TOPIC-COMPUTER ARCHITCTURE

SUB TOPIC - POWER SYSTEM ETC

Q1

Electronic instrument is based on __ principles for its measurement function

(a) Electrical

(b) Mechanical

(c) Electronic

(d) Both a and c

Q2

To use electronic instruments intelligently, one needs to understand their__________.

(a) Prices

(b) Quality

(c) Operating principles

(d) all of the above

Q3

Closeness with which an instrument reading approaches the true value of variable

being measured is known as

(a) Precision

(b) Accuracy

(c) Sensitivity

(d) Resolution

Q4

________ is the smallest change in measured value to which the instrument will respond .

(a) Accuracy (b) Precision (c) Resolution (d) Sensitivity

Q5

Use of different instruments to perform the same experiment; provide good technique for

increasing _________.

(a) precision (b) sensitivity (c) accuracy (d) both a and c

Q6

In making ________ measurements , it is advisable to record a series of observations

rather than rely on one observation

(a) precision (b) accuracy (c) sensitivity (d) resolution

Q7

__________ is composed of two characteristics i.e. conformity and number of

significant figures to which measurement may be made.

(a) accuracy (b) precision (c) sensitivity (d) resolution

Q8 The more significant figures, the greater the _______ of the measurement.

(a) accuracy (b) sensitivity (c) resolution (d) precision

Q9

The errors due to the shortcomings of the instruments are called

(a) gross errors (b) random errors (c) systematic errors (d) environmental error

Q10

The _______ of an infinite number of data is the square root of the sum

of all the individual deviations squared divided by the no. of readings

(a) average deviation (b) Standard deviation (c) mean square deviation (d) both b and c

Q11

Measures of quantities in thermal, electrical and illumination disciplines are defined as

------------ units.

(a) primary (b) auxiliary (c) secondary (d) derived

Q12

Giorgi pointed out that the units of current, voltage, energy and power were compatible

with the --------------- system.

(a) CGS (b) SI (c) MKS (d) Practical

Q13

Statcolumb is the unit of charge in ----------------- system.

(a) SI (b) CGS (c) CGSe (d) CGSm

Q14

Gauss is the name given to the unit of ----------------.

(a) magnetic flux density (b) magnetic flux (c) magnetic field intensity (d) magnetic field strength

Q15

Dimensions of magnetic flux are ------------

(a) L^2MT^-2I^2 (b) L^2MT^-3 (c) LT^-2 (d) L^2MT^-2I^-1

Q16

----------------- system defines the second fundamental unit as

the weight of mass

(a) absolute (b) gravitational (c) ft-lb-s (d) MTS

Q17

MTS system has been specifically for ---------------- purposes.

(a) engineering (b) experimental (c) measurement (d) practical

Q18

The unit for magnetic field strength has been given the name

--------------.

(a) Gilbert (b) orested (c) Maxwell (d) gauss

Q19

SI unit for permittivity is -------------------

(a) a) F/m (b) V/m (c) H/m (d) C/m2

Q20

------------------ law relates electric current to

magnetic field strength.

(a) Faraday (b) Gauss (c) Ampere (d) Coloumb

Q21

One of the main functions of ______ standards is the verification and calibration of

secondary standards .

(a) International (b) Primary (c) Working (d) None of the above

Q22

_______ standards are the basic reference standards used in industrial measurements

laboratories

(a) international (b) Primary (c) Secondary (d) Working

Q23

The metric unit of mass was originally defined as the mass of a cubic decimeter of

_______ at its temperature of maximum density.

(a) Water (b) Benzene (c) Alcohal (d) None of the above

Q24

Secondary standards of mass, kept by the international laboratories generally have an

accuracy

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q25

he ________, established by the Weights and Measures Act of 1963, is defined as equal

to 0.45359237 kg exactly

(a) Pascal (b) Gram (c) Pound (d) None of the above

Q26

The yard is defined as _________ meter exactly.

(a) 0.5166 (b) 0.9144 (c) 0.8261 (d) None of the above

Q27

The unit of ________ is a derived quantity and is not represented by an internal standard.

