DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 07/06/2021

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)Physical World, Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line (1D Motion), Vector

2GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 07/06/2021

1. Science, like any knowledge, can be put to good or bad

use, depending on the user, given below are some of the

application of science. Formulate your views and predict.

Which of following is bad-application -

(1) Plastic surgery

(2) Purification of water for drinking

(3) Prenatal sex determination

(4) Computers for increase in work effective

2. Fill in the blank by suitable conversion of unit -

4 kg m2S–2 = ............ g cm2 s–2

(1) 4 × 105

(2) 4 × 10–5

(3) 4 × 107

(4) 4 × 10–7

3. Density of water is 1000 kg/m3. If we consider new unit of

length is 10 m and unit of mass is 10 kg, then numerical

value of density of water in new units will be -

(1) 10

(2) 1000

(3) 10000

(4) 100000

4. Which of the following is dimensionally incorrect relation

(v = velocity, a = acceleration, t = time, s = distance)

(1) s = at2

(2) v = a s.

(3) v = a s

t

.

(4) a = v

t

5. If speed V, area A and Force F are chosen as fundamental

units, then dimension of Young's modulus will be -

(1) F A2 V–1

(2) F A2 V–3

(3) F A2 V–2

(4) F A–1 V0

1.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2.

4 kg m2S–2 = ............ g cm2 s–2

(1) 4 × 105

(2) 4 × 10–5

(3) 4 × 107

(4) 4 × 10–7

3. 1000 kg/m3

10 m 10 kg

(1) 10

(2) 1000

(3) 10000

(4) 100000

4.

(v = , a = , t = , s = )

(1) s = at2

(2) v = a s.

(3) v = a s

t

.

(4) a = v

t

5. V, A F

(1) F A2 V–1

(2) F A2 V–3

(3) F A2 V–2

(4) F A–1 V0

https://www.print-driver.com/?demolabel-en



6. In the density measurement of cube, mass and length are

measured as 10 kg ± 2% and 0.1 m ± 1%, then density of

cube -

(1) 100 kg/m3 ± 3%

(2) 10000 kg/m3 ± 5%

(3) 100 kg/m3 ± 5%

(4) 10000 kg/m3 ± 3%

7. Which of the following has three significant figures -

(1) 0.007 m2

(2) 2.64 × 1024 kg

(3) 0.2370 g/cm3

(4) 6.320 J

8. If the screw on a screw-gauge is given six rotations, it

moves by 3 mm on the main scale. If there are 50 divisions

on the circular scale then least count of screw gauge will

be -

(1) 0.01 cm

(2) 0.02 mm

(3) 0.05 cm

(4) 0.001 cm

9. In a vernier calliper, the 20 divisions in vernier scale and

matches with 18 divisions of main scale and main scale

has 10 divisions in 1 cm, then least count of vernier calliper

will be -

(1) 0.1 cm

(2) 0.01 cm

(3) 0.04 cm

(4) 0.02 cm

10. A car covers the first half of distance between two places

at 30 km/h and other half at 20 km/h. The average speed

of car -

(1) 22 km/h

(2) 24 km/h

(3) 26 km/h

(4) 28 km/h

6.

10 kg ± 2% 0.1 m ± 1%

(1) 100 kg/m3 ± 3%

(2) 10000 kg/m3 ± 5%

(3) 100 kg/m3 ± 5%

(4) 10000 kg/m3 ± 3%

7.

