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Practice Chemistry A Final Exam

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The state of matter in which a material has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is the _____ state.a. gaseous c. elementalb. liquid d. solid

2. Under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure, the particles in a gas area. closely packed. c. held in fixed positions.b. very far from each other. d. unevenly distributed.

3. Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen, both colorless gases, form a red-brown gas when mixed. Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen are called thea. products. c. synthetics.b. equilibria. d. reactants.

4. Matter includes all of the following excepta. air. c. smoke.b. light. d. water vapor.

5. A measure of the quantity of matter isa. density. c. volume.b. weight. d. mass.

6. Quantitative observations are recorded usinga. numerical information. c. non-numerical information.b. a control. d. a system.

7. Which of the following does not describe a unit?a. A unit compares what is being measured with a previously defined size.b. A unit is usually preceded by a number.c. A unit is not needed to find a solution to a problem.d. The choice of unit depends on the quantity being measured.

8. All of the following are examples of units excepta. weight. c. gram.b. kilometer. d. teaspoon.

9. The only pure substance listed below isa. bread dough. c. vitamin C (ascorbic acid).b. vinegar (5% acetic acid). d. seawater.

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10. The homogeneous mixture in the illustration above is in containera. a. c. c.b. b. d. d.

11. A chemical formula for a molecular compound represents the composition ofa. a molecule. c. the ions that make up the compound.b. an atom. d. the crystal lattice.

12. Which part of the illustration above shows the particles in a heterogeneous mixture?a. a c. cb. b d. d

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13. The energy that results from the breaking or formation of chemical bonds isa. temperature. c. chemical energy.b. potential energy. d. kinetic energy.

14. “In any chemical or physical process, energy is neither created nor destroyed” is a statement of thea. law of conservation of energy. c. law of physical and chemical change.b. law of conservation of mass. d. system.

15. There are _____ variables represented in the weather graphs.a. four c. sixb. five d. seven

16. A theory is an accepted explanation of an observed phenomenon untila. one study conflicts with the theory.b. repeated data and observation conflict with the theory.c. scientists disagree about the research method used to gather data.d. an eminent scientist feels that it is inadequate.

17. Expressed in scientific notation, 0.0930 m isa. 93 × 10–3 m. c. 9.30 × 10–2 m.b. 9.3 × 10–3 m. d. 9.30 × 10–4 m.

18. When 6.02 × 1023 is multiplied by 9.1 × 10–31, the product isa. 5.5 × 10–8. c. 5.5 × 10–7.b. 5.5 × 1054. d. 5.5 × 10–53.

19. Who first proposed an atomic theory based on scientific knowledge?a. John Dalton c. Robert Brownb. Jons Berzelius d. Dmitri Mendeleev

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20. Which part of an atom has a mass approximately equal to 1 2000 of the mass of a common hydrogen atom?a. nucleus c. protonb. electron d. electron cloud

21. The mass of a neutron isa. about the same as that of a proton. c. double that of a proton.b. about the same as that of an electron. d. double that of an electron.

22. The nucleus of most atoms is composed ofa. tightly packed protons.b. tightly packed neutrons.c. tightly packed protons and neutrons.d. loosely connected protons and electrons.

23. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number isa. 13. c. 27.b. 14. d. 40.

24. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have differenta. principal chemical properties. c. numbers of protons.b. masses. d. numbers of electrons.

25. Atoms of the same element that have different masses are calleda. moles. c. nuclides.b. isotopes. d. neutrons.

26. Isotopes of an element contain different numbers ofa. electrons. c. neutrons.b. protons. d. nuclides.

27. If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the electrons are in theira. ground states. c. excited states.b. inert states. d. radiation-emitting states.

28. For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,a. energy must be released.b. energy must be absorbed.c. radiation must be emitted.d. the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.

29. Most of the volume of an atom is occupied by thea. nucleus. c. electron cloud.b. nuclides. d. protons.

30. The letter designations for the first four sublevels, with the number of electrons that can be accommodated in each sublevel area. s: 1, p: 3, d: 10, and f: 14. c. s: 2, p: 6, d: 10, and f: 14.b. s: 1, p: 3, d: 5, and f: 7. d. s: 1, p: 2, d: 3, and f: 4.

31. The number of orbitals for the d sublevel isa. 1. c. 5.b. 3. d. 7.

32. The statement that an electron occupies the lowest available energy orbital isa. Hund’s rule. c. Bohr’s law.b. the aufbau principle. d. the Pauli exclusion principle.

33. “Orbitals of equal energy are each occupied by one electron before any is occupied by a second electron, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals must have the same spin” is a statement ofa. the Pauli exclusion principle. c. the quantum effect.b. the aufbau principle. d. Hund’s rule.

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34. The statement that no more than two electrons in the same atom can occupy a single orbital isa. the Pauli exclusion principle. c. Bohr’s law.b. Hund’s rule. d. the aufbau principle.

35. Which of the following rules requires that each of the p orbitals at a particular energy level receive one electron before any of them can have two electrons?a. Hund’s rule c. the aufbau principleb. the Pauli exclusion principle d. the quantum rule

36. Two electrons in the 1s orbital must have different spin quantum numbers to satisfya. Hund’s rule. c. the Pauli exclusion principle.b. the magnetic rule. d. the aufbau principle.

