Your manager suggests implementing port security on the company's switches, what is he/she trying to prevent?A) Unauthorised access to the switches IOSB) Unauthorised devices being plugged into the switchesC) The switches being stolen3.)

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) can only run on Cisco switches?A) TrueB) False

Fast Forward switching method is best described by which of the following?A) The entire frame is received before forwarding is commencedB) Forwards frame after receiving the destination MAC addressC) Filters out collision packets by waiting for the first 64 bytes of data

When STP is converging no data can move through the switched network.A) TrueB) False

Protocol Data Units of Layer 2 are called?A) PacketsB) FramesC) BitsD) Segments

Bridges forward layer 2 broadcasts, but switches don't.A) TrueB) False

The Cisco Spanning Tree protocol is compatible with IEEE 802.1d?A) TrueB) False

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol is interoperable with STP?A) TrueB) False

In a local broadcast all bits set to 1 received by all hosts on local and remote broadcast domains?A) TrueB) False

Store and forward switching method is best described by which of the following?A) The entire frame is received before forwarding is commencedB) Forwards frame after receiving destination addressC) Filters out collision packets by waiting for the first 64 bytes of data

In which layer of the OSI model does framing occur?A) Layer 3B) Physical layerC) Application layerD) Layer 2E) Network layer

Fragment Free switching method is best described by which of the following?A) The entire frame is received before forwarding is commencedB) Forwards frame after receiving the destination MAC addressC) Filters out collision packets by waiting for the first 64 bytes of data

Switches and bridges make forwarding decisions based on IP address.A) TrueB) False

If a switch receives a multicast frame, what does it do with it?A) Forwards it out every portB) Sends it back to the originator asking for a destination addressC) Drops the frame

How would you find out which switch is the root bridge of a switched network?A) It should be written on the switchB) An LED on the front of the switch will be litC) Use the show mac address-table commandD) Use the show spanning-tree commandE) Use the show mac filter-table command

Bridges cannot provide congestive feedback information to end nodes?A) TrueB) False

If your switch uses shared memory buffering, what would happen if a packet could not be delivered because of a busy destination port?A) It would delay transmission of all packets in memoryB) It would be sent to the destination port anywayC) It would wait in a queue while all other packets in memory are transmittedD) It would drop the packet after an allocated time

In a directed broadcast all host bits set to 1 received by all hosts on local broadcast domain?A) TrueB) False

Cut Through switching method is best described by which of the following?A) The entire frame is received before forwarding is commencedB) Forwards frame after receiving the destination MAC addressC) Filters out collision packets by waiting for the first 64 bytes of dataD) Forwards frame after receiving the source MAC address

If a frame is received by a switch but the destination hardware address of the frame is not listed in the switch's MAC database what does the switch do with the frame?A) Discards the frameB) Floods the frame out all ports except the source portC) Send a message back to the sender

Bridges can only have one spanning tree instance, while switches can have many.A) TrueB) False

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STP will work on which of the following devices?A) HubB) RouterC) SwitchD) Repeater

Frame tagging is removed if a frame is forwarded out of a switch access link.A) TrueB) False

You are having to enter a certain command into the router several times, how would you recall the last entry?A) Up arrowB) Down arrowC) Ctrl+ND) Shift-PE) Alt-P

How would you copy the IOS to a TFTP server?A) Router(config)#copy ram tftpB) Router(config)#copy tftp flashC) Router#copy flash tftpD) Router#copy tftp flashE) None of the above

How would you disable an interface?A) Router(config-if)#shutdownB) Router(config-if)#disconnectC) Router(config-if)#disableD) Router(config-if)#closeE) Router(config-if)#stop

You are half way through typing in a command on a Cisco router, what effect will the TAB key have on this?A) Move the cursor to the front of the lineB) Move the cursor to the end of the lineC) Delete the last character enteredD) Will complete the command for you

How would you view the current Configuration Register value?A) show config-registerB) show regC) show configD) show version

The running-config is found in the ...A) NVRAMB) DRAMC) FLASHD) ROM

The startup-config is found in the ...A) FLASHB) DRAMC) NVRAMD) ROM

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When you connect to a remote router "out-of-band", via what port would you connect with?A) Console portB) Auxiliary portC) Ethernet portD) Serial port

How would you disable CDP on a Cisco router or switch?A) disable cdpB) shutdown cdpC) no cdp enableD) no cdp runE) You cannot disable CDP

Route poisoning reduces incorrect routing information in distance vector networks by stating that routing information cannot be sent back in the direction is was received.A) TrueB) False

The purpose of Hold down is to hold a route in the routing table until it comes back up?A) TrueB) False

Triggered updates are used to speed the convergence process?

A) TrueB) False

Split horizon is used where a maximum hop count is defined to counteract the counting to infinity routing loop problem.A) TrueB) False

If a router fails causing a route to go down, RIP and IGRP will advertise this route with an infinite-metric out of all the interfaces. This is called?A) Split Horizon with Poison ReverseB) HoldtimeC) Poison ReverseD) STPE) Backoff algorithm

Split horizon reduces incorrect routing information in distance vector networks by stating that routing information cannot be sent back in the direction is was received.A) TrueB) False

Split horizon is used to...A) Get a packet out of a routing loopB) Speed up convergenceC) Prevent a route from being advertised back in the direction in which it originatedD) Prevent a bad routes in the internetwork

IGRP advertises routes to interior, system and exterior routesA) TrueB) False

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The maximum default hop count for Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is?A) 1B) 10C) 15D) 16E) 30

Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) is a proprietary Cisco distance-vector routing protocol and can only be used with Cisco routers.A) TrueB) False

Trunk links are used to communicate between...A) Two switchesB) A switch and routerC) A switch and serverD) A switch and PCE) A, B and C are correct

Inter-Switch Link and IEEE 802.1Q are types of...A) Spanning Tree ProtocolB) Trunking methodC) EthernetD) Routing protocol

VLANs break up broadcast domains.A) TrueB) False

Hosts on one VLAN that want to communicate with another VLAN need to go through a router.A) TrueB) False

A flat network can be best described as...A) Physically flatB) One collision domainC) One broadcast domainD) One VLAN

Your network features a combination of Cisco, 3COM and Netgear switches. You have been tasked to set up VLANS on your switched network.What trunking method should you use?A) Inter-Switch LinkB) IEEE 802.1QC) You can't create VLANs by combining switches from different vendors

VLAN trunk protocol is responsible for?A) Tracking and monitoring VLANSB) Consistent VLAN configurationC) Trunking VLANs across mixed networksD) Reporting New VLANsE) All of the above

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If you are trunking between non-Cisco switches what frame tagging standard should you adopt?A) 802.1qB) ISLC) 802.3qD) VTP

Frame tagging is used to identify...A) The intended recipient of a frameB) The IP address of the frameC) The source of the frameD) The VLAN ID of the frameE) The trunking method

If I were to give an IP address to VLAN1, then VLAN2, and VLAN3, which VLAN would be the management VLAN?A) VLAN0B) VLAN1C) VLAN2D) VLAN_AE) VLAN01

You are setting up a VLAN in your company. You only have one VLAN. Do you require VLAN Trunking Protocol?A) YesB) No

Where would you place extended access lists?A) As close to the destination as possibleB) As close to the source as possible

Where would you place more specific tests in your access list?A) At the topB) At the bottomC) Placement doesn't matter

Extended ACL allow you to filter Application layer traffic.A) TrueB) False

Where is the best position to place an Extended ACL?A) As close to the destination as possibleB) As close to the source as possible

Where would you place standard access lists?A) As close to the destination as possibleB) As close to the source as possible

Where is the best position to place a Standard ACL?A) As close to the destination as possibleB) As close to the source as possible

How many access control lists can you apply to an interface?A) UnlimitedB) One ACL per port per directionC) 10D) You do not apply ACL to interfaces

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How many IP access lists can you assign on an outbound interface?A) 1B) 1-100C) Unlimited