(1) 0.007 m2

(2) 2.64 × 1024 kg

(3) 0.2370 g/cm3

(4) 6.320 J

8. 6 3 mm

50 ( )

(1) 0.01 cm

(2) 0.02 mm

(3) 0.05 cm

(4) 0.001 cm

9. 20 18

1 cm 10

(1) 0.1 cm

(2) 0.01 cm

(3) 0.04 cm

(4) 0.02 cm

10. 30 km/h

20 km/h

(1) 22 km/h

(2) 24 km/h

(3) 26 km/h

(4) 28 km/h




11. If the displacement covered is zero, then distance -

(1) Must be zero

(2) May or may not be zero

(3) Can not be zero

(4) Depends upon the particle

12. If velocity (x) and position (x) relation of a particle moving

along x-axis is as V2 = 15 + 4x, where V is in m/sec and x

is in meter, then find acceleration of particle at x = 1 m -

(1) 4 m/sec2

(2) 2 m/sec2

(3) 3 m/sec2

(4) 8 m/sec2

13. A particle is moving along x-axis and its position is given by

x = (6t2 – t3) m, t is in sec.

Find maximum velocity of particle along positive x-axis -

(1) 24 m/sec

(2) 12 m/sec

(3) Zero

(4) 48 m/sec

14. Velocity versus time graph of a particle is as shown. Then

acceleration of particle at t = 2 sec and average velocity in

time interval t = 0 to t = 10 sec will be -

4 8 10t(sec)

20

0

–15

V

(1) 5 m/sec2, 1 m/sec

(2) 4 m/sec2, 2 m/sec

(3) 3 m/sec2, 2 m/sec

(4) 5 m/sec2, 3 m/sec

11.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12. x- (V) x

V2 = 15 + 4x, V m/sec x meter x =

1 m

(1) 4 m/sec2

(2) 2 m/sec2

(3) 3 m/sec2

(4) 8 m/sec2

13. x-

x = (6t2 – t3) m, t sec x-

(1) 24 m/sec

(2) 12 m/sec

(3)

(4) 48 m/sec

14. t = 2 sec t

= 0 t = 10 sec

4 8 10t(sec)

20

0

–15

V

(1) 5 m/sec2, 1 m/sec

(2) 4 m/sec2, 2 m/sec

(3) 3 m/sec2, 2 m/sec

(4) 5 m/sec2, 3 m/sec




15. Position (x) vs time (t) graph of a particle is as shown.

Then motion of particle will be -

t

x

(1) Initially 2D motion then 1D motion.

(2) Initially 1D motion then 2D motion.

(3) 1D motion

(4) 2D motion

16. A car travelling at 40 km/h can be stopped at distance 40m

applying brakes. If the same car is travelling with speed

120 km/h. Same brakes are applied then minimum stopping

distance is -

(1) 80 m

(2) 120 m

(3) 360 m

(4) 300 m

17. A car starts from rest, initially moves with constant

acceleration 3 m/sec2 and after some time it moves with

constant retardation 2 m/sec2 and total time of journey is

10 sec, then find total distance travelled by car -

(1) 40 m

(2) 60 m

(3) 80 m

(4) 100 m

18. A car is moving on straight road with constant acceleration

and when it passes through point A and B its velocities are

7 m/sec and 17 m/sec respectively, then find velocity of

car at mid point of A and B -

(1) 15 m/sec

(2) 14 m/sec

(3) 16 m/sec

(4) 13 m/sec

15. (x) (t)

t

x

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16. 40 km/h 40m

120 km/h

(1) 80 m

(2) 120 m

(3) 360 m

(4) 300 m

17. 3 m/

sec2 2 m/sec2

10 sec

(1) 40 m

(2) 60 m

(3) 80 m

(4) 100 m

18.

A B 7 m/sec 17

m/sec A B

(1) 15 m/sec

(2) 14 m/sec

(3) 16 m/sec

(4) 13 m/sec




19. An object is projected upward with speed 40 m/sec from a

height 45 m above ground, then velocity of object just

before reaching on ground and time taken by object to

reach on the ground will be -

(1) 50 m/sec, 9 sec

(2) 60 m/sec, 9 sec

(3) 70 m/sec, 13 sec

(4) 85 m/sec, 9 sec

20. An ojbect is projected upward from ground it passes

through a point P at time t = 3 sec and t = 5 sec, then initial

velocity will be -

(1) 40 m/sec

(2) 75 m/sec

(3) 120 m/sec

(4) 45 m/sec

21. The position-time graphs for two children A and B are shown

in figure. Choose correct option -

t

x

A

B

(1) Acceleration of A is more than that of B.

