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ARISE
MEDICAL ACADEMY
MISSION FMGE DEC – 2019 (DAY – 7)
GET YOURSELF ACQUAINTED WITH PREVIOUSLY ASKED QUESTIONS
1. Killian dehiscence is formed due to
a. Superior constrictor muscle
b. Inferior constrictor muscle
c. Middle pharyngeal constrictor
muscle
d. Esophageal fibres
2. Flexion , adduction and medial
rotation of arm is done by which
muscle?
a. Pectoralis minor
b. Pectoralis major
c. Subclavius
d. Serratus anterior
3. Morula cell stage has how many
cells?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. >64
4. The auricle develops from:
a. 1st branchial cleft
b. 1st branchial arch
c. 1st , 2nd & 3rd branchial arch
d. 1st & 2nd branchial arch
5. What is the content of umbilical
cord?
a. 2 arteries , 1 vein
b. 2 veins , 1 artery
c. 2 arteries , 2 veins
d. 1 artery , 1 vein
6. Adequate oxygen delivery at
cellular level is present in which
type of hypoxia?
a. Histotoxic
b. Hypoxic
c. Stagnant
d. Anaemic
7. Which of the following is not seen
in intracellular fluid?
a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Potassium
d. Protein
8. Which of the following is not a
calcium binding protein?
a. Calbindin
b. Calmodulin
c. Troponin
d. Clathrin
9. Which of the following ion plays a
role in exocytosis?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
10. Which of the following is not a
molecular motor?
a. Dynein
b. Kinesin
c. Myosin
d. Actin
11. Which of the following vitamin is
most potent antioxidant?
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitmain E
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin B
12. Which of the following doesnot
occur in the mitochondria?
a. Cori cycle
b. Urea cycle
c. FA oxidation
d. Kreb’s cycle
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13. Muscle is NOT involved in which
type of glycogen storage disease
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 5
d. Type 7
14. Niemann’s pick disease is due to
deficiency of which enzyme:
a. Sphingomyelinase
b. Hexosaminidase – A
c. Aryl sulphatase
d. Galactosidase – A
15. The Watson’s Crick double helix
model of DNA is
a. Right handed anti parallel
b. Left handed anti parallel
c. Right handed parallel
d. Left handed parallel
16. 100% Bioavailability is seen with
this route:
a. Oral
b. Intravenous
c. Intramuscular
d. Subcutaneous
17. Healthy volunteers are recruited in
which phase of clinical trials?
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4
18. Drug of choice for chronic gout is
a. Allopurinol
b. Febuxostat
c. Probenecid
d. Sulfinpyrazone
19. Insulin of choice for the treatment
of diabetes mellitus is:
a. Regular Insulin
b. NPH Insulin
c. Insulin glargine
d. Insulin lispro
20. Drug of choice for nasal carriers of
MRSA is:
a. Vancomycin
b. Teicoplanin
c. Mupirocin
d. Linezolid
21. Chronic viral hepatitis is seen
with?
a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HDV
d. HEV
22. Type II Hypersensitivity is seen in?
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Serum sickness
c. Arthus phenomenon
d. Pathergy phenomenon
23. Which of the following is a
causative agent of Farmer’s Lung?
a. Thermophilic Actinomycetes
b. Aspergillus Fumigatus
c. Actinobacter
d. Aspergillus Flavus
24. Whipple’s disease is caused by:
a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Protozoa
d. Helminths
25. Most sensitive and specific marker
for MI is:
a. Troponin
b. Cytokeratin
c. Myoglobin
d. CPK – MM
26. DNA transfer in bacteria via phage
is :
a. Conjugation
b. Transduction
c. Transformation
d. Translation
27. Cold sterilization is done by:
a. Steam
b. Ionizing radiation
c. Infra red
d. UV
28. Gram stain is a:
a. Simple stain
b. Differential stain
c. Negative stain
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d. None
29. Prion is the best destroyed by
a. Autoclaving at 135
degrees
b. Hot air oven at 160
degrees
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Sodium hypochlorite
30. Weil Feix reaction is what type of
agglutination reaction :
a. Slide agglutination
b. Tube agglutination
c. Passive agglutination
d. Diect agglutination
31. Best index for measurement health
indicator in society :
a. Under 5 motality rate
b. Infant mortality rate
c. Child death rate
d. Maternal mortality rate
32. Which of these has has the max
natural source of vitamin A?