37. The sequence in which energy sublevels are filled is specified bya. the Pauli exclusion principle. c. Lyman’s series.b. the orbital rule. d. aufbau principle.

38. Which is the ground-state electron configuration for 24 Cr ?a. [Ar] 4s23d4 c. [Ar] 4s33d3

b. [Ar] 4s13d5 d. [Ar] 4s43d2

39. The carbon-12 atom is assigned a relative mass of exactlya. 1 amu. c. 12 amu.b. 6 amu. d. 100 amu.

40. The abbreviation for atomic mass unit isa. amu. c. a.b. mu. d. µ.

41. Mendeleev is credited with developing the first successfula. periodic table.b. method for determining atomic number.c. test for radioactivity.d. use of X rays.

42. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similara. atomic masses. c. numbers of neutrons.b. atomic numbers. d. properties.

43. The atomic number of sodium, the first element in Period 3, is 11. The atomic number of the second element in this period isa. 3. c. 12.b. 10. d. 18.

44. Elements in a group have similara. reactivities. c. symbols.b. densities. d. electron configurations.

45. An element that has an electron configuration of [He]2s22p3 is in Period _____ of the periodic table.a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

46. An element that has an electron configuration of [Ne]3s23p3 is in Group _____ of the periodic table.a. 2 c. 6b. 3 d. 15

47. To which group of the periodic table do lithium and potassium belong?a. alkali metals c. halogensb. transition metals d. noble gases

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48. To which group of the periodic table do fluorine and chlorine belong?a. alkaline-earth metals c. halogensb. transition elements d. actinides

49. The outer electron configuration of an alkali metal hasa. 1 electron in the s orbital. c. 1 electron in the p orbital.b. 2 electrons in the s orbital. d. 2 electrons in the p orbital.

50. The elements in Group 17 are known by what name?a. halogens c. alkaline-earth metalsb. alkali metals d. noble gases

51. Transition elements are found in which of the following group(s) of the periodic table?a. Group 1 c. Groups 3–12b. Groups 1 and 2 d. Group 18

52. An element that has four electrons in its outermost d orbitals and one electron in its outermost s orbital is a member of what group in the periodic table?a. Group 1 c. Group 5b. Groups 4 d. Group 15

53. Moving from left to right across _____, electrons are being added to the 4f orbitals.a. the noble gases c. the lanthanidesb. the halogens d. Period 4

54. A property of all actinides is that they area. members of Period 7. c. nonmetals.b. radioactive. d. Both (a) and (b)

55. A metal is called malleable if ita. has a shiny appearance. c. can be squeezed out into a wire.b. can be hammered into sheets. d. exists naturally as an element.

56. A solution of two or more metals isa. an insulator. c. brittle.b. a jelly. d. an alloy.

57. Trends in the properties of elements in a group or period can be explained in terms ofa. binding energy. c. electron configuration.b. atomic number. d. electron affinity.

58. The effect of inner electrons on the attraction between the nucleus and the outer electrons of an atom is calleda. electron affinity. c. electron shielding.b. electron ionization. d. electronegativity.

59. Trends in the periodic table indicate that the element with the greatest ionization energy is in which of the following periods and groups?a. Period 2, Group 1 c. Period 1, Group 18b. Period 7, Group 2 d. Period 6, Group 17

60. One method of measuring the size of an atom involves calculating a value that is _____ the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms.a. twice c. halfb. equal to d. one-quarter

61. Going down a group in the periodic table, electron shielding generally causes the effective nuclear charge toa. increase. c. decrease.b. remain the same. d. vary unpredictably.

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62. Going across a period in the periodic table, electron shielding generally has little effect. As a result, the effective nuclear chargea. increases. c. decreases.b. remain the same. d. varies unpredictably.

63. Which is the best reason that the atomic radius generally increases with atomic number in each group of elements?a. The nuclear charge increases. c. The number of energy levels increases.b. The number of neutrons increases. d. A new octet forms.

64. For the alkaline-earth metals, atoms with the smallest radii have thea. largest atomic numbers. c. most mass.b. greatest volumes. d. highest ionization energies.

65. Trends in the periodic table indicate that an element in which of the following periods and groups will have the smallest anion (negative ion) radius?a. Period 2, Group 1 c. Period 4, Group 16b. Period 7, Group 2 d. Period 1, Group 17

66. Trends in the periodic table indicate that an element in which of the following periods and groups will have the largest cation (positive ion) radius?a. Period 7, Group 1 c. Period 4, Group 2b. Period 2, Group 2 d. Period 1, Group 17

67. Electron affinity tends toa. decrease across a period and decrease down a group.b. increase across a period and increase down a group.c. decrease across a period and increase down a group.d. increase across a period and decrease down a group.

68. Which of the following electron configurations belongs to an element that is NOT chemically reactive?a. 1s22s22p3 c. 1s22s22p5

b. 1s22s22p63s23p6 d. 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

69. In the compound sodium fluoride, NaF, the sodium atom loses one electron and the fluorine atom gains one electron to form ions that have electron configurations similar toa. helium. c. neon.b. oxygen. d. calcium.