(2) A and B started motion from same position.

(3) B is moving farter than A.

(4) A and B are moving in same direction.

22. On an open ground, a motorist follows a track that turns by

his left by an angle 60° after every 100 m. Starting from a

given, specify the displacement of the motorist at the third

turn -

(1) 100 3 m

(2) 200 m

(3) 100 m

(4) 200 3 m

19. 45 m 40 m/sec

(1) 50 m/sec, 9 sec

(2) 60 m/sec, 9 sec

(3) 70 m/sec, 13 sec

(4) 85 m/sec, 9 sec

20. P

t = 3 sec t = 5 sec

(1) 40 m/sec

(2) 75 m/sec

(3) 120 m/sec

(4) 45 m/sec

21. A B

t

x

A

B

(1) A B

(2) A B

(3) B, A

(4) A B

22.

100 m 60°

(1) 100 3 m

(2) 200 m

(3) 100 m

(4) 200 3 m




23. Parsec is unit of -

(1) Distance

(2) Time

(3) Velocity

(4) Angle

24. What is dimensions of 0E2, where

0 electric permittivity

of frere space and E is electric field -

(1) [M1L2T–3A–1]

(2) [ML–1T–2A0]

(3) [M1L1T–2A–1]

(4) [M1L2T–1A–1]

25. A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the

circular scale, then its least count will be -

(1) 2 × 10–5 m

(2) 10–5 m

(3) 5 × 10–3 m

(4) 5 × 10–2 m

26. If A B C , then find 3 4 A B -

(1) 30

(2) 28

(3) 37

(4) 13

27. Find projection of vector i j 2 on vector i j k 2 -

(1) 3

5

(2) 2

3

(3) 3

2

(4) 5

2

23. Parsec

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24. 0E2

0

E

(1) [M1L2T–3A–1]

(2) [ML–1T–2A0]

(3) [M1L1T–2A–1]

(4) [M1L2T–1A–1]

25. ( ) 1 mm 100

(1) 2 × 10–5 m

(2) 10–5 m

(3) 5 × 10–3 m

(4) 5 × 10–2 m

26. A B C 3 4 A B

(1) 30

(2) 28

(3) 37

(4) 13

27. i j 2 i j k 2

(1) 3

5

(2) 2

3

(3) 3

2

(4) 5

2




28. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity 10 m/sec

from the top of 40 m high building. The time taken by ball

to hit the ground is -

(1) 3 sec

(2) 2 sec

(3) 1 sec

(4) 6 sec

29. Position-time graph of a paritcle is as shown in figure, then

find its average speed in time inveral t = 0 to t = 25 sec -

10 25t(sec)

50

0

–50

x(m)

(1) 15 m/s

(2) 20 m/s

(3) 6 m/s

(4) 25 m/s

30. If position-time graph of a particle is as shown predict sign

of acceleration at time t = – 3 sec -

–6 –4–2

x

0 2 46

8t

(1) Positive

(2) Negative

(3) Zero

(4) None

31. A train passes an electric post in 55 second and a bridge

of length 2 km in 110 second. The length of train is -

(1) 4 km

(2) 6 km

(3) 2 km

(4) 8 km

28. 40 m 10 m/sec

(1) 3 sec

(2) 2 sec

(3) 1 sec

(4) 6 sec

29. t = 0

t = 25 sec

10 25t(sec)

50

0

–50

x(m)