(a) Mass (b) Length (c) Time Volume (d) Volume

Q28

A mean solar second, is then equal to _________ of the mean solar day.

(a) 1/50,000 (b) 1/65,900 (c) 1/86,400 (d) None of the above

Q29

________ recognizes the fact that the earth is subjected to polar motion.

(a) UT0 (b) UT1 (c) UT2 (d) None of the above

Q30

The primary ________ standard is derived from the ohm and the farad.

(a) Capacitance (b) Inductance (c) Resistance (d) None of the above

Q31

The practical coil area generally ranges from approximately ____ cm square.

(a) 0.2 to 0.8 (b) 0.5 to 2.5 (c) 0.5 to 3.5 (d) None of the above

Q32

Flux densities usually range from _______ gauss.

(a) 1000 to 1500 (b) 1500 to 5000 (c) 2000 to 5000 (d) None of the above

Q33

The galvanometer is a simple indicating instrument in which the deflection

of the pointer is ________ to the magnitude of to current applied to the coil.

(a) Directly proportional (b) Inversely proportional (c) Equal (d) None of the above

Q34

The motion of a moving coil in a magnetic field is characterized by ________

quantities.

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

Q35

Galvanometer damping is provided by _________ mechanism/s.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

Q36

The power requirement of the d'Arsonval movement are ________

(a) Small (b) Medium (c) Large (d) None of the above

Q37

Accuracy of the PMMC instrument is generally on the order of ________ percent of full-scale reading.

(a) 1 to 3 (b) 2 to 4 (c) 2 to 5 (d) None of the above

Q38

The resistance material has a very _______ temperature co-efficient.

(a) Low (b) High (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q39 The multirange voltmeter uses a ______ position switch.

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

Q40

The meter with the _______ sensitivity or ohms-per-volt rating gives the most reliable

result.

(a) Lower (b) Medium (c) Higher (d) None of the above

Q41

The usual secondary transformer voltage is _______V.

(a) 60 (b) 90 (c) 120 (d) 180

Q42

The ______ sometimes has a primary and always has a secondary winding.

(a) CT (b) PT (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q43

The ________ is rated to deliver a certain power to the secondary load or burden. (a) CT (b) PT (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q44

The Kelvin bridge is a modification of the Wheat stone bridge and provides

greatly increased accuracy in the measurement of ____value resistances.

(a) Low (b) Moderate (c) High (d) None of the above

Q45

According to the AC bridge balance condition, the products of the magnitudes of the

opposite arms must be _________,

(a) Directly proportional (b) Inversely proportional (c) Unequal (d) Equal

Q46

According to the second condition of balance bridges , the ________ of the phase angles

of the opposite arms must be equal.

(a) Difference (b) Sum (c) Product (d) None of the above

Q47

The Maxwell bridge is limited to the measurement of _______ Q-coils.

(a) Low (b) Medium (c) High (d) None of the above

Q48

The ________ bridge has a resistor in series with standard capacitor.

(a) Maxwell (b) Hay (c) Kelvin (d) None of the above

Q49

A good quality mica capacitor has very low losses and therefore a phase angle of

approximately _______ degrees.

(a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 180

Q50

The _______ bridge is derived from Maxwell-capacitance bridge.

(a) Hay (b) Wein (c) Anderson (d) None of the above

Q51

Oscilloscope take/s ________ element/s to perform the electron beam focusing. (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

Q52

The meshless tubes results in ________ oscilloscopes.

(a) smaller (b) larger (c) heavier (d) lighter

Q53

The phosphorus absorbs kinetic energy of the bombarded electron and

re-emits energy at a _________frequency.

(a) higher (b) medium (c) lower (d) none of above

Q54

When dc measurements are to be made, the __________ can be removed from the

uncompensated attenuator.

(a) resistor (b) capacitor (c) inductor (d) power supply

Q55

If the target voltage is low, the target is _________

(a) written (b) erased (c) stored (d) none of above

Q56

The preaccelerating anode is a hollow cylinder that is at a potential a few hundred volts

more ________than the cathode.

(a) positive (b) negative (c) stronger (d) none of above

Q57

Most laboratory oscilloscopes have _______ time bases that may interact in various

ways.