Router(config)#access-list 25 deny 172.32.10.0 0.0.0.255Router(config)#access-list 25 permit anyIf applied to an interface what would this ACL do?A) Deny traffic from the 172.32.10.0 networkB) Deny SMTP traffic from the 172.32.10.0 networkC) Deny traffic from the host 172.32.10.0D) Deny SMTP traffic from the host 172.32.10.0E) Allow all traffic

PPP can be used with...?A) Synchronous serial linksB) Asynchronous serial linksC) Both synchronous and asynchronous links

When would an interface need a clock rate?A) When the interface is DTEB) When the interface is DCE

RIP, RIPv2, EIGRP and OSPF are examples of...A) Routing protocolsB) Routed protocols

By default all Cisco routers are...A) DTE devicesB) DCE devices

When discussing frame relay, what does the term CIR mean?A) The maximum speed the frame relay interface can transmitB) The average bandwidth for a virtual circuit guaranteed by an ISP

By default all routers are...A) DTE devicesB) DCE devices

HDLC is ISO standard WAN protocol which means you don't need Cisco routers at both ends of a WAN connection, a router from any vendor that supports HDLC will work.A) TrueB) False

PPP can be used over what types of serial connections?A) SynchronousB) AsynchronousC) BothD) Neither

A router must maintain routing tables for each routing protocol that is enabled?A) TrueB) False

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Internet Explorer resides at the Application layer of the OSI model?A) TrueB) False

In a network segment only one device can communicate at a timeA) TrueB) FalseEthernet technology relates to which type of network?A) WANB) LANC) MAND) SANE) All of the above

A connection that uses a three-way handshake is considered a...A) Connection-oriented connectionB) Connectionless connection

A collision domain can be described as?A) A physical network segment where data packets can "collide" with one another on an Ethernet network.B) A logical division of a computer network, in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer

Hubs segment a networkA) TrueB) False

Layer 3 devices such as routers break up broadcast domainsA) TrueB) False

When transmitting data in a connection-oriented manor, windowing refers to...A) The amount of time required to establish a virtual circuitB) The time between sending segments and processing acknowledgmentsC) The quantity of segments that can be transmitted without receiving an acknowledgmentD) The size of the receivers memory buffer allocated to the virtual circuit

A broadcast domain can be described as?A) A physical network segment where data packets can "collide" with one another on an Ethernet network.B) A logical division of a computer network, in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer.

You need to connect a switch to another switch/hub. What type of Ethernet cable should you use?A) Straight-through cableB) Crossover cableC) Rolled cable

CSMA/CD can be described best by which of the following?A) NIC's continuously 'listen' to the media and manage trafficB) Devices transmit a token to check whether it is okay to send dataC) Devices 'listen' to the media to make sure no signals are being sent before transmitting dataD) Devices just transmit data regardless of other network traffic

With full-duplex Ethernet no collisions can occur.

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A) TrueB) False

You need to connect your PC directly to a router. What type of Ethernet cable should you use?A) Straight-through cableB) Crossover cableC) Rolled cable

Protocol Data Units of the Network layer are called?A) FramesB) BitsC) SegmentsD) Packets

When would you not use a straight-through cable?A) Connecting a router to a hub or switchB) Connecting a server to a hub or switchC) Connecting a workstation to a hub or switchD) Connecting an uplink between two switches

Layer 2 devices such as switches break up broadcast domainsA) TrueB) False

TCP is a reliable connection-orientated protocol or a connection-less unreliable protocol?A) A connection-oriented reliable protocolB) A connection-less unreliable protocol

The Transport layer is...A) ConnectionlessB) Connection-orientedC) Both

Routers break up broadcast domains?A) TrueB) False

The ICMP protocol is used for...A) Destination Unreachable messagesB) Hop Count messagesC) PingD) TracerouteE) All of the above

The ARP protocol resolves MAC addresses to IP addressesA) TrueB) False

"An unsequenced connectionless protocol with low overhead"What Transport layer protocol are we describing?A) UDPB) TCP

What Application layer protocol polls devices on the network helping to notify when network errors occur?

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A) TelnetB) FTPC) SNMPD) LPDE) SMTP

How can you abbreviate an IPv6 address?A) Remove leading zeros from blocksB) Replace one contiguous block populated by zeros with a double colonC) All of the above are correctD) You cannot abbreviate an IPv6 address

Where is the startup configuration stored on a Cisco router?A) RAMB) ROMC) NVRAMD) Flash memory

Where is the start-up configuration file held in a router?A) NVRAMB) RAMC) Routing tableD) ROM

The NAT terminology "outside local" refers to...A) Name of inside source address before translationB) Name of destination host before translationC) Name of inside host after translationD) Name of outside destination host after translation

You made some changes to your routers running-config a few months ago.However when the router was rebooted the configuration changed.What might have happened?A) The routers NVRAM might be corruptB) The running-config might not have been copied to the startup-configC) The router might have loaded an old configuration from a TFTP server

Cisco Discovery Protocol uses what to determine neighbouring devices information?A) Subnetwork Access ProtocolB) ICMPC) TraceD) PingE) PPP

Routers are what by default?A) DTE devicesB) DCE devices

The NAT terminology "inside global" refers to...A) Name of inside source address before translationB) Name of destination host before translationC) Name of inside host after translationD) Name of outside destination host after translation

You have connected to one of the routers in your network and you wish to find out some information about a switch. However there is another

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switch between the router you are connected to and the switch you need information from. Can you use CDP to find out this information?A) YesB) No

By default is CDP enabled or disabled on compatible devices?A) EnabledB) Disabled

The NAT terminology "outside global" refers to...A) Name of inside source address before translationB) Name of destination host before translationC) Name of inside host after translationD) Name of outside destination host after translation

The NAT terminology "inside local" refers to...A) Name of inside source address before translationB) Name of destination host before translationC) Name of inside host after translationD) Name of outside destination host after translation

Where is the POST, bootstrap and mini-IOS stored on a Cisco router?A) RAMB) ROMC) NVRAMD) Flash memory

Where is the Cisco IOS stored on a Cisco router?A) RAMB) ROMC) NVRAMD) Flash memory

Contention for media access is overcome in the following media access scheme: a. Star b. Bus c. CSMA/CD d. CSMA/CA e. None of the above

The receiving end on buffer overflow will send the ________ request to the sending end to slow down the sending rate. a. Source quench b. Packet quench c. Acknowledgments d. None of the above

Which layer of the OSI provides translation of data? a. Application b. Presentation c. Session d. Transport e. Data Link

Switches have MAC address but routers don t. a. True b. False

OSPF uses __________ to update the routing table entries. a. Link state packets

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b. Routing entries c. Link tables d. None of the above

How many bits define a hardware address? a. 6 bits b. 16 bits c. 46 bits d. 48 bits

R11 and R12 (IP address 10.1.11.2) are connected to the same LAN segment. R11 s EIGRP Hold Time expires for neighbor R12. The exhibit shows R11 s topology information for subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following is true about R11 s first reaction to the loss of its neighbor R12? R11#show ip eigrp topology ! lines omitted for brevity P 10.1.1.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 1456 via 10.1.11.2 (1456/1024), FastEthernet0/0 via 10.1.14.2 (1756/1424), Serial0/0.4 a. R11 sends Updates to all neighbors poisoning its route to 10.1.1.0/24 b. R11 replaces the old route through 10.1.11.2 with the feasible successor route through 10.1.14.2 c. R11 sends Query messages to all other neighbors to ensure the alternate route through 10.1.14.2 is loop free, before using the route d. R11 first Queries only neighbors on interface fa0/0 for alternative routes before Querying the rest of its neighbors

Seven hosts and a router on a multicast LAN network are using IGMPv2. Hosts 5, 6, and 7 are members of group 226.5.6.7. Which of the following answers is/are true about how the router will respond when Host 7 sends an IGMPv2 Leave message for the group 226.5.6.7? a. Sends an IGMPv2 General Query to multicast destination address 224.0.0.1. b. Sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 224.0.0.1. c. Sends an IGMPv2 General Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7. d. Sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7. e. First, sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7 and then sends an IGMPv2 General Query to multicast destination address 224.0.0.1.