70. In many compounds, atoms of main-group elements form ions so that the number of electrons in the outermost energy levels of each ion isa. 2. c. 8.b. 6. d. 10.

71. The electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s22s22p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to have an electron configuration similar to neon?a. 1 c. 5b. 3 d. 8

72. Atoms of copper and irona. generally form stable bonds with transition elements.b. have stable electron configurations.c. tend to form cations.d. tend to form anions.

73. An aniona. is an ion with a negative charge.b. attracts ions with negative charges.c. results when an alkaline-earth metal loses one of its two outermost electrons.d. has more protons than electrons.

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74. When the octet rule is satisfied, the outermost _____ are filled.a. d and f orbitals c. s and d orbitalsb. s and p orbitals d. d and p orbitals

75. The elements of the _____ group satisfy the octet rule without forming compounds.a. halide c. alkali metalb. noble gas d. alkaline-earth metal

76. Once an atom has full s and p orbitals in its outermost energy level,a. it is highly reactive only with alkali metals.b. it is highly reactive only with halogens.c. it can be combined with most elements.d. it has a stable octet and is unreactive.

77. An ion and its parent atom have the samea. electron configuration. c. atomic number.b. number of charges. d. chemical reactivity.

78. The energy released when a salt is formed from gaseous ions is called thea. bond energy. c. lattice energy.b. potential energy. d. energy of crystallization.

79. The lattice energy is a measure of thea. strength of an ionic bond. c. strength of a covalent bond.b. strength of a metallic bond. d. number of ions in a crystal.

80. If the lattice energy of compound A is greater than that of compound B,a. compound A is not an ionic compound.b. the bonds in compound A are stronger than the bonds in compound B.c. compound B is probably a gas.d. compound A has larger crystals than compound B.

81. When ions are formed,a. energy is always released. c. there is no net change in energy.b. energy is needed. d. energy can be released or absorbed.

82. When an electron is added to an atom,a. an input of energy is required. c. a stable octet is always formed.b. energy is usually released. d. ionic bonds are broken.

83. Which of the following is NOT a property of an ionic compound?a. low boiling point c. hardnessb. brittleness d. molten compound conducts electricity

84. Compared with ionic compounds, molecular compoundsa. have higher boiling points. c. have lower melting points.b. are brittle. d. are harder.

85. The melting points of ionic compounds are higher than the melting points of molecular compounds becausea. ionic substances tend to vaporize at room temperature.b. ionic substances are brittle.c. attractive forces between ions are greater than the attractive forces between molecules.d. None of the above

86. Because ions are more strongly attracted in an ionic compound than molecules are attracted in molecular compounds, the melting points of ionic compounds area. equal for all ionic compounds.b. lower than the melting points of molecular compounds.c. higher than the melting points of molecular compounds.d. approximately equal to room temperature.

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87. Ionic compounds are brittle because the strong attractive forcesa. allow the layers to shift easily.b. cause the compound to vaporize easily.c. keep the surface dull.d. hold the layers in relatively fixed positions.

88. In the NaCl crystal, each Na+ and Cl– ion has clustered around it _____ of the oppositely charged ions.a. 1 c. 4b. 2 d. 6

89. In a crystal of an ionic compound, each cation is surrounded bya. molecules. c. dipoles.b. positive ions. d. anions.

90. A compound that has the same number of positive and negative charges is said to bea. cationic. c. electroneutral.b. anionic. d. isoelectronic.

91. What is the ratio of cations to anions in a compound composed of sodium ions, Na+, and carbonate ions, CO32 −?

a. 1 to 1 c. 2 to 1b. 1 to 2 d. 3 to 1

92. The indium(II) ion and indium(III) iona. have the same charge.b. are polyatomic ions.c. have charges of 1+ and 2+, respectively.d. have charges of 2+ and 3+, respectively.

93. What is the metallic ion in the compound CuCl2?a. Cu2– c. Cu+

b. Cu– d. Cu2+

94. What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions, Ca2+, and chloride ions, Cl–?a. CaCl c. CaCl3

b. Ca2Cl d. CaCl2

95. The chemical formula for an ionic compound represents thea. number of atoms in each molecule.b. number of ions in each molecule.c. simplest ratio of ions that results in an electrically neutral compound.d. total number of ions in the crystal lattice.

96. The symbol HCO3– represents a

a. monatomic ion. c. polyatomic ion.b. stable compound. d. salt.

97. A comparison of calcium sulfate and calcium sulfite shows thata. both have a monatomic cation and a polyatomic anion.b. calcium sulfite has more oxygen atoms than calcium sulfate.c. only calcium sulfite contains a polyatomic anion.d. only calcium sulfate is arranged in a crystal lattice pattern.

