ELEMENT 9: MOVEMENT OF PEOPLE AND VEHICLES – HAZARDS & CONTROL. Q.1. a. Give FOUR reasons why accidents may occur on stairs. (4) Answer: Most candidates were able to gain all the marks available for the first part of the question by giving reasons such as poor design of the staircase (inadequate handrails, steep, poor tread/riser ratio, etc.), slippery condition of the stairs (highly polished, icy, oily, etc.), a poor state of repair, (e.g. worn steps or loose coverings), obstructions on the stairs, a poor standard of lighting, and bad practice (including the carrying of loads, rushing, improper footwear, etc.). Q.1. b. Outline ways in which accidents on stairs may be prevented. (4) Answer: Part (b) was not so well answered even though it should have been relatively straightforward to link control measures with the deficiencies identified in part (a). Candidates could therefore have referred to the removal of obstructions and the provision of non-slip surfaces, reflective edging and adequate lighting. They could also have mentioned maintenance as an important issue, together with the safe design and construction of the staircase, including the provision of handrails. The introduction and monitoring of site rules and procedures for using stairs could also have been included. Q.2. Outline the means by which the risk of accident from reversing vehicles within a workplace can be reduced. (8) Or a. Outline the precautionary measures to be taken to avoid accidents involving reversing vehicles within a workplace. (8) Answer: Avoiding the need for vehicles to reverse (one-way & “drive-through” systems, turning circles etc). Through the separation of vehicles & pedestrians (barriers, signs, etc) & aspects of vehicles & workplace design (audible alarms, mirrors on vehicles & at blind corners, refuges, lighting etc). To procedural measures (use of banksmen, site rules, driver training etc. Q.3. Outline the factors that should be taken into account when planning traffic routes for internal transport. (8) Answer: The purpose of the routes. The types of vehicles using the routes. The likely volume of traffic. The layout of the area. The possible need for one-way systems. Speed limits. Marking Crossing points & signs. And the importance of separating pedestrians and vehicles by the use of physical barriers. The suitability of floors. As well as environmental issues such as lighting levels. And ventilation when diesel –powered transport is to be used inside a building.
Transcript
ELEMENT 9: MOVEMENT OF PEOPLE AND VEHICLES – HAZARDS & CONTROL.
Q.1. a. Give FOUR reasons why accidents may occur on stairs. (4)
Answer:
Most candidates were able to gain all the marks available for the first part of the question by
giving reasons such as poor design of the staircase (inadequate handrails, steep, poor
tread/riser ratio, etc.), slippery condition of the stairs (highly polished, icy, oily, etc.), a poor state
of repair, (e.g. worn steps or loose coverings), obstructions on the stairs, a poor standard of
lighting, and bad practice (including the carrying of loads, rushing, improper footwear, etc.).
Q.1. b. Outline ways in which accidents on stairs may be prevented. (4)
Answer:
Part (b) was not so well answered even though it should have been relatively straightforward to
link control measures with the deficiencies identified in part (a). Candidates could therefore have
referred to the removal of obstructions and the provision of non-slip surfaces, reflective edging
and adequate lighting. They could also have mentioned maintenance as an important issue,
together with the safe design and construction of the staircase, including the provision of
handrails. The introduction and monitoring of site rules and procedures for using stairs could
also have been included.
Q.2. Outline the means by which the risk of accident from reversing vehicles within a
workplace can be reduced. (8)
Or
a. Outline the precautionary measures to be taken to avoid accidents involving
reversing vehicles within a workplace. (8)
Answer:
Avoiding the need for vehicles to reverse (one-way & “drive-through” systems, turning
circles etc).
Through the separation of vehicles & pedestrians (barriers, signs, etc)
& aspects of vehicles & workplace design (audible alarms, mirrors on vehicles & at blind
corners, refuges, lighting etc).
To procedural measures (use of banksmen, site rules, driver training etc.
Q.3. Outline the factors that should be taken into account when planning traffic routes for
internal transport. (8)
Answer:
The purpose of the routes.
The types of vehicles using the routes.
The likely volume of traffic.
The layout of the area.
The possible need for one-way systems.
Speed limits.
Marking
Crossing points & signs.
And the importance of separating pedestrians and vehicles by the use of physical
barriers.
The suitability of floors.
As well as environmental issues such as lighting levels.
And ventilation when diesel –powered transport is to be used inside a building.
Q.4. List Eight Items to be included on a checklist for the routine inspection of a fork – lift
trucks at the beginning of a shift. (8)
Answer:
The condition & pressure of tyres.
The integrity & proper functioning of lights, horn, brakes and mirrors.
The absence of oil leaks &
A seat that is securely fixed (with properly functioning & intact restraints where fitted).
The fork-lift truck should also be checked for obvious sign of danger to
Bodywork.
& lifting mechanism.
& for the security of any equipment fitted such as an LPG tank.
Q.5. Outline the precautions to be used when using a mobile elevating work platform
(MEWP) to reach a high point such as a streetlight. (8)
Answer:
The need to inspect the equipment before use & ensure it is in a good state of repair.
Using only competent workers using outriggers & brakes.
Erecting warning signs and barriers to avoid collisions.
Ensuring the platform is not overloaded.
Avoid overhead obstructions.
& wearing a harness.
Q.6. Identify Eight ways in which a fork-lift truck may become unstable during operation. (8)
Answer:
Insecure, excessive or uneven loading.
Incorrect elevation of forks when traveling.
Uneven or unconsolidated ground.
Slopes (& incorrect procedures for dealing with them)
Obstructions (overhead or low level) or changes in level (e.g. edges of loading bays).
Cornering at excessive speeds.
Sudden braking.
Poor condition of tyres.
& mechanical failures.
Q.7. Identify Eight rules to follow when a fork-lift truck is left unattended in a workplace. (8)
Or
Outline Eight rules to follow when a fork-lift trucks is left unattended during a driver’s
work break. (8)
Answer:
Returning the truck to a designated parking area where possible.
Applying the brake and leaving controls in a neutral position.
Ensuring the forks are resting on the floor & the mast tilted slightly forward.
Avoid the obstruction of walkways, exist & fire points.
& removing the ignition key & returning it to a responsible person.
Q.8. Battery-Powered fork-lift trucks are used to move palletised good within a warehouse.
a. Describe FOUR hazards associated specifically with battery-powered fork-lift trucks.
(4)
Answer:
Explosive hydrogen gas released when batteries are recharged.
Electrical arcs / shock.
Manual handling of liquids.
Corrosive acid.
Q.9. Outline the precaution that may be needed to ensure the safety of pedestrians in the
areas where the fork-lift trucks are operating. (8) Or
a. Outline the health & safety considerations when a forklift truck (FLT) is to be used to
unload palletised goods from a vehicles parked in a factory car parking. (8) Or
a. Outline the precautions that might be needed to ensure the safety of pedestrians in a
vehicle manoeuvring areas. (8) Or
a. Outline measures to be taken to prevent accidents when pedestrians are required to
work in vehicle manoeuvring areas. (8)
Answer
Segregated systems for vehicular & pedestrian traffic.
Appropriate road markings.
Maintaining good visibility (mirrors, transparent doors, provision of lighting etc).
& audible warnings on vehicles.
Drawing up & enforcement of site rules.
The provision of refuges.
The wearing of high-visibility clothing.
A good standard of housekeeping.
& training for, supervision of all concerned.
Q.10. Describe the physical features of traffic routes within a workplace to ensure the safe
movement of vehicles. (8)
Answer:
Adequate width of traffic routes with the avoidance of blind corners.
Separation of vehicles & pedestrians with the provision of barriers & refuges.
A one-way system with turning circles to reduce the need for reversing.
Firm, even & well maintained road surfaces.
Roadways unobstructed & signed to indicate speed limits, rights of way & no entry.
Visibility aids such as mirrors, transparent screens across doorways & lighting.
Traffic calming measures such as road humps.
Marked pedestrian crossings points on vehicle routes.
Q.11. a. Identify Two occasions when a through examination of a fork lift trucks (FLT) is
required. (2)
Answer:
Before its first use by an employer.
At 12 monthly intervals (or 6 monthly if the trucks is to be used for lifting persons).
In accordance with an examination scheme drawn up by a competent person.
Or following circumstances that might have compromised the safety of the lifting
equipment.
Q.11. b. Outline a range of circumstance that may cause a FLT to become unstable.(8)
Answer:
Travelling on gradients that are too steep;
Fork-lift trucks travelling forwards when descending slopes;
Being overloaded, unevenly loaded or carrying unstable loads;
Travelling on soft or uneven ground or falling into excavations;
Travelling over slippery services, e.g. oil or grease patches;
Travelling too fast, especially around corners;
Travelling over kerbs, steps or other edges;
Poor maintenance, e.g. of tyres;
Poor driving / driver training;
Not being suitable for the task; and
Carrying loads at a dangerous height, e.g. a fully raised fork-lift truck load.
Q.11. c. Other than those associated with instability, identify FIVE hazards presented by a diesel-powered FLT And describe the precautions that might be necessary in EACH case (10)
Answer:
Vibration (e.g. spring mounted seats).
Noise (wearing ear defenders of fitting silencers on exhausts).
Diesel fumes (the provision of ventilation or prohibiting indoor use).
Falling materials (provision of protective cage).
Collision (the use of barriers &/or speed restraints).
& environmental health hazards associated with the use of diesel oil (control of spillages
& the wearing of gloves).
ELEMENT 10: MANUAL AND MECHANICAL HANDLING – HAZARDS & CONTROL.
Q.1. An automated piece of equipment designed to lift boxes weighing 20kg from a conveyor
and place them on to pallets has failed and is likely to be out of action for several weeks.
