to allow parents to work part-time.
20. What is the TUC?
a. Trade Union Corporation.
b. Trade Union Company.
c. Trade Union Capital.
d. Trade Union Congress.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(d)
6. (b) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11. (b) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15.(a)
16. (a) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(d)
Chapter-5 Anatomy of Industrial Relations
Self Assessment Questions
1. …………………………. refers to “any productive activity in which an individual (or a group
of individuals) is (are) engaged”.
a. relations
b. Industry
c. Industrial Relations
d. None of these
2. Good industrial relations are maintained on the basis of cooperation and recognition of each
other.
a. True
b. False
3. ………………………..is reserved for organized expressions of conflict articulated through a
trade-union or other worker representative.
a. Formal industrial conflict
b. Unformal industrial conflict
c. Industrial Relations
d. None of these
4. ………………..is the term used to describe activities undertaken by the workforce when they
protest against pay or conditions of their employment.
a. Unformal industrial conflict
b. Industrial Relations
c. Industrial unrest
d. None of these
5. Industrial unrest is not a disturbed state; disquietude sometimes amounting to insurgency.
a. True
b. False
6. Trade unions can reshape the relationship between the employers and employees in order to
maintain an atmosphere of industrial peace and harmony.
a. True
b. False
7. …………….is an active and not a passive condition; it is antipodal to despair because it is
coupled with a hope and expectation that the cause of dissatisfaction can be remedied, or at
least alleviated.
a. Unformal industrial conflict
b. Unrest
c. Industrial unrest
d. None of these
8. Industrial unrest is caused by a clash between employers and employees.
a. True b. False
9. Strikes may not be reinforced by other types of formal sanction such as the go-slow and work
to rule.
a. True
b. False
10. Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial relations?
a. Connectedness
b. Collective wisdom
c. Conflict prevention
d. None of the above
11. Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following.
a. Employers
b. Unions
c. Government
d. All of the above
12. That the authority rests solely with the management with no right to anyone to challenge it
is the basis of the
a. Pluralist approach
b. System approach
c. Unitary approach
d. Social action approach
13. The balance of power is not vested with any one group; rather, it is maintained between the
parties to the industrial relations.” This is the essence of the
a. Pluralist approach
b. System approach
c. Unitary approach
d. Social action approach
14. That the behaviour, actions and role of the individuals are primarily shaped by the cultures
of the society is the basic assumption in the
a. Pluralist approach
b. System approach
c. Unitary approach
d. Social action approach
15. Which of the following approaches assumes that the understanding of industrial relations
requires an understanding of the capitalized society?
a. Marxist approach
b. Gandhian approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Giri approach
16. The utility of non-violence as the means of conflict resolution is the core principle of the
a. Marxist approach
b. Gandhian approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Giri approach
17. “Organizations are made up of people and the success of management lies in its dealings
with these people.” This is the fundamental of the
a. Marxist approach
b. Gandhian approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Giri approach
18. Which of the following approaches assumes that voluntary negotiations between employers
and employees are a means of settling disputes?
a. Marxist approach
b. Giri approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Gandhian approach
19. Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the underlying trends and
patterns in the cause and effect of industrial disputes?