Why do you need a Wi-Fi router instead of an access point when installing a wireless LAN in a small office or home? a. A router operates at a faster speed. b. A router implements better security mechanisms. c. A router will last longer. d. The router implements DHCP and NAT.

How many B channels make up an ISDN PRI connection in Europe?30

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You must configure a router to issue AT commands to a remote host during callback. Which command should you use to configure this functionality? a. Router(config)# ppp callback accept b. Router(config)# ppp callback initiate c. Router(config)# callback forced-wait 60 d. Router(config-line)# script callback test

On a router, which Cisco proprietary protocol is used to enable a router to inform Layer 2 switches that its interfaces are connected to multicast receivers? a. IGMP b. CGMP c. IGMPv2 d. IGMPv3

How much bandwidth must you allocate to support 10,000 busy hour call attempts (BHCA) over a WAN using a clustered Cisco CallManager? a. 450 Kbps b. 900 Kbps c. 1 Mbps d. 1.5 Mbps

You are designing a content networking solution for an enterprise campus network. Where should you locate the proxy servers for the network? a. Building access layer b. Building distribution layer c. Server farm layer d. Campus backbone layer

When securing an Internet connectivity module, what should you implement to prevent a compromise of an exposed host? (Choose four.) a. Firewalls b. Routers c. Network intrusion detection system (IDS) d. Host hardening e. Host intrusion detection system (IDS) f. DMZ networks g. LAN switching access control

PPP (Point to Point Protocol) is a WAN Protocol that can be used on Serial Link. a. True b. False

To connect two catalyst switches, you need a ______________. a. RJ-45 to RJ -45 rollover cable b. CAT-5 UTP crossover cable c. RJ-45 to RJ-45 straight cable d. RJ-45 to DB-9 terminal cable

IGMP snooping must be disabled before you enable CGMP. a. True b. False

The native VLAN of the trunk link is the VLAN to which the port will belong if that link becomes non-trunk. a. True

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b. False

Layer 3 devices block layer 2 broadcast traffic. a. True b. False

Loop avoidance can be achieved with __________ technology. a. VTP b. STP Trunking c. VTP Prunning d. STP

How should you configure interVLAN routing with Layer 2 switches and a router with 10BaseT ports? a. Use ISL trunking b. Use IEEE 802.1Q trunking c. Configure two subnets on the same router interface d. Run a physical link from the router to the switch for each VLAN

How can we describe Access layer switches? a. Low cost b. InterVLAN routing c. Robust Layer 3 throughput d. High port density to connect to end users

Dynamic VLANs require a VLAN Membership Policy Server. a. True b. False

In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a, 07.ac represents the HSRP router number. a. True b. False

You have the following campus design network geography requirements:* You are designing an intra-building solution.* High availability is very important.* Costs must be kept to a minimum.Which connectivity type should you implement? a. Fiber b. Multimode Fiber c. Singlemode Fiber d. Copper e. UTP

Under which condition is a multicast transmission NOT a viable alternative? a. When UDP transmissions are sent b. When packet delivery must be guaranteed c. When guaranteed delivery is not important d. When the same information must be sent to multiple users on the network

You are in charge of designing multicasts for a large campus network and are in the process of placing the RPs on the network. How should the RPs be arranged? (Choose two.) a. The RPs should be distributed throughout the network.

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b. The RPs should be responsible for the same multicast addresses. c. The RPs should be in distributed on the campus backbone only. d. The RPs should be distributed on the campus access layer only. e. The RPs should be responsible for different ranges of multicast addresses.

Where is the ideal placement for a VPN concentrator when designing a VPN? a. Behind a switch b. Behind a bridge c. At the Internet access point's edge d. Behind a router

You must configure a VPN connection through a NAT router that is using PAT. What must you configure to enable this functionality for an IPSec VPN? a. NAT overloading b. Overlapping NAT c. Static NAT d. NAT traversal

A client has hired you to save WAN bandwidth on his network. The network is comprised of a corporate headquarters with 500 nodes, a branch office with 300 nodes, and two other branch offices with 250 nodes. How many hours of storage space on a content engine should you allow for the content network when you are designing it? a. 6 to 12 b. 12 to 24 c. 24 to 48 d. 24 to 72

In regard to Frame Relay traffic shaping, which term refers to a message sent from the Frame Relay switch to the source router informing the router that the network is congested? a. FECN b. BECN c. Committed Information Rate (CIR) d. Discard Eligibility (DE) Indicator

You have configured the following custom queue list for your Cisco 3640 router: Router(config)# queue-list 2 protocol ip 1 udp 69 Router(config)# queue-list 2 protocol ip 2 Router(config)# queue-list 2 protocol appletalk 3

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Router(config)# queue-list 2 protocol ipx 4 Router(config)# queue-list 2 default 5 Router(config)# queue-list 2 queue 1 byte-count 4500 Router(config)# queue-list 2 queue 2 byte-count 3000 ! Router(config)# interface serial 0 Router(config)# custom-queue-list 2

You have two main offices, one in Miami and the other in Atlanta. There is a Frame Relay connection and an ISDN connection between the offices. You have configured the ISDN connection to become active when the Frame Relay connection is overloaded, and you want load sharing to occur when both connections are active. The Frame Relay connection uses the S0 interface on both routers, and the ISDN connection uses the Bri0 interface on both routers. The routers use the IGRP routing protocol to route packets. The Frame Relay connection is five times faster than the ISDN connection.Which command or commands will allow you to load share and balance the traffic so the primary connection has five times more traffic on it than the backup connection? a. Router(config)# router igrp 100 b. Router(config)# variance 5 Router(config)# traffic-share balanced c. Router(config)# router igrp 100 Router(config)# variance 5 Router(config)# traffic-share balanced d. Router(config)# router igrp 100 Router(config-router)# variance 5 Router(config-router)# traffic-share balanced

You must display the configured IKE policies for your VPN. Which command should you use to display these policies? a. show crypto map b. debug crypto ipsec c. show crypto ipsec sa d. show crypto isakmp policy e. show crypto ipsec transform-set

In which submodule of the Enterprise Model should DiffServ traffic classification be performed?Building Access

How many bytes are added to Ethernet frames using the ISL trunking protocol?30

An interface in DTP "dynamic auto" mode will convert to a trunk link if the neighboring interface is set to which DTP modes?"dynamic desirable" or "trunk"

A new switch containing a configuration consisting of only VLAN 5 was just added to the network. Now users assigned to VLANs 9 and 10 are complaining of communication problems. Using the show vlan command you discover that only VLAN 5 and the default VLANs exist on all your switches. What could have caused this problem? a. The new switch had the default password set.

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b. The Domain Name on the new switch did not match the rest of the network. c. The new switch was configured in server mode and the revision number was lower than the current number in the network. d. The new switch was configured in server mode and the revision number was higher than the current number in the network. e. The new switch was configured in transparent mode and the revision number was higher than the current number in the network.

While reviewing a router's configuration file, you notice the following commands: interface fa0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 duplex full

Two switches that are in different management domains are accidentally connected together. If both sides of the link have their trunking states set to nonegotiate, what does the link do? Which statement is true? a. The link trunks. b. The link does not trunk. c. Both ports automatically disable themselves. d. Both ports automatically change their trunking states to off.

When you are configuring a Multilayer Switch Module (MSM) or a Route Switch Module (RSM) to perform inter-VLAN routing, what is a preferred method for allowing virtual local-area network (VLAN) access to routes outside the management domain? Which statement is true? a. Using the "ip default-gateway" command to configure a default route for traffic destined for any subnet outside of the configured VLAN subnets. b. Using the "ip gateway" command to configure a default route. c. Using an external routing protocol so that the RSM or MSM may learn of external routes. d. Configuring the RSM and MSM with static routes to every external network.