(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five

Q58

A ________ CRT can retain the display much longer, upto several hours after the image

was first written on phosphorus.

(a) storage (b) sampling (c) digital storage (d) none of above

Q59

The ________ tube can retain an image for varying lengths of time and at different

levels of image brightness.

(a) bistable (b) halftone (c) both of above (d) none of above

Q60

Another method of alternate time-base operations is to switch the sweep speed

_______the delay time.

(a) before (b) after (c) at (d) none of above

Q61

An ideal op-amp has _______ output impedance.

(a) Zero (b) One (c) Finite (d) Infinite

Q62

A practical op-amp has _______ bandwidth.

(a) Narrow (b) Wide (c) Finite (d) Infinite

Q63

The voltage amplifier is usually a class _____ amplifier that provides additional op-amp

gain.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) D

Q64

A differential amplifier is the _____ stage for the op-amp.

(a) Input

(b) Output

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

Q65

In the signal-ended mode, when signal is applied to the non-inverting input with the

inverting input grounded ,a _____ ,amplified signal voltage appears at the output.

(a) Inverted (b) Non-inverted (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q66

The amplified difference between the two inputs appears on the output in _______ mode. (a) Signal-Ended input (b) Differential input (c) Common-mode input (d) None of the above

Q67

In the common mode, two signal voltages of the _______ phase, frequency, and

amplitude are pplied to the two inputs.

(a) Same

(b) Different

(c) None of the above

Q68

The open-loop voltage gain of an op-amp is the ____ voltage gain of the device and

represents the ratio of output voltage to input voltage when there are no external

components

(a) Internal

(b) External

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

Q69

The _________ input impedance is the total resistance between the inverting and non-

inverting inputs.

(a) Differential (b) Common-mode

(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q70

The wavelength involved with fiber optics communication are very ____ compared

with the wavelengths associated with the radio spectrum.

(a) Small (b) Large (c) Long (d) None of the above

Q71

Light wavelengths are measured in ________ meters.

(a) Centi (b) Milli (c) Nano (d) None of the above

Q72

Index of refraction of the glass is ______ than/to air.

(a) Lower

(b) Higher

(c) Equal

(d) None of the above

Q73

Which of the following is more convenient quantity to use when calculating the osses in a

fiber optic system.

(a) Acceptance angle (b) Numerical aperture (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q74

Some of the light energy is simply absorbed by the glass and is called,

Absorption loss

Rayleigh scattering

Microbending loss

None of the above

Q75

The numerical aperture of a diode is essentially,

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q76

Time required for a reflection tp arrive after the generate of the light pulse is the____

the time for the light to propagate to the reflection.

(a) Twice (b) Thrice (c) Equal (d) None of the above

Q77

If each photon could release one electron for conduction , the diode would be ______%

efficient.

(a) 75

(b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100

Q78

The detector diodes are ______ biased diodes.

(a) Forward (b) Reversed (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q79

Circuits that include flip flop are usually classified by

(a) the function thy perform (b) the name of sequential circuit (c) the combination of gates (d) none of the above

Q80

An n-bit register consists of a group of

(a) 2^n flip flops (b) n flip flops (c) 2^n + 1 flip flops (d) 2^n - 1 flip flops

Q81

The D-flip flop does not have a condition for

(a) no change (b) reset (c) set (d) all of the above

Q82

A register capable of shifting its binary information in one or both directions is called

(a) transfer register (b) shift register (c) both of the above (d) None of the above

Q83

Operations in digital computers are usually done in

(a) parallel (b) serial (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q84

______ operation is faster mode of operation

(a) serial (b) parallel (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q85

Serial operations have the advantage of requiring

(a) less time (b) less equipment (c) both of the above

(d) none of the above

Q86

Parallel adder is a

(a) combinational circuit (b) sequential circuit (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

Q87

A register capable of shifting in one direction only is a

(a) bidirectional shift register (b) universal shift register (c) unidirectional shift register (d) none of the above

Q88

A receiver does a conversion from

(a) parallel-to-serial (b) serial-to-parallel (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q89