a. Gandhian approach
b. Giri approach
c. Industrial sociology approach
d. Pluralist approach
20. Productivity bargaining is considered as a classic example of the
a. Oxford school approach
b. Giri approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Gandhian approach
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(b)
6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(d)
11. (d) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a)
16. (b) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(a)
Chapter-6 Wage Administration and Industrial Relations
Self Assessment Questions
1. An increase in oil prices, such as the oil shocks in the 70s, lead to............................. Thereby
causing ............................._
a. a movement along the AS curve; cost-push inflation
b. a leftward shift in the AS curve; demand-pull inflation
c. a rightward shift in the AS curve; cost-push inflation
d. a leftward shift in the AS curve; cost-push inflation
2. In the 1930s, when Keynes was alive, a expansionary fiscal policy, taking everything else
constant, would have led (in the short-run) to............................._
a. a relative large increase in Y, a smaller increase in P
b. a relative large increase in P, a smaller increase in Y
c. both Y and P increasing with an percentage
d. only Y increased
3. If the aggregate supply curve is vertical in the long-run, ............................. has (have) an effect
on the aggregate output in the long run
a. sometimes monetary and/or fiscal policy (i.e. it depends)
b. monetary policy does but fiscal policy does not
c. monetary policy does not but fiscal policy does
d. neither monetary policy nor fiscal policy
4. Which of the following statements is correct:
a. the money supply does not play a role in sustained inflation
b. the Fed is “accommodating” when they decrease the money supply after the
government has increased G
c. inflation initiated by an increase in aggregate demand is referred to as demand-pull
inflation
d. in order to avoid “crowding-out” after the government has increased G, the Fed often
decreases the money supply in order to lower the interest rates
5. Employment tends to ............................. when aggregate output ______
a. rise, falls
b. rise; rises
c. falls; rises
d. not change; falls
6. It was an empirical fact that in the 50s and 60s the inflation rate ............................._ when the
unemployment rate .............................__. Today the relationship between those to variable can be
described as ............................._
a. falls; rises; strongly negative correlated
b. rises; rises; strongly negatively correlated
c. falls; rises; unstable
d. rises; rises; unstable
7. The .............................____ lag for fiscal policy is generally ______ than it is for monetary
policy.
a. recognition; shorter
b. recognition; longer
c. implementation; shorter
d. implementation; longer
8. During periods of negative demand shocks, deficit target reductions such as those mandated
in the Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act would tend to:
a. stimulate the economy and increase employment.
b. result in additional recessionary declines in employment and income.
c. stimulate defense spending.
d. have an automatic stabilizing impact upon the economy.
9. In which cases would the deficit of a government be considered problematic by the majority
of the economists?
a. when the deficit was the result of mainly capital spending (eg infrastructure)
b. when the deficit was brought about by a stabilization program during a probably
temporary recession
c. when the deficit adds to an existing budget surplus
d. when the private and public lenders (i.e. IOU holders) loose faith in the capacity of the
government to pay back its debts
10. A bond is
a. a promise to pay back a loan over an unspecified period
b. allows the firm to access funds with mo liabilities
c. the only way a firm can raise funds
d. a document that promises to pay back a loan under specified terms over a specified
period of time
11. The market price of bonds can fluctuate depending on
a. how many bonds were sold
b. who bought the bonds
c. the amount of the coupon
d. the interest rate
12. Which statement (s) is (are) TRUE about stocks?
I. when a firm issues new shares of stock, it adds to its debt
II. a stockholder is promised a fixed dividend payment
III. when the price of stocks increase, other things equal, households tend to increase their
consumption
IV. the larger the expected future dividends, the smaller the current stock price, other things
being equal
V. when the price of a stock is strictly larger than its discounted value of expected future
dividends, one can say that there is a “bubble” in the stock market
a. I, III, VI, V
b. II, III, V
c. III, V
d. III only
13. Keynes suggested that ............................. income households consume a ............................._
proportion of their income than ............................._ income households
a. low; smaller; high
b. low; larger; high
c. high; larger; low
d. low; smaller; middle
14. At any given level of the interest rate, expectations are likely to be ............................._
optimistic and planned investment is likely to be ............................. when _____ is growing
rapidly than when it is growing slowly or falling.
a. less; higher; output
b. more; higher; output
c. less; lower; unplanned investment
d. more; lower; unplanned investment
15. The quantity theory of money allows monetarists to obtain a number of economic
predictions by assuming a constant
a. velocity of money
b. nominal output
c. overall price level
d. stock of money
16. The Lucas-supply function assumes that
a. people and firms are generalists in production and specialists in consumption
b. price surprises are irrelevant
c. most companies tend to produce a large scope of products using only few inputs
d. people and firms are specialists in production but generalists in consumption
17. According to the supply-side model, a reduction in the tax rate
a. could reduce the size of any budget deficit
b. would have no effect on output
c. would have no effect on consumption
d. none of the above
18. Keynes, the father of macro-economic policy stressed that:
a. as the economy was operating at full capacity (in his time), expansionary fiscal policy
would only have an inflatory effect
b. the enormous importance of regulating the money supply in the economy at a rate
which equals the rate of real growth
c. the importance of expansionary fiscal and monetary policies during the 1930s aiming at
shifting the AD curve out
d. as firms use rational expectation models to determine their investment level, the
government will in essence not be able to influence the economy
19. Fill in the blanks: As long as the increase in .............................__prices lag behind the increase
in .............................__ prices the aggregate supply function does not become entirely vertical.