While looking at a protocol analyzer, you notice the IP multicast address 227.16.28.1. What is the correct Layer 2 address that corresponds to this IP multicast address? Which statement is true? a. 01-00-5e-10-1c-01 b. 01-00-5f-10-1c-01 c. 01-00-5e-10-1b-01 d. 01-00-5e-24-1c-01

You are implementing Quality of Service on a Multilayer Switched (MLS) network and need User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) traffic to be inspected so that HTTP traffic is classified according to host name.Which functionality must be used to achieve the results you want? Choose which statement is true. a. Network-Based Application Recognition (NBAR)

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b. Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) c. Tail-Drop d. First In First Out (FIFO)

OSPF uses the _____________ algorithm to calculate the lowest cost path to a destination network. a. Dijkstra b. DUAL c. Diffie-Hellman d. Bellman Ford

On which layer of the OSI model does a Web browser operate? a. Application Layer b. Presentation Layer c. Session Layer d. Network Layer

You need to configure an Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) nonbroadcast multiaccess (NBMA) link using the x.25 protocol.How does Cisco recommend you configure the link? a. As an NBMA link b. As a point-to-point link c. As a broadcast link d. As a Level-1 link

You are configuring an IP router in an EIGRP autonomous system. Which command should you use to configure 165.165.0.0 as the default network?ip default-network 165.165.0.0

e. At least one router must be an ABR to the backbone area.

At which layer is the majority of a well-designed network's access control policy implemented? a. Core b. User c. Access d. Distribution

In addition to ISIS, which three common IGPs support discontiguous subnets?EIGRP, OSPF and RIPv2.

What is the default OSPF interface priority?1

With single-rate policing, with three possible actions configured, how does the policer replenish buckets into the excess token bucket? a. By filling Bc * Tc tokens into the first bucket each time interval, with spilled tokens refilling the excess token bucket. b. By refilling the first bucket, based on a pro-rated amount of Bc, with spilled tokens refilling the excess token bucket. c. By Be * Tc each time interval.

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d. By putting a pro-rated amount of Be into the excess token bucket directly. e. By Be tokens each second.

For which of the following WRED categories will WRED discard a subset of the packets? a. Tail Drop b. Full Drop c. Random Drop d. Partial Drop e. No Drop

Imagine that WRED with ECN has been configured for a CBWFQ class. Under which of the following cases could WRED randomly choose to discard a packet, but instead, mark the ECN bits inside the packet header and allowing the packet to pass? a. Average queue depth between the min and max thresholds, plus the incoming packet ECN field set to 00. b. Average queue depth between the min and max thresholds, plus the incoming packet ECN field set to 01 or 10. c. Average queue depth above max threshold, plus the incoming packet ECN field set to 01 or 10. d. Average queue depth between the min and max thresholds, plus the incoming packet TCP ECE flag must be set to 1 , and ECN field must be set to 01.

By default, what values will the Catalyst 2950 trust? a. CoS b. DSCP c. CoS and DSCP d. None of the above

How many egress queues are present on each Ethernet interface of the Catalyst 2950? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

TCP Slow Start controls the rate a TCP sender sends data by controlling: a. Growth of the Advertised Window b. Growth of the Congestion Window c. Calculation of the Average Queue Depth d. The wait-for-acknowledgement timer

According to the DiffServ RFCs, which PHB defines a set of three DSCPs in each service class, with different drop characteristics for each of the three DSCP values? a. Expedited Forwarding b. Class Selector c. Assured Forwarding d. Multi-class-multi-drop

Imagine a packet is marked with AF31. Later, a QoS tool classifies the packet. Which of the following classification criteria would match the packet, assuming the marking had not been changed from the original AF31 marking? a. Match of DSCP CS3 b. Match of precedence 3

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c. Match on DSCP AF32 d. Match on DSCP AF31 e. Match on DSCP 24

Imagine a router configuration with several class-map commands, with a policy map referring to the service classes defined in the class-map commands. The policy map has been enabled for incoming packets on interface Fa0/1. What command would you look for in order to tell if Class Based Marking was in use, as opposed to some other MQC command? a. match b. match-all c. priority d. mark e. set

Examine the following configuration snippet, and assume that all commands related to the class-map and all interface commands are shown. Which of the following answer best explains why the show command shows that class barney is not matching any packets? class-map dino match protocol rtp audio ! policy-map barney class dino set ip dscp ef ! interface fastethernet0/0 ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 service-policy input barney a. There is no RTP audio traffic currently in the network b. You cannot enable CB marking as an input function c. The show command only works when the mls enable counters interface subcommand is used d. The ip cef global command is required . e. The show policy-map interface fa0/0 command lists configuration information, but not packet counters

Assume that a router is configured correctly so that voice payload packets are marked with DSCP value EF. Which of the following commands could have been used inside the policy-map to cause CB Marking to set that value? a. set ip dscp ef b. set ip dscp 46 c. set dscp ef d. set dscp 46 e. all of the above f. none of the above

Router A is the endpoint of an IPSEC VPN tunnel. Packets entering router A on interface fa 0/0 will be encrypted and then forwarded to a central site out interface S0/0. You want to enable CB marking on egress packets on the serial0/0 interface, but you want to look at the fields in the IP, TCP, and UDP headers of the original packet, before encryption. What must be done to allow your policy map to work? a. It works automatically, without any commands required

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b. The ip cef global command is needed c. The mls qos global command is needed d. The qos pre-classify global command is needed e. The qos pre-classify command is needed on the IPSEC crypto map

A Cisco Security Appliance can be configured to send syslog messages to all of the following except which one? a. Console b. Telnet session c. Serial port d. Syslog server e. Answers a, b, c, and d are correct

Why is it difficult to penetrate a Security Appliance over UDP port 53? a. The Security Appliance allows multiple outbound queries but randomizes the UDP sequence numbers. b. The Security Appliance allows queries to go out to multiple DNS servers but drops all but the first response. c. The Security Appliance allows responses only to outbound DNS queries. d. All of the above

If an AIP-SSM module fails while using an IPS policy, what command allows traffic to continue to transmit during the failure? a. pass-thru

b. fail-close c. cross-connect d. fail-open

Approximately how much memory per connection does CBAC require? a. 2 KB b. 6 KB c. 200 bytes d. 600 bytes

In which instance below does a bridge filter a frame? a. When the source and destination MAC addresses are on the same segment b. When the source MAC address is unknown c. When the IP address is not in the bridge table d. When the IP address is unknown

You must implement a network in which the two main offices must be connected with a point-to-point connection that is always available for transmission. Which technology should you implement? a. Leased line b. Circuit-switched network c. Packet-switched network d. ATM

You must implement a network in which connectivity occurs over a dedicated physical path to a single location between two network endpoints for a period of time. Which technology should you implement? a. Leased line b. Circuit-switched network c. Packet-switched network d. ATM

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You must implement a network in which PVCs are used for network connectivity between two branch offices. Which technology should you implement? a. Leased line b. Circuit-switched network c. Packet-switched network d. ATM

You must implement a network in which network transmission occurs using digital signal technology. Which technology should you implement? a. Leased line b. Circuit-switched network c. Packet-switched network d. ATM

You must implement a network in which network transmission between the five remote sites occurs using traditional copper telephone wire while still providing high bandwidth. Which technology should you implement? a. Leased line b. Circuit-switched network c. Packet-switched network d. ATM e. DSL f. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

You must implement a network that provides for high scalability while still providing for flexible WAN solutions. Which technology should you implement? a. Leased line b. Circuit-switched network c. Packet-switched network d. ATM e. DSL f. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

Communication between VLANs is provided by which of the following? a. SNAP (Subnetwork Access Protocol) b. A bridge c. ISL (Interswitch Link Protocol ) d. A router

Your customer uses private network 10.0.0.0/20 throughout his domain. The business presently has 450 offices and 200 computers per office.What technique is necessary in order for all internal network users to have simultaneous access to the Internet through the single company firewall and the service provider's frame relay network? a. CIDR b. VLSM c. NAT d. PAT

The following statement encompasses which range of addresses? access-list 1 permit 172.30.16.0 0.0.15.255 a. 172.30.16.0 through 172.30.16.255 b. 172.30.16.0 through 172.30.29.255 c. 172.30.16.0 through 172.30.255.255 d. 172.30.16.0 through 172.30.31.255