A counter that follows a binary number sequence is called a

(a) decimal counter (b) BCD counter (c) binary counter (d) none of the above

Q90

An n-bit binary counter consists of n-flip flops and can count in binary from

(a) 1 to 2^n - 1 (b) 0 to 2^n - 1 (c) 1 to 2^n + 1 (d) 0 to 2^n + 1

Q91

A decimal counter follows a sequence of ten states and return to 0 after a count of (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 16

Q92

A decimal digit is represented by a binary code with at least

(a) 4 bits (b) 8 bits (c) 16 bits (d) none of the above

Q93

A ripple counter is a/an

(a) synchronous sequential circuit (b) asynchronous sequential circuit (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

Q94

The up-down binary counter has

(a) an up control input (b) a down control input (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q95

In up-down binary counter when the up and down inputs are both 1, the

circuit counts

(a) up (b) down (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q96

A circuit with n-flip flops has________ binary states

(a) 2^n (b) 2^n 1 (c) 2^n + 1 (d) 2n

Q97

A k-bit switch tail ring counter will go through a sequence of ____ states

(a) 2k (b) 2^k (c) 2^k - 1 (d) 2k 1

Q98

Random-access memory can perform

(a) write operation (b) read operation (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

Q99

Read-only memory can perform

(a) read operation (b) write operation (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

Q100

The memory units with a capacity of 1k words of 16 bits each can accommodate

(a) 2k bytes (b) 4k bytes (c) 8k bytes (d) 10k bytes

Q101

The number of bits in the address is determined from the relationship

(a) 2^k >= m (b) 2^k

Q102

ROM is

(a) non-volatile (b) volatile (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

Q103

Programs and data that cannot be altered are stored in

(a) ROM (b) RAM (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

Q104

The internal construction of a random-access memory of m words and n bits per word

consists of

(a) 2^m * 2^n binary storage cells (b) m * n binary storage cells (c) 2^m -1 binary storage cells (d) 2^n -1 binary storage cells

Q105

A memory with 2^k words of n bits per word requires k address lines that go into a

(a) 2^k * k decoder (b) k * 2^k decoder (c) 2^k * n decoder (d) n * 2^k decoder

Q106

The syndrome value C consists of k bits and has a range of _____ values between 0 and

2^k - 1

(a) 2^k - 1 (b) 2^k + 1 (c) 2^k (d) none of the above

Q107

The relationship for establishing the number of data bits that can be used in

conjunction with k check bits is

(a) 2^k - 1 = n+k

Q108

The type of ROM in which the previously programmed connections can be erased

with an electrical signal is

(a) mask programming (b) PROM (c) EPROM (d) EEPROM

Q109

The PROM has a

(a) fixed AND array and programmable OR array (b) programmable AND array and a fixed OR array (c) programmable AND and OR arrays

(d) none of the above

Q110

The size of PLA is specified by

(a) number of inputs (b) number of product terms (c) number of outputs (d) all of the above

Q111

Register transfers move information between

(a) registers (b) registers and memory (c) through processing logic (d) all of the above

Q112

The elementary operations per formed on the data stored in registers are

register transfer operations

(a) register transfer operations (b) shift operations (c) micro operations (d) none of the above

Q113

The ____ micro operation is used to set one or more bits in a register

(a) AND (b) OR (c) XOR (d) none of the above

Q114

The ____ micro operation can be used to complement one or more bits in a register

(a) AND (b) OR (c) XOR (d) none of the

Q115

The bus multiplexer requires a total of

(a) 2n gates (b) 4n gates (c) 8n gates (d) 10n gates

Q116

The data bus is

(a) bi-directional (b) uni-directional (c) none of the above

Q117

The ALU provides _____ arithmetic operations

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 10

Q118

The ALU provides _____ logic operations

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 10

Q119

The size of the register file is

(a) * n (b) * m (c) 2m * n (d) n *

Q120

There are _____ binary control inputs

(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19

Q121

A/An __________ field specifies the operation to be performed

(a) opcode (b) address field (c) mode field (d) none of the above

Q122

If the location of operands is specified either by the opcode of the instructionor by an

address assigned to one of theother operands,then the operand has an

(a) explicit address (b) implied address (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q123

