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Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

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Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money). Future value Present value Rates of return. Time lines show timing of cash flows. 0. 1. 2. 3. i%. CF 0. CF 1. CF 2. CF 3. - PowerPoint PPT Presentation
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Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money) Future value Present value Rates of return
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Page 1: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Discounted Cash Flow Analysis(Time Value of Money)

Future valuePresent valueRates of return

Page 2: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Time lines show timing of cash flows.

CF0 CF1 CF3CF2

0 1 2 3i%

Tick marks at ends of periods, so Time 0 is today; Time 1 is the end of Period 1, or the beginning of Period 2; and so on.

Page 3: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Time line for a $100 lump sum due at the end of Year 2.

100

0 1 2 Yearsi%

Page 4: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Time line for an ordinary annuity of $100 for 3 years.

100 100100

0 1 2 3i%

Page 5: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Time line for uneven CFs -$50 at t = 0 and $100, $75, and $50 at the end of Years

1 through 3.

100 50 75

0 1 2 3i%

-50

Page 6: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the FV of an initial$100 after 3 years if i = 10%?

FV = ?

0 1 2 310%

100

Finding FVs is compounding.

Page 7: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

After 1 year

FV1 = PV + INT1 = PV + PV(i)= PV(1 + i)= $100(1.10)= $110.00.

After 2 years

FV2 = FV1(1 + i)= PV(1 + i)2

= $100(1.10)2

= $121.00.

Page 8: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

FV3 = PV(1 + i)3

= 100(1.10)3

= $133.10.

In general,

FVn = PV(1 + i)n.

After 3 years

Page 9: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the PV of $100 due in 3 years if i = 10%?

Finding PVs is discounting, and it’s the reverse of compounding.

100

0 1 2 310%

PV = ?

Page 10: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

PV = = FVn( ) .

Solve FVn = PV(1 + i )n for PV:

PV = $100( ) = $100(PVIFi, n) = $100(0.7513) = $75.13.

FVn

(1 + i)n 11 + i

n

11.10

3

Page 11: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

If sales grow at 20% per year, how long before sales double?

Solve for n:

FVn = 1(1 + i)n

2 = 1(1.20)n

(1.20)n = 2n ln (1.20)= ln 2n(0.1823) = 0.6931 n = 0.6931/0.1823 = 3.8 years.

Page 12: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Graphical Illustration:

01 2 3 4

1

2

FV

3.8

Years

Page 13: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

An ordinary or deferred annuity consists of a series of equal payments made at the end of each period.

An annuity due is an annuity for which the cash flows occur at the beginning of each period.

ordinary annuity and annuity due

Annuity due value=ordinary due value x (1+r)

Page 14: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the difference between an ordinary annuity and an annuity due?

PMT PMTPMT

0 1 2 3i%

PMT PMT

0 1 2 3i%

PMT

Annuity Due

Ordinary Annuity

Page 15: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the FV of a 3-year ordinary annuity of $100 at 10%?

100 100100

0 1 2 310%

110121

FV = 331

Page 16: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the PV of this ordinary annuity?

100 100100

0 1 2 310%

90.9182.64

75.13248.69 = PV

Page 17: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Find the FV and PV if theannuity were an annuity due.

100 100

0 1 2 310%

100

Page 18: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

300

3

What is the PV of this uneven cashflow stream?

0

100

1

300

210%-50

4

90.91247.93225.39 -34.15530.08 = PV

Page 19: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What interest rate would cause $100 to grow to $125.97 in 3 years?

$100 (1 + i )3 = $125.97.

Page 20: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Will the FV of a lump sum be larger or smaller if we compound more often, ho

lding the stated i% constant? Why?

LARGER!If compounding is more frequent than once a year--forexample, semiannually, quarterly,or daily--interest is earned on interest more often.

Page 21: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

0 1 2 310%

0 1 2 35%

4 5 6

134.01

100 133.10

1 2 30

100

Annually: FV3 = 100(1.10)3 = 133.10.

Semiannually: FV6 = 100(1.05)6 = 134.01.

Page 22: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

We will deal with 3different rates:

iNom = nominal, or stated, or quoted, rate per year.

iPer = periodic rate.

EAR= EFF% = effective annual rate.

Page 23: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

iNom is stated in contracts. Periods per year (m) must also be given.