a. Carrot
b. Halibut liver oil
c. Cod fish oil
d. Cow milk
33. According to WHO, marker for
obesity index is :
a. Quetelet index
b. Chandler index
c. Pearl index
d. Sullivan’s index
34. Amount of sodium in ORS as per
WHO:
a. 65 mmol/L
b. 75 mmol/L
c. 20 mmol/L
d. 100 mmol/L
35. As compared to cow milk, the
protein content of human milk is :
a. 3-4 times more than cow milk
b. 3-4 times less than cow milk
c. Double than cow milk
d. Same as cow milk
36. BCG is diluted with:
a. NS
b. DW
c. RL
d. Distilled water
37. True about Quarantine:
a. Restriction of movement of
infected patient
b. Restriction of movement of
healthy contact of an infectious
disease
c. Movement restricted for
shortest incubation period
d. Isolation of diseased person
38. Which test is done at Sub centre
during pregnancy:
a. USG
b. Haemoglobin
c. OGTT
d. Triple test
39. Postular tremors are seen in all
except?
a. Alcohol withdrawal
b. Essential tremors
c. Generalized paresis
d. Physiological tremors
40. MC joint involved in diabetes is
seen is?
a. Ankle
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. Foot
41. Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with
crossed hemiplegia is a feature of?
a. Weber syndrome
b. Benedikt syndrome
c. Wallenberg syndrome
d. Horner syndrome
42. Which of the following leads to a
continuous murmur?
a. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis
b. Severe pulmonary artery
hypertension
c. Type A aortic dissection
d. Rupture of cardiac chamber
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43. Best management of a
hemodynamically stable patient
with ECG showing broad QRS
complex with antidromic
tachycardia is?
a. Oral Verapamil
b. Oral Beta – blocker
c. Cardioversion
d. Intravenous procainamide
44. Modified Duke’s criteria are used
for diagnosis of?
a. Infective endarteritis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Inflammatory myopathy
d. Infective endocarditis
45. Which of the following shall be
seen with use of a small size BP
cuff?
a. False elevation of BP
b. Falsely low value of BP
c. Cancels the effect of calcified
arteries
d. Increases trans – arm
impedance
46. Which of the following is a
cardioprotective lipid?
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons
47. Correct procedure of inserting
Nasogastric tube is
a. Supine with neck flexed
b. Supine with neck extended
c. Sitting with neck flexed
d. Sitting with neck extended
48. Meconium ileus is a presentation
seen in which of the following diseases?
a. Mucoviscidosis
b. Hirschsprung disease
c. Ileal atresia
d. Congenital aganglionosis
49. Which is the first investigation to be
done in case of neonate presenting with
frothiness in mouth and dyspnoea?
a. Bronchoscopy with injection of
methylene blue
b. NG tube insertion and CXR to check
position of tube
c. CT chest
d. Endoscopy
50. Calculate the GCS of a patient
exhibiting eye opening on pain,
conscious but confused and cannot tell
time and exhibits flexion on painful
noxious stimuli to the arm:
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
51. Which ulcer is likely to develop in a
long standing chronic venous ulcer?
a. Marjolin ulcer
b. Apthous ulcer
c. Bazin ulcer
d. Arterial ulcer
52. Seat Belt injury leads to?
a. Splenic laceration
b. Splenic contusion
c. Gut ischemia
d. Mesenteric adenitis
53. Which complication is seen after
varicose vein stripping procedure?
a. Neuralgia
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Acrocyanosis
d. Telangiectasia
54. Which of the following is not
scanned by FAST USG?
a. Pericardium
b. Pleural cavity
c. Spleen
d. Liver
55. Chronic malnutrition in child is best
evaluated by?