The ______ command moves an operand from memory to a register

(a) LD (b) ST (c) MOVE (d) none of the above

Q124

The ______ command moves an operand from a register to memory

(a) explicit address (b) implied address (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q125

The ___ command can transfer data between registers, between memory locations, or

from memory to register or register to memory

(a) explicit address (b) implied address (c) both of the above (d) none of the above

Q126

The ______ command transfers a word from memory to stack

(a) LD (b) MOVE (c) PUSH (d) POP

Q127

The ______ command transfers a word from stack to memory

(a) LD (b) MOVE (c) MOVE (d) POP

Q128

In the ________ mode, the operand is specified in the instruction itself

(a) implied mode (b) immediate mode (c) direct addressing mode (d) relative addressing mode

Q129

If each block has only one place it can appear in the cache, the cache is said to be

(a) direct mapped (b) fully associative (c) set associative

(d) n-way set associative

Q130

If a block can be placed any where in the cache, the cache is

(a) direct mapped (b) fully associative (c) set associative (d) n-way set associative

Q131

If a block can be placed in a restricted set of places in the cache, the cache is

(a) direct mapped (b) fully associative (c) set associative (d) n-way set associative

Q132

If there are n blocks in a set, the cache placement is called

(a) direct mapped (b) fully associative (c) set associative (d) n-way set associative

Q133

In _____ policy, the information is written to both the block in the cache

and to the block in the lower level memory

(a) write back (b) write through (c) none of the above (d) both a and b

Q134

In _____ policy, the information is written only to the block in the cache

(a) write back (b) write through (c) none of the above (d) both a and b

Q135

The very first access to the block cannot be in the cache, so the block must be brought

into the cache.These are also called

(a) cold-start misses (b) capacity misses

(c) conflict misses

(d) none of the above

Q136

The model of a circuit that encapsulates a description of its functionality as a structural

or behavioral view of its input-output relationship is

(a) VHDL (b) Verilog (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q137

_______ Primitive corresponds to an inverter.

(a) Not (b) And (c) Or (d) Xor

Q138

______ is an n-output primitive

(a) Xor (b) Buf (c) Or (d) And

Q139

The left most index in the bit range of a vector is

(a) The least significant bit (b) The most significant bit (c) Both a & b (d) None

Q140

Methods of verification used in Verilog are

(a) Logic simulation (b) Formal verification (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q141

The logic value ____ represents a condition of ambiguity

(a) Z (b) X (c) Both (d) None

Q142

The logic value ____ denotes a high impedance

(a) Z (b) X (c) Both (d) None

Q143

____ is the procedural assignment operator

(a) ' (b)

Q150

The output of UDP must be declared to have type

(a) Wire (b) Reg (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q151

Level sensitive behavior depends on the

(a) Inputs (b) Outputs (c) Synchronizing edge (d) None of the above

Q152

A falling edge transition is denoted by signal value pair

(a) 10 (b) X0 (c) 1X (d) All of the above

Q153

Many modern application specific integrated circuits (ASICs) have

several____________ gates on a single chip

(a) Hundred (b) Thousand (c) Million (d) Billion

Q154

___________ describes the functionality of a design.

(a) Test bench (b) Behavioral modeling (c) Structural modeling (d) All of above

Q155

In Verilog, there are only __________ families of data types.

(a) Seven (b) Five (c) Three (d) Two

Q156

A wire and reg have a default size of __________.

(a) 1-bit (b) 2-bit (c) 3-bit (d) 4-bit

Q157

The size of an integer is at least _____________.

(a) 128-bits (b) 64-bits (c) 32-bits (d) 16-bits

Q158

The keyword _________ declares a continuous assignment statement.

(a) always (b) assign (c) forever (d) begin

Q159

The continuous assignment statement is a/an _____ representation of the structure

described by an equivalent gate level schematic

(a) Implicit (b) Abstract (c) Compact (d) All of above

Q160

In ___ behavior, variables are updated immediately when input changes.