Examples:8%, Quarterly interest8%, Daily interest

Page 24: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Periodic rate = iPer = iNom/m, where m is number of compounding periods per year. m = 4 for quarterly, 12 for monthly, and 360 or 365 for daily compounding.

Examples:8% quarterly: iPer = 8/4 = 2%.8% daily (365): iPer = 8/365 = 0.021918%.

Page 25: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Effective Annual Rate (EAR = EFF%):

The annual rate which causes PV to grow to the same FV as under multiperiod compounding.Example: EFF% for 10%, semiannual:

FV = (1.05)2 = 1.1025. EFF% = 10.25% because(1.1025)1 = 1.1025.

Any PV would grow to same FV at 10.25% annually or 10% semiannually.

Page 26: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

An investment with monthly compounding is different from one with quarterly compounding. Must put on EFF% basis to compare rates of return.

Banks say “interest paid daily.” Same as compounded daily.

Page 27: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

An Example: Effective Annual Rates

Suppose you’ve shopped around and come up with the following three rates:

Bank A: 15% compounded dailyBank B: 15.5% compounded quarterlyBank C: 16% compounded annuallyWhich of these is the best if you are thinking of opening a savi

ngs account?

Page 28: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Bank A is compounding every day. = 0.15/365 = 0.000411

At this rate, an investment of $1 for 365 periods would grow to ($1x1.000411365)= $1.1618

So, EAR = 16.18%

Bank B is paying 0.155/4 = 0.03875 or 3.875% per quarter.At this rate, an investment of $1 of 4 quarters would grow to: ($1x1.

038754)= 1.1642So, EAR = 16.42%

Page 29: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Bank C is paying only 16% annually.

In summary, Bank B gives the best offer to savers of 16.42%.

The facts are (1) the highest quoted rate is not necessarily the best and (2) the compounding during the year can lead to a significant difference between the quoted rate and the effective rate.

Page 30: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

How do we find EFF% for a nominal rate of 10%, compounded

semiannually?

EFF% = 1 + im

- 1Nom

m

= 1+ 0.102

- 1.0

= 1.05 - 1.0= 0.1025 = 10.25%.

2

2

Page 31: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

EAR = EFF% of 10%

EARAnnual = 10%.

EARQ = (1 + 0.10/4)4 - 1 = 10.38%.

EARM = (1 + 0.10/12)12 - 1 = 10.47%.

EARD(360) = (1 + 0.10/360)360 - 1= 10.52%.

Page 32: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Can the effective rate ever beequal to the nominal rate?

Yes, but only if annual compounding is used, i.e., if m = 1.

If m > 1, EFF% will always be greater than the nominal rate.

Page 33: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

When is each rate used?

iNom: Written into contracts, quoted by banks and brokers. Not used in calculations or shown on time lines unless compounding is annual.

Page 34: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Used in calculations,shown on time lines.

If iNom has annual compounding,then iPer = iNom/1 = iNom.

iPer:

Page 35: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

EAR = EFF%:Used to compare returns on investments with different compounding patterns.

Also used for calculations if dealing with annuities where paymentsdon’t match interest compounding periods.

Page 36: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

FV of $100 after 3 years under 10% semiannual compounding? Quarterly?

= $100(1.05)6 = $134.01.FV3Q = $100(1.025)12 = $134.49.

FV = PV 1 .+ imnNom

mn

FV = $100 1 + 0.1023S

2x3

Page 37: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the value at the end of Year 3 of the following CF stream if the quoted interest rate is 10%, compounded semi-

annually?

0 1

100

2 35%

4 5 6 6-mos. periods

100 100

Page 38: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Payments occur annually, but compounding occurs each 6 months.

So we can’t use normal annuity valuation techniques.

Page 39: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Compound Each CF

0 1

100

2 35%

4 5 6

100 100.00110.25121.55331.80

FVA3 = 100(1.05)4 + 100(1.05)2 + 100= 331.80.

Page 40: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

b. The cash flow stream is an annual annuity whose EFF% = 10.25%.

Page 41: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

What’s the PV of this stream?

0

100

15%

2 3

100 100

90.7082.2774.62

247.59

Page 42: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Amortization

Construct an amortization schedulefor a $1,000, 10% annual rate loanwith 3 equal payments.

Page 43: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Step 1: Find the required payments.

PMT PMTPMT

0 1 2 310%

-1000

3 10 -1000 0

INPUTS

OUTPUT N I/YR PV FVPMT

402.11

Page 44: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Step 2: Find interest charge for Year 1.