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You have expanded your network and have added a second Cisco 2950 switch. You want to configure a trunk between the original switch and the new switch.Which command is used to configure the new switch to negotiate the link between the switches between trunking mode and non-trunking mode? a. switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/17 switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable b. switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/17 switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto c. switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/17 switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk d. switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/17 switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

You are asked to design a subnet mask scheme for a Class C network with 10 subnets and 14 hosts per subnet. Which subnet mask will meets your needs? a. 255.255.255.192 b. 255.255.255.224 c. 255.255.255.240 d. 255.255.255.248

You need to develop an access list statement that will deny access to all users from network number 172.16.0.0. Which ACL statement will accomplish this? a. access-list 10 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 b. access-list 15 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 any c. access-list 20 deny 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 d. access-list 50 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.0

When are the files stored in NVRAM transferred to RAM? (Choose two.) a. Whenever the router is booted b. Whenever the command "copy start run" is executed c. Whenever the command "copy run start" is executed d. Whenever the command "show startup-config" is executed e. Whenever the command "show running-config" is executed

You are tasked with configuring a Cisco router. To configure Open Shortest Path (OSPF) you need to know the subnets of attached interfaces. What is the subnet on which host 165.20.90.90/20 resides? a. 165.20.0.0 b. 165.20.90.0 c. 165.20.80.0 d. 165.20.64.0 e. 165.24.88. 0

Given the following dialog, what is the most logical command that the user should use next to get assistance? Router_B#show art ^ % Invalid input detected at '^' marker. a. ? b. show ar ? c. show arp d. show ar?

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e. Cannot be determined

Where is the power-on diagnostics for the router stored? a. In Flash memory b. In RAM c. In ROM d. In ROM or Flash memory e. In NVRAM

How can a switch best be described? a. It's a multi-port bridge. b. It's a simple router. c. It's an active hub. d. It's a concentrator. e. It's a passive hub.

Given the IP address 130.113.64.17/24, which statement is true? a. 130.113.64.0 is the network number. b. 130.113.0.0 is the network number. c. 130.0.0.0 is the network number. d. 255.255.0.0 is the subnet mask.

SNMP uses which Transport layer port number to communicate? a. UDP port 21 b. TCP port 21 c. TCP port 23 d. UDP port 69 e. UDP port 161 f. TCP port 161

Given a configuration register value of 0x2102, select the invalid router boot sequence command. a. boot system tftp IOS_filename tftp_address b. boot system rom c. boot system nvram d. boot system flash IOS_filename

TFTP uses which transport protocol? a. SPX b. UDP c. ICMP d. TCP

A prompt such as "Router >" indicates you are in what mode? a. Privileged mode b. User mode c. Setup mode d. Configuration mode

When in enhanced editing mode, you can move to the beginning of a command line by pressing which of the following key sequences? a. Ctrl-A b. Ctrl-E c. Esc-B d. Esc-F e. Ctrl-B f. Ctrl-F

Where is the active configuration file of the router stored?

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a. In NVRAM b. In RAM c. In ROM d. In Flash memory e. On a TFTP server

How can split horizon best be described? a. It is a Cisco proprietary feature of switches, which prevents a bridge from sending frames to a network segment that does not contain the destination host. b. It is a calculation in a router that limits the maximum size of a packet that a particular interface can route. c. It is a feature of a router that helps prevent routing loops by preventing routing updates from including information about routes to remote networks that were learned through the interface the update is being sent from. d. It is a feature of routers to help reduce the convergence time.

At which OSI layer does CDP function?Data-link

During which stage of the general troubleshooting process does the troubleshooter build a knowledge base about the potential reasons for a problem?gathering symptoms

When testing a prototype, which commands help in validating that your prototype works? (Choose three.) a. show processes b. show interface c. ping d. show run e. show versionOver which protocol is SNMP transported? a. UDP b. TCP c. ICMP d. NetBIOS

Why would you build a prototype as opposed to a pilot? a. For large networks b. When minimizing cost is an issue c. To prove that the network works d. For small networks

How can hosts in a broadcast or collision domain be manipulated to preserve communication between the hosts without introducing a routing process? a. All stations in a broadcast domain can be physically segmented. b. All stations in a collision domain can be physically segmented from each other. c. All stations in a collision domain can be logically segmented into logical domains.

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d. All stations in a broadcast domain can be logically segmented into other logical domains.

Assume there are multiple desirable ways to get to a destination contained in a routing table. If one of these ways is lost, how long is the RIP convergence time? a. Convergence time will be 0. b. It depends on the routing protocol configured. c. It depends on the processing speed of the router. d. It depends on the type of link.

A company is considering an upgrade to Microsoft Windows XP and Office 2000. There are 100 users, 50 of which are running Windows 95, with the remaining 50 users running Linux workstations. The Linux users use Star Office. The company wants to keep its Linux platforms to keep costs down.How many Windows XP/Office 2000 licenses does the company need to buy? a. 50 Windows XP licenses / 50 Office 2000 Licenses b. 50 Windows XP licenses / 100 Office 2000 Licenses c. 100 Windows XP licenses / 50 Office 2000 Licenses d. 100 Windows XP licenses / 100 Office 2000 Licenses

From the list below, select the protocols that do not support VLSM. a. RIP-1 b. RIP-2 c. IGRP d. EIGRP e. BGP f. OSPF

For a particular NAT implementation, a private address 192.168.1.1 should always be translated with a 1:1 mapping to IP address 12.150.146.100. Which command accomplishes this? a. ip nat inside source 192.168.1.1 12.150.146.100 b. ip nat outside source 192.168.1.1 12.150.146.100 c. ip nat inside source int s0 overload d. ip nat inside source list 1 pool outside

Imagine that a Frame Relay frame is sent from R1 to R2. The frame experiences congestion while in transit. What is the most likely action of a Frame Relay switch that notices the congestion? a. It sets the FECN bit in the frame. b. It sets the BECN bit in the frame. c. It sets the DE bit, triggering R2 to set the FECN bit in the next frame it sends to R1. d. It sets the DE bit, triggering R2 to set the BECN bit in the next frame it sends to R1.

Assuming that an interface on a Cisco router does not have a bandwidth command, what is the default OSPF cost of a fractional T1 with a capacity of 1Mbps? a. 100 b. 64 c. 19 d. 10

You have two switches in your organization with users connected to both of them. You have two segments connecting the two switches. How

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could you utilize and minimize the downtime so the two switches can utilize the maximum bandwidth? a. Use EtherChannel b. Enable multiple links c. You can only increase the bandwidth of the individual links d. Disable STP

When using static routes, you type in "ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0", two options are available to specify the next hop. Select the two valid choices. a. s1 b. 10.2.2.2 c. via 10.2.2.2 d. pass-to 10.2.2.2 e. via s1

When originally designed, a branch office needed only six IP addresses, and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 was used. Two more devices need IP addresses on that LAN. Thankfully VLSM was properly and carefully implemented and there are several more subnets available to accommodate this new growth. Which of the following answers would work for adding these two new hosts to the LAN? a. Add a second router with an extra Ethernet port and assign a new subnet to the branch office. b. Assign an extra subnet to the branch office by putting a secondary IP address on the router at the office. c. Assign a new, larger subnet to the branch LAN. d. Use NAT to overlap the address at the branch office.

R1, R2, R3, and R4 have their Fast Ethernet 0/0 interfaces attached to the same VLAN. A network engineer has typed a configuration for each router by using a word processor. He will later copy and paste the configuration into the router. Examine the following exhibit, which lists configuration for the four routers, as typed by the network engineer. Assuming that all four routers can ping each other s LAN IP addresses after the configuration has been applied, which of the following statements is true regarding EIGRP behavior between these four routers? (You can assume that, if not shown in the exhibit, all other related parameters are still set to their defaults.)

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!!! Configuration on R1 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0! router eigrp 9999 network 10.0.0.0 !!! Configuration on R2 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.0! router eigrp 9999 network 10.0.0.0 !!! Configuration on R3 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.3 255.255.255.0! router eigrp 9999 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 !!! Configuration on R4 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.4 255.255.255.0! router eigrp 9999 network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0! a. Only R1 and R2 will exchange routing information. b. Only R3 and R4 will exchange routing information. c. Three of the routers will exchange routing information, but one will not. d. All four routers will exchange routing information. e. None of the routers will exchange routing information.