During this time, the task will be carried out manually.
a. Outline the factors that should be considered when undertaking a manual handling
assessment of the task. (8)
Answer:
The main elements to be considered in a manual handling assessment are task,
individual, load and environment. Candidates who approached the question in this way
tended to produce better-focused answers that applied each element to the practical
task outlined. Under the heading "task" for instance, there was a range of issues to be
considered such as frequency of the activity, vertical and horizontal distances to be
lifted/transported, distance of the load from the body, awkward body movements and so
on. Under "load", marks were available for considering factors such as the size and
weight of the boxes, their stability and the ease with which a good grip might be gained
and under "environment" for referring to the condition of the floor, space constraints,
temperature and the standard of lighting provided. Lastly, the individual would have to be
considered in terms of age, gender, stature and physical capability.
Q.1. b. Outline the measures that may be needed in order to reduce the risk of injury to
employees carrying out the manual handling task. (12)
Answer:
Part (ii) of the question required candidates to outline practical measures to reduce the
risk of injury to employees carrying out the manual handling task and was generally
answered more successfully than the first part. These would include: improving the task
layout and work routine so that adequate rest periods were provided; reducing the
weight of the loads and using two persons where this was possible; ensuring that due
attention was given to the selection of those involved including their physical capabili ties;
providing appropriate information and training on good lifting practice; ensuring that the
floors and walkways were in good condition and kept free from obstruction and that the
standards of heating, ventilation and lighting provided were adequate. This question was
answered reasonably well by most candidates.
Q.2. Outline the issues to consider when undertaking a manual handling assessment of a
task that involves lifting buckets of water out of a sink. (8)
Answer:
The main elements to be considered in a manual handling assessment are task,
individual, load and environment. Candidates who approached the question in this way
tended to produce better focused answers that applied each element to a practical and
familiar operation. Under the heading 'task', for instance, there was a range of issues to
be considered such as frequency of the activity, vertical and horizontal distances to be
lifted/transported, distance of the load from the body, awkward body movements and so
on. Under 'load', marks were available for considering factors such as weight, the
type/size of bucket and water temperature; and under 'environment' for referring to wet
floors, space constraints and ambient temperature. Lastly, the 'individual' should be
considered in terms of age, gender, stature and physical capabilities.
The question related to the assessment of a manual handling task. Some candidates,
however, chose to answer it in terms of control by outlining alternative ways of filling the
bucket or transporting the water in order to reduce risk. This is, of course, the next stage
of the process that was not addressed by the question.
Q.3. A store man is required to place boxes of metal components by hand on to shelved
racking.
a. List Four types of injuries to which the employee may be at risk while carrying out this
task. (4)
Answer:
Slipped disk, torn ligaments.
Tendon sprains or hernia.
Manual handling and stacking potentially heavy boxes, there was, in addition, the
possibility that the boxes or their contents could fall.
Causing cuts.
Abrasions & even fractures.
Q.3. b. Outline the factors in relation to the task & the Load that will affect the risk injury. (10)
Answer:
The factors in relation to the Task:
The number of boxes to be lifted & the frequency of lifting.
& the vertical & horizontal distances that the boxes are required to be lifted or carried,
particularly if they have to be lifted from the ground & / or placed on high shelves.
The need for excessive
Pulling or pushing of the load.
& twisting of the body should also have been considered.
The factors in relation to the Load:
The weight & size of the boxes.
The weight distribution.
The provision of handles or other means to ensure an adequate grip.
The presence of sharp edges.
& the security of the loads within the boxes to prevent unexpected movement.
Q.3. c. Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by the employee
when required to lift one of the boxes from ground level. (6)
Answer:
Address the size & weight of the load.
& the location to which it is to be moved.
& then outlined a technique that included issues such as the correct positioning of the
feet.
Keeping the back straight.
Bending only the knees.
& lifting smoothly which keeping the load closer to the body.
Q.4. List the possible indications of a manual handling problem in a workplace. (4)
Answer:
The results of health surveillance.
Absence records.
First-aid treatment observations of the work in process (up to full ergonomic
assessments).
& complaints from employees.
Q.5. An office employee is required to replace 20 liter (20 Kg) water bottles located on top of
water coolers.
a. Identify FOUR factors specific to the employee that nigh increase the risk of injury
when carrying out this task (4)
Answer:
Physical strength & stature, the state of health of the employee & the level of training in
manual handling techniques.
Related to these are the person’s perception (or misperceptions) of the requirements of
the task or their own abilities.
Q.5. b. Outline a good handling technique that could be used when lifting a full bottle from
the floor (4) (Or)
Outline a good handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a
load from the ground (6)
Answer:
Firstly by making the initial assessment of the load.
Then the need to take a firm grip of the bottle to be lifted.
Before moving it smoothly, keeping the back straight & using the leg muscles.
Ensuring that the trunk is not twisted during the operation.
Q.6. Outline the factors that may affect the level of risk from manual handling in relation to.
a. The Load. (4)
Answer:
The size & weight of the load.
The possibility that the contents might move & the load become unbalanced.
The position of the centre of gravity.
Difficulty in securing a firm grasp of the load.
& the presence of sharp edges.
Q.6. Outline the factors that may affect the level of risk from manual handling in relation to.
b. The Individual (4)
Answer:
Body size & strength in relation to the task to be carried out (which can be age or
gender-related).
Physical handicaps or restrictions caused by illness, disability or pregnancy.
Lack of training in manual handling.
& inappropriate clothing or footwear.
Q.7. An assessment has concluded that the person carrying out a particular manual handling
task is fit & capable of lifting the loads involved.
a. Outline the factors to be considered with the task & the work environment that would
need to be considered in order to complete the assessment. (8)
Answer:
The factors that should be considered for the task include:
The need to hold or manipulate the loads at a distance from the trunk.
Frequent or prolonged physical effort with insufficient rest or recovery periods.
Excessive pushing or pulling of the loads.
Excessive carrying or raising / lowering distances.
& the need for the person involved to adopt unsatisfactory body positions.
The factors that should be considered for the work environment:
The structure & condition of floors & walking in the working area.
Space constraints.
Lighting temperature.
Humidity & ventilation.
Q.8. a. Identify TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads (2)
Answer:
External Injuries: Cuts, bruises, abrasions and crush injuries to figures, hands, forearms,
ankles and feet.
Internal Injuries: muscles and ligament strains and tears, hernias, knee, ankle and
shoulder injuries.
Cumulative back injuries: slipped disc (prolapsed inter vertebral disc).
Q.8. b. Give Two examples of how a manual handling task might be avoided (2)
Answer:
Frok Lift Trucks.
Hoists.
Cranes & Conveyors.
Q.9. An automated piece of equipment designed to lift boxes weighing 20 kg from a conveyor
& place them on to pallets has failed & is likely to be out of action for several weeks.
During this time, the task will be carried out manually.
a. Outline the factors to be considered when undertaking a manual handling
assessment of the task. (8)
Answer:
The main elements to be considered in a manual handling assessment are
Load.
The size & weight of the boxes.
Their stability & the ease with which a good grip might be gained.
Individual.
Age.
Gender.
Stature.
& Physical capability.
Task.
Frequency of the activity.
Vertical & horizontal distance to be lifted / transported.
Distance of the load from the body.
Awkward body movement.
Environment.
Condition of the floor.
Space constraints.
Temperature.
& the standard of lighting provided.
Q.9. b. Outline the measures that may be needed in order to reduce the risk of injury to
employees carrying out the manual handling task. (12)
Answer:
These would include
Improving the task layout & work routine so that adequate rest periods were provided.
Reducing the weight of the load & using 2 persons where this was possible.
Ensuring that due attention was given to the selection of those involved including their
physical capabilities.
Providing appropriate training on good lifting practice.
Ensuring the floors & walkways are in good condition & kept free from obstruction.
& that the standards of heating, ventilation & lighting provided were adequate.
Q.10. Employees working for a charity are required to collect plastic bags of clothes, books &
other donated goods from outside householder’ premises & carry them to a waiting
company van.
a. Giving reason in EACH case, Outline the types of injury the employees may sustain
from the activity. (8)
Answer:
There is a wide range of possible injuries which employees might sustain.
These would generally result from the manual handling hazards to which they would include:
Muscular strains.
Torn ligaments & injuries to the spine from handling & carrying bags of unknown weight
over varying distance & then lifting them into the van.
There was also the danger of cuts & abrasion arising from contact with the contents of
the bags with possible bone & flesh injuries following slips, trips & falls, over kerbs &
other obstructions.
There would always be the possibility of being struck by passing traf fic while injuries
arising from assaults by members of the public or more probably dogs, could not be
ruled out.
Q.11. Outline a procedure for the same lifting of a load by a crane, having ensured that the
crane has been correctly selected & positioned for the job. (8)
Answer:
The correct selection of the sling & its inspection for damage before use.
The employment of competent persons to attach the sling to the load in order to ensure
a correct balance.
The provision of an unrestricted view for the carne driver or, where this is not possible,
the use of competent banks men to maintain effectives communication with the driver.
Checking that the area where the lift is to take place is kept clear of employees.
& ensuring that the load is raised at the correct speed, lowered slowly to its landing
position & controlled during its passage, possible by the use of tag lines.
Q.12. a. Outline the possible causes of a dumper trucks to overturn on a construction site. (6)
(Or)
Outline the possible causes of a dumper truck to overturn. (6)
Answer:
Overloading or uneven loading of the bucket.
Cornering at excessive speed.
Hitting obstructions.
Driving too close to the edges of embankments or excavations.
Mechanical defects.
Inappropriate tyre pressures.
& driving across slopers.