INTt = Beg balt (i)INT1 = 1,000(0.10) = $100.

Step 3: Find repayment of principal in Year 1.

Repmt = PMT - INT = 402.11 - 100 = $302.11.

Page 45: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Step 4: Find ending balance after Year 1.

End bal = Beg bal - Repmt= 1,000 - 302.11 = $697.89.

Repeat these steps for Years 2 and 3to complete the amortization table.

Page 46: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Interest declines. Tax implications.

BEG PRIN ENDYR BAL PMT INT PMT BAL

1 $1,000 $402 $100 $302 $6982 698 402 70 332 3663 366 402 37 366 0

TOT 1,206.34 206.34 1,000

Page 47: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

$

0 1 2 3

402.11Interest

302.11

Level payments. Interest declines because outstanding balance declines. Lender earns10% on loan outstanding, which is falling.

Principal Payments

Page 48: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Amortization tables are widely used--for home mortgages, auto loans, business loans, retirement plans, etc. They are very important!

Financial calculators (and spreadsheets) are great for setting up amortization tables.

Page 49: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

On January 1 you deposit $100 in an account that pays a nominal interest rate of 10%, with daily compounding (365 days).How much will you have on October 1, or after 9 months (273 days)? (Days given.)

Page 50: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

iPer = 10.0% / 365= 0.027397% per day.

FV=?

0 1 2 2730.027397%

-100

Note: % in calculator, decimal in equation.

FV = $100 1.00027397 = $100 1.07765 = $107.77.

273273

Page 51: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

273 -100 0

107.77

INPUTS

OUTPUTN I/YR PV FVPMT

iPer = iNom/m= 10.0/365= 0.027397% per day.

Enter i in one step.Leave data in calculator.

Page 52: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Now suppose you leave your money in the bank for 21 months, which is 1.75 years or 273 + 365 = 638 days.How much will be in your account at maturity?Answer: Override N = 273 with N =

638. FV = $119.10.

Page 53: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

iPer = 0.027397% per day.

FV = 119.10

0 365 638 days

-100

FV = $100(1 + 0.10/365)638

= $100(1.00027397)638

= $100(1.1910)= $119.10.

Page 54: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

You are offered a note which pays $1,000 in 15 months (or 456 days) for $850. You have $850 in a bank which pays a 7.0% nominal rate, with 365 daily compounding, which is a daily rate of 0.019178% and an EAR of 7.25%. You plan to leave the money in the bank if you don’t buy the note. The note is riskless.Should you buy it?

Page 55: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

3 Ways to Solve:

1. Greatest future wealth: FV2. Greatest wealth today: PV3. Highest rate of return: Highest EFF%

iPer = 0.019178% per day.

1,000

0 365 456 days

-850

Page 56: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

1. Greatest Future Wealth

Find FV of $850 left in bank for15 months and compare withnote’s FV = $1000.

FVBank = $850(1.00019178)456

= $927.67 in bank.

Buy the note: $1000 > $927.67.

Page 57: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

456 -850 0

927.67

INPUTS

OUTPUTN I/YR PV FVPMT

Calculator Solution to FV:iPer = iNom/m

= 7.0/365= 0.019178% per day.

Enter iPer in one step.

Page 58: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

2. Greatest Present Wealth

Find PV of note, and comparewith its $850 cost:

PV = $1000(1.00019178)456

= $916.27.

Page 59: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

456 .019178 0 1000

-916.27

INPUTS

OUTPUT

N I/YR PV FVPMT

7/365 =

PV of note is greater than its $850 cost, so buy the note. Raises your wealth.

Page 60: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Find the EFF% on note and compare with 7.25% bank pays, which is your opportunity cost of capital:

FVn = PV(1 + i)n

1000 = $850(1 + i)456

Now we must solve for i.

3. Rate of Return

Page 61: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

456 -850 0 1000

0.035646% per day

INPUTS

OUTPUTN I/YR PV FVPMT

Convert % to decimal:Decimal = 0.035646/100 = 0.00035646.

EAR = EFF% = (1.00035646)365 - 1 = 13.89%.

Page 62: Discounted Cash Flow Analysis (Time Value of Money)

Using interest conversion:

P/YR = 365NOM% = 0.035646(365) = 13.01 EFF% = 13.89

Since 13.89% > 7.25% opportunity cost,buy the note.


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