98. What is the formula for the compound formed by lead(II) ions and chromate ions, CrO42–?

a. PbCrO4 c. Pb2(CrO4)3

b. Pb2CrO4 d. Pb(CrO4)2

99. What is the formula for the compound formed by aluminum(III) and the sulfate ion, SO42–?

a. AlSO4 c. Al2(SO4)3

b. Al2SO4 d. Al(SO4)3

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100. What is the formula for the compound formed by tin(IV) and the chromate ion, CrO42–?

a. Sn(CrO4)4 c. Sn2(CrO4)4

b. Sn2(CrO4)2 d. Sn(CrO4)2

101. What is the formula for the compound formed by the barium ion, Ba2+, and the hydroxide ion, OH–?a. BaOH c. Ba(OH)2

b. BaOH2 d. Ba(OH) 102. Name the compound Ni(ClO3)2.

a. nickel chlorate c. nickel chloriteb. nickel chloride d. nickel peroxide

103. Name the compound Zn3(PO4)2.a. zinc potassium oxide c. zinc phosphateb. trizinc polyoxide d. zinc phosphite

104. Name the compound Hg2(NO3)2.a. mercury(II) nitrate c. mercury(I) nitrateb. dimercury dinitrate d. mercuric nitrate

105. Name the compound KClO3.a. potassium chloride c. potassium chlorateb. potassium trioxychlorite d. hypochlorite

106. Name the compound Fe(NO2)2.a. iron(II) nitrate c. ferric nitrateb. iron(II) nitrite d. ferrous nitride

107. Name the compound CuCO3.a. Copper(I) carbonate c. cuprous carbideb. cupric trioxycarbide d. copper(II) carbonate

108. What is the name of Sn3(PO4)4?a. stannous phosphate c. tin(III) phosphateb. tin(IV) phosphate d. tin(II) phosphate

109. The name of a polyatomic ion that contains hydrogen begins with the terma. hypo-. c. hydrogen.b. thio-. d. per-.

110. The electrons involved in the formation of a covalent bond area. transferred from one atom to another. c. valence electrons.b. found only in the s-orbitals. d. in filled orbitals.

111. The chemical bond formed when two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons is a(n)a. ionic bond. c. polar bond.b. orbital bond. d. covalent bond.

112. If two covalently bonded atoms move farther than a distance of the bond length, the potential energy of the atomsa. becomes negative. c. increases.b. decreases. d. remains constant.

113. A covalent bond forms when the attraction between two atoms is balanced by repulsion and the potential energy isa. at a maximum. c. at a minimum.b. zero. d. equal to the kinetic energy.

114. Which of the following compounds most likely has the least bond energy?a. Cl2; Cl–Cl bond length = 199 pm c. HF; H–F bond length = 92 pmb. HCl; H–Cl bond length = 127 pm d. I2; I–I bond length = 266 pm

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115. A nonpolar covalent bond is most likely to form between two elements that have a difference in electronegativity values ofa. 0.1. c. 3.0.b. 1.5. d. Both (a) and (b)

116. An ionic bond is most likely to form between two elements that have a difference in electronegativity values ofa. 0.1. c. 3.0.b. 1.5. d. Both (a) and (b)

117. A polar covalent bond is most likely to form between two elements that have a difference in electronegativity values ofa. 0.1. c. 3.0.b. 1.5. d. Both (a) and (b)

118. Which of the following molecular formulas show the polar nature of the HBr molecule?a. Hδ+Brδ+ c. Hδ-Brδ+

b. Hδ+Brδ− d. Hδ-Brδ−

119. Which of the following substances most likely has the lowest boiling point?a. Cl2 c. MgCl2

b. HF d. Cu 120. The correct Lewis structure for the oxygen atom has

a. one pair of valence electrons and one single valence electron.b. two pairs of valence electrons and one single valence electron.c. two pairs of valence electrons and two single valence electrons.d. three pairs of valence electrons.

121. The correct Lewis structure for the boron atom hasa. one single valence electron.b. two single valence electrons.c. three single valence electrons.d. one pair of valence electrons and one single valence electron.

122. The correct Lewis structure for a Group 18 atom hasa. one pair of valence electrons and one single valence electron.b. two pairs of valence electrons and one single valence electron.c. three pairs of valence electrons and one single valence electron.d. four pairs of valence electrons.

123. The correct Lewis structure for a fluorine atom in a molecule of F2 showsa. three unshared pairs of electrons. c. one shared pair of electrons.b. an octet of valence electrons. d. All of the above

124. To draw the Lewis structure of the polyatomic ion, ClO3− you would have to _____ those in the structures of Cl, O,

O, and O.a. add one electron to c. add a proton tob. subtract one electron from d. subtract a proton from

125. In a double bond, two atoms share a total of _____ electrons.a. two c. fourb. three d. six

126. The correct Lewis structure for a molecule of the compound C2H2 containsa. three single bonds. c. three double bonds.b. two double bonds. d. one triple bond.

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127. Which of the following number of atoms can form a tetrahedral molecule?a. two c. fourb. three d. five

128. According to VSEPR theory, which of the following shapes is possible for a molecule with the molecular formula of AB2?a. linear c. trigonal pyramidalb. bent d. Both (a) and (b)

129. According to VSEPR theory, which of the following shapes is possible for a molecule with the molecular formula of AB3?a. linear c. trigonal pyramidalb. trigonal planar d. Both (b) and (c)

130. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the molecular formula of A2 isa. linear in shape. c. bent.b. a dipole. d. Both (a) and (b)

131. According to VSEPR theory, the molecular shape of CO2 is classified asa. linear. c. trigonal planar.b. bent. d. trigonal pyramidal.