Describe CSA's reliance on signatures.CSA does not rely on signatures and does not inspect content but rather analyzes system behavior for abnormal activity.

After an ACL is created, what is the next step to place it into production?Apply it to an interface with the "ip access-group" interface configuration command or the "access-class" line configuration command.

On what layer of the OSI model do packet filtering firewalls operate?Packet filtering firewalls operate on the network or transport layer (OSI model layers 3 and 4).

You are trying to understand a problem that you have with one of your switches. The switch, a 2950, has three hosts connected to it. On port f0/1 is your server called 'Blue', on f0/2 is a host called 'Green' and on port f0/3 is your computer called 'Black'. The very first frame sent by any of the three hosts is a frame sent by Green, with Blue s destination MAC address. Out which interfaces will the frame be sent? a. f0/1 b. f0/3 c. f0/2

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You organization has three buildings: Red, Blue and Green. Each building has a Cisco 2950 switch. Building Red has your VTP server and you have created 3 VLANs; Programmers, QA and Admin. Building Green does not have any Admin people. What technology will allow you to stop the Admin VLAN from sending broadcasts to building Green? a. VTP Trunking b. VTP Blocking c. VTP Pruning d. VTP Halting e. VTP Limiting

Your routing table is reaching a large size. What could you do to decrease the size of your routing table? a. Implement summarization b. Add more memory to your routers c. Switch to a different routing protocol d. Replace your routers with a more powerful ones

OSPF routers can hear Hellos from another router on the same subnet, but not form a neighbor relationship. In which of the following definitely prevent neighbor relationship from being formed? a. An ip ospf access-group 101 in command on the interface, with ACL 101 filtering the RID of the other router b. Mismatched subnet numbers c. Mismatched networks listed in the configured network commands d. Mismatched Hello intervals e. When both routers have the same configured dead interval, but with the dead interval not being four times the Hello interval

STP or Spanning Tree Protocol has many advantages, like preventing loops. Select some of the major disadvantages to STP. a. Without tuning, may take close to a minute to converge b. Does not actively use redundant links c. Only works on 100baseT d. Is Cisco proprietary

You have been assigned the IP network 142.142.0.0. You want to create the greatest number of subnets consistent with the following criteria:1. Each subnet must currently support at least 100 hosts.2. You must provide for 20% growth.Which subnet mask should you use?The correct subnet mask is 255.255.255.128 or /25

Given the broadcast address for subnet 192.168.50.64/27 is 192.168.50.95, what is the broadcast address on the next subnet?192.168.50.127

You want to permit any device from network 192.168.15.0 to establish Telnet sessions to RouterA while denying Telnet access to devices on all other networks. You have defined the following access list: RouterA(config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.15.0 0.0.0.255Which two commands are necessary to apply the access list?"RouterA(config)#line vty 0 4" and "RouterA(config-line)#access-class 1 in."

As a frame travels through a routed network the Mac address will always:

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a) the source address will change and the destination address will change b) change to reflect the current source and destination c) remain the same d) the source address will remain the same but the destination address will change e) none of the above

NVRAM is best described as: a) The source of commonly used configuration commands b) The primary source of the Cisco IOS c) A location to run the active configuration from d) A location to run the power on diagnostics from e) A location to store a backup copy of the router configuration file

Under what conditions will a router enter setup mode? a) By manually entering setup mode from the system load prompt b) By manually entering setup mode from the configuration load prompt c) If no configuration file can be found d) If the present configuration file is older than the one attempting to load e) By manually entering setup mode from the user prompt

The metric used by IPX RIP is: a) Ticks b) Hops c) Cost d) Tips and Hops

The Catalyst 5000 uses which switching mode? a) Cut-through b) Store and forward c) Fast switching

On an IP over Token Ring network, which answer best describes the role of ARP? a) ARP is used to map Ring numbers to IP addresses b) ARP is used to map Ring numbers to MAC addresses of the hosts on that ring c) ARP is used to map a MAC address to an IP address d) ARP is used to map an IP address to a MAC address

How many subnets are possible with a Class B address and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128? a) 255 b) 256 c) 254 d) 512 e) 510

Where is the running configuration file of the router stored? a) in NVRAM b) in ROM c) in RAM d) in Flash Memory e) In ROM or RAM

The IPX is a universal standard for inter-LAN communication. a) True

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b) False

Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model? a) Data Link b) Physical c) Transport d) Netwrok

MAC addresses are the feature of _____________ layer. a) Logical Link Control Layer b) Transport Layer c) Ethernet d) Data Link Layer e) Netwrok Layer

MAC is to Ethernet what ________ is to Frame Relay. a) PVC b) LCI c) DLCI d) ASIC

The section of the carrier's network that is shared is often referred to as a WAN. a) True b) False

Source-route bridging occurs primarily in _______ environments. a) Token Ring b) Ethernet c) Switched Circuit d) None of the above

The process of address learning will happen in a switch only after the initial flooding of frames. a) True b) False

_______________ transparency is a primary advantage of both bridging and switching. a) Encryption b) Upper layer protocol c) Lower Layer protocol d) none of the above

The IPX is a universal standard for inter-LAN communication. a. True b. False

All zeroes and all ones cannot be valid host address. a. True b. False

If the window size is set to 1, then the first acknowledgment from the receiving end after successfully receiving a packet will be Ack2. a. True b. False

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Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model? a. Physical b. Data Link c. Network d. Transport

The LLC uses Service Access Point (SAP) defined to identify upper layer protocol stack. a. True b. False

For which of the following would you do not need to provide a crossover cable? a. Connecting uplinks between switches. b. Connecting routers to switches. c. Connecting hub to hub. d. Connecting hubs to switches.

MAC addresses are the feature of ______________ layer. a. Logical Link Control Layer b. Data Link Layer c. Physical Layer d. None of the above.

Routers are devices of _________ layer of the Cisco hierarchical model. a. Physical b. Transport c. Distribution d. Network

Enabling IP routing on Cisco routers automatically enables which protocol? a. RIP b. OSPF c. IGRP d. None

Access-list 166 is applied outbound on interface e 0 on router R1, as shown in the graphic exhibit. The access list uses the following commands: access-list 166 deny udp any any eq 69 access-list 166 deny tcp any any eq 23 access-list 166 permit ip any any

Enabling IP routing on Cisco routers automatically enables which protocol? a. RIP b. OSPF

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c. IGRP d. None

Access-list 166 is applied outbound on interface e 0 on router R1, as shown in the graphic exhibit. The access list uses the following commands: access-list 166 deny udp any any eq 69 access-list 166 deny tcp any any eq 23 access-list 166 permit ip any any

Bridges are software based where as switches are ______ based. a. RISC b. CISC c. ASIC d. None of the above.

How can hosts in a broadcast or collision domain be manipulated to preserve communication between the hosts without introducing a routing process? a. All stations in a broadcast domain can be physically segmented. b. All stations in a collision domain can be physically segmented from each other. c. All stations in a collision domain can be logically segmented into logical domains. d. All stations in a broadcast domain can be logically segmented into other logical domains.

You have decided to use the top-down troubleshooting approach to troubleshoot a problem on the network. Which layer of the OSI model will you troubleshoot first? a. Session b. Network c. Physical d. Data link e. Transport f. Application g. Presentation

In troubleshooting the network, you have determined that the problem is with the Ethernet duplex settings between the edge router and the local switch. Which troubleshooting approach would be the most effective? a. Top-down b. Bottom-up c. OSI modeled d. Divide and conquer

At which stage of network documentation should you use the 'show cdp neighbors' command? a. Log in b. Diagram c. Document d. Device discovery e. Interface discovery

You are receiving complaints from users who report that they are getting slow response from a client/server application used for timekeeping. Pings and traces to the servers IP address are

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unsuccessful; however, Telnet is working fine. Which of the following would create these issues? (Choose two.)a. ICMP is blockedb. An application is experiencing problems.c. TCP Port 23 is blocked on the firewalld. TCP Port 8080 is blocked on the firewalle. Custom queuing is improperly configured.