a. input; output
b. output; input
20. Write down the name of the social phenomenon that can be explained by the sticky wage
theory, but not by the classical view of the labor market: ..........................................................__
a. involuntary unemployment
b. expectation models
c. full capacity
d. expansionary
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(b)
6. (c) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11. (d) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a)
16. (a) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(a)
Chapter-7 Employee Grievances
Self Assessment Questions
1. A grievance can only be based on a violation of the contract?
a. True
b. false
2. The presence of grievances among employees may cause
a. indiscipline among them
b. strain on the labour–management relations
c. a decline in the employees’ performance and productivity
d. all of the above
3. Which of the following techniques permits the grievant (complainant) to remain anonymous?
a. The exit interview
b. The gripe-box system
c. The opinion survey
d. None of the above
4. The management should redress only those grievances that are
a. real
b. imaginary
c. real or imaginary
d. none of the above
5. In which of the following methods are grievances ascertained at the time of employees
quitting the organization?
a. The exit interview method
b. The gripe-box system
c. The open-door policy
d. Opinion surveys
6. Which of the following acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices?
a. The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946
b. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
c. The Factories Act, 1948
d. All of the above
7. Which of the following is not a grievance concerned with supervision?
a. A misunderstanding between the supervisor and the workers
b. Rigidity in the interpretation of rules and regulations
c. Ambiguous job instructions
d. Violation and/or non-fulfilment of the terms of collective bargaining agreements
8. When workers are encouraged to meet the relevant manager in his office and to share their
opinions, it is called
a. an opinion survey
b. the gripe-box system
c. the open-door policy
d. the exit interview method
9. Find the odd man out among the following fundamental principles governing any grievance
procedure.
a. Settlement at the lowest level
b. Settlement in favour of management
c. Settlement as expeditiously as possible
d. Settlement to the satisfaction of the aggrieved
10. Why should employers adopt and make effective use of both disciplinary and grievance
procedures?
a. To maintain good employee relations in the workplace.
b. To stop employees from resigning.
c. To ensure that their firm remains insured.
d. To force the unemployed to work for their firm.
11. Which organisation has developed a voluntary code of practice relating to the use of
disciplinary and grievance procedures?
a. The Low Pay Commission.
b. The Health and Safety Executive.
c. ACAS.
d. The Central Arbitration Committee.
12. Which of the following types of `offence’ may be classed as amounting to `gross
misconduct’?
a. Being late for work on one occasion.
b. Using the wrong car park space in the work car park.
c. Stealing from an employer.
d. Taking a day off when ill.
13. Which of the following is not a stage involved in disciplinary proceedings?
a. Investigations.
b. An appeal
c. A tribunal hearing
d. Counseling/informal action
14. Which of the following would not be a suitable disciplinary penalty?
a. Dismissal with notice.
b. Finding the employee another job on an enhanced salary.
c. Dismissal without notice – gross misconduct.
d. Final written warning.
15. What is the main case relating to procedural unfairness in unfair dismissal claims?
a. Grundy v A.E. Dayton Services Ltd (2010).
b. Smith v A.E. Dayton Services Ltd (1955).
c. Polkey v A.E. Dayton Services Ltd (1987).
d. Taylor v A.E. Dayton Services Ltd (1967).
16. When are employees able to use workplace grievance procedures?
a. To deal with any complaints they have which relate to their job or working
environment.
b. To organise the workplace lottery syndicate.
c. To book holiday entitlement.
d. To apply for promotion within the workplace.
17. Which of the following persons has a statutory right to accompany someone at a disciplinary
and/or grievance meeting?
a. Their lawyer.
b. Their husband/wife or civil partner.
c. Their best friend.
d. A full-time union official.