132. According to VSEPR theory, the molecular shape of H2O is classified asa. linear. c. trigonal planar.b. bent. d. trigonal pyramidal.

133. Iodine monochloride, ICl, has a higher boiling point than bromine, Br2, partly because ICl is a(n)a. nonpolar molecular substance. c. metallic substance.b. ionic substance. d. polar molecular substance.

134. The number of atoms in a mole of any pure substance is calleda. its atomic number. c. its mass number.b. Avogadro’s number. d. its gram-atomic number.

135. What can be said about 1 mol Ag and 1 mol Au?a. They are equal in mass.b. They contain the same number of atoms.c. Their molar masses are equal.d. They have the same atomic mass.

136. An Avogadro’s number of any element is equivalent toa. the atomic number of that element. c. 6.022 × 1023 particles.b. the mass number of that element. d. 12 g of that element.

137. If 0.500 mol of Na+ combines with 0.500 mol of Cl– to form NaCl, how many formula units of NaCl are present?a. 3.01 × 1023 c. 6.02 × 1024

b. 6.02 × 1023 d. 1.00 138. Using a periodic table, what is the average atomic mass of zinc?

a. 69.723 amu c. 63.546 amub. 58.693 amu d. 65.39 amu

139. The atomic mass of hydrogen is 1.008 amu. The reason that this value is not a whole number is thata. hydrogen only exists as a diatomic molecule.b. the mass of hydrogen is the sum of the masses of the protons and electrons in the atom.c. the mass of a proton is not exactly equal to 1 amu.d. hydrogen has more than one isotope.

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140. A chemical formula includes the symbols of the elements in the compound and subscripts that indicatea. the number of formula units present.b. the number of atoms or ions of each type.c. the formula mass.d. the charges on the elements or ions.

141. How many atoms of fluorine are in a molecule of carbon tetrafluoride, CF4?a. 1 c. 4b. 2 d. 5

142. Changing a subscript in a correctly written chemical formulaa. changes the number of moles represented by the formula.b. changes the charges on the other ions in the compound.c. changes the formula so that it no longer represents that compound.d. has no effect on the formula.

143. A formula that shows the simplest whole-number ratio of the atoms in a compound is thea. molecular formula. c. structural formula.b. ideal formula. d. empirical formula.

144. The molar mass of an element is the mass of onea. atom of the element. c. gram of the element.b. liter of the element. d. mole of the element.

145. To determine the molar mass of an element, one must know the element’sa. Avogadro number. c. number of isotopes.b. atomic number. d. average atomic mass.

146. What is the molar mass of magnesium?a. 12.00 g c. 24.305 gb. 26.982 g d. 22.990 g

147. A compound contains 259.2 g of F and 40.8 g of C. What is the empirical formula for this compound?a. CF4 c. CFb. C4F d. CF2

148. A compound contains 64 g of O and 4 g of H. What is the empirical formula for this compound?a. H2O c. H4O4

b. H2O2 d. HO 149. What is the empirical formula for a compound that is 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl?

a. CaCl c. CaCl2

b. Ca2Cl d. Ca2Cl2

150. A compound contains 27.3 g of C and 72.7 g of O. What is the empirical formula for this compound?a. CO c. C2Ob. CO2 d. C2O4

151. To find the molecular formula from the empirical formula, one must determine the compound’sa. density. c. structural formula.b. formula mass. d. crystal lattice.

152. The molecular formula for vitamin C is C6H8O6. What is the empirical formula?a. CHO c. C3H4O3

b. CH2O d. C2H4O2

153. A compound’s empirical formula is NO2. If the formula mass is 92 amu, what is the molecular formula?a. NO c. NO2

b. N2O2 d. N2O4

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154. What is the percentage composition of CF4?a. 20% C, 80% F c. 16.8% C, 83.2% Fb. 13.6% C, 86.4% F d. 81% C, 19% F

155. What is the percentage composition of CuCl2?a. 33% Cu, 66% Cl c. 65.50% Cu, 34.50% Clb. 50% Cu, 50% Cl d. 47.267% Cu, 52.733% Cl

156. The percentage of sulfur in SO2 is about 50%. What is the percentage of oxygen in this compound?a. 25% c. 75%b. 50% d. 90%

157. What is the percentage of OH– in Ca(OH)2?a. 45.9% c. 75%b. 66.6% d. 90.1%

158. Knowledge about what products are produced in a chemical reaction is obtained bya. inspecting the chemical equation. c. laboratory analysis.b. balancing the chemical equation. d. writing a word equation.

159. A chemical reaction has NOT occurred if the products havea. the same mass as the reactants.b. more energy than the reactants.c. less energy than the reactants.d. the same chemical properties as the reactants.

160. Which observation does NOT indicate that a chemical reaction has occurred?a. formation of a precipitate c. evolution of energyb. production of a gas d. change in total mass of substances

161. The word equation solid carbon + oxygen gas → carbon dioxide gas + energy, represents a chemical reaction becausea. the reaction releases energy.b. CO2 has chemical properties that differ from those of C and O.c. the reaction absorbs energy.d. CO2 is a gas and carbon is a crystal.

