this is a nice paper with all the tough questions. nice paper to check your performance before ntse. this will give your weak and strong areas........................................................... beat that....................
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FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942 website: www.fiitjee.com PATHFINDER-2013 FIITJEE ALL INDIA SCREENING TEST for Class X NTSE (ENGLISH LANGUAGE) Time: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 50. Instructions: 1. This Question Paper contain 1 Section. Section-I. 2. The booklet given in the examination hall will be the Question Paper. An OMR Answer Sheet will also be provided along with the Question Paper. 3. A candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. 4. Paper Carries 50 objective questions each of 1 (one) mark. 5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed. 6. Write your Name & Registration No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. 7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet. 8. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question. 9. In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute shall be final. Registration Number : Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________________________________ Test Centre : ___________________________________________________________
1. This Question Paper contain 1 Section. Section-I. 2. The booklet given in the examination hall will be the Question Paper. An OMR Answer
Sheet will also be provided along with the Question Paper. 3. A candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate
bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. 4. Paper Carries 50 objective questions each of 1 (one) mark. 5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic
gadgets in any form is not allowed. 6. Write your Name & Registration No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. 7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the
answer sheet. 8. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question. 9. In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute shall
be final.
Registration Number :
Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ___________________________________________________________
SECTION – I I. READING PASSAGE Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
It was once believed that the brain was independent of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the body. In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the production and release in brain neurons of the neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds the neurons use to transmit signals to other cells) depend directly on the food that the body processes.
Our first studies sought to determine whether the increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large injection of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after rats ate metals that change tryptophan levels in the blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began to eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood tryptophan , brain tryptophan and brain serotonin levels. These finding suggested that the production and release of serotonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with blood tryptophan increases. In later studies we found that injecting insulin into a rat’s blood stream also caused parallel elevation in blood and brain tryptophan levels and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether the secretion of the animal’s own insulin similarly affected serotonin production. We gave the rats a carbohydrate containing meal that we knew would elicit insulin secretion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan level and the concentrations of tryptophan and of serotonin in the brain increased after the meal.
Surprisingly, however, when we added a large amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan and serotonin levels fell. Since proteins contains tryptophan, why does it depress brain tryptophan levels? The answers lies in the mechanism that provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also provides the brain cells with other amino acids found in protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption of protein increases blood concentration of the other amino acids much more, proportionately, than it does that of tryptophan.
The more protein is in the meal, the lower is the ratio of the resulting blood tryptophan concentration to the concentration of competing amino acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to the brain. Thus the more protein in the meal, the less serotonin subsequently produced and released.
1. According to the passage, one reason that the authors gave rats carbohydrates was to... (A) Compare the effects of carbohydrates with the effect of proteins (B) Depress the rat’s tryptophan levels (C) Cause the rats to produce insulin (D) Demonstrate that insulin is the most important substance secreted by the body
2. Which of the following titles best summarizes the content of the passage? (A) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The connection between serotonin levels and tyrosine (B) Neurotransmitters: Their crucial function in Cellular communication (C) The effects of food intake on the Production and Release of Serotonin: Some Recent
Findings (D) The Blood Supply and the Brain: a reciprocal dependence 3. According to the passage, an injection of insulin was most similar in its effect on rats to
an injection of (A) Blood (B) Tryptophan (C) Tyrosine (D) Leucine 4. According to the passage, the more protein a rat consumes, the lower will be the…........ (A) Ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan concentration to the concentration in its blood of
the other amino contained in the protein (B) Number of amino acids the rat’s blood will contain (C) Ratio of the rat’s blood-tyrosine concentration to its blood-leucine concentration (D) Number of neurotransmitters of any kind that the rat will produce and release 5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would be LEAST likely to
be a potential source of aid to a patient who was not adequately producing and releasing serotonin?
(A) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion (B) Meals that had very low concentrations of leucine (C) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein (D) Meals consisting almost exclusively of carbohydrates
II. The following sentences form a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are in the right order. Choose from the given options the order in which they appear to complete the paragraph.
6. (1) Now that I am getting old and stiff in the joints, I like to meditate, while grazing in the
pasture, about my foal days. (P) I had no work to do, and could run about after my mother, who was a fine white Arab
mare, without any restraint. (Q) I think that was the happiest part of my life. (R) But that could not last forever. (S) Most of my time was spent in the fields, where I nibbled the tender grass and
capered about, while my mother was steadily grazing. (6) When I was old enough, the trainer came, and, to my great indignation, fastened a
long rope to my head, and then began driving me round and round in circles with his long whip.
Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) SRQP (B) QPSR (C) QRSP (D) SPQR 7. (1) A stamp is, to many people, just a slip of paper that takes a letter from one town or
country to another. (P) But they do not realise that there are many who do buy, many who find the effort
worthwhile and many who, if they did not spend their time collecting stamps, would spend it less profitably.
(Q) They are unable to understand why we stamp collectors find so much pleasure in collecting them.
(R) To them it seems a waste of time, a waste of effort and waste of money. (S) We all seek something to do in our leisure hours and what better occupations are
there to keep us out of mischief than that of collecting stamps? (6) An album, a packet of hinges, a new supply of stamps, and the time passes swiftly
and pleasantly. Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) SPRQ (B) QPRS (C) SRPQ (D) QRPS
8. (1) The British wanted it to be their answer to the American White House. (P) Today, the head of the Indian Republic occupies just a handful of the 340 rooms. (Q) No wonder Edwin Lutyens didn’t mind that the 17 year assignment earned him just £ 5,000. (R) But the 354 acre complex is an apt example of the expertise of a man who wanted
the Rashtrapati Bhavan to be an object of admiration forever. (S) Though, the answer was good enough, the British didn’t anticipate that within 17
years of building the Viceroy House, they would have to leave the country and the architectural wonder would be renamed Rashtrapati Bhavan.
(6) In the end it earned him a place in the history books. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (A) RQSP (B) SPRQ (C) SQRP (D) RPSQ 9. (1) And the biggest wonder about the Harappan cities is, simply put, their brick. (P) Some archaeologist have ventured further. (Q) If at all the size varied in some sites, it still retained the same length-breadth-height
proportion everywhere! (R) It had a standard size, be it in Mohen-jo-daro or Harappa, Kalibangan or Lothal. (S) They say that even the constructions-the houses and the cities-were built in the
same proportion as the brick. (6) In other words, the brick was just like the platinum rod kept in Paris to define the
world standard of time. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
(A) RQPS (B) SPQR (C) RPQS (D) SQPR
10. (1) Freedom and power bring responsibility. (P) Some of these pains continue even now. (Q) Before the birth of freedom we have endured all the pains of labour and our hearts
and heavy with the memory of this sorrow. (R) Nevertheless, the past is over and it is the future that beckons us now. (S) That responsibility rests upon this assembly, a sovereign body representing
sovereign people of India. (6) That future is not one of ease or resting but of incessant striving so that we many
fulfil the pledges we have so often taken and the one we shall take today. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
11. (1) The other day we heard someone smilingly refer to poets as dreamers. (P) We must not be so superficial that we fail to discern the practicality of dreams. (Q) Where they differ from the logician and the scientists is in the temporal sense; they
are ahead of their time, where logicians and scientists are abreast of their time. (R) the truth is that poets are just as practical as people who build bridges or look into
microscopes; and just as close to reality and truth. (S) Now, it is accurate to refer to poets as dreamers, but it is not discerning to infer, as
this person did, that the dreams of poets have no practical value beyond the realm of literary diversion.
(6) Dreams are the sunrise streamers heralding a new day of scientific progress, another forward surge.
Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) SPQR (B) QRSP (C) SRQP (D) QPSR 12. (1) What was his great power over the mind and heart of man due to? (P) That truth led him to proclaim without ceasing that good ends can never be attained
by evil methods, that the end itself is distorted if the method pursued is bad. (Q) Even we realise that his dominating passion was truth. (R) That truth led him to fight evil and untruth wherever he found them, regardless of the
consequences. (S) That truth led him to confess publicly whenever he thought he had made a mistake.
Himalayan errors, he called some of his own mistakes. (6) That truth made the service of the poor and the dispossessed the passion of his life,
for where there is inequality and discrimination and suppression, there is injustice, evil and untruth.
Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) SRQP (B) QPSR (C) RQPS (D) SPQR
13. (1) The effect of books is two-fold. (P) Unless you can write it down, your poem or idea will probably die when you do. (Q)They preserve knowledge in time and spread it in space. (R) Suppose for example, you think of an important idea or a beautiful poem. (S) Even if you do write it down, it perishes soon as the mice eat the paper.
(6) But once printing has been done, it does not matter how many copies of what you had written were eaten by mice.
Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) QPRS (B) SRPQ (C) QRPS (D) SPRQ 14. (1) The accident occurred in just a moment. (P) The cyclist was blinded by a bullock-cart moving slowly in the opposite direction. (Q) The cyclist did not notice it from the main road (R) The result was a head-on-collision. (S) A speeding car came from a side road. (6) The cyclist was thrown a few feet away.
Which of the following is the correct sequence? (A) PQSR (B) SRPQ (C) PRSQ (D) SQPR 15. (1) Man is fighting animal as much as a thinking one. (P) There is no denying the fact that somewhere in the blood of everyone of us there is a
war-dance. (Q) It is usually the weak and the cowardly who fight shy of war. (R) It excites the inborn pugnacity in everyone. (S) The sight of men fighting moves us strangely.
(6) Their pacifism is only a cloak for their weakness. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
III. Rearrange the words to form meaningful sentences. 16. For the
what it was when they were just a cluster of districts (P) inhabitants of these fledgling (Q) the quality of life remains pretty much (R) but resource-rich States of India (S)
(A) QSPR (B) SQRP (C) QSRP (D) SQPR 17. Some
beautiful woman commands(P) places attract courageous men from faraway lands(Q) in much the same manner (R) an immediate obeisance(S)
(A) QRPS (B) RQSP (C) QRSP (D) RQPS 18. Today
cinema do not demand that (P) the logic that the themes of contemporary(Q) the lack of grandeur in the music with (R) music directors often explain(S)
24. The recent relations between the two countries (P) Indo-US agreements, (Q) especially the nuclear pact that meant to transform(R) have been the subject of much controversy(S)
(A) RQSP (B) QRPS (C) RQPS (D) QRSP 25. What
religion for money or marry (P) meaning does social freedom (Q) their girl child off to the highest bidder (R) hold when people are tempted to change (S)
(A) RSPQ (B) QPSR (C) RPSQ (D) QSPR IV. In these questions, each sentence has two blank spaces, each blank space
indicating that a word has been omitted. Choose from the set of words (marked A, B, C and D) which when inserted in the blank spaces best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
26. In a ............ country with a large population providing certain basic facilities to the lower
strata......the society assumes crucial importance. (A) Developing.....of (B) Developed......of (C) Big........of (D) Developing.....in 27. I think it........ benefit your health ......take a glass of water before meals. (A) Should......to (B) Will.......for (C) May........to (D) Can.........to 28. It is language more .....than anything else, that distinguishes man from the ......of the
animal world (A) Easily.......rest (B) Obviously......rest (C) Obviously.....others (D) Logically.....others
29. Given appropriate conditions, the appropriate physical environment all....organisms are capable of originating automatically the.....required to sustain their survival.
(A) Living.....actions (B) Known....functions (C) Natural....development (D) Healthy.......movements 30. Science in the modern sense of a social institution in which many men cooperate and
one....carries on the work of the preceding requires the existence of written language, of books and eventually of libraries, all of which make........free.
(A) Institution.....knowledge (B) Society....interaction (C) School......Thinking (D) Generation.....communication 31. We may be at a loss to explain the ............ of the Greek civilisation, but we can indeed
say something of the .........to the revival of learning. (A) Origin.....dynamics (B) Influence......background (C) Somewhere.....thinking (D) Blossoming......future 32. The idea that life exists ......in the world around us belongs to the general ideas that have
reigned over the....... of men since antiquity. (A) Always....imagination (B) Everywhere.......minds (C) Somewhere.......thinking (D) Only....beliefs 33. If it is not a downright............, it is at least a curious juxtaposition that the accumulation
of .........material in any academic field is called the “literature” of the subject wherein scarcely one hundredth of it has any literary value.
(A) Blunder.....documented (B) Enigma.......published (C) Paradox.....written (D) Absurdity......historical 34. In certain diseases, although the symptoms are......., the causes are probably ......... (A) Mental..........serious (B) Visible......unknown (C) Physical....not (D) Common.......Known 35. A research worker expects to get his papers accepted and is furious if something is
refused, .........it may be true that one’s best paper may have the .......chance of being turned down because anything really new is difficult to evaluate.
(A) Because.... least (B) Although....greatest (C) For.......sure (D) Since.....slightest
V. Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C), and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentences grammatically meaningful and correct.