(1) 15 m/s

(2) 20 m/s

(3) 6 m/s

(4) 25 m/s

30. t = – 3 sec

–6 –4–2

x

0 2 46

8t

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31. 55 2 km

110

(1) 4 km

(2) 6 km

(3) 2 km

(4) 8 km




32. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 10 m/sec. A woman

rides a bicycle with speed 10 3 m/s in east to west

direction. What is the direction in which she should hold

her umbrella -

(1) 60° with vertical towards west

(2) 60° with vertical towards east

(3) 30° with vertical towards west

(4) 30° with vertical towards east

33. An object is dropped from a height 45m above ground then

find ratio by object in first second and last second of journey-

(1) 1 : 3

(2) 1 : 5

(3) 2 : 5

(4) 5 : 3

34. A particle travels one third distance of journey with speed

V1 and remaining distance with speed V

2, then find average

speed of particle -

(1) V V

V V1 2

1 2

(2) 3

21 2

1 2

V V

V V

(3) 2

31 2

1 2

V V

V V

(4) 2

31 2

1 2

V V

V V

35. Choose the correct statement -

(1) Area under acceleration-time graph gives the velocity

of body.

(2) Area uder acceleration-time graph gives speed of body.

(3) Area under acceleration-time gives change in velocity.

(4) None

36. The dimensions of universe gravitational constant are -

(1) M–1 L3 T–2

(2) M–2 L2 T–2

(3) M1 L2 T–2

(4) M–3 L1 T–2

32. 10 m/sec

10 3 m/s

(1) 60°

(2) 60°

(3) 30°

(4) 30°

33. 45m

(1) 1 : 3

(2) 1 : 5

(3) 2 : 5

(4) 5 : 3

34. V1 V

2

(1) V V

V V1 2

1 2

(2) 3

21 2

1 2

V V

V V

(3) 2

31 2

1 2

V V

V V

(4) 2

31 2

1 2

V V

V V

35.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36.

(1) M–1 L3 T–2

(2) M–2 L2 T–2

(3) M1 L2 T–2

(4) M–3 L1 T–2




37. The displacement of a particle moving in one dimensions

under the action of the constant force is related to time t

by the equation : t = x + 3

Where x is in meter and t is in seconds. Find displacement

of particle from t = 0 sec to t = 6 sec -

(1) Zero

(2) 12 m

(3) 6 m

(4) 18 m

38. An object accelerates from rest to a velocity 27.5 m/s in

10s. Then find distance covered by object in next 10 sec -

(1) 412.5 m

(2) 550 m

(3) 279 m

(4) 345 m

39. Which of following is not represented in correct unit -

(1) Stress

Strain

N

m

2

(2) Surface tension = N

m

(3) Energy = kg m

s

(4) Pressure = N

m2

40. The velocity of a particle depends on as V = a + bt + ct2, if

the velocity is in m/sec, then unit of C will be -

(1) m/sec

(2) m/sec2

(3) m/sec3

(4) m

41. If measured voltage across a resistor is 20V ± 3% and

current through that resistor is 0.4A ± 2%, then value of

resistance will be -

(1) 50 ± 1%

(2) 5 ± 5%

(3) 500 ± 5%

(4) 50 ± 5%

37. x t

t = x + 3

x t t = 0 sec t = 6 sec

(1)

(2) 12 m

(3) 6 m

(4) 18 m

38. 10s 27.5 m/s

10 sec

(1) 412.5 m

(2) 550 m

(3) 279 m

(4) 345 m

39.

(1) Stress

Strain

N

m

2

(2) = N

m

(3) = kg m

s

(4) = N

m2

40. V = a + bt + ct2,

m/sec C

(1) m/sec

(2) m/sec2

(3) m/sec3

(4) m

41. 20V ± 3%

0.4A ± 2%

(1) 50 ± 1%

(2) 5 ± 5%

(3) 500 ± 5%

(4) 50 ± 5%




42. Which of the following set of forces may be in equilibrium-

(1) 2N, 4N, 8N

(2) 4N, 8N, 16N

(3) 8N, 16N, 32N

(4) 3N, 5N, 7N

43. The acceleration a (in m/sec2) of a body starting from rest

varies with time t (in s) following th eequation a = 3t + 4,

the velocity of body at t = 2sec will be -

(1) 10 m/s

(2) 14 m/s

(3) 16 m/s

(4) 18 m/s

44. Which of the following quantity is a vector -

(1) Electro-motive force

(2) Current

(3) Surface tension

(4) Torque

45. A stone thrown up its caught by the trrown after 6s. Where

was it 4s after start (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 49 m