In which field of an extended ping should you specify the size of the datagram to be 200 bytes? a. Protocol b. Repeat count c. Datagram size d. Set DF bit in IP header

A user informs you that he is unable to connect to a Web server located on the Intranet. You perform a traceroute from his workstation and receive " * " as the output. What does the " * " indicate? a. Internet b. Time out c. Data link d. Destination unreachable

You have been assigned the 142.15.64.0 /24 network. You have decided to subnet this network into multiple subnets using a /29 subnet mask for all networks. Which addresses will be broadcast addresses using this new subnet mask? (Choose two.)

a. 142.15.64.24 b. 142.15.64.47 c. 142.15.64.64 d. 142.15.64.71 e. 142.15.64.83

A host on your IP network has the IP address 15.208.209.85 and the subnet mask 255.255.240.0. What is the last possible valid host address on this subnet?15.208.223.254

At what layer in the OSI model would you find protocols such as RIP and OSPF?(A) Session(B) Transport(C) Network(D) Data Link

Where is the running configuration located?(A) RAM(B) ROM(C) NVRAM(D) Flash memory

To force the router to ignore the configuration file in NVRAM, the configuration register should be set to which of the following ?(A) 0x2102(B) 0x4102(C) 0x2142

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(D) 0x2101

The CSMA/CD access method is defined by what IEEE standard?(A) 802.1(B) 802.2(C) 802.3(D) 802.4

Distance Vector protocols use what algorithm?(A) DUAL(B) FIFO(C) Bellman-Ford(D) SPF

A router has a route to 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 via RIP. It also has a route to 10.6.0.0 255.255.0.0 via IGRP. It wants to send a packet to 10.6.12.3. How will the packet be sent?(A) Via the RIP route(B) Via the IGRP route(C) It will not be sent(D) It will be sent to the default route

In a RIP routing table, a route with a hop count of ____ indicates that the network is unreachable ?(A) 0(B) 15(C) 1(D) 16

VLSM is possible with ___?(A) RIPv1(B) RIPv2(C) Both A and B(D) Neither A nor B

You want to verify the configuration register entry of a Cisco 2500 series router. What command should you use on the router?a. show config-reg b. show version c. show register d. show running-config e. show bootflash f. show flash

A branch office is connected through frame-relay PVCs to the company data centers. What are the required steps to use point-to-point subinterfaces? a. Do not configure any network layer addresses on the main interface. b. Assign frame-relay DLCIs on the subinterfaces. c. Assign frame-relay DLCIs on the main interface. d. Configure layer 3 address on the physical interface. e. Configure the subinterfaces to disable split horizon.

The rate in bits per seconds at which the frame relay switch agrees to transfer data is called ___. a. Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI) b. Committed Information Rate (CIR) c. Peak Information Rate (PIR)

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d. Local Management Interface (LMI) e. Committed Rate Measurement Interval (CRMI) f. Frame Eligible Committed Network (FECN)

A branch office has a frame-relay PVC to the corporate data center. The physical cable is connected to interface serial 0 of the branch router. What command displays the LMI, DLCI, and speed of the frame-relay link? a. show interface serial 0 b. show interface frame-relay 0 c. show frame-relay lmi d. show frame-relay serial 0 e. show statistics frame-relay

It was a Saturday morning. You had just been waked up by a pager call about a connectivity problem between a branch router and the head office router. Both routers are connected via a leased line. The link needs to be up 24-hour a day because it carries important financial transactions.You began your troubleshooting by trying to connect to the branch router using telnet but failed. Fortunately, you managed to connect to a dial up modem attached to the branch router. You did a 'show interface' command on the router. The result is shown below:Branch#show interface serial 0/0Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is downHardware is HD64570 Internet address is 192.168.10.2/30 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec, rely 255/255, load 1/255 Encapsulation HDLC, loopback not set, keepalive set (10 sec) Last input never, output 00:03:11, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never

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Input queue: 0/75/0 (size/max(drops): Total output drops: 0 Queuing strategy: weighted fair Output queue: 0/1000/64/0 (size/max active/threshold/drops) Conversations 0/2/256 (active/max active/max total) Reserved Conversations 0/0 (allocated/max allocated) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 0 packets input, 0 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 0 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 11 packets output, 476 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 27 interface resets 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 11 carrier transitions DCD=down DSR=down DTR=down RTS=down CTS=downBased on the output of the 'show interface serial 0/0' command issued on the branch router, which OSI layer is most likely causing the problem? a. Transport layer b. Session layer c. Data layer d. Physical layer e. Network layer

Geoff is a network administrator of a small network consists of three Cisco 2600 routers interconnected by a frame relay cloud. One day, he wants to add a static route to one of the remote router. He connects to the router using telnet from his workstation. Which layer of the OSI protocol stack is Geoff using for this task? a. Application b. Presentation c. Session d. Transport e. Network f. Data-link

From the seven OSI layers, which layer is responsible for error recovery and reliability? a. Presentation b. Session c. Application d. Transport e. Network f. Data-link

are a network consultant for Super LAN Interconnect, Inc. (SLII). One of your clients has a flat Ethernet network with 500 end-users and server farms. The network performance is poor from time to time.The client hires your company to do analysis and redesign the current network infrastructure to improve performance. You recommend to segment the flat network into multiple segments. What is the benefit of your solution to solve the problem? a. It will increase the number of collision domains. b. It will decrease the broadcast domains. c. Less total cost of ownership (TCO). d. More users can be allocated within a single broadcast domain. e. Smaller collision domains without the need of layer 3 routing.

To understand the operation of bridges is essential to understand the operation of switches. Which three of the following characterize the correct operation of bridges and switches? a. Bridges are inherently more robust and faster than switches. b. Switches operate at data link layer while bridges operate at physical layer.

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c. Both bridges and switches forward data link layer broadcasts. d. Switches commonly have a higher port density compared to bridges. e. Switches are mainly software based while bridges are hardware based. f. Switches create collision domains while bridges define broadcast domains. g. Both bridges and switches forward traffic based on layer 2 addresses.

Acme Provisioning, Inc., a local IT integration provider, has just completed redesigning its campus LAN with VLAN segmentation. You, as the company's network administrator, have been tasked to connect 10 Windows XP Professional workstations to the access-layer switches (Catalyst 2900XL switches).You verify that correct IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers have been configured on all PCs. You have also checked that correct Category 5 cabling are used for the connection. However, some workstations are experiencing problems connecting to other workstations on the same switch.Which of the following is most likely cause of the problem? a. The access-layer switch does not propagate the host routing entries to the core layer switches. b. The switch ports on which the workstations are connected to are configured with incorrect VLAN. c. The workstations have been configured with invalid MAC addresses. d. Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) has been disabled on those switch ports. e. The router that performs intra-VLAN routing does not have route entries for the workstations.

A Catalyst 2950 switch runs multiple VLANs to serve different workgroups. You want to verify that VLAN 100 is working properly and execute the 'show spantree' command.Which of the following line confirms the correct operation of VLAN 100? a. Port FastEthernet 0/1 of VLAN 1000 is forwarding. b. Root port is FastEthernet 0/24. c. VLAN 100 is executing ISL compatible spanning-tree protocol. d. Designated port is Ethernet 0/1, path cost 10. e. Designated root has priority 0, address 0080.35C 298 d.