a. Weight for height
b. Weight for age
c. Height for age
d. Ponderal index
56. Neonatal jaundice becomes
detectable at serum bilirubin exceeding?
a. 2 mg%
b. 3 mg%
c. 4 mg%
d. 5 mg%
57. Severity of cyanosis in Fallot’s
physiology is best decided by?
a. V.S.D
b. Overriding of aorta
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c. Concentric RVH
d. Subpulmonic stenosis
58. Infant is admitted with respiratory
distress and prolonged expiration with
Rhonchi in chest are heard. CXR shows
hyperinflation .What is the diagnosis?
a. Pneumonia
b. Croup
c. Asthma
d. Bronchiolitis
59. Which of these is used in treatment
of bronchiolitis?
a. Ribavarian
b. Amantadine
c. Racemic epinephrine
d. Corticosteroids
60. 6th day disease is?
a. Erythema Infectiosum
b. Exanthema subitum
c. Erythema marginatum
d. Erythema nodosum
61. Protein in cow’s milk in comparison
to human milk is?
a. Double
b. Triple
c. Quadruple
d. Same
62. Maximum heat loss in neonate is
from:
a. Head
b. Skin
c. Respiration
d. Trunk
63. Couvelaire uterus is seen in:
a. Placenta previa
b. Vasa previa
c. Abruptio placenta
d. Placenta percreta
64. Risk of endometrial cancer is least
in:
a. Nullipara
b. Obesity
c. Late menopause
d. Multigravida
65. A grand multipara is a women who
has given birth to –
a. >2
b. >3
c. >4
d. >5
66. A 26 weeks pregnant female
presented with HTN for the first time,
There is no proteinuria. Diagnosis of
such condition.
a. Chronic hypertension
b. Eclampsia
c. Gestational Hypertension
d. Preeclampsia
67. Minimum sperm count for normal
semen analysis according to WHO:
a. 2 million/mL
b. 5million/mL
c. 10 million/ mL
d. 20 million/mL
68. Endometrial biopsy for infertility
test in women should be done at:
a. Ovulatory phase
b. Menstrual phase
c. Anytime during cycle
d. Premenstrual period
69. Which of the following cab be a
cause of Oligohydramnios?
a. Multiparity
b. Twins
c. Renal agenesis
d. Macrosomia
70. Beta Hcg is secreted by:
a. Yolk sac
b. Placenta
c. Syncytiotrophoblast
d. Umbilical cord
71. Narrowest part of airway in infant:
a. Glottis
b. Subglottis
c. Supraglottis
d. Epiglottis
72. A 15 year boy presents with
recurrent episodes of epistaxis,
unilateral obstruction of nostril. Most
likely cause:
a. Nasal polyp
b. Angiofibroma
c. Nasopharyngeal CA
d. Pharyngitis
73. Abductor of vocal cord:
a. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
b. Interarytenoid muscle
c. Cricothyroid muscle
d. Thyroarytenoid muscle
74. In ranula management which of the
following step is correct?
a. Excision of ranula and sublingual gland
duct
b. Excision of only the cystic swelling
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c. In large ranula marsuplization not
preferred
d. In small ranula marsuplization is
preferred
75. High tracheostomy is done in which
condition?
a. Laryngeal carcinoma
b. Laryngeal stenosis
c. Respiratory obstruction
d. Foreign body
76. Nasal mass with extension from
maxillary sinus is most likely a case of:
a. Antrochoanal polyp
b. Ethmoid polyp
c. Glomus tumor
d. Rhinoscleroma
77. Three point bony relationship has
diagnostic value in:
a. Elbow fracture
b. Monteggia fracture
c. Galeazzi fracture
d. Colle’s fracture
78. Jefferson fracture is:
a. C2 fracture
b. C1 fracture
c. Fracture of talus
d. Atlanto – axial dislocation
79. Hangman fracture is:
a. C1 ring fracture
b. C2 odontoid process fracture
c. C2 pars interarticularis fracture
d. C7 fracture
80. Most common cause of blindness in
India:
a. Cataract
b. Refractive error
c. Trachoma
d. Glaucoma
81. All of the following conditions cause
miosis EXCEPT:
a. Bright light
b. Horner syndrome
c. Oculomotor paralysis
d. Iridocyclitis
82. Evisceration is removal of which
layer of eye ball?