162. In the unbalanced formula equation CO + O2 → CO2 + energy, energya. is absorbed. c. is released.b. can be considered a reactant. d. Both (a) and (b)

163. The word equation for the formula equation shown isC2H5OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O + energya. carbon dioxide + water → ethanol + oxygen + energy.b. ethanol + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy.c. ethanol + oxygen + energy → carbon dioxide + water.d. ethanol + oxygen + energy → carbon dioxide + water + energy.

164. The state of matter for a reactant or a product in a chemical equation is indicated by aa. coefficient before the formula. c. symbol after the formula.b. subscript after the formula. d. superscript after the formula.

165. The reaction, C2H5OH + 3O2 heat→⎯⎯⎯ 2CO2 + 3H2O, will occur most rapidly ifa. C2H5OH is a liquid and O2 is a liquid. c. CO2 is a gas and H2O is a liquid.b. C2H5OH and O2 are in close contact. d. CO2 is a gas and H2O is a gas.

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166. An insoluble solid produced by a chemical reaction in solution is calleda. a precipitate. c. a molecule.b. a reactant. d. the mass of the product.

167. How would oxygen be represented in the formula equation for the reaction of methane and oxygen to yield carbon dioxide and water?a. oxygen c. O2

b. O d. O3

168. The products of the reaction, C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O have the same _____ as the reactants.a. atoms. c. molecules.b. coefficients. d. subscripts.

169. After the correct formula for a reactant in an equation has been written, thea. subscripts are adjusted to balance the equation.b. formula should not be changed.c. same formula must appear as the product.d. symbols in the formula must not appear on the product side of the equation.

170. To balance a chemical equation, it may be necessary to adjust thea. coefficients. c. formulas of the products.b. subscripts. d. number of products.

171. A chemical equation is balanced when thea. coefficients of the reactants equal the coefficients of the products.b. same number of each kind of atom appears in the reactants and in the products.c. products and reactants are the same chemicals.d. subscripts of the reactants equal the subscripts of the products.

172. After the first steps in writing an equation, the equation is balanced bya. adjusting subscripts to the formula(s).b. adjusting coefficients to the smallest whole-number ratio.c. changing the products formed.d. making the number of reactants equal to the number of products.

173. What is the balanced equation when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate?a. Al + Cu2S → Al2S + Cu c. Al + CuSO4 → AlSO4 + Cub. 2Al + 3CuSO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu d. 2Al + Cu2SO4 → Al2SO4 + 2Cu

174. Which coefficients correctly balance the formula equation CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)?a. 1, 1, 1 c. 2, 6, 3b. 1, 3, 1 d. 3, 1, 2

175. Which equation is NOT balanced?a. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O c. H2 + H2 + O2 → H2O + H2Ob. 4H2 + 2O2 → 4H2O d. 2H2 + O2 → H2O

176. Which coefficients correctly balance the formula equation NH4NO2 → N2 + H2O?a. 1, 2, 2 c. 2, 1, 1b. 1, 1, 2 d. 2, 2, 2

177. Which coefficients correctly balance the formula equation CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2?a. 2, 1, 2 c. 1, 2, 1b. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 1, 1

178. Which coefficients correctly balance the formula equationZn(OH)2 + CH3COOH → Zn(CH3COO)2 + H2O?a. 1, 2, 1, 1 c. 1, 2, 1, 2b. 2, 1, 2, 1 d. 2, 1, 1, 2

Name: ________________________ ID: A

16

179. A reaction of a hydrocarbon, in which carbon dioxide and water are produced, is classified as aa. decomposition reaction. c. double-displacement reaction.b. combustion reaction. d. synthesis reaction.

180. In what kind of reaction do two or more substances combine to form a new compound?a. decomposition reaction c. double-displacement reactionb. ionic reaction d. synthesis reaction

181. The equation A + X → AX is the general equation for a(n)a. combustion reaction. c. synthesis reaction.b. ionic reaction. d. double-displacement reaction.

182. In what kind of reaction does a single compound produce two or more simpler substances?a. decomposition reaction c. displacement reactionb. synthesis reaction d. ionic reaction

183. The reaction 2KClO3(s) → 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) is a(n)a. synthesis reaction. c. combustion reaction.b. decomposition reaction. d. ionic reaction.

184. In what kind of reaction does one element replace a similar element in a compound?a. displacement reaction c. decomposition reactionb. combustion d. ionic reaction

185. The equation A + BX → AX + B is the general equation for aa. double-displacement reaction. c. displacement reaction.b. decomposition reaction. d. combustion reaction.

186. The reaction Cl2(g) + 2KBr(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + Br2(l) is a(n)a. synthesis reaction. c. displacement reaction.b. ionic reaction. d. combustion reaction.

187. What is the name of a list of elements arranged according to the ease with which they undergo certain chemical reactions?a. reactivity list c. activity seriesb. reaction sequence d. periodic list

188. An element in the activity series can replace any elementa. in the periodic table. c. above it on the list.b. below it on the list. d. in its group.