(2) 39.2 m

(3) 29 m

(4) 35 m

42.

(1) 2N, 4N, 8N

(2) 4N, 8N, 16N

(3) 8N, 16N, 32N

(4) 3N, 5N, 7N

43. a (m/sec2

) t (sec )

a = 3t + 4 t = 2sec

(1) 10 m/s

(2) 14 m/s

(3) 16 m/s

(4) 18 m/s

44.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45. 6s

4s (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 49 m

(2) 39.2 m

(3) 29 m

(4) 35 m


12GCI

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)Living World & Biological Classification

DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 07/06/2021

46. When we try to define living; the growth, reproduction,

ability to sense environment & mount a suitable response

come to our mind immediately as unique features of living

organisms. How many of the following features can be

added to this list

Metabolism, Ability to self-replicate, self organise,

interact, emergence, morphology

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

47. Which of the following statements related to diversity in

the living world are correct

(1) If you were to increases the area that you make

observation in, the range/no. of organisms would be stable

but the variety of organisms that you see would increase.

(2) Obviously, if you were to visit a dense forest, you would

probably see a much lesser number & kinds of living

organisms in it.

(3) the number of species that are known & described range

between 17 – 18 million.

(4) When we explore new areas & even old ones, new

organisms are continuously being idetified.

48. Classification is a ___X___ process & involves hierarchy of

steps in which each step represents a ___Y___.

X Y

(1) Single step Rank

(2) Three step Categary

(3) Multi step Taxon

(4) Multi step Taxa

49. Taxonomic studies of various species of plants, animals &

other organisms are useful in __A__ & in general in knowing

our __B__ & their __C__.

A B C

(1) Agriculture Bio-resources Number

(2) Forestry Bio-synthesis Diversity

(3) Industry Bio-resources Diversity

(4) Agriculture Bio-synthesis Number

& Forestry

46.

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

47.

(1)

(2)

(3) 17 –

18

(4)

48. ___X___

___Y___

X Y

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49.

__A__ __B__ __C__

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


13GCI



50. Find out incorrect statements

(A) Taxonomists have developed a variety of taxonomic

aids to facilitate naming only.

(B) Taxonomical studies are carried out from the actual

specimens which are collected from the specific lab.

(C) Live specimens of plants and animals are found only

in Zoological parks

(1) A & B (2) B & C

(3) A & C (4) A, B & C

51. The twin characteristics of growth are -

(1) Increase in number of indviduals, increase in mass

(2) Increase in height and increase in mass

(3) Increase in molecular weight and increase in mass

(4) Increase in size and decrease in mass

52. Linnaeus used the title for his publication is-

(1) Systema Naturae

(2) Genera Naturae

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) Die Nature lichen pflanzen

53. In Magnifera indica Linn. indica refers to-

(1) Genus

(2) Author

(3) Family

(4) Species

54. Glucose is taken in test tube and acted upon by hexokinase

enzyme. Resulting substrate is glucose -6- phosphate. This

isolated metabolic reaction is-

(1) Occurring in test tube which can be considered as living

things

(2) Considered to be in vivo

(3) Considered to be in vitro and living reaction

(4) Considered as non- living reaction

55. Which of the following taxonomic categories contains

organisms least similar to one another-

(1) Genera (2) Family

(3) Class (4) Species

50.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(1) A B (2) B C

(3) A C (4) A, B C

51.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

52.

