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GUJARAT FIBRE GRID NETWORK LIMITED (GFGNL)
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Number Series
001 QUESTION PAPER
MANAGER (PROJECT) A
Time: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 60
General Instructions
1. This question paper contains total of 60 questions. Each question is of
multiple choice type.
2. For each question, you need to pick exactly one of the four choices which you think is the most appropriate answer for the question.
3. Each question carries one mark and you need to attempt all the questions.
4. Answers to the questions are to be marked on the OMR sheet provided.
Instructions for writing on OMR sheet
1. Fill in the question paper series code given above in your OMR sheet.
2. As far as possible, fill in the answer only after you are sure that you do
not need to change it. Once an answer is filled in the OMR sheet, it can
not be changed/erased.
3. Check that you are filling the answer for the corresponding question on the
OMR sheet.
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Answer question number 1 to 5 based on the following information: Figure 1 shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software company between offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore activities in the same company during the same period. [Note: Onsite refers to work performed at the customer's premise and offshore refers to work performed at the developer's premise.]
1. Roughly what percentage of the total work is carried out onsite?
A. 40 percent B. 20 percent C. 30 percent D. 50 percent
2. The total effort in man-hours spent onsite is nearest to which of the
following? A. The sum of the estimated and actual effort for offshore design B. The estimated man-hours of offshore coding C. The actual man-hours of offshore testing D. Half of the man-hours of estimated offshore coding
3. If the total working hours were 100, which of the following tasks will
account for approximately 50 hours? A. Coding B. Design C. Offshore testing D. Offshore testing plus design
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4. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with
the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, the proportion of testing carried out offshore would be
A. 40 percent B. 30 percent C. 50 percent D. 70 percent
5. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with
the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, which of the following is true of all work carried out onsite?
A. The amount of coding done is greater than that of testing B. The amount of coding done onsite is less than that of design
done onsite C. The amount of design carried out onsite is greater than that
of testing D. The amount of testing carried out offshore is greater than that
of total design Answer questions 6 to 9 based on the following information: The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1000.
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6. The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is A. 200 B. 800 C. 700 D. 1000
7. The free capacity available at the Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is
A. 0 B. 100 C. 200 D. 300
8. What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline?
A. 300 B. 200 C. 100 D. 0
9. What is the amount of quantity moved from Vidisha to Jyotishmati?
A. 100 B. 800 C. 1100 D. 1000
Answer question number 10 to 12 based on the following information: “The questions are based on the pie charts given below. Chart 1 shows the distribution of twelve million tons of crude oil transported through different modes over a specific period of time. Chart 2 shows the distribution of the cost of transporting this crude oil. The total cost was Rs. 30 million.”
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10. The cost in rupees per ton of oil moved by rail and road happens to be roughly
A. 3 B. 1.5 C. 4.5 D. 8
11. From the charts given, it appears that the cheapest mode of transport is
A. Road B. Rail C. Pipeline D. Ship
12. If the costs per ton of transport by ship, air and road are represented by P, Q and R respectively, which of the following is true?
A. R > Q > P B. P > R > Q C. P > Q > R D. R > P > Q
13. Four persons are chosen at random from a group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 children. Find the probability of selecting 1 man, 1 woman and 2 children.
A. 1/5 B. 2/5
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C. 2/7 D. 5/13
14. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. log (2×4×6) = log 2 + log 4 + log 6 B. log51 = 0 C. log (3+4) = log (3 × 4) D. log55 = 1
15. An observation at the 50th percentile would correspond to one of
the following in dataset. A. Median B. Mean C. Q1 D. Standard deviation
16. A man weighs 70 kgs at the age of 65. He steadily loses
weight in the next few years at the rate of 5% per year. Approximately how many kgs (rounded to the nearest whole number) does he weigh when he is 67 years old?
A. 60 B. 65 C. 63 D. 66
17. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of
the ages of A, B and C be 27, the how old is B? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10
18. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have
walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is: A. 50 km B. 56 km C. 70 km D. 80 km
19. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent
from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same.
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If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:
A. 20 B. 80 C. 100 D. 200
Study the following information to answer the next two questions: L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the center. O is sitting between L and R. Q is second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N is not an immediate neighbor of R.
20. Who is to the immediate left of P?
A. L B. N C. M D. O
21. How many persons are seated between L and Q if we count anticlockwise from L to Q?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Study the following information to answer the next two questions:
“There are three ON-OFF switches on a control panel A, B, and C. They have to be changed from an initial setting to a second setting according to the following conditions: In case only switch A is ON in the initial setting, then turn ON switch B. In case switches A and B are the only switches ON in the initial setting, then turn ON switch C. In case all the three switches are ON initially setting, then turn OFF the switch C. For any other initial setting, turn ON all switches that are OFF and turn OFF all switches, if any, that are ON.”
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22. In case all the three switches are ON in the second setting, which among the following could have been the initial setting?
A. A ON, B ON, C ON. B. A ON, B ON, C OFF. C. A ON, B OFF, C ON. D. A ON, B OFF, C OFF.
23. In case switch A is OFF in the second setting, which among the following could have been the initial setting?
A. A ON, B ON, C ON. B. A ON, B ON, C OFF. C. A ON, B OFF, C ON. D. A ON, B OFF, C OFF.
Read the following argument to answer the next two questions: “We will have to take more interest in hydroelectric projects. As the prices of oil have increased, it has become vital that such renewable sources of energy are tapped.”
24. Which of the following are the assumptions of the argument?
I. Hydroelectric power is a renewable source of energy. II. Hydroelectric power is comparatively cheaper.
A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
25. Which of the following will weaken the argument?
A. Generation of hydroelectric power is costlier than oil. B. OPEC increased oil prices. C. Without energy we cannot manage. D. None of the above.
26. In a digital communication system employing Frequency Shift Keying, the 0 and 1 bit are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz, respectively. These waveforms will be orthogonal for a bit interval of
A. 45 µsec B. 50 µsec
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C. 200 µsec D. 250 µsec
27. The frequency range for satellite communication is
A. 1 kHz to 100 kHz B. 10 MHz to 30 MHz C. 100 kHz to 10 kHz D. 1 GHz to 30 GHz
28. In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and image are
modulated using A. FM and VSB respectively B. FSK and AM respectively C. VSB and FM respectively D. AM and VSB respectively
29. Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the
minimum transmitted power and minimum channel bandwidth? A. VSB B. DSB-SC C. SSB D. AM
30. The advent of the ___________ has given trans-oceanic optical
fiber communications the biggest boost. A. high power laser diodes B. photonic crystal fiber C. erbium doped fiber amplifier D. neodymium-doped glass
31. The trademark SMF-28 refers to fiber with the following
characteristics – A. Core radius 125 micron; cladding radius 250 micron B. Core radius 9 micron; cladding radius 125 micron C. Core radius 12 micron; cladding radius 125 micron D. Core radius 28 micron; cladding radius 250 micron
32. Inter-symbol interference (ISI) can be reduced by using _______. In optical fiber communications, this is achieved by a _______ fiber.
A. an equalizer; photonic crystal B. a gain flattening fiber; graded-ind C. an equalizer; dispersion compensating D. gain flattening fiber; step-index
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33. The modulation format that is used for the highest capacity transmission is
A. phase shift keying B. on-off keying C. quadrature amplitude modulation D. frequency shift keying
34. The main use of an optical time domain reflectometer is to _____.
A. measure loss in a fiber B. locate faults in a fiber-optic link C. measure the total length of a fiber cable D. None of the above
35. The spatial resolution of an OTDR is determined by –
A. pulse power B. pulse width C. pulse repetition rate D. speed of light in the fiber
36. Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc
fusion technique? I. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion II. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces III. Alignment of broken fiber edges
A. I, II, III B. II, I, III C. III, II, I D. III, I, II
37. Fiber-to-the-Home technology has highest penetration in –
A. Japan B. United States of America C. South Korea D. United Kingdom
38. Four messages band limited to W, W, 2W and 3 W respectively are
to be multiplexed using TDM. The minimum bandwidth required for transmission of this TDM signal is
A. W B. 3W C. 6W D. 7W
39. Which factor adds phase noise to the signal?
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A. jitter B. phase fluctuations C. jitter & phase fluctuations D. None of the above
40. The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than that of
BPSK. A. higher than B. lower than C. same as D. Not predictable
41. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
A. Persistent B. Non-persistent C. Either of a. or b. D. None of the above
42. What does HTTP Error 407 Stand for?
A. Not found B. Proxy Authentication Required C. Conflict D. Bad Request
43. Which protocol is used by WhatsApp to provide end to end
encryption for messages? A. Signal B. OpenSSL C. Nettle D. Botan
44. Increasing the memory capacity of a server improves performance
because of which of the following reasons? A. Increasing DRAM capacity leads to reduced DRAM device
latency B. Increasing DRAM capacity increases the size of virtual
memory of each program C. Increasing DRAM capacity leads to fewer page faults D. Increasing DRAM capacity leads to fewer precise exceptions
45. Which of the following commands on a Linux shell is most likely to
provide the system administrator the number of pages (OS page frames) being used?
A. top B. cat /proc/meminfo C. cat /proc/cpuinfo D. ps -ef | grep pages
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46. Which one of the following is the odd man out?
A. Zigbee B. WiFi C. Bluetooth D. Ethernet
47. Which of the following commands can be used to change default
permissions for files and directories at the time of creation A. Chmod B. Chown C. Umask D. Chgrp
48. Which of these statements is not correct regarding HTTP cookies?
A. A cookie is a piece of code that has the potential to compromise the security of an Internet user
B. A cookie gains entry into a user’s area using an HTTP header C. A cookie has an expiry date and time D. A cookie can be used to track the browsing patterns of a user
on a website
49. In which of the following pairs of protocols can both the protocols, maintain multiple connections between the same client and server?
A. HTTP, FTP B. TELNET, FTP C. SMTP, FTP D. HTTP, SMTP
50. Consider the different types of latencies that are incurred while
carrying out an I/O request from a hard disk drive with mechanical moving parts. Which one of the following latencies dominates the overall I/O latency?
A. Settle latency B. Seek latency C. Rotational latency D. FTL latency
51. Consider the following statements regarding National Optical Fiber
Network (NOFN)
I. It is to provide broadband connectivity to over two lakh Gram Panchayats through optimal fiber network. II. Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) is the special purpose vehicle created as a PSU for execution of NOFN.
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III. It is funded by Universal Service Obligation Fund.
IV. It is under the Digital India program.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only I, II and III B. Only II and IV C. All are correct D. None of the Above
52. Consider the following statements regarding e-Pragati
I. e-Pragati is a comprehensive framework for implementing e-governance and provides e-services to citizens of Karnataka. II. It is developed in association with Infosys.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
53. National Optical Fiber Network will be providing broadband
connectivity to which among the following? A. Municipalities B. Gram Panchayats C. Panchayat Samitis D. Nagarpalikas
54. The National Optical Fiber Network (NOFN) is being executed by
A. BSNL B. MTNL C. BBNL D. Bharti Airtel
55. Which of the following citizen service can’t be availed through
Digital Gujarat Portal? A. New Ration Card B. Senior Citizen Certificate
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C. Cinema License D. Passport Renewal
56. Which year did RTI Act came into force?
A. 2004 B. 2005 C. 2003 D. 2006
57. What do you understand by DigiLocker initiative under e-
Governance? A. DigiLocker is a government provided locker facility to store
valuable items. B. DigiLocker allows citizens to track their bank locker on mobile
phones. C. DigiLocker allows citizens to store their money in the digital
form. D. None of the above
58. What is e-Kranti?
A. It is a program initiated by Indian software firms to exchange information.
B. It is synonym for the mobile and internet revolution. C. It is a program aimed towards digital empowerment of Indian
citizens. D. It is a new technology by which 2019 elections would be
conducted.
59. Which framework was developed by IIM Ahmedabad for assessing e-governance projects?
A. eGEP B. VAN-DAM C. EAF D. eGOV
60. What does the term CSC expands to under NeGP?
A. Central Services Centers B. Common Services Centers C. Certified Services Centers D. Commercial Services Centers