(a) Edge sensitive (b) Level sensitive (c) Transient (d) Steady state

Q161

The continuous assignments are convenient for modeling ________.

(a) Small Boolean expressions (b) Three state behavior (c) Transparent latches (d) All of above

Q162

The keyword ________ declares a cyclic behavior corresponding to an edge triggered

flip flop.

(a) assign (b) begin (c) parameter (d) always

Q163

Cyclic behaviors are used to model ________ behavior.

(a) Level sensitive (b) Edge sensitive (c) Synchronous (d) All of above

Q164

The continuous assignments execute ___________.

(a) Concurrently with each other (b) With gate level primitives (c) With all of the behavior in a design (d) All of the above

Q165 __________ is a Verilog concatenation operator.

(a) ( ) (b) { } (c) [ ] (d) < >

Q166

Register transfer level (RTL) models are written for specific architecture-

that is __________.

(a) Registers (b) Data paths (c) Machine operations (d) All of the above

Q167

Procedural assignments are also called __________ assignments.

(a) Continuous (b) Non-blocking (c) Blocking (d) All of the above

Q168

Non-blocking assignments are made with _______ assignment operator.

(a) Procedural (b) Non-blocking (c) Sequential (d) Non of the above

Q169

________ has/have the effect of suspending the execution of behavioral statement until

condition is satisfied.

(a) Delay control operator ( # ) (b) Event control operator ( @ ) (c) A wait construct (d) All of the above

Q170

The _________ operator forms the or of the bits in a word.

(a) or (b) bitwise or (c) reduction or (d) all of the above

Q171

Verilog have _______ loop constructs for describing repetitive algorithms.

(a) Seven (b) Six (c) Five (d) Four

Q172

Which is not Verilog loop constructs?

(a) repeat (b) while (c) dowhile (d) forever

Q173

. '>>' is the Verilog ________ operator.

(a) Greater than (b) Left shift (c) Right shift (d) All of the above

Q174

The ___ loop causes unconditional repetitive execution of the statements.

(a) for (b) while (c) repeat (d) forever

Q175

________ create a hierarchical organization of the procedural statements within a

Verilog behavior.

(a) parameter (b) real-time (c) function (d) task

Q176

Functions may contain __________.

(a) Delay control (b) Event control (c) wait statement (d) Non of above

Q177

Functions must have at least ________ argument(s).

(a) One output (b) Two output (c) One input (d) Two input

Q178

Register files are collection of registers that share the same _____ signal.

(a) Synchronizing (b) Control (c) Both of the above (d) Non of the above

Q179

__________ is not Verilog reserved word.

(a) always (b) forever (c) delay (d) Non of the above

Q180

_________ statement does not exist in Verilog environment.

(a) case (b) casex (c) casexz (d) casz

Q181

Which is different?

(a) Concurrent procedural assignment (b) Non-blocking assignment (c) Sequential assignment (d) Non of the above

Q182

APL is very ________ subject.

(a) Interesting (b) Boring (c) Lengthy (d) Important

Q183

There are _______ common levels of abstraction

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

Q184

To translate the Boolean descriptions into an optimized netlist of combinationalgates

and storage registers is the design task of __level of abstraction.

(a) Architectural (b) Logical (c) Physical (d) Both a and b

Q185

A _____ view of a logic-level model would consist of a schematic of gates that

implement the

(a) Behavioral (b) Structural (c) Physical (d) Geometric

Q186

______ synthesis translates the dataflow/RTL description into a Boolean representation

and synthesizes it into a netlist.

(a) Behavioral (b) Logic (c) RTL (d) High-level

Q187

The _______ engine of a synthesis tool reads and translates a Verilog- based description

of the input-output behavior of a circuit.

(a) Translation (b) Optimization (c) Mapping (d) None of above

Q188

____ transforms an irredundant cover into a new cover of the same function

(a) Expand (b) Reduce (c) Decomposition (d) Irredundant

Q189

_______ transformations play a key role in the misll algorithm for logic synthesis.

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four

(d) Five

Q190

The ________ transform represents an individual function in terms ofintermediate nodes.

(a) Decomposition (b) Factoring (c) Substitution (d) Elimination

Q191

Factoring produces a set of functions in a ________ form.