You want to extend VLAN from a Catalyst 500 switch to another switch of the same model and setup trunk connectivity between them. Which of the following VLAN frame tagging are available as a choice? a. Inter-Switch Link (ISL) b. 802.1Q c. 802.1D d. 802.3u e. 802.10 f. LAN Emulation (LANE)

You have just started as a junior network administrator for a local department store in your city. One of your first tasks is to provide LAN connectivity for end users. Which of the following Ethernet technology can operate in full-duplex mode? (Select three.) a. 10Base2 b. 10Base5 c. 10BaseT d. 100BaseT e. 1000BaseT

The 10BaseT Ethernet standard defines full-duplex mode as well as half-duplex mode. Which of the following are characteristic of full-duplex mode? (Choose three.) a. Higher effective throughput b. Private collision domain c. Shared collision domain d. Lower effective throughput e. No collisions f. Private broadcast domain

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Your LAN has undergone a redesign to accommodate new applications' bandwidth requirements. As the head of the project team, you must direct the team to come out with a sound yet economical recommendation.The requirements are:- There are one Windows 2000 Domain Controller and one SQL Server 2000 serves the needs of 35 local users.- Each user needs to be able to collaborate between them and access the network servers at 10 Mbps bandwidth.- Other department in your company will use not higher than 2.5 Mbps bandwidth from the network servers.Which of the following best fulfills the above requirements? a. Install two Catalyst 1900 switches and configure the servers to use 100 Mbps ports. Assign dedicated 10 Mbps to the end-user ports. b. Replace existing 10baseT hubs with 100BaseT hubs to improve overall performance c. Separate the servers' network segment from the users through the use of a router. This segregation will provide more bandwidth. d. Put a bridge between the servers' network segment and the users. e. Retain existing hubs but separate the network segments with multiple VLANs.

When designing a switch internetwork, one important consideration is the physical cabling distance. What is the maximum allowable distance of the 100BaseTX standard? a. 10 m b. 50 m c. 95 m d. 100 m e. 1000 m

You are investigating a LAN congestion issue using a network sniffer. Several entries of address 175.36.78.255 appear in the capture result. What is the function of this address? a. IP directed broadcast b. IP multicast group c. Reserved IP address d. IPX SAP broadcast e. IPX multicast address

TCP/IP is the most used protocol in today networking world. Which three of the following statements about TCP/IP functionalities are correct? a. IP is a connection-less service and responsible for path determination. b. TCP provides dynamic throughput for large data transfer through windowing and connection-oriented services. c. RARP enables MAC address resolution from IP address. d. ICMP provides control and error notification through connection-oriented messages. e. UDP provides an efficient way of delivering information without additional overheads and acknowledgments using connection-less services.

Fred is a network administrator of GoMart, Inc. His company network runs RIP as the routing protocol. One day, he notices that a Token Ring subnet, 192.168.9.0/24, shuts down. Fred enables the 'debug ip rip' command on the router. Which of the following message received on the router is related to the problematic subnet? a. Subnet 192.168.9.0, metric 16 b. Subnet 192.168.9.0, metric 15 c. Subnet 192.168.9.0, metric 0

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d. Subnet 192.168.9.0, metric 1 e. Subnet 192.168.9.0, metric 255

Routing protocols can be generally classified into distance-vector or link-state. Each method has its own advantages and disadvantages. Which of the following routing protocol takes the benefits of both methods? a. RIP b. IGRP c. EIGRP d. OSPF e. IS-IS

Generally, routing protocols can be classified into classfull and classless routing protocols. Which of the following are categorized as classfull? a. All versions of RIP b. BGP c. OSPF d. RIP version 1 e. IGRP f. EIGRP

You have been tasked to provide security measure on interface FastEthernet 0/0 of a Cisco router. You create access-list 110 to deny HTTP traffic to the router. Which of the following command should be used to apply the in the inbound direction to the interface? a. ip access-group 110 inbound b. access-group 110 in c. apply access-list 110 in d. ip access-list 110 inbound e. ip access-group 110 in f. access-class 110 in

Miami#debug ppp authenticationBRI0:1 PPP: send CHAP challenge id=58 to remoteBRI0:1 PPP: CHAP challenge from FloridaBRI0:1 PPP: CHAP response received from FloridaBRI0:1 PPP: CHAP response id=58 received from FloridaBRI0:1 PPP: Send CHAP success id=58 to remoteBRI0:1 PPP: Remote passed CHAP authenticationBRI0:1 PPP: Passed CHAP authenticationBRI0:1 PPP: Passed CHAP authentication with remoteYou are examining ISDN BRI dialup connectivity between Miami and Florida routers using PPP encapsulation. You enabled a debug command and obtained the result as shown in the output above. What type of handshake is involved in the PPP authentication? a. One-way b. Two-way c. Three-way

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d. Four-way e. No handshake occurred, only simple challenge and response messages

You need to configure the network depicted in the diagram below to use static routing.

What key sequence recalls the previous command from the history buffer?CTRL-P

You want to change the default name Router to RtrNY01, which of the following commands should you use?hostname RtrNY01

How does OSPF discover neighboring OSPF routers?By sending Hello packets to the multicast address 224.0.0.5

Select the correct combination of Routing Protocol and Routing Protocol type.RIP -- Distance VectorOSPF -- Link-State

Which of the following routing protocols include the subnet mask in updates?RIP v2OSPFEIGRP

How many collision domains are there in the network shown below?

As a WAN engineer it is your responsibility to enable port security on your company's Cisco Catalyst 1900 series switch. Which of the following answers correctly depict the function of enabling port security on this switch?Limits the number of MAC addresses that can be serviced from a port 5

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As a WAN technician your have been asked to solve a problem an error between your DTE and your DCE. Which layer of the OSI is responsible for interfacing between Data Terminal Equip (DTE) and the Data Circuit/Terminate Equip (DCE)?Physical

You are troubleshooting a problem with SNMP. At what layer of the OSI model does SNMP operate?Application

Where is the "start-up configuration" stored?NVRAM

You type the command "show ver" and note that the configuration register boot field value is "2102". What does this value mean?The router will follow the normal boot sequence from config file in NVRAM

As a WAN technician you have been asked to configure a Cisco switch to offer the fastest switching mode. Which of the following switching modes looks at the first 14 bytes of the header frame and decides where to send it?Cut-through Mode

With a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, how many useable subnets and hosts are possible in a classful addressing sheme?6 subnets, 8190 hosts

You have been told that there are errors within the trailers of a datagram packets. Which layer encapsulates the datagram with a header and a trailer?Data Link layer

As a WAN technician your have been asked to enable "Split Horizon" on one your company's router. Which of the following answer correctly describes "Split Horizon"?A method of stopping routing loops by not allowing updates to be sent out the same interface that updates are received on. Your supervisor has asked you to setup an access list that will filter on source addresses only. Which of the following access lists filter on the source address only?Standard access list You have been told that your company is having too many collisions within one your company's collision domains. Which of the following correctly describe what a "collision domain" is?A segment of a network in which all attached devices share the bandwidth.

As a WAN technician, you know that you are able to verify neighbors condition by means of a Cisco Proprietary protocol- CDP. Cisco Discovery Protocol or CDP is one of the best methods to discover your network topology. At what layer does this protocol operate?Layer 2

A switch operating STP has just been powered up. You know it will run through various port states before becoming a fully functional switch. What is the correct order of port states that a switch running STP will transition though from initialization?Blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled

As the WAN technician for your company you have been asked to configure the new Cisco 3500 series switches your company recently purchased. It is imperative that you configure the switches to examination of the entire frame plus check the FCS (frame check sequence) before forwarding. Which of the following switching modes would answer these requirements?

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Store and Forward Mode

You are designing an IP addressing scheme for a company using classful addressing. You have been assigned a class C network address 192.168.24.0 and you have to divide it into 4 subnets with at minimum of 25 hosts each. What subnet should you use?255.255.255.224

You are designing an IP addressing scheme for a company using CIDR compliant routing protcol and routers configured with the ip subet-zero command. You have been assigned a class B network address 172.16.4.0 and you have to divide it into 15 subnets with at minimum of 3000 hosts each. What subnet should you use?255.255.240.0

During the router start-up sequence, what occurs directly after the POST?Bootstrap code is loaded from ROM

You type the command "show ver" and note that the configuration register boot field value is "2102". What does this value mean?The router will follow the normal boot sequence from config file in NVRAM

Where is the startup configuration stored?NVRAM

You are setting up a small LAN with 2 routers. You try to ping RouterB from RouterA, the results are !!!!!. What does this indicate?Each exclamation point indicates receipt of a reply.You used the PING utility to test IP connectivity between two routers. If the PING is successful, which OSI layers have you tested?Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3

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