Q.12. b. Identify the design features of a dumper truck intended to minimise the risk of, or
severity of injury from, an overturn. (2)
(Or)
Identify TWO design features of the vehicle intended to minimise the consequences of
an overturn (2)
Answer:
Rollover Protection & seat belts.
Design to prevent over turning, such as the width of the wheel base & the position of the
centre of gravity of the truck.
Q.13. Outline Four hazards & the corresponding precautions to be taken when using
conveyor precautions to taken when using conveyor systems for moving materials within
a workplace. (8)
Answer:
Typical hazards & precautions.
Traps & drawing-in (with nip guards & trip devices as possible precautions).
Entanglement (fixed guards, avoidance of loose clothing).
Impact against overhead systems (bump caps, restricted access, warning signs,
Manual handling hazards (resulting in musculoskeletal disorders).
& electricity (causing shocks, burns & fire).
Q.5. a. Define the term “ergonomics” (2)
Answer:
“The study of the interaction between workers & the work environment” or “making the
job or task fit the person”
Q.5. b. List Six observations made during the inspection of a machine made during the
inspection of a machine operation which may suggest that the machine has not been
ergonomically designed. (6)
Answer:
The need for excessive force or repetitive movements by the operator.
The need for operator to stretch or stoop.
Machine controls sited in awkward positions.
Controls & displays unmarked or poorly marked & their functions not obvious.
Lack of visibility of the task by the operator.
The work piece difficult to position because of its size or weight or because of the type of
machine protection provided.
& the difficulty experienced in changing, adjusting or cleaning machine tools.
Q,6. A cleaner is required to polish floors using a rotary floor polisher.
a. Identify the hazards that might be associated with this operation (4)
Answer:
Entanglement
Slips, trips & falls
Noise & vibration
Electrical & ergonomic hazards
& the possible use of chemical cleaning agents
Q,6. b. Outline suitable control measures that might be used to minimise the risk (4)
Answer:
Guarding.
Cable management.
Isolation of the machine for changing brushes.
The wearing of appropriate footwear.
Regular maintenance & testing of the machine.
Together with the use of residual current devices.
& the provision of training for the operator with emphasis placed on pre -use checks.
Q.7. Provide Sketches to show clearly the nature of the following mechanical hazards from
moving parts of machinery
i. “Entanglement” (2)
ii. “Crushing” (2)
iii. “Drawing-in” (2)
iv. “Shear” (2)
Answer:
Assess the strength.
Rigidity & durability of the material from which the guard is made.
The security of its fastenings in requiring a special tool for its removal.
& the importance of securing sufficient ventilation when required.
The use of a fixed guard only when frequent removal of the protection is not required.
The need to ensure that the guard neither interferes with the operation of the machine
nor obstructs the vision of the operator.
& any openings in the guard should be of such size as to prevent access to the danger
point.
Q.7. b. Outline the issues that should be addressed in assessing the appropriateness &
suitability of a fixed guard used to protect against dangerous part of a machine (6)
Answer:
Assess the strength.
Rigidity & durability of the material from which the guard is made.
The security of its fastenings in requiring a special tool for its removal.
& the importance of securing sufficient ventilation when required.
The use of a fixed guard only when frequent removal of the protection is not required.
The need to ensure that the guard neither interferes with the operation of the machine
nor obstructs the vision of the operator.
& any openings in the guard should be of such size as to prevent access to the danger
point.
Q.7. c. Identify Four non-mechanical hazards to which woodworking machine operators may
be exposed & Outline the possible health & safety effects in Each case (8)
Answer:
Dust (causing lung disorders & fires/explosions)
Noise (resulting in hearing loss or tinnitus)
Vibration (causing hand-arm vibration syndrome)
Splinter (resulting in injuries to the eye, cuts & infection)
Manual handling (which could result in musculoskeletal disorders)
& electricity (with its associated risk of shock, electrical burns & fire)
Q.8. a. Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain road
verges (8)
Answer:
Exposure to fumes
The possibility of fire or explosion
Contact with the moving parts of the strimmer
Being struck by flying stones & fragments
Noise & vibration
Manual handling
Slips, trips & falls
The possibility of being struck by moving traffic
& exposure to extreme weather conditions
Q.9. List Eight non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery (8)
Answer:
Electricity
Noise & vibration
Radiation
Extremes of temperature
Fire & explosion
Hazardous substances (both by direct contact with for instance
Oils & greases & by exposure to dust & fumes)
& those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues
Q.10. a. Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard
i. A Fixed Guard (2)
ii. An interlocked guard (2)
Answer:
A fixed guard is physically attached to the machine & normally requires a special tool to
remove It., it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts & is not linked to the
controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine.
Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the principle that a machine cannot
start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, & that when the machine
is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be operated or opening the guard
causes the machine to come to a rest.
Q.10. b. Identify Two advantages & Two disadvantages of fixed guard (4)
Answer:
A fixed guard is easy to inspect & maintain & the fact that there are no moving parts
leads to increased reliability.
On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no
protection is afforded should it be removed &, since it is fixed & requires a special tool
for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult.
A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual
inspection of the machine or the work being performed
Q.11. Identify Four mechanical hazards presented by pedestal drills & Outline in EACH case
how injury may occur (8)
Answer:
Entanglement of hair with the drill bit or chuck
Stabbing injuries from the end of the bit
Contact with the drill bit or chuck resulting in abrasions
& ejection of, or impact by, unclamped work pieces, made worse by the fact that the
work piece may be spinning at fast speed on the bit
Cutting hazards may also be presented by metal swarf produced by the drilling process
Q.12. Identify Four hazards when cutting grass on roadside verges with a rider-operated
motor-mower & Outline the precautions to be taken against EACH One (8)
Answer:
Hazards Associate with the use of a motor-mower:
Fast rotating blades & the potential for the machine to overturn when operating on inclines.
Noise & vibration
Collision with road traffic or pedestrians
Fumes
Dust
Flying objects (e.g. stones from the machine)
& hazards associated with fuel
Environmental issues such as extreme exposure to sunlight & the presence of stinging insects
Precautions:
The fitting of guards to protect the blades
The provision of personal protective equipment such as ear defenders, eye protection, &
high visibility clothing
Coning off areas in close proximity to moving traffic
& training drivers in operating the machine on sloping ground, in re-fuelling procedures & in
carrying out routine maintenance work.
Q.13. A chainsaw is to be used to fell a tree from ground level. In relation to this task
a. Identify Four hazards associated with the use of the chainsaw (4)
Answer:
The wide range of mechanical and non-mechanical hazards:
Contact or entanglement with the chain
Noise & vibration
Dust & fumes
Ejected particles
Hot surfaces
Manual handling & ergonomic hazards
& being struck by falling branches or trees
Q.13. b. List the items of personal protective equipment that should be used by the chainsaw
operator (4)
Answer:
Forestry boots
Helmets fitted with meshed face shields
Hearing protection
& specialized gloves & clothing (e.g. kevlar) that would afford the necessary body & leg
protection
Q.14. a. Identify
i. Two mechanical hazards associated with moving parts of machinery (2)
ii. Two non - mechanical hazards associated with moving parts of machinery (2)
Answer:
Mechanical hazards (i.e. those from, moving parts of machinery &/or the material being worked)
include
Impact
Entanglement
Crushing
Shearing
Ejection
Cutting
& abrasion
Where as a list of non-mechanical machinery hazards includes
Noise
Vibration
Electricity
Hazardous substances
Radiation
Extremes of temperature
& ergonomic issues
Q.14. b. Outline a hierarchy of control measures that may be used to reduce the risk of injury
from dangerous parts of machinery (4)
(Or)
Outline a hierarchy of control measures that may be used to eliminate the risk of injury
from dangerous parts of machinery (4)
Answer
Fixed guards
Other types of guards or protective devices
Safety aids such as jigs
Holder & push-sticks
& the provision of information, instruction, training & supervision.
Q.15. In relation to machinery safety
a. Outline the principles of operation of the principles of operation of
i. Interlocked guards (2)
ii. Trip devices (2)
Answer:
Interlocked guards
One that is linked to the machine controls (by mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
pneumatic means)
So that the machine will not operate until the guard is closed
& when the machine is in a dangerous condition
The guard is either prevented from opening or
If it is opened
The dangerous parts of the machine are made safe
Trip device
A trip device, on the other hand, operates when a person approaches a danger area
Typical examples are trip bars or probes, pressure mats & photo-sensitive systems
(“light curtains”)
Once the device is triggered, it “trips” the machine, which either stops or otherwise
becomes safe
Q.15. b. Identify Four types of danger against which fixed guards on machines may provide
protection (4)
Answer:
reducing noise emissions
by containing hazardous substances such as oil, mist or dust
by providing shielding against heat or electricity
& by preventing the ejection of particles from the machine
Q.16. Identify the hazards associated with the use of a cement mixer & explain how they
should be controlled (8)
Answer:
Manual handling (which might be controlled by the use of mechanical aids, reduced
weight of loads, the siting of materials to reduce twisting &/or the provision of training)
The corrosive & irritant properties of cement (which could be countered by the provision
& use of appropriate personal protective equipment, safe systems of work & good
hygiene practices)
inhalation of the cement dust (against which masks might be provided)
& machinery hazards such as moving parts, ejection of materials & noise (where the
control measures would include, where appropriate, the provision of guarding, goggles &
hearing protection)
If petrol-driven, requirements would include storage facilities for the fuel to protect
against the risk of fire, training in refuelling procedures, & the prohibition of the use of the
mixer in confined areas to protect employees against inhalation of fumes
If electrical, a similar system of regular inspection & testing of the equipment, & the use
of residual current devices to minimise the risk of shock, should be in place
Q.17. In relation to cutting timber using a bench-mounted circular saw
a. Outline the mechanical hazards to which the operator may be exposed (6)
Answer:
The most obvious & serious hazard is the cutting hazard associated with the rotating
blade
Entanglement with rotating parts (such as the spindle or parts of the transmission
machinery)
& the hazards created by flying particles & ejection of the wood being processed
Q.17. b. Identify the guards & protective devices designed to prevent contact with the saw
blade, & in EACH case, explain how the operator is protected. (6)
Answer:
An adjustable or self-adjusting guard for the top of the saw, exposing as little of the
blade as possible
Fixed guards over the part of the blade below the bench & around the motor & drive
mechanism
Protection at the rear of the blade in the form of a riving knife
& the use of a push-stick to keep the operator’s hand away from the blade at the end of
the cut.