a. Middle and inner
b. Outer and middle
c. Outer and inner
d. All of the layers of eyeball
83. Drug contraindicated in keratitis
a. Tear drops
b. Steroids
c. Cycloplegics
d. Timolol
84. Which of the following is seen
retinitis pigmentosa?
a. Arteriolar attenuation
b. Neo vascularization
c. Retinal artery thrombosis
d. Papilledema
85. Not used for color vision testing:
a. Holmgren wool test
b. Ishihara chart
c. FM 100 Hue test
d. Ames test
86. Phacomorphic glaucoma occurs due
to
a. Intumescent cataract
b. Morgagnian cataract
c. Nuclear cataract
d. Cortical cataract
87. First sign of sympathetic
Ophthalmitis is:
a. Circumcorneal congestion
b. Hypopyon
c. Retrolental flare
d. Iris nodule
88. Pemphigus foliaceous is a condition
which is seen due to antibody against:
a. Desmoglein 1
b. Desmoglein 2
c. Desmoglein 3
d. Desmoglein 4
89. Row of tombstone is seen in which
skin disorder:
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Pemphigus foliaceous
c. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
d. Bullous pemphigoid
90. Hertoghie’s sign is seen in:
a. Contact dermatitis
b. Atopic dermatitis
c. Seborrheic dermatitis
d. Neurodermatitis
91. Correct sequence of resuscitation is:
a. Early assessment, CPR, defibrillator,
advance life saving
b. CPR, early assessment,
defibrillator,advance life saving
c. CPR, defibrillator, early assessment,
advance life saving
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d. Early assessment, defibrillator, CPR,
advance life saving
92. Tourniquet applied in Bier’s block
can provide anesthesia for?
a. ½ hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 3 hours
93. The purpose of cuff in endotracheal
tube is?
a. To reduce incidence of pressure necrosis
b. To prevent pneumothorax
c. To prevent the tube from slipping out
d. To prevent regurgitation of gastric
contents
94. Management of violent patient in
psychiatry is treated with all EXCEPT:
a. BZD
b. CBT
c. ECT
d. Haloperidol
95. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia
are all EXCEPT:
a. Overactivity
b. Anhedonia
c. Alogia
d. Apathy
96. Capgras syndrome is?
a. Familiar person replaced by impostor
b. Nonfamiliar person appears to be
familiar
c. Wife cheating with another man
d. Famous person is in love with patient
97. Maximum radiation exposure:
a. X- ray abdomen
b. HSG
C. IV Angiography
d. Barium enema
98. What is the gold standard
investigation of choice for deep vein
thrombosis?
a. Double contrast duplex
b. Venography
c. CT scan
d. MRI
99. Maximum penetrating rays:
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
ARISE MEDICAL ACADEMY, HYDERABAD ANSWER’S
1. B 11. B 21. B 31. B 41. A 51. A 61. B 71. B 81. C 91. A
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. B 42. A 52. C 62. A 72. B 82. A 92. B
3. B 13. A 23. A 33. A 43. D 53. A 63. C 73. A 83. B 93. D
4. D 14. A 24. A 34. B 44. D 54. B 64. D 74. A 84. A 94. B
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. B 45. A 55. C 65. C 75. A 85. D 95. A
6. A 16. B 26. B 36. A 46. B 56. D 66. C 76. A 86. A 96. A
7. B 17. A 27. B 37. B 47. C 57. D 67. D 77. A 87. C 97. D
8. D 18. A 28. B 38. B 48. 58. D 68. D 78. B 88. A 98. B
9. C 19. A 29. A 39. C 49. B 59. A 69. C 79. C 89. A 99. C
10. D 20. C 30. B 40. D 50. C 60. B 70. C 80. A 90. B 100.