189. What can be predicted by using an activity series?a. whether a certain chemical reaction will occurb. the amount of energy released by a chemical reactionc. the electronegativity values of elementsd. the melting points of elements

190. If metal X is lower than metal Y in the activity series, then metal Xa. replaces ions of metal Y in a solution.b. is more active than metal Y.c. is less active than metal Y.d. forms positive ions more readily than does metal Y.

191. A precipitate forms in a double-displacement reaction whena. hydrogen gas reacts with a metal.b. positive ions combine with negative ions.c. water boils out of the solution.d. a gas escapes.

Name: ________________________ ID: A

17

192. If the particles in a sample of matter have an orderly arrangement and move only in place, the sample is aa. gas. c. solid.b. liquid. d. substance.

193. The process by which a solid becomes a liquid isa. freezing. c. condensation.b. melting. d. sublimation.

194. Which of the following has a melting point greater than room temperature?a. oxygen c. ironb. water d. bromine

195. A solid with a low melting point is most likelya. ionic. c. metallic.b. covalent. d. None of the above

196. The strength of the forces between ions depends ona. the size of the ion only.b. the charge on the ion only.c. both the size of the ion and its charge.d. neither the size of the ion nor its charge.

197. The attraction of the positive end of one molecule for the negative end of a neighboring molecule is a(n)a. covalent bond. c. ionic bond.b. dipole-dipole force. d. London dispersion force.

198. Because of dipole-dipole forces, the melting points of highly polar compounds are _____ those of less polar compounds.a. higher than c. equal tob. lower than d. not comparable to

199. A hydrogen bond is a special form of a(n)a. covalent bond. c. ionic bond.b. dipole-dipole force. d. London dispersion force.

200. A hydrogen bond forms between molecules that contain hydrogen bonded toa. a highly electronegative atom. c. another hydrogen atom.b. an atom with a low electronegativity. d. a metal.

201. London dispersion forces occur between molecules that area. highly polar. c. nonpolar.b. slightly polar d. None of the above

202. A London dispersion force is considered a dipole-dipole force because ita. affects all types of compounds. c. affects polar molecules.b. affects nonpolar molecules. d. results from a temporary dipole.

203. Natural events are often accompanied by a(n)a. decrease in energy and a decrease in disorder.b. decrease in energy and an increase in disorder.c. increase in energy and a decrease in disorder.d. increase in energy and an increase in disorder.

204. All of the following are heterogeneous mixtures excepta. whole wheat bread. c. tap water.b. granite. d. an oil-water mixture.

205. Carbon dioxide in water is an example of which solute-solvent combination?a. gas-liquid c. liquid-liquidb. liquid-gas d. cannot be determined

Name: ________________________ ID: A

18

206. Which of the following expresses concentration?a. molality c. parts per millionb. molarity d. All of the above

207. Which of the following would be the most concentrated solution?a. 200 g of C12H22O11 in 1 kg of water c. 1000 ppm of C12H22O11 in waterb. 1500 ppm of C12H22O11 in water d. 1 mol of C12H22O11 in 1 L of solution

208. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 0.202 mol KCl in 7.98 L of solution?a. 0.0132 M c. 0.459 Mb. 0.0253 M d. 1.363 M

209. Dissolved in water to make 100 mL of solution, 1.00 g of NaCl would have a concentration ofa. 1.71 M. c. 0.0171 M.b. 0.171 M. d. 17.1 M.

210. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 125 g NaCl in 4.00 L solution?a. 0.535 M c. 8.56 Mb. 2.14 M d. 31.3 M

211. How many moles of HCl are present in 0.70 L of a 0.33 M HCl solution?a. 0.23 mol c. 0.38 molb. 0.28 mol d. 0.47 mol

212. The solubility of a substance at a given temperature can be expressed asa. grams of solute.b. grams of solvent.c. amount of solute per amount of solvent.d. grams of water per 100 g of solute.

213. The solubility of a solute depends ona. the nature of the solute and the temperature of the solvent.b. the nature of the solute only.c. the temperature of the solvent only.d. neither the nature of the solute nor the temperature of the solvent.

214. Which of the following is soluble in water?a. potassium nitrate c. benzeneb. silver d. carbon tetrachloride

215. The compound that will most likely dissolve in watera. is not a dipole.b. has the effective poles in different positions.c. has effective poles in the same position.d. contains hydrogen sulfide.

216. The formation of solid-liquid solutionsa. always releases heat. c. can either absorb or release heat.b. always absorbs heat. d. neither absorbs nor releases heat.

217. In a solution at equilibrium,a. no dissolution occurs.b. the rate of dissolution is less than the rate of crystallization.c. the rate of dissolution is greater than the rate of crystallization.d. the rate of dissolution and the rate of crystallization are equal.

218. Pressure has the greatest effect on the solubility ofa. solids in liquids. c. gases in gases.b. liquids in liquids. d. gases in liquids.

Name: ________________________ ID: A

19

219. Which is a molecular substance whose water solution conducts electricity?a. liquid hydrogen c. sugarb. hydrogen chloride d. iron

220. Molecules whose water solutions conduct currenta. require carbon to decompose in water. c. do not dissolve in water.b. ionize in water. d. can crystallize.

221. A dissolved solute that does not form ions isa. a nonelectrolyte. c. a strong electrolyte.b. a weak electrolyte. d. insoluble.