Q.17. c. Outline Four non-mechanical hazards presented by the operation identifying the
possible health & safety effects in EACH case (8)
Answer:
Noise-induced hearing loss,
The possibility of lung disorders or nasal cancer from exposure to dust
Electricity when in contact with un-insulated power cable.
& shock or burns from contact with a defective electricity supply to the machine
Q.18. Identify the factors to consider when assessing the suitability of controls (including
emergency controls) of an item of work equipment (8)
Answer:
In assessing the suitability of controls on an item of work equipment, factors that would need to
be considered include
Their accessibility (within reach of the operator)
The protection of starting devices against inadvertent operation (shrouded or recessed)
The clear marking or labeling of the controls to indicate their purpose
The color of stop & start controls & their siting outside the danger in a safe position
As for emergency stop controls
They should be mushroomed shaped
Red in colour
Adequate in number
Sited inside the danger zone
& arranged so that the equipment cannot be re-started from the emergency stop button
but would need to be re-set
Q.19. a. Describe when a fixed guard would be an appropriate means of providing protection
against mechanical hazards (2)
Answer:
Fixed guards may be an appropriate method of providing protection against mechanical
hazards when infrequent or no access is required to dangerous parts of a machine
during its normal operation.
Q.19. b. Outline the features of fixed guards designed to minimise the risk of injury or ill health
from dangerous parts of machinery (6)
Answer:
The material of construction, which should be sufficiently robust to withstand the rigours
of the workplace & be able to contain any ejected material, but still allow sight of the
process when required
The method of fixing, usually requiring the use of a special tool for the guard’s removal
The need to ensure that any necessary openings in guards are such that they do not
allow access to the dangerous parts (a function of the size of any opening in relation to
the distance to the hazards
& the need to address the possibility of the guard reverberating & exacerbating a noise
problem
ELEMENT 12: ELECTRICAL – HAZARD AND CONTROL.
Q.1. In relation to electrical safety; Explain the meaning of the following terms:
a. Isolation. (2)
b. Earthing. (2)
c. Reduced low voltage (2)
d. Over-current protection (2)
Answer:
The question aimed to test candidates' knowledge of some key electrical terms.
'Isolation' refers to shutting off the electrical supply to an item of equipment or part of an
electrical system and preventing inadvertent reconnection in order, for instance, to carry
out maintenance work. 'Earthing', on the other hand, is a means whereby electrical
equipment and conductive items are connected to earth by a cable or metal pipe-work
such that the route to earth provides the path of least resistance to a current flowing
under fault conditions. 'Reduced low voltage', commonly used on construction sites,
involves the reduction of mains voltage by a transformer to a lower, safer voltage -
typically 110 or 55 volts; while 'overcurrent protection' is a method of preventing the flow
of excess current by cutting the supply under fault conditions by means of a fuse or
circuit breaker.
Despite the question, or parts of it, having appeared on previous papers, it was poorly
answered by most candidates, with only the more able producing answers to a
reasonable standard.
Q.2. Outline the practical measures to reduce the risk of injury from electricity when using a
portable electrical appliance on a construction site. (8)
(Or)
Outline ways of minimising the risk of serious injury from electricity when using a
portable electrical appliance (8)
Answer:
The appropriate selection of equipment such as battery-operated appliances or those
operating at a reduced voltage (typically 110v)
Cables connected to the power supply with proper connectors
The use of RCDs
Training of operators in the checking procedures to be followed before use
The introduction of a regular appliance inspection & testing procedure
& the avoidance of using in wet conditions
Q.3. Give a suitable example in Each case, Identify particular conditions of a working
environment that may increase the risk from the use of portable electrical equipment (8)
Answer:
Environments that might expose equipment to mechanical damage such as a construction
site where there is a risk of cables being run over by vehicles or coming into contact with
sharp edges
Work outdoors where equipment could be exposed to the elements such as rain, wind &
snow
Environments where equipment could be exposed to high or low temperatures such as
in foundries or cold stores
Environments where chemicals & corrosive liquids such as acids &/or alkalis are used
Flammable or explosive atmospheres where equipment could be exposed to dusts, vapours
or gases
Dirty & dusty environments such as construction sites or saw mills
Wet & humid environments such as laundries & swimming pools
Environments involving work at heights or in confined spaces where there would be the likelihood of trailing cables
Q.4. a. Outline the precautions to take to protect against electrical contact when
i. Excavating near underground cables (4)
ii. Working in the vicinity of overhead power lines (4)
Answer:
Precautions against excavating near underground cables:
Isolation of the supply
The identification of cable routes from plans & by the use of cable detectors
Checking for service box covers
Marking of cable routes on site
& digging with hand-tools rather than with a mechanical excavator
Precautions against Overhead power lines:
Isolation
Erection of goal-post barriers to define clearance distances
Clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs & bunting)
Ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance with “tunnels”)
the appropriate use of marshals & banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes
Excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines
& the restricted use of items such as metal ladders & scaffold tubes near live lines
Q.5. State the items that should be included on a checklist for the routine inspection of
portable electrical appliances (8)
Answer:
Precautions against excavating near underground cables:
The need to check that the appliance is of a suitable type for the operations to be carried out
That the connecting plugs are in sound condition & sockets not overloaded
that the fuses fitted are of the correct rating
That the appliance is operated at reduced voltage (where appropriate) &/or protected by a
RCD
That cables are undamaged & routed safely
& that the casing of the appliance is in good condition
Need to check that a PAT has been carried out & is current, & that the relevant
information is provided
Q.6. A decorator uses a large portable electric steamer for wallpaper stripping
(Or) A decorator uses a hand-heal electric sander for the preparation of wood prior to painting.
a. Identify Four hazards associated with the use of the steamer (4)
(Or)
Other than electricity, Identify Four hazards associated with the use of the sander. (4)
Answer:
Manual handling
Contact with the steam & hot surfaces
Eergonomic & electrical hazards
& slips, trips & falls
Q.6. b. Outline the checks that should be made to ensure electrical safety when using the
steamer (4)
(Or)
Outline the checks that should be made to ensure electrical safety of the sander (4)
Answer:
Visual inspection of cables plugs & sockets.
The equipment conforms to relevant standards (CE marking)
That it has been subject to portable appliance testing
That the equipment does not show signs of damage
That fuses are of the correct rating
That residual current devices are in use
& that there are appropriate means of isolating the steamer
Q.7. Outline a range of checks that should be made to ensure electrical safety in an office
environment (8)
Answer:
Damage to cables
Plugs & sockets
The need to ensure that all fuses are of the correct rating
& checking that equipment is sited such that outlets are not overloaded & cable are not
in vulnerable positions
The equipment itself should be checked to ensure suitability & conformity with
recognised standards (e.g. CE marking) & a specific testing procedure for portable
appliances should be in place
As well as a procedure for reporting defects or damage
Q.8. a. Describe the possible health effects of electricity on the body (4)
Answer:
Nerve/muscle action & tissue burns
Cardio-respiratory effects:
In particular the risk of fatal injury due to disruption of heart rhythm
Tissue burns: Main sites of damage as being the entry & exit points
& to the possibility of damage to internal organs
Q.8. b. Outline Four factors that may affect the severity of harm of injury from contact with
electricity (4)
Answer:
Voltage
The route taken through the body
The length of contact time
The general health & age of the person involved
& those factors that might affect the size of current passing through the body
Resistance
Dryness of the skin
Natural body resistance
Ground conditions
& type of footwear
Q.9. a. Outline the dangers associated with electricity (4)
Answer:
Burns to tissue
Fire & explosion
& secondary effects such as falling from a height as result of an electric shock
Q.9. b. Outline the emergency action to take if a person suffers a severe electrical shock (4)
Answer:
The first action on discovering a person having suffered an electric shock should always be
To summon help & following this
If the person is still in close proximity to the live part
Isolate the supply
or push the person clear using a non-conductive implement
First-aid should then be administered, which, depending on the severity of the shock,
may include cardio-pulmonary resuscitation
If successful, an airway should be maintained by placing the victim in the recovery
position & breathing should be monitored until medical help arrives
Q.10. A joiner has received an electric shock from a hand-held, 230V drill while fitting floor
boards to an upstairs room of a new property; the drill is 5 years old but has not been
tested during this time, the injury to the joiner was fortunately not serious.
a. Identify the factors that may have limited the severity of injury o this occasion (4)
Answer:
High earth path resistance from the wooden floor or the dry conditions
The age & health status of the joiner
& the length of contact time which could also have been reduced by the speed action of
the fuse or circuit breaker
Q.10. b. Outline the physical effects on the body that such contact with electricity could have
caused under different circumstances (4)
Answer
The main sites of damage as being entry & exit points
& to the possibility of damage to internal organs
Nerve/muscle action (leading to involuntary grip)
& cardio-respiratory effects
In particular the risk of fatal injury due to the disruption of heart-rhythm
Q.10. c. Describe the type of inspections &/or test to which the drill should have been
subjected, identify the particular features that should be checked by Each type & the
factors that might affect the frequency required. (12)
Answer
The 1st type of these should have been carried out by the joiner (the user)
He should have checked the general condition of the drill for signs of damage or
overheating & the integrity of the connectors (plug & socket) & cable
This type of inspection should be carried out on every occasion that the equipment is to
be used.
The 2nd type should have been a more formal visual inspection carried out at periodic
intervals (weekly or monthly) depending upon the extent & conditions of use
It should take the form of a more thorough inspection of the equipment & its connectors
& cable & additionally should include a check to ensure that the fuses fitted were
correctly rated
The 3rd type should have involved a combined inspection & test (PAT), carried out by a
competent person on a
3 monthly
Half yearly
Or annual basis
(Again depending upon the extent & conditions of use) with the objectives of both
checking
That the equipment was functioning correctly & of detecting potential faults such as loss
of earth integrity
Deterioration of the integrity of insulation & possible contamination of internal & external
surfaces
The factors that might affect the frequency of inspection (apart from the extent &
conditions of use) would include:
The age & robustness of the equipment
The type of cable fitted
The number & competency of the users
Manufacturers recommendation foreseeable misuse or abuse
& the results of previous inspections
Q.11. a. Outline the Three levels of inspection that should be included in a maintenance &
inspection strategy for portable electrical appliance (6)
Answer:
The 1st level of these should have been carried out by the joiner (the user)
He should have checked the general condition of the drill for signs of damage or
overheating & the integrity of the connectors (plug & socket) & cable
This type of inspection should be carried out on every occasion that the equipment is to
be used.
The 2nd level should have been a more formal visual inspection carried out at periodic
intervals (weekly or monthly) depending upon the extent & conditions of use
It should take the form of a more thorough inspection of the equipment & its connectors
& cable & additionally should include a check to ensure that the fuses fitted were
correctly rated
The 3rd level should have involved a combined inspection & test (PAT), carried out by a
competent person on a
3 monthly
Half yearly
Or annual basis
(Again depending upon the extent & conditions of use) with the objectives of both
checking
That the equipment was functioning correctly & of detecting potential faults such as loss
of earth integrity
Deterioration of the integrity of insulation & possible contamination of internal & external
surfaces
The factors that might affect the frequency of inspection (apart from the extent &
conditions of use) would include:
The age & robustness of the equipment
The type of cable fitted
The number & competency of the users
Manufacturers recommendation foreseeable misuse or abuse
& the results of previous inspections
Q.11. b. Identify the reasons for keeping centralized records of the results of PAT within an
organization (2)
Answer:
Demonstrate compliance by the employer
such records could be used for: Setting the frequency for appliance testing
To verify whether unlabelled equipment had been tested or had merely lost its label
& to provide a record of past faults on appliances that had been recorded
Q.12. With respect to the use of portable electrical appliance in the workplace. Identify Eight examples of fault & bad practice that could contribute to electrical accidents
(8)
Answer:
Fuses.
Overloading sockets.
Checking cables.
An initial failure to select the right equipment for the job &/or environment
Inadequate user checks on the equipment before its use to ensure it was not damaged &
a lack of procedures for its regular maintenance
Misuse & abuse of the equipment by employees
Poor earth protection
The use of coiled extension cables & cables that were insufficiently protected & liable to
damage particularly in workshop or construction environments.
ELEMENT 13: FIRE – HAZARD AND CONTROL.
Q.1. a. With reference to methods of heat transfer, Explain how fire in a workplace may
spread.(8)
Answer:
Part (a) of this question was generally well answered with most candidates able to refer
to the methods of heat transfer. Several, however, found difficulty in giving a clear
explanation of how each of the methods actually contributes to the spread of fire. They
were expected to explain that heat can be transferred through metal beams or other
parts of a structure by conduction; it can be carried by rising air currents (convection) to
cause a build-up of hot gases under ceilings; it can be transferred through the air by
radiation causing heating of material at a distance from a fire; and, perhaps what should
have been the most obvious, combustible material in direct contact with flames can itself
catch fire. The purist might argue that the last of these, direct burning, is simply a
combination of the other three main methods but, in fire safety terms, it is normally
treated as a method in its own right.
Q.1. b. Outline measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical
equipment. (8)
Answer:
The proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task
Pre-use inspection by the user
Establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits & sockets are not overloaded
Disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use
& ensuring that electrical motors do not overheat (e.g. by checking that vents are
uncovered)
Additional measures include the need to
Un-coil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat & protecting
cables form mechanical damage
Importantly, electrical equipment & systems should be subject to regular inspection,
testing & maintenance by competent persons, This should ensure, for instance, that
contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing.
Q.1. c. Explain why water should not be used on fire involving electrical equipment and
identify TWO suitable extinguishing agents that could be used in such circumstances. (4)
Answer:
For part (c), most candidates could explain that using water on an electrical fire can lead
to electric shock since water is a good conductor of electricity. Carbon dioxide and dry
powder were correctly identified as suitable extinguishing agents where electrical
equipment is involved but references to halon were discounted due to the fact that its
use has been banned.
Q.2. Outline the requirements to ensure the safe evacuation of persons from a building in the
event of fire. (8)
(0r)
In relation to a workplace fire risk assessment, Outline the issues that should be taken
into account when assessing the means of escape. (8)
Answer:
A good answer to this question would have included an outline of requirements such as:
the means for raising the alarm; an acceptable distance to the nearest available exit;
escape routes of sufficient width; clear signing of escape routes; the provision of
emergency lighting; escape routes kept clear of obstructions with fire doors closed to
prevent the spread of smoke; the provision of fire-fighting equipment; the appointment of
fire marshals; procedures for the evacuation of those with a physical impairment (in
relation to hearing sight or mobility); and the need to practice the evacuation plan at
regular intervals.
This question was generally well answered though there were a few candidates who
were content to rely on the well rehearsed "carry out a risk assessment" while a few who
had not read the question with sufficient care, provided lengthy answers on the action to
be taken in the event of fire rather than on the requirements for ensuring safe
evacuation.
Q.3. With respect to the handling of flammable solvents in a workshop, outline types of
inadequate working practices that could increase the risk of a fire or explosion. (8)
Answer:
Leaving containers of flammable solvent open on the shop floor or work benches
Leaving flammable liquids in direct sunlight
Failing to use the exhaust ventilation provided resulting in a build up of vapour
Decanting solvents into unsuitable containers such as those made from plastic
Failing to introduce & then to adhere to an adequate procedure for dealing with spillages
Failing to introduce procedures for the disposal of empty containers
& the control of flammable waste & allowing larger quantities of solvents than where
necessary to be brought into the area.
Q.4. Outline the factors to consider when carrying out a fire risk assessment of a workplace. (8)
Answer:
Possible ignition sources, the quantities of flammable & combustible materials
The siting & testing of detectors & call-points
The siting, suitability of alarms
The means of contacting the emergency services
The siting, suitability & maintenance of fire extinguishers, sprinkler systems
Training of personnel in the use of fire extinguishers
The adequacy of emergency signs
The provision & testing of emergency lighting
The number of people to be evacuated &particular groups at risk
The adequacy of the escape routes & staff training in evacuation procedures.
Q.5. a. Explain, using a suitable sketch the significance of the “Fire triangle”. (4) (Or)
Explain using a suitable sketch the meaning of the term “Fire triangle” (4)
Answer:
Fuel.
Oxygen.
& a source of ignition.
That must be present for combustion to occur.
Q.5. b. List the type of ignition source that may cause a fire to occur, & give an example of
Each type (4) (Or)
List Four types of ignition source that may cause a fire occur, & give an example of
EACH type (4)
Answer:
1. Electricity, from arcing or from overheating due to faulty wiring, poor connections, excess
current etc
2. Chemical reactions
3. Hot work such as welding or cutting; discarded smoking materials
4. Friction caused by, for instance, inadequate lubrication of machinery
5. Hot surfaces such as those on cooking or heating appliances
6. & sparks from static electricity.
Q.6. Identify Two methods of heat transfer & explain how Each method can contribute to
the spread of fire in work premises (4) (Or) Identify Four methods of heat transfer & explain how Each can cause the spread of fire (8)
Answer:
The four methods of heat transfer that should have been identified are:
Conduction.
Heat can be transferred through metal beams or other parts of a structure.
Convection.
It can be carried by rising air currents to cause a build-ip of hot gases under ceilings.
Radiation.
It can be radiated through the air causing heating of material at a distance from a fire.
& direct burning.
The most obvious method, combustible material in direct contact with flames can itself
catch fire.
Q..7. List Eight ways of reducing the risk of fire starting in a workplace (8)
Answer:
The control of smoking & smoking materials, good housekeeping to prevent the
accumulation of waste paper & other combustible materials
Regular lubrication of machinery
Frequent inspection of electrical equipment for damage
Ensuring ventilation outlets on equipment are not obstructed
Controlling hot work
Security measures to prevent arson
The provision of proper storage facilities for flammable liquids
& the segregation of incompatible chemicals
.
Q.8. a. Outline The various ways in which a person might be harmed by a fire in work
premises (4)
Answer:
In a fire situation, people may be harmed by
Being burned
By inhaling toxic fumes
By the effects of smoke
By depleted oxygen supply
By falling parts of a building
or by being crushed or suffering some other type of injury in an attempt to escape
Q.8. b. Outline The additional measures that may be required to ensure the safe evacuation
in the event of a fire of employees with a range of physical impairments (4)
Answer:
The provision of aural & visual alarms for those employees with impaired vision or
hearing.
The positioning of the disabled within the workplace to facilitate their evacuation.
The provision of a dedicated lift or where appropriate or purpose-built evacuation chairs.
Ensuring that doorways & passageways are sufficiently wide to accommodate
wheelchairs & that ramps are positioned where necessary.
& the need to provide training in the evacuation procedures for those involved (both the
disabled persons & the able-bodied persons given responsibility for them) coupled with
practices at regular intervals.
Q.9. a. Explain Two ways in which electricity can cause a fire at work (2)
Answer:
The two principal ways in which electricity might cause a fire are:
Sparking or arcing, caused by a short circuit or loose connection
& from overheating cables or equipment as a result of overloading
The use of incorrect fuses or coiling of the cable
Sparks from static electricity created a third possibility
Q.9. b. Outline the various ways in which a fire in work premises may cause harm to persons
within a building (6)
Answer:
In a fire situation, people may be harmed by:
Being burned
By inhaling toxic fumes
By the effects of smoke
By depleted oxygen supply
By falling parts of a building
Or by being crushed or suffering some other type of injury in an attempt to escape
Q.10. In relation to the classification of fire, give an example of material (fuel) that falls within
Each of the classes of A, B,C & D (4)
Answer:
Class A: these are fire involving solids materials, normally of an organic nature, such as
paper, wood, coal and natural fibres. These fires usually produce burning ember.
Class B: these are fire involving flammable liquids solids, such as petrol, oil, grease, fats and
paint.
Class C: These are fire involving gases or liquefied gases, such as methane, propane,
and mains gas.
Class D: These are fires where the fuel is a metal such as aluminium, sodium,
potassium or magnesium.
Q.11. a. Identify Two ways in which an alarm can be raised in the event of a fire in a workplace (2)
Answer:
Automatic methods such as smoke detectors.
& manually operated devices such as break glass alarms.
Q.11. b. Outline the issues to consider in the selection & siting of portable fire extinguishers (6)
(Or)
Outline the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers (4)
Answer:
Accessibility
Visibility
Proximity to exits & escape routes
The means of supporting the equipment off the ground & free from obstruction
& the need to protect extinguishers from the weather & other sources of damage.
Q.11. c. Outline suitable arrangements for the inspection & maintenance of fire extinguishers in
the workplace (4)
Answer:
Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (perhaps monthly) visual
checks to ensure that the extinguishers are in place, have not been discharged & bear no obvious damage.
Maintenance, on the other hand, is something rather more extensive & usually involves an
annual examination & test by a competent person according to the manufacturers
instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher
With the removal & replacement of equipment found to be faulty & the date of the
examination recorded on the extinguisher.
Q.12. Outline the benefits of undertaking regular fire drills in the workplace (8)
Answer:
Satisfying a legal requirement, or one specified in a fire certificate, to provide instruction
to employees on the action to be taken in emergency situations
Checking that the alarm can be heard in all parts of the premises
Testing the effectiveness of the evacuation procedures both generally & in relation to
specific requirements (such as the need to ensure the safety of disabled employees &
visitors)
Familiarizing employees (particularly those new to the undertaking) with the
Alarms
Evacuation procedures
Escape routes
& assembly points
So that, in the case of a real emergency, they would know the actions to be taken
& providing an opportunity for fire wardens & others with specific functions to practice
their designated roles
Q.13. Outline the issues that should be included in a training programme for employees on the
emergency action to be taken in the event of fire (8)
Answer:
Recognition of fire alarms & the actions to be taken
Meaning of emergency signs
Location of fire escape routes & assembly points
Requirements for safe evacuation (e.g. non-use of lifts, no running, etc)
Location & operation of call points & other means of raising the alarm
Location & use of fire-fighting equipment
Consideration of people with special needs
& the identity & role of fire marshals
Q.14. With respect to the design features of a building
a. Identify Two types of emergency warning systems that can be installed in the
building to ensure that all employees can be made aware of the need to evacuate the
building (2)
Answer:
An audible system (such as a klaxton or rotary hand bell dependent upon the nature &
size of the building)
& a visual system foe those with hearing deficiency
A more elaborate system would
Combine both & use different coloured lights or different sound
Indicate the nature of the current emergency
& the action to be taken by employees
Q.14. b. Outline Six structural measure that can help to prevent the spread of fire & smoke (6)
Answer:
There is a wide range of building design features that are intended to afford protection
against the spread of smoke & flame including for example
The provision of protection for structural steelwork
The treatment of timber with a fire retardant
The use of fire resistant materials in the construction of walls, floors & doors, & the
provision of resisting closures to stairways & lift shafts
Compartmentation of large areas
Fire doors which were self closing in the event of a fire & fitted with intumescent strips
The installation of fire resistant partitions in interconnected voids in roofs
& ceilings & fire dampers or breaks in ducting
& the provision of automatic roof vents
ELEMENT 14: CHEMICAL & BIOLOGICAL HEALTH HAZARD AND CONTROL.
Q.1. A Company produces a range of solid and liquid wastes, both hazardous and non -
hazardous.
Outline the arrangements that should be in place to ensure the safe storage of the
wastes prior to their collection and disposal. (8)
Answer:
The completion of risk assessments that address the nature, properties & quantities of the
wastes likely to be stored
Minimizing the quantities stored by organizing regular collections
Ensuring the separation of incompatible wastes
Providing appropriate means for containing the wastes in secure storage vehicles (e.g.
protected against un-authorized persons, weather, vehicles etc)
Installing & maintaining fire protection & fire-fighting systems in case of flammable or
combustible wastes
Installing bunds & drawing up procedures to deal with spillages that might present environmental risks
Providing safe means of transport & access to the storage site
Ensuring that wastes are correctly identified & that warning signs are in place where
appropriate
Training employees in the precautions to be taken
& ensuring that they are provided with, & use, appropriate PPE, such as gloves, overalls & eye protection
Q.2. A person is employed to lay carpet tiles using a solvent based adhesive. In relation to the
use of the adhesive in such circumstances:
(Or)
A furniture factory uses solvent-based adhesives in its manufacturing process
a. Identify the possible effects on health (4) (Or)
Identify the possible effects on health of employees using the adhesives (4)
Answer:
Irritation of eyes
Skin & lungs
Dermatitis
Headacheas
Nausea & dizziness
The more able candidates also referred to
The psychological effects of exposure to the adhesive
With the possible secondary effect of an increased risk of accidents
Q.2. b. Outline the control measures that should be considered. (4) (Or)
State Four Control measure to minimize such health effects (4)
Answer:
Discontinuing the use of the adhesive or introducing a less toxic alternative
Minimizing the use of the product or limiting the surface area of application
Providing ventilation for the area where the adhesive is to be used
Introducing good housekeeping & work procedures (e.g. to ensure that containers are
not left open)
Providing suitable personal protective equipment
Ensuring good standards of personal hygiene
& providing information, instruction & training for the employees
Q.3. An engineering company has noticed a recent increase in work-related ill health amongst
the shop floor workers who use a degreasing solvent for which a “Workplace Exposure
Limit” (WEL) has been assigned
a. Explain the meaning of the term WEL (2)
Answer:
This is concerned with concentrations of hazardous substances in the air that people breathe averaged over a specified period of time & referred to as a time weighted average
Two time periods are used
Long term (8 hours) intended to control effects by restricting the total intake by inhalation
over one or more work shifts
& short term (usually 15 minutes) to control effects that may be seen after a brief exposure
Q.3. b. Give possible reasons for the increase in work-related ill-health amongst the shop floor
workers. (6)
Answer:
An important reason for the increase in work related ill-health might have been the
inadequacy of the original risk assessment carried out for the operation or a subsequent
increase in the frequency & duration of the exposure of employees
Additionally, the original degreasing solvent might have been replaced by a new solvent
for which no risk assessment had been carried out
Other reasons would include
Failure to carry out health screening of new employees or to give them adequate training
on the precautions to be observed
An increase in the quantity or concentration of the solvent
An inadequate or poorly maintained LEV system
& a failure to carry out regular monitoring to ensure the work exposure limit was not
exceeded
Q.4. An employee is engaged in general cleaning activities in a large veterinary practice
a. Identify Four specific types of hazard that the cleaner might face when undertaking
the cleaning (4)
Answer:
Cleaning fluids
Manual handling
Slips/trips/falls & sharp objects
& those associated with the working environment
Such as biological hazards
Contact with animals
& those arising from the use of specialised equipment
Q.4. b. Outline the precautions that could be taken to minimize the risk of harm from these
hazards (4)
Answer:
The provision & use of personal protective equipment (including overalls & gloves)
The introduction of a procedure for handling & disposal of sharps
The need for animals to be kept in secure enclosures
& the possible need for immunisation against diseases known to be transmitted by
animals
Employee would need specific training
Q.5. a. List Four respiratory diseases that could be caused by exposure to dust at work (4)
Answer:
1. Asbestosis
2. Silicosis
3. Asthma
4. Bronchitis
5. & cancer of the lung or other part of the respiratory system
Q.5. b. Identify the possible indications of a dust problem in a workplace (4)
Answer:
Visible signs of dust (in the air or deposited on surfaces or clothes)
& complaints of discomfort by employees
Other examples could have included cases of
Impaired health linked to exposure (possibly detected by health or medical surveillance)
The results of workplace monitoring
& problems associated with plant & equipment such as blocked filters
Q.6. a. Describe how the body may defend itself against the harmful effects of airborne dust (6)
Answer:
Coughing & sneezing.
Filtering effect of nasal hairs & to the role of the mucus in the respiratory tract & bronchi,
which allows dust particles to be trapped & then carried upwards by tiny hairs (Cillia)
Fine dust particles reaching the bronchioles may be subject to the engulfing action of
scavenging cells (macrophages) & absorbed into the blood stream, or causing the eyes
to “water” & dust particles to be removed
Q.6. b. Outline, using practical examples where appropriate, the control measures that may
be used to reduce levels of dust in a work environment (10)
Answer:
Elimination (e.g. by introducing pre-formed components or outsourcing the dusty
operation)
Substitution (e.g. of powder by granules, liquid or paste)
Isolation of the process in a separate room
Enclosure (in a glove box, for instance)
The provision of LEV
& suppression by damping down & carrying out cleaning operations by vacuuming rather
than sweeping
Q.7. A factory uses small quantities of various chemicals which are obtained from & returned
to a central storeroom.
a. Identify Four possible routes of entry of toxic substances into the body &, in Each
case, describe a circumstance in which the storeroom staff might be at risk of such
exposure (8)
Answer:
Inhalation
Ingestion
Absorption
Injection
For instance
Inhalation in relation to spillage & the build up of vapours, ingestion due to poor personal
hygiene practices
Absorption through the skin as a result of inadequate personal protective equipment or
uncovered wounds
& infection from the use of damaged, broken or unsuitable containers for handling the
toxic substance
Q.7. b. Outline the factors to consider when assessing the health risks to storeroom staff from
handling the chemicals (4)
Answer:
Degree of toxicity of the substances used
The methods of work adopted (which may determine the routes of entry)
The possible duration & frequency of exposures
& an assessment of the effectiveness of existing control measures
Q.7. c. Outline the control measures that might be required in order to minimize the risk to the
health of those working in the storeroom (8)
Answer:
The use of suitable containers for the chemicals & the methods for handling them
The provision of ventilation & appropriate personal protective equipment
Procedures for dealing with spillage
The introduction of site rules to ensure personal hygiene
& the provision of information & training to the staff involved
Q.8. Outline the precautions necessary for the safe storage & handling of small containers
containing flammable solvents (8)
Answer:
The removal of potential sources of ignition from the site of the operation
The provision of adequate ventilation
limiting the quantity of solvent in use at any one time
Clear marking of containers
Ensuring that suitable fire-fighting equipment is in place
The provision of personal protective equipment such as gloves, & eye & respiratory
protection
& ensuring that operatives are informed of, & trained in, the procedures for the safe use
of solvents, especially those concerned with the cleaning of brushes & disposal of rags.
Q.9. Outline the factors to be considered when making an assessment of first-aid provision in
the workplace (8)
Answer:
Number & distribution of employees
The hazards & associated risks in the workplace
The distance of the workplace from the nearest emergency hospital
The need to provide cover for shift work, staff holidays & sickness
& the possibility of cooperating with other employers in shared premises
Q.10. Identify the TWO main functions of first-aid (2)
Answer:
Firstly, the preservation of life &/or the minimisation of the consequences of serious
injury
&, secondly, the treatment of minor injuries that do not need medical attention
Q.11. Identify Four possible routes of entry of toxic substance in the body &, in Each case
Describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure (8)
Answer:
Inhalation, ingestion, through the skin & by injection.
Inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (e.g. welding)
or accidentally (e.g. spillage)
Ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (e.g. eating or smoking without first
washing the hands)
Entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (e.g.
solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin
& injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects
12. Question.
a. Outline the factors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in the
workplace (8)
Answer:
Ill-health & absence records
First-aid treatments
Complaints from employees
The findings of risk assessments
The results of inspections or monitoring activities
Changes in methods of work
& the relevant requirements of current legislation & approved codes of practice.
Q.13. a. Explain the term “respirable dust” (2)
Answer:
Respirable dust is an atmospheric dust of a particular particle size range that enables it
to enter the lungs during respiration.
Q.13. b. Outline the ways in which the levels of dust in a workplace can be assessed (6)
Answer:
Qualitative ways of assessing dust levels (e.g. visual examination of the accumulation of
dust on surfaces or the use of a dust lamp to highlight sources of dust emission) &
quantitative methods (sampling methods or direct reading instruments)
As far as sampling is concerned, the basic sampling strategies (personal versus fixed or
area sampling) & the principle of assessing the concentration of airborne dust by noting
the weight difference of a pre-weighted filter after a known quantity of contaminated air is
drawn through it.
Q.14. Outline the health & safety risks associated with welding operations (8)
Answer:
Electric shock
Tripping over trailing cables or pipes
Injuries from the handling of cylinders
& the problems associated with oxygen enrichment leading to an increased risk of fire &
/or explosion
Fume inhalation
Damage to the eyes from UV light
Burns to the skin
& the increased risk of fire from hot materials or sparks.
Q.15. a. Define the term “target organ” within the context of occupational health (2)
Answer:
“The organ/s of the human body upon which a toxic material exerts its effec ts”.
Q.15. b. Outline the personal hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce risk of
ingestion of hazardous substance (6)
Answer:
Washing hands before eating
The avoidance of eating
Drinking & smoking in the workplace
Utilizing facilities for contaminated clothing
Appropriate use of gloves
& avoiding hand-to-mouth contact.
Q.16. a. Identify possible routes of entry of biological organisms into the body (4)
Answer:
Inhalation
Injection
Entry through broken skin
Exchange of body fluids
& Ingestion
Q.16. b. Outline the control measures that could be used to reduce the risk of infection from
biological organisms (4)
Answer:
Cleaning & disinfecting
PPE
Engineering controls (such as containment & the use of microbiological safety cabinets)
Vermin control, good personal hygiene & immunisation.
Q.17. For Each of the following types of hazardous substance Give an example & state its
primary effect on the body.
i. Toxic (2)
ii. Corrosive (2)
iii. Carcinogenic (2)
iv. Irritant (2)
Answer:
Toxic substance examples are Lead, Mercury, or pesticides. The primary effects are
Corrosive substances, are strong acids or alkalis, which cause the destruction of living
tissue at the point of contact (e.g. skin, respiratory tract or digestive tract)
Carcinogenic substances can cause cancer & the part of the body normally affected
(e.g. the lungs for asbestos & the nasal membrane for chromium).
Irritants cause inflammation on contact with the skin, eyes or mucous membranes, &
adhesives & detergents are prime examples of this type of substance.
Q.18. a. Identify Two respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos (2)
Answer :
Asbestosis
mesothelioma or lung cancer
Q.18. b. Identify where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work (6)
Answer :
Pipe lagging
Roofing materials
Loft & wall insulation
Sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders)
& the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels & textured finishes
The possibility of Gaskets, Packing & plugs made of asbestos-containing materials.
Q.19. a. Identify the Three types of asbestos commonly found in buildings (3)
Answer:
White (chrysotile)
Brown (amosite)
& blue (crocidolite)
Q.19. b. Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work (5)
Answer:
Pipe lagging
Ceiling tiles
Asbestos cement roof & wall sheets
Sprayed asbestos coatings on structural members
Loft & wall insulation
& asbestos rope & gaskets
Q.20. Outline the precautions to ensure the health & safety of persons engaged in paint –
spraying in a motor vehicle repair shop (8)
Answer:
Segregation of the activity, typically by means of a a spray booth fitted with local exhaust
ventilation & protected electrical equipment
Suitable storage & fire precautions for flammable paints & solvents
The provision & use of personal protective equipment (clothing, respiratory protection etc)
Monitoring employee’s exposure to airborne substances
Ensuring the examination & maintenance of control measures
Providing appropriate training to employees
& maintaining welfare & hygiene facilities
Q.21. a. For Each of the following agents Outline the principle health effects And identify a
typical workplace situation in which a person might be exposed.
i. Carbon monoxide (2)
ii. Asbestos (2)
iii. Legionella bacteria (2)
iv. Hepatitis Virus (2)
Answer:
Carbon monoxide:
The principal effects from exposure to carbon monoxide are headaches, drowsiness &
possible asphyxiation
Exposure could occur when working near a vehicle exhaust in an unventilated area (e.g.
vehicle repair premises or underground car park) or to a boiler with a defective flue
Asbestos:
Exposure to asbestos may cause asbestosis (a fibrotic disease of the lung), lung cancer
or mesothelioma (cancer of the lining of the lung).
Those at risk include persons engaged in maintenance or demolition work where
asbestos is contained in the fabric of the building.
Legionella bacteria:
Legionella bacteria for, may cause legionellosis, which is characterised by flu-like
symptoms, pneumonia &, in about 15% of cases, death.
Any workplace has untreated water tanks & systems from which water droplets may be
released into the atmosphere (e.g. from air-conditioning systems or cooling towers)
poses a risk to those in the vicinity
Hepatitis Virus:
hepatitis virus affects the liver & may result in Jaundice, Fever, Abdominal pain &,
ultimately, liver failure
Any workplace situation that exposes people to infected persons or to used hypodermic
needles presents a particular risk of the disease
The hepatitis A virus, which is normally less serious, is transmitted via the mouth;
hepatitis B & C via the blood
Q.22. a. For Each of the following agents Outline the principle health effects And identify a
typical workplace situation in which a person might be exposed.
i. Isocynates (2)
ii. Asbestos (2)
iii. Legionella bacteria (2)
iv. Lead (2)
Answer:
Isocynates:
Isocyanates are a respiratory sensitizer & may also cause dermatitis
Persons carrying out work involving the use of isocyanate-based printing inks, adhesives
or paints would be at risk
Asbestos:
Exposure to asbestos may cause asbestosis (a fibrotic disease of the lung), lung cancer
or mesothelioma (cancer of the lining of the lung).
Those at risk include persons engaged in maintenance or demolition work where
asbestos is contained in the fabric of the building.
Legionella bacteria:
Legionella bacteria for, may cause legionellosis, which is characterised by flu-like
symptoms, pneumonia &, in about 15% of cases, death.
Any workplace has untreated water tanks & systems from which water droplets may be
released into the atmosphere (e.g. from air-conditioning systems or cooling towers)
poses a risk to those in the vicinity
Lead:
A heavy, soft and easily worked metal.
Nausea, headaches, nervous system, death.
Batteries, plumbing and roofing work.
Q.23. a. Describe the difference between “acute” & “chronic” health effects. (4)
Answer:
Acute health effects, the adverse effects appear after a single or short term exposure to
the agent, & the response is invariably rapid or immediate
In most cases, acute effects recede on cessation of exposure (the obvious exception
being death)
Chronic health effects, on the other hand, usually result from prolonged or repeated
exposure to the agent
The response is normally gradual, often progressive & irreversible, & may go
unrecognized for long periods of time
Q.23. b. Identify the factors that could affect the level of harm experienced by an employee
exposed to a toxic substance. (4)
Answer:
The route of entry of the toxic substance into the body
& the associated mode of exposure (e.g. contact, inhalation etc)
The concentration
Physical state
& toxicity of the substance
The level, duration & frequency of exposure
The effectiveness of the control measures in place
& the personal factors such as the age, gender, health status & susceptibilities of those exposed
Q.24. In relation to the spillage of a toxic substance from a ruptured drum stored in a
warehouse.
a. Identify Three ways in which persons working in close vicinity to the spillage might be
harmed. (3) Answer:
Skin or eye contact
Inhalation of fumes or particles
& ingestion.
Q.24. b. Outline a procedure to be adopted in the event of such a spillage. (5)
Answer:
Isolation of the area & evacuation of employees at risk
The provision of bunding to contain the spillage
The issue of appropriate personal protective equipment to those involved in carrying out the
procedure
Contact with the emergency services
& the safe disposal of the spilled substance & any absorbent material used.
Q.25. a. Draw a labeled sketch that shows the main components of local exhaust ventilation (LEV)
system. (5)
Answer:
Hood.
Ducting
Air Cleaning device.
Fan & exhaust
outlet.
Q.25. b. Outline the statutory requirements for the examination & testing of an LEV system. (3)
Answer:
Under Regulation 9 of the COSHH Regulations 2002, LEV plant must be thoroughly examined & tested at least once every 14 months, or more often when used with certain
specified processes
Records of such examination & testing, & any repairs carried out as a result, must be kept for
at least 5 years
Employer’s general duty to maintain plant & equipment in a good state of repair under
section 2 of the HASAWA 1974.
Q.26. A local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system is used to extract welding fume from the working
environment in a fabrication workshop..
a. Outline the factors that might reduce the effectiveness of the LEV system.(6) (Or)
Outline the factors that may reduce the effectiveness of local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system. (8)
Answer:
Damage to the system
Blocked or incorrect filters.
& fan efficiency.
Process changes
Unauthorized alterations
Incorrect use (e.g. failure to position hoods on flexible ducting correctly)
& the failure to provide a system of regular maintenance, inspection & testing
Q.26. b. Identify the possible effect that the use of the LEV system may have in the local &
wider environment. (2)
Answer:
Air born pollutants into the atmosphere.
Noise, Odour & the disposal of solid waste from the filter.
Q.27. a. List the elements of a hierarchy for the control of airborne contaminants.(6)
Answer:
The first method to be considered would be the Elimination of the substance or its
substitution for something less harmful
This would be followed by consideration of the possibility of reducing exposures by
introducing changes to working methods, such as the use of a brush instead of a spray,
or to work patterns
The next controls to be considered would be the segregation or enclosure of the process
& the provision of local exhaust ventilation
The final control measure would be the provision & use of personal protective equipment
Q.27. b. Outline Two reasons why a cartridge- type respiratory may in practice fail to provide a
sufficient level of protection. (2)
Answer:
Identified as a reason the possible poor fit of the respirator. Either because of the use of
other personal protective equipment at the same time or the presence of facial hair.
The use of an incorrect cartridge for the particular contaminant.
The cartridge itself not being properly fitted.
Failure to change the cartridge at appropriate intervals.
& inadequate storage facilities for the respirator leading to damage or contamination.
Q.28. Occupational health hazards can be classed as chemical, physical, biological &
ergonomic.
a. Give an example of a specific workplace health hazard for EACH class.(6)
Answer:
Physical hazards Examples: Noise, Vibration, or Radiation.
Chemical hazards Examples: Asbestos, Lead, Mercury & Organic Solvents.
Biological hazards Examples: HIV Virus, Legionella, Bacteria.
Ergonomics Hazards: Posture Problems, Fatigue, Work related upper limb disorder
(WRULDs), poorly designed workstation.
Q.28. b. State the primary health effect of exposure to EACH of the examples given in part (a). (4)
Answer:
Asbestos with asbestosis.
Noise with noise – induced hearing loss.
Legionella bacteria with legionellosis.
& repetitive task with WRULDs.
Q.29. An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main
cause of excessive dust levels in a workplace.
a. Identify Four possible indications of a dust problem that may alerted staff of the
inefficiency of the LEV system. (6)
Answer:
Deposits of dust on people & surfaces.
Particles visible in the air.
Complaints of discomfort & irritation by the employees.
& Results of air monitoring or actual ill – health effects.
Q.29. b. Outline the factors that may have reduce the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8)
Answer:
Poor design & a lack of maintenance &/or periodic testing.
& the more immediate factors.
Such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission.
Damaged or blocked filters.
Unauthorized alteration to the system.
Incorrect settings.
A faulty fan.
& possible changes to the process leading to increased dust emissions.
Q.29. c. Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimize levels of
airborne dust (8)
Answer:
The cessation of the activity creating the dust.
Changing the process to reduce the amount of dust produced.
Substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form.
Segregating or enclosing the process.
& damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum.
Q30. a. Explain the meaning of the terms:
i. “Occupational exposure standards” (OES). (2)
ii. “Maximum exposure Limits” (MEL). (2)
b. Identify FOUR duties place on employers by the Control of Substances Hazardous to
Health (COSHH) Regulations 1999. (4)
Answer:
An “occupational exposure standard” (OES) is the concentration of an airborne
substance, averaged over a reference period of usually either 8 hours or 15 minutes, at
which there is currently no evidence of injurious effect
Inhalation exposure should not be above this level & any excursions that may occur
should be identified & remedied as soon as is reasonably practicable.
A “maximum exposure limit” (MEL), on the other hand, is the maximum airborne
concentration of a particular substance to which a worker may be exposed
An MEL must never be exceeded & the aim must be to reduce exposure to a level as far below
the MEL as is reasonably practicable
Substances are assigned an MEL when it is considered that control at a safe limit is not
reasonably practicable or where no safe limit can be determined (e.g. carcinogens) Part (b)
Preventing or controlling employees’ exposure
Ensuring the proper use of control measures
The examination, testing & maintenance of control measures
Monitoring exposure at the workplace
Health surveillance where appropriate
& the provision of information, instruction & training to those exposed to hazardous
substances.
Q31. a. Describe the typical symptoms of occupational dermatitis (2)
Answer:
Reddening
Blistering
& cracking of the skin
Infection or ulceration
Q31. b. Identify the factors that will influence the likelihood of dermatitis occurring in workers
handling dermatitis substances. (6)
Answer:
The nature of the agent
Concentration levels
& the duration & frequency of exposure
Cuts & abrasions (which would allow chemicals to be absorbed more readily)
Existing skin conditions
The type of skin & its sensitivity
The specific site of skin contact
Poor personal hygiene
& the misuse or non-use of protective measures
Q.32. In relation to occupational dermatitis.
a. Identify Two common causative agents (2)
Answer:
Acids
Alkalis
Detergents
Mineral oils
Organic solvents
Or metal salts
& a variety of specific substances such as latex & wet cement.
Q.32. b. Describe the typical symptoms of the condition (2)
Answer:
Reddening of the skin
Soreness
Itchiness
Flaking
Cracking & bleeding with possible infection & ulceration
The areas of the skin most likely to be affected are between the fingers & sensitive parts
such as the forearms
The actual site affected will, of course, depend on the parts of the body in contact with
the substance
Q.32. c. Outline specific measures designed to prevent the occurrence of occupational
dermatitis(4)
Answer:
A change of process or a substitution of the material or substance being used
A reduction in exposure
The provision of PPE (gloves, aprons, etc)
The use of barrier & after-work creams
The provision of adequate washing facilities with employees being encouraged to
improve their standards of personal hygiene
& the provision of information, instruction & training on the causes & prevention of
dermatitis
Q.33. a. Outline the health & safety risks associated with welding (8)
Answer:
Electric shock
Tripping over trailing cables or pipes
Injuries from handling cylinders
& the problems associated with oxygen enrichment leading to an increased risk of fire
&/or explosion
Fume inhalation
Damage to the eyes from UV light
Burns to the skin
& the increased risk of fire from hot materials or sparks
Q.34. A shoe repairer is required to trim soles by hand after gluing them on to shoes with a
solvent- based adhesive. (Or)
A fitter is employed to lay carpet tiles in new premises using a solvent based adhesive. In
relation to the use of the adhesive in such circumstances.
a. Identify the possible effects on health (4)
Answer:
Skin & eye irritation
Dermatitis
Headaches
Nausea & dizziness
With possible & more serious effects such as narcosis & loss of consciousness
Q.34. b. Outline the measures to minimize the health risk from these tasks (8)
(Or)
Outline the control measures that should be considered (4)
Answer:
The possible substitution of the adhesive for a less toxic or volatile one
Ventilation of the working area
Using the minimum amount of the substance for the job
Adhering to good housekeeping procedures (e.g. keeping lids on containers & avoiding
contaminated rags)
The use of a respirator & other PPE
Good personal hygiene
& the provision of information, instruction & training to the f itter
Q.35. Identify the information that should be included on a hazard data sheet supplied with a