36. Despite considerable achievements in other areas, humans still cannot control weather
and probably never be able to do so. (A) probably not be able (B) perhaps be never have ability (C) probably will never be able (D) probably never be enabled 37. The newly-wed couple was shocked when it was observed that many people who had
been invited missing. (A) were invited (B) had been invited were (C) had invited were (D) had been invited had been 38. Though people should be right to protest, it should not be by upsetting the livelihood of others. (A) Should be righteous in protesting (B) should have right to protest (C) should be right in protest (D) should have been right to protest 39. They have made a futile attempt of suppressing the truth and suggest falsehood. (A) for suggestion of falsehood (B) after suggesting falsehood (C) and suggesting falsehood (D) in suggestion of falsehood 40. Because his work as a painter requires that he use products containing strong
chemicals, he has developed skin allergy. (A) required to use (B) requires that he should use (C) required that he uses (D) requires that he uses VI. In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can be
substituted for the given words/sentence. 41. A person who opposes war or use of military force. (A) fascist (B) pacifist (C) narcissist (D) fatalist 42. Severely abusive writing in journals. (A) imaginary (B) speculative (C) scurrilous (D) sarcastic
43. Call upon God or any other power (like law) etc., for help or protection. (A) invocation (B) involution (C) inundation (D) revocation 44. Fear of being enclosed in a small closed space. (A) agoraphobia (B) claustrophobia (C) xenophobia (D) paranoia 45. One who has become dependent on something or drugs is a (A) adamant (B) edict (C) addict (D) derelict VII. In each of the following questions there are two sentences, each having a blank,
followed by four words marked A-D. Select the one word that appropriately fills both the blanks.
46. (i) The child sat......through the long sermon.
(ii) We have.......to receive the documents. (A) quiet (B) quietly (C) still (D) out
47. (i) These factories .............. light bulbs based on the one Edison invented.
(ii) You should ............. him in the witness-box at the next hearing. (A) manufacture (B) bring (C) produce (D) produced 48. (i) The judge pronounced the .............in the open court on 26th January.
(ii) The Chairman was present to receive the ........... on 26th January. (A) judgement (B) award (C) punishment (D) penalty 49. (i) The Company has agreed in ...........to our suggestion. (ii) The equipment works on the ............ of Archimedes. (A) general (B) view (C) principle (D) basis 50. (i) The ................ of the record-player is pleasing. (ii) He enjoys ........... health even at this age. (A) sound (B) good (C) songs (D) tune
1. This Question Paper contain 1 Section. Section-I. 2. The booklet given in the examination hall will be the Question Paper. An OMR Answer
Sheet will also be provided along with the Question Paper. 3. A candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate
bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. 4. Paper Carries 50 objective questions each of 1 (one) mark. 5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic
gadgets in any form is not allowed. 6. Write your Name & Registration No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. 7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the
answer sheet. 8. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question. 9. In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute shall
be final.
Registration Number :
Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ___________________________________________________________
(A) G, H (B) P,G (C) R, G (D) S,R 10. B, D, F, I, L, P, ?
(A) R (B) S (C) T (D) U 11. If ‘white’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘yellow, ‘yellow’ is called
‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘violet’ and ‘violet’ is called ‘orange’, what would be the colour of human blood? (A) Red (B) Green
(C)Yellow (D) Violet Directions (12 – 14): In a certain code, ‘il be pee’ means ‘roses are blue’, ‘sik hee’ means ‘red flowers’ and ‘pee nut hee’ means ‘flowers are vegetables’ 12. How is ‘red’ written in that code?
(A) hee (B) sik (C) be (D) cannot be determined 13. How is ‘roses’ written in that code?
(A) il (B) pee (C) be (D) cannot be determined 14. How is ‘vegetables are red flowers’ written in that code?
(A) sik pee hee be (B) il sik nut hee (C) pee sik nut hee (D) none of these
15. B is to the south – west of A, C is to the east of B and south – east of A and D is to the North of C in line with B and A. In which direction of A is D located? (A) North (B) East
(C) South - East (D) North – East 16. A walks 10m towards East and then 10 m to his right. Then everytime turning to his left,
he walks 5 m, 15 m and 15 m, respectively. How far is he now from his starting point? (A) 5m (B) 10m
(C) 15m (D) 20m 17. A person starts towards south direction. Which of the following order of directions will
lead him to East direction? (A) Right, Right, Right (B) Left, Left, Left
(C) Left, Right, Right (D) Right, Left, Right Directions (18– 21): Each of these questions consists of a question and two statements labelled I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer as :
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(D) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
18. Among P, K, D and R, who is the son of M? I. P and K are sisters of R. II. D is the mother of K and wife of M. 19. How is ‘Call’ written in a code language? I. ‘Call me back’ is written as ‘531’ in that code language. II. ‘you can call me anytime’ is written as ‘94163’ in that code language.