18. What is the legal status of the Acas Code of Practice on `Disciplinary and Grievance
Procedures’?
a. The code does not have any legal status but it is best practice that it is followed and
adhered to.
b. It does not matter whether any of the parties have read the code or not.
c. The code must be adhered to otherwise an employee is unable to make any type of claim
to the Employment Tribunal.
d. The code is quite important but there are no repercussions if it is not followed.
19. Which of the following should be contained with an appeals procedure?
a. A list of relevant case law that lawyers might use in the appeal hearing.
b. A time-limit within which the appeal should be lodged.
c. A copy of statistics showing how many appeals have succeeded within the last 12
months.
d. Details on how the employee can appeal to the Supreme Court.
20. In this span of your working time, have you ever experienced any grievances or complaints?
a. Yes
b. No
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(a)
6. (d) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(b) 10.(a)
11. (c) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(c)
16. (a) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-8 Employee Communication
Self Assessment Questions
1. When an inmate is placed on Restrictive Housing Status because he is found guilty of
violating the Code of Penal Discipline, he would be put on what status?
a. Administrative Detention.
b. Administrative Segregation.
c. Transit Detention.
d. Punitive Segregation.
2. What mental health observation status would normally be most appropriate for an inmate
who has been discovered in the act of attempting to commit suicide?
a. 15 minute watch.
b. 30 minute watch.
c. video (tv) monitoring.
d. one-on-one continuous observation.
3. An employee who is arrested while off duty must report this to an appropriate supervisor
and submit related documentation no later than ____________ after the arrest.
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
4. An investigator assigned to conduct an Administrative Investigation must:
a. gather the relevant information needed to complete the investigation
b. have been a witness to the alleged incident under investigation.
c. recommend a specific level of discipline based on the results of the investigation.
d. tape record all interviews of relevant witnesses, without exception.
5. If a Correction Officer wishes to obtain accurate information while questioning an inmate, the
Correction Officer should be careful to:
a. encourage the inmate to ask questions.
b. explain to the inmate that all answers will be checked out.
c. phrase questions in an easily understandable and clear manner.
d. define and explain any words which are not understood by the inmate.
6. The primary obligation of a supervisor in any matter which may require disciplinary
action is to:
a. fulfill the obligation to the organization rather than to the subordinate.
b. investigate all points of view in an attempt to understand the case fully.
c. consult other subordinates concerning the case.
d. consult the supervisor’s immediate superior before making any investigation
7. Interpersonal communication occurs only when
a. intimate conversation takes place.
b. three or more people are communicating with each other at the same time.
c. an individual converses with people they have no interest in knowing.
d. an individual interacts with another person as a unique individual.
8. What is "context"?
a. An interference with message reception
b. Verbal and nonverbal responses to messages
c. A physical and psychological environment for conversation
d. Effective communication
9. Interpersonal communication helps one
a. learn about oneself.
b. to know what others are thinking.
c. to become a talented public speaker.
d. communicate with the general public.
10. In the communication process, to encode means to
a. block a pathway between the sender and receiver of a message.
b. translate ideas into a code.
c. interpret a code.
d. speak to large groups of people.
11. Feedback is a listener's
a. verbal critique of your message.
b. acceptance of a message.
c. verbal or nonverbal responses to a message.
d. aversion to a message.
12. To decode a message is to
a. reject a message.
b. evaluate a message.
c. interpret a message.
d. translate ideas into code.
13. A message is a signal that serves as
a. noise reduction.
b. stimuli for a mass audience.
c. stimuli for a receiver.
d. stimuli for a speaker.
14. Feedback can come in the form of
a. environmental noise.
b. verbal communication only.
c. verbal and nonverbal listener responses.
d. nonverbal communication only.
15. In the communication process, a receiver is
a. the person who encodes an idea.
b. message interference.
c. the person who decodes a message.
d. a message pathway.
16. Noise does the following:
a. distorts or interferes with a message.
b. causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.
c. enhances a message.
d. focuses wandering thoughts.
17. An example of physiological noise is
a. a humming air conditioner unit.
b. a lawn mower.
c. a speaker using complex terms.
d. a listener reviewing weekend plans in his or her head.