(a) SOP (b) POS (c) Both of above (d) None of above

Q192

The _______ process expresses a Boolean function in terms of its inputs and another

function.

(a) Decomposition (b) Factoring (c) Substitution (d) Elimination

Q193

Sometimes the process of _________ has to be undone in the search for an optimal

realization.

(a) Decomposition (b) Factoring (c) Substitution (d) Elimination

Q194

________ synthesis begins with an architecture and converts language- based

RTL statements into a set of Boolean equations.

(a) Logical (b) RTL (c) High-level (d) Behavioral

Q195

High-level synthesis is also called _________

(a) Logical (b) Behavioral (c) Architectural (d) Both b and c

Q196

In _______, the operations in the behavioral description are assigned to specific clock

cycles to implement the ordered activity flow of the algorithm.

(a) Allocation (b) Scheduling (c) Decomposition (d) Factorization

Q197

Most EDA vendors have chosen not to support ________ in synthesis of combinational

logic

(a) A set of continuous assignment statements (b) A netlist of structural primitives (c) A level-sensitive cyclic behavior (d) UDP

Q198

Functions and tasks will synthesize to ______ logic if they don't contain incomplete

case or conditional statements.

(a) Combinational (b) Sequential (c) Both of above (d) None of above

Q199

A synthesis tool will synthesize a _______ rather than a priority structure if the case

items of a case statements are mutually exclusive.

(a) Flip-flop (b) Latch (c) Mux (d) All of above

Q200

An assignment to __ in a case or an if statement will be treated as a don't- care

condition in synthesis

(a) x (b) z (c) 0 (d) 1

Q201

A continuous assignment using a conditional operator with feedback will synthesize into

_______.

(a) Flip-flop

(b) Latch (c) Mux (d) All of above

Q202

If the conditional operator is used in a ______ assignment, the result will be a mux with

feedback.

(a) Continuous (b) Procedural (c) Non-blocking (d) All of above

Q/NO ANSWER Q/NO ANSWER Q/NO ANSWER Q/NO ANSWER

1 D 52 A 103 B 154 B

2 C 53 C 104 B 155 D

3 B 54 B 105 B 156 A

4 C 55 B 106 C 157 C

5 D 56 B 107 D 158 D

6 A 57 A 108 D 159 D

7 B 58 A 109 A 160 B

8 D 59 B 110 D 161 D

9 C 60 B 111 D 162 D

10 B 61 A 112 C 163 D

11 B 62 B 113 B 164 D

12 C 63 A 114 C 165 B

13 C 64 A 115 B 166 D

14 B 65 A 116 A 167 C

15 D 66 B 117 C 168 D

16 B 67 A 118 B 169 D

17 A 68 A 119 A 170 C

18 B 69 A 120 C 171 D

19 A 70 A 121 A 172 C

20 C 71 C 122 B 173 C

21 B 72 B 123 A 174 D

22 C 73 B 124 B 175 D

23 A 74 A 125 C 176 D

24 A 75 A 126 C 177 C

25 C 76 A 127 D 178 C

26 B 77 D 128 B 179 C

27 D 78 B 129 A 180 C

28 C 79 A 130 B 181 D

29 B 80 B 131 C 182 D

30 B 81 A 132 D 183 B

31 B 82 B 133 B 184 B

32 B 83 A 134 A 185 B

33 A 84 B 135 A 186 B

34 B 85 B 136 B 187 A

35 B 86 A 137 A 188 B

36 A 87 C 138 B 189 C

37 C 88 B 139 B 190 A

38 A 89 C 140 C 191 B

39 C 90 B 141 B 192 C

40 C 91 A 142 A 193 A

41 C 92 A 143 C 194 B

42 B 93 B 144 C 195 D

43 A 94 C 145 A 196 B

44 A 95 A 146 A 197 D

45 D 96 A 147 A 198 A

46 B 97 A 148 C 199 C

47 B 98 C 149 D 200 A

48 B 99 A 150 B 201 B

49 C 100 A 151 A 202 A

50 C 101 A 152 D

51 C 102 A 153 B

.