20. Among Sanjay, Suresh, Navin, Prakash and Karan, who has secured maximum marks in Mathematics?
I. Karan has secured more marks in Mathematics than Suresh and Navin. II. Sanjay and Prakash have secured less marks in Mathematics than Navin. 21. On which day in June did the school reopen? I. Manoj correctly remembers that the school reopened after 12th June but before 16th
June. II. Manoj’s classmate Ashok correctly remembers that the school reopened after 14th
June but before 18th June. Directions (22 – 25): In each of these questions are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the two given statements. Give your answer as: (A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows. (C) If either I or II follows. (D) If neither I nor II follows. 22. Statement : I Some players are singers II. All singers are tall. Conclusions : I. Some players are tall. II. All players are tall 23. Statement : I Some vegetables are fruits II. No fruit is black. Conclusions : I. No vegetable is black. II. Some fruits are vegetables. 24. Statement : I Some fools are intelligent. II. Some Intelligent are great. Conclusions : I. Some fools are great. II. All great are intelligent.
25. Statement : I. All stones are water. II. Some water are clean. Conclusions : I. Some stones are clean. II. No stone is clean. 26. At what time between 4º’clock and 5 o’ clock will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
(A) 30 minutes past 4 (B) 3164
minutes past 4
(C) 23811
minutes past 4 (D) 33 minutes past 4
27. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide between 10 : 00 AM to 6 : 30 PM ? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 28. What is the number of odd days in a leap year? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 29. Today is Wednesday, what will be the day after 95 days? (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
Directions (Questions 30 – 33): Read the following information to answer the questions given below it:
(i) Five friends A, B, C, D and E wore shirts of Green, Yellow, Pink, Red and blue colours and shorts of Black, White, Grey, Blue and Green colours.
(ii) Nobody wore shirt and short of the same colour (iii) D wore Blue shirt and C wore Green short (iv) The one who wore Green shirt, wore Black short and the one who wore Blue short,
wore Red shirt. (v) A wore White short and Pink shirt (vi) E did not wear Red shirt. 30. Which colour shirt did C wear?
(A) Yellow (B) Blue (C) Green (D) Pink 31. Which colour short did B wear?
(A) Grey (B) Blue (C) White (D) Black 32. Who wore White short?
(A) E (B) B (C) C (D) A 33. Who wore Black short?
(A) C (B) E (C) B (D) D 34. Pointing to a woman, Naman said, ”She is the daughter of the only child of my
grandmother.” How is the woman related to Naman? (A) Sister (B) Niece (C) Cousin (D) Data inadequate
35. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Rajiv said, “Her mother has only one grandchild whose mother is my wife.” How is the woman in the picture related to Rajiv?
(A) Cousin (B) Wife (C) Sister (D) Data inadequate 36. Pointing to a man in photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of
my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph? (A) Mother (B) Aunt (C) Sister (D) Daughter Directions (Questions 37-38): In the following question, a dot is placed in the figure marked (X). This figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One out of these four options contains the common region to circle, square, triangle similar to that of marked by dot in figure (X). Select that option. 37.
39. Which year next to 1990 will have the same calendar as that of the year 1990? (A) 1995 (B) 1997 (C) 1996 (D) 1992 40. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half the number of men. In
the city Y, 10 men left the bus and five women boarded in to it. Now, number of men and women becomes equal. In the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus? (A) 15 (B) 30
(C) 36 (D) 45 41. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, “ If you give me 3 cards, you will
have as many as I have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as E has”, A and C together have twice as many cards as E has. B and D together also have the same number of cards as A and C have taken together. If all together they have 150 cards, how many cards has C got?
Directions (Questions 47-50): A cube is coloured orange on one face, pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal sizes. Now, answer the following questions based on the above information. 47. How many cubes have at least one face painted pink?
(A) 1 (B) 9 (C) 16 (D) 25 48. How many cubes are coloured silver on one face, orange or pink on another face and
have four uncoloured faces? (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 