18. An example of a communication channel is
a. noise.
b. face-to-face conversation.
c. feedback.
d. context.
19. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?
a. Message, recording, feedback
b. Message, noise, feedback
c. Feedback, message, critiquing
d. Noise, feedback, jargon
20. In interpersonal communication, ethics
a. are important.
b. increase barriers to understanding.
c. are not a consideration.
d. stand in the way of honesty.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(c)
6. (b) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(b)
11. (c) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(c)
16. (c) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(b)
Chapter-9 Discipline and Disputes
Self Assessment Questions
1. Imposing discipline in the form of rules and regulations is an inalienable right of the
a. management
b. employee
c. trade unions
d. None of the above
2. Which of the following is an objective of employee discipline?
a. goal accomplishment
b. changing employee behaviour
c. promoting industrial relations
d. All of the above
3. Getting the willing cooperation of the employees in voluntarily observing the discipline code
of an organization is the essence of
a. negative discipline
b. positive discipline
c. progressive discipline
d. None of the above
4. The threat of punishment as a key to imposing discipline is the basis of
a. negative discipline
b. positive discipline
c. progressive discipline
d. None of the above
5. Adopting a step-by-step approach in dealing with indiscipline problems is the fundamental
principle of
a. progressive discipline
b. negative discipline
c. positive discipline
d. None of the above
6. Which of the following is not a disciplinary action against employees?
a. dismissal
b. increments
c. discharge
d. disciplinary demotion
7. Which of the following statements indicates a good disciplinary system?
a. An employee must be reprimanded in public.
b. An employee must not be reprimanded at all.
c. An employee must be reprimanded in private.
d. None of the above
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Hot Stove Rule of Discipline?
a. immediacy
b. consistency
c. forewarning
d. secrecy
9. Which of the following statements is not true about an industrial dispute?
a. The dispute may relate to employment.
b. The dispute may relate to non-employment.
c. The dispute may be between worker and worker.
d. The dispute may be between employer and government.
10. Which of the following is not a cause of industrial dispute?
a. demand for pay and benefits hike
b. demand for hygienic and safer working conditions
c. demand for better labour welfare
d. None of the above
11. When employees resort to unauthorized strike in violation of the labour contract or
agreements, it is called
a. pen-down
b. tools-down
c. sit-in strike
d. wild-cat strike
12. Which of the following is a specific form of protest organized with the intention to prevent
or dissuade the non-striking employees from attending to their work during the strike period?
a. hunger strike
b. work-to-rule strike
c. picketing
d. sick-out strike
13. The strike organized to express solidarity with the striking employees in the same
organization, industry or region is called
a. hunger strike
b. sympathy strike
c. tool-down strike
d. None of the above
14. Which of the following dispute settlers cannot make a binding decision?
a. arbitrator
b. adjudicator
c. conciliator
d. industrial tribunal member
15. “One party gains at the expense of another” normally refers to which type of collective
bargaining?
a. distributive bargaining
b. integrative bargaining
c. centralized bargaining
d. None of the above
16. After the gentry initiated the American rebellion, the common folk
a. fought a social-economic revolution against all gentry.
b. followed the lead of their "betters."
c. lost rights gained during the colonial period.
d. took for themselves a greater role in public affairs.
17. In disputes with the colonies, Parliament demonstrated
a. unwillingness to defend its right to govern the Americans.
b. a consistent and creative policy.
c. ignorance and misunderstanding of American conditions.
d. All of these
18. The American moral perspective on government originated in
a. existing British political practices.
b. French administration of their Louisiana colony.
c. the political theory of George III.
d. the Great Awakening and the Commonwealth traditions.
19. When the British left troops in America following the Seven Years' War, colonists
a. co-opted the large army, basically turning it into the first colonial military force.
b. opposed the redcoats for obstructing economic development.
c. supported the redcoats as protection against the French.
d. opposed the redcoats for enforcing all of the old Navigation Acts.
20. The Sugar Act differed from earlier regulations such as the Navigation Acts in which of the
following ways?
a. It taxed for the purpose of collecting revenue from the Americans.
b. It taxed sugar far more than any other product had ever been taxed.
c. It taxed sugar for the specific benefit of the East India Company.
d. It forced the colonists to trade in sugar only with England.
e. The Sugar Act was proposed, enacted and policed by the colonists themselves.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a)
6. (b) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11. (d) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a)
16. (d) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-10 Social Security
Self Assessment Questions
1. In what historical period was the law passed that established old-age insurance (Social
Security) as a national government program?
a. the War with Mexico
b. the Great Depression
c. the early years after the Constitutional Convention
d. the U.S. Civil War
2. All of the following were components of the Social Security Act of 1935, EXCEPT public
assistance for
a. people with disabilities.
b. the aged.
c. families with dependent children.
d. the blind.
e. B and C.
3. Medicare and Medicaid were both passed during
a. Franklin D. Roosevelt's administration.
b. Lyndon Johnson's administration.
c. Theodore Roosevelt's administration.
d. Bill Clinton's administration.
e. Richard M. Nixon's administration.
4. Public policies are
a. policies of private individuals.
b. interest group policies.
c. corporate and business policies.
d. governmental policies.
5. With respect to the "problem recognition and definition" stage of the policy-making process,
which of the following statements is true?
a. All of the statements above are true.
b. Public attitudes can cause a change in whether conditions are accepted as appropriate
and within government responsibility.
c. Usually there is a single agreed-on definition of a problem.
d. All disturbing conditions automatically become problems that should be addressed by
government.
e. None of the statements above are true.
6. The set of problems to which policymakers believe they should be attentive is a(n)
a. entitlement program.
b. means-tested program.
c. agenda.
d. policy evaluation.
e. critical mass.
7. A governmental or institutional agenda includes only problems to which
a. the people make demands for public action.
b. corporations make demands for public action.
c. the General Accounting Office has prioritized.
d. legislators or other public officials feel obliged to address themselves.
8. Who pushes issues onto the congressional agenda?
a. interest groups
b. private citizens
c. all of the above
d. none are correct
9. Political scientist Charles O. Jones suggests that policy formulation may take different forms:
routine formulation, analogous formulation, and
a. passive formulation.
b. systemic formulation.
c. incremental formulation.
d. creative formulation.
10. The agency that serves as an important evaluator of public policies for the Congress is the
a. General Accounting Office (GAO).
b. Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
c. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
d. Department of Treasury (DOT).
e. Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
11. Who is covered now by Social Security?
a. all employees and the self-employed
b. nearly all employees and none of the self-employed
c. nearly all employees and most of the self-employed
d. only members of Congress
e. few employees and most of the self-employed
12. The national government's largest entitlement program today is
a. Medicaid.
b. Food Stamps.
c. Social Security.
d. Defense.
13. What is the current state of the Social Security program?
a. Annual revenues balance with benefit payments within one to two billion dollars.
b. Annual revenues greatly exceed benefit payments.
c. The Social Security program will be completely phased out by 2010.
d. Annual benefit payments greatly exceed revenues.
14. The Supplementary Security Income program provides assistance to
a. needy people who are permanently and totally disabled only.
b. government employees only.
c. needy aged, blind, and people who are permanently and totally disabled.
d. mothers with dependent children.
15. All of the following are considered to be non-means-based income security programs
EXCEPT
a. Social Security.
b. unemployment insurance.
c. disability insurance.
d. Supplementary Security Income.
16. Which of the following programs was actually abolished in the 1990s and replaced by a
system of block grants?
a. Supplementary Security Income (SSI)
b. Earned Income Tax-Credit (EITC)
c. Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC)
d. all of the above
17. Social Security, Supplementary Security Income, and food stamps are all
a. entitlement programs.
b. means-tested programs.
c. programs funded solely by the national government.
d. non-means-based program.
18. Medicare and Medicaid
a. began in the 1980s with the Reagan administration.
b. has been present since the 1800s.
c. began in the 1940s with the Truman administration.
d. began in the 1960s with the Johnson administration.
19. Medicare is funded by
a. payroll taxes only.
b. deductibles only.
c. a combination of payroll taxes, deductibles, and premiums.
d. premiums only.
20. The Medicaid program provides
a. research funding to universities.
b. research grants for disease prevention and treatment.