222. Which of the following is a molecular compound that ionizes in water?a. C6H12O6 c. HClb. Cl2 d. C6H6

223. Molecules that have both polar and nonpolar regionsa. are likely to be flammable. c. will not dissolve in any solvent.b. could act as emulsifying agents. d. are unstable.

ID: A

1

Practice Chemistry A Final ExamAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.2STA: 2d

2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.2STA: 2d

3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.4 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.2.4 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.2.1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.2.2 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.2.2 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.2.2 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.1 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.3 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.1 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.3 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.1.1

STA: 7b 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.1.2 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.2.2

STA: IE.1c | IE.1j 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.2.3

STA: IE.1a | IE.1f | IE.1g 17. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 2.3.4 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 2.3.4 19. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.2 20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.1

STA: 1e | 1h* 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.1

STA: 1e | 1h* 22. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.1

STA: 1e | 1h* 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.2.2

STA: 1a 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3 26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: 1h* | 1j* 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: 1h* | 1j* 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: 1h* | 1j*

ID: A

2

30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.3STA: 1g*

31. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.3STA: 1g*


33. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.4STA: 3d



36. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.4STA: 3d


38. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 3.3.4STA: 3d

39. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.4.1STA: 3d


41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.1.1STA: 1a

42. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.1.2STA: 1b | 1c

43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.1.2STA: 1b | 1c

44. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.1.2STA: 1b | 1c

45. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.1.2STA: 1b | 1c

46. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.1.2STA: 1b | 1c

47. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.2.1STA: 1b | 1c




51. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.2.2STA: 1c

52. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.2.2STA: 1c


ID: A

3

54. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.2.2STA: 1c

55. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.2.2STA: 1c

56. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.2.2STA: 1c






62. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.3.2STA: 1c

63. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.3.2STA: 1c



66. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4.3.4STA: 1c


68. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.1.1 69. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.1.2

STA: 1d 70. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.1.2

STA: 1d 71. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.1.2


STA: 1d 73. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.1.2

STA: 1d 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.1.2

STA: 1d 75. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.1.2

STA: 1d 76. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.1.2


STA: 1d

ID: A

4

78. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.2.1STA: 2a


80. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.2.1STA: 2a

81. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.2.1STA: 2a

82. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.2.1STA: 2a



85. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.2.2STA: 2a


87. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.2.2STA: 2a



90. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.1.4 91. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.1 92. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.3.1 93. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.1 94. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.2 95. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.2 96. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.3.3 97. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.3.3 98. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 99. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 100. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 101. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 102. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 103. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 104. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 105. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 106. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 107. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 108. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 5.3.3 109. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 5.3.3 110. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.1

STA: 2a

ID: A

5


112. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.2 113. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.2 114. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.2 115. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: 2a | 2h* 116. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: 2a | 2h* 117. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: 2a | 2h* 118. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: 2a | 2h* 119. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.4

STA: 2g* 120. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: 2e 121. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: 2e 122. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: 2e 123. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: 2e 124. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: 2e 125. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.2

STA: 2e 126. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.2.2

STA: 2e 127. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 128. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 129. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 130. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 131. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 132. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 133. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.3.1

STA: 2f* 134. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 7.1.1

STA: 3b | 3c 135. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 7.1.1

STA: 3b | 3c

ID: A

6


137. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.1.2STA: 3c




141. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 7.2.2STA: 3d


143. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 7.3.1STA: IE.1e

144. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 7.2.3 145. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 7.2.3 146. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.2.3 147. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.1

STA: IE.1e 148. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 7.3.1

STA: IE.1e 149. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.1

STA: IE.1e 150. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.1


STA: IE.1e 152. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.2

STA: IE.1e 153. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.2


STA: IE.1e 155. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.3

STA: IE.1e 156. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 7.3.3

STA: IE.1e 157. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 7.3.3

STA: IE.1e 158. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 8.1.1 159. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 8.1.1 160. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 8.1.1 161. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 8.1.2

STA: 3a 162. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 8.1.2

STA: 3a

ID: A

7
















178. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 8.2.2STA: 3a









ID: A

8



189. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 8.3.4STA: 3a




193. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.1.2STA: 2d | 7c

194. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 11.1.2STA: 2d | 7c

195. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 11.2.1STA: 2h*

196. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.2.1STA: 2h*

197. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.2.2STA: 2h*

198. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.2.2STA: 2h*

199. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.2.3STA: 2d | 2h*

200. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.2.3STA: 2d | 2h*

201. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.2.4STA: 2h*

202. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 11.2.4STA: 2h*

203. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.3.2STA: 7c | 7f*

204. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.1.1STA: 6f*

205. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.1.1STA: 6f*


207. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 13.2.1STA: 6d


209. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.2.2STA: 6d

210. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.2.2STA: 6d

ID: A

9

211. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.2.2STA: 6d



214. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.3.1STA: 6b | 6c

215. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.3.1STA: 6b | 6c

216. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13.3.2STA: 6e*


218. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13.3.5 219. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.4.1

STA: 6c 220. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13.4.1

STA: 6c 221. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13.4.1

STA: 6c 222. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.4.1

STA: 6c 223. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13.4.3

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