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) (2)

(4)

53. Magnifera indica Linn. indica

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54.

-6-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


14GCI



56. Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat-

(1) Genus : Triticum, Family : Anacardiaceae, Order : Poales,

Class : Monocotyledonae

(2) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales,

Class : Dicotyledonae

(3) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Sapindales,


(4) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales,


57. In a scientific name, the name of the author is printed in-

(1) Capital letters

(2) Bold

(3) Italics

(4) Abbreviated form

58. Few rules are written following regarding binomial

nomenclature. Identity the wrong one-

(1) Biological names are latinized and written in italics

(2) Generic and specific name starts with capital letter

(3) Generic and specific name when hand written are

underlined

(4) All are correct

59. Which of the following is a species-

(1) Tamarindus

(2) Homo

(3) Triticum aestivam

(4) Panthera

60. In a taxonomic hierarchy, genus is interpolated between -

(1) Kingdom and class

(2) Phylum and order

(3) Order and species

(4) Family and species

61. The word ending with- aceae indicates -

(1) Genera

(2) Family

(3) Order

(4) Class

56.

(1) : , : , : , :

(2) : , : , : , :

(3) : , : , : , :

(4) : , : , : , :

57.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

58.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

59.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

61. - aceae

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


15GCI



62. Carnivora includes-

(1) Canis

(2) Felis

(3) Homo

(4) Both (1) & (2)

63. Two animals belong to the same kingdom but different

classes. They may belong to the same-

(1) Phylum

(2) Order

(3) Division

(4) Family

64. Museums are known to preserve-

(1) Insects

(2) Larger animals

(3) Skeleton of animals

(4) All of these

65. In following which provides information for identification of

names of species found in an area-

(1) Fauna

(2) Flora

(3) Monograph

(4) Manuals

66. Which of the following kingdoms were added after the 2-

kingdom system of Linnaeus

(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi

(D) Plantae (E) Animalia

(1) A, B & C

(2) B, C & D

(3) C, D & E

(4) All

67. How many of the following characters are not common in

fungi, plantae & animalia in 5 Kingdom system

Cell-type, Cell-wall, Nuclear-membrane,

Body-organisation, Mode of Nutrition

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

62.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) (2)

63.

______

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

65.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

66.

(A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

(1) A, B C

(2) B, C D

(3) C, D E

(4)

67. 5-

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4


16GCI



68. Which of the following statements is correct

(A) Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom monera

which are the least abundant micro-organisms

(B) Bacteria occur almost every where & hundreds of

bacteria are presents in a handful of soil.

(C) They also don't live in extreme habitats where many

other life forms can't survive.

(D) Many bacteria live in or on other organisms as parasites

(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D

(3) A, C (4) B, D

69. How many statements related to protista are correct

(A) All single-celled eukaryotes are placed under protista

(B) the boundries of Kingdom protista are not well difined

(C) What may be a photosynthetic protistan to one biologist

may be a plant to another.

(D) Protista includes chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates,

Euglenoids, Slime-moulds & Antherozoids.

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

70. The common mushroom is __W__ fungus while white spots

seen on mustard leaves are due to __X__ fungus. Yeast is

a __Y__ fungus while slime-mold is a __Z__ fungus.

W X Y Z

(1) Saprophytic Parasitic Saprophytic Parasitic

(2) Parasitic Saprophytic Unicellular Acellular

(3) Saprophytic Parasitic True False

(4) Saprophytic Saprophytic True False

71. Who divided the animals into 2 groups on the basis of "those

which had red blood and those that did not" -

(1) Whittaker

(2) T.O. Diener

(3) Aristotle

(4) W.M. Stanley

68.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D

(3) A, C (4) B, D

69.

(A)

(B)

(C)

' '

(D)

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

70. __W__

__X__

__Y__ __Z__

W X Y Z

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

71. " "

2

(1)

(2) T.O.

(3)

(4) W.M.


17GCI



72. Basis of classification according to Whittaker-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Mode of reproduction

(3) Phylogenetic relationship

(4) All of these

73. According to five kingdom system which characteristic

placed the fungi in a separate kingdom -

(1) Cell wall composition

(2) Cell wall structure

(3) Nutrition

(4) Nuclear membrane

74. Those viruses infect plants have which type of genetic

material-

(1) Single stranded DNA

(2) Single stranded RNA

(3) Double stranded DNA

(4) Double stranded RNA

75. Which of the pigment present in cyanobacteria -

(1) Chlorophyll 'a' (2) Chlorophyll 'b'

(3) Chlorophyll 'c' (4) Xanthophylls

76. Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding

mycoplasma -

(1) They have cell wall

(2) They are smallest living cells

(3) They cannot survive without oxygen

(4) They are non-pathogenic

77. In following which is not correct for most abundant

micro-organisms -

(1) They are grouped under four categories based on their

shape

(2) As a group they shows the most extensive metabolic

diversity

(3) Their Heterotrophic form are the most abundant in nature

(4) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus and common cold are well

known diseases caused by these micro-organisms

72.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

73.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

74.

(1) DNA

(2) RNA

(3) DNA

(4) RNA

75.

(1) 'a' (2) 'b'

(3) 'c' (4)

76.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

77.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


18GCI



78. In cyanophyceae, flagella are-

(1) Present in zoospores only

(2) Present

(3) Present in gamete stage only

(4) Absent

79. What is not true of Euglena-

(1) Presence of cellulose cell wall

(2) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle

(3) Presence of chlorophyll

(4) Presence of flagellum

80. Red tides are caused by-

(1) Red algae

(2) Brown algae

(3) Golden algae

(4) Golden brown algae

81. Nutrition in Amoeba is -

(1) Holophytic

(2) Holozoic

(3) Parasitic

(4) Saprobic

82. Protists obtain food as-

(1) Holozoic

(2) Photosynthesisers

(3) Chemosynthesisers

(4) Photosynthesisers, saprotrophic and holozoic

83. The members of which of the following are litter

decomposers-

(1) Deuteromycetes

(2) Ascomycetes

(3) Basidiomycetes

(4) Phycomycetes

84. Truffels are the member of class -

(1) Basidiomycetes

(2) Ascomycetes

(3) Deuteromycetes

(4) Phycomycetes

78. _____

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

79.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82. _____

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

83.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

84.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


19GCI



85. Ceocenocytic hyphae is found in-

(1) Rhizopus

(2) Mucor

(3) Saprolegnia

(4) All of the above

86. (i) Septate and branched mycelium

(ii) Coprophillous

(iii) Bracket fungi

(iv) Sexual spore exogenously produced

(v) Asexual spore are generally absent

(vi) Members are used in genetical work

In above how many are belong to basidiomycetes -

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

87. How many characters are related with protista kingdom -

(i) Some members are the chief producers in the oceans

(ii) In some member spores posses true wall.

(iii) Members may be become cause of smut disease

(iv) In some members there is an infections spore like stage

in their life cycles

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

88. How many are related with monera kingdom -

Heterocyst, citrus canker, Trypanosoma, claviceps,

biogas production, zygotic meiosis

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

89. Which of the following disease is caused by a prteinaceous

infectious agent :-

(1) Potato spindle tuber disease

(2) Mad-cow disease

(3) Red rust of tea

(4) White rust of members of cruciferae

85.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86. (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

87.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

88.

, , , ,

,

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

89.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


20GCI



90. In a bacteriophage, select the correct information-

(1) A- Head, B- Neck (2) A- Head, B- Sheath

(3) B- Collar, D- Tail fibres (4) C- Sheath, A- Collar

90.

(1) A- , B- (2) A- , B-

(3) B- , D- (4) C- , A-


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DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 07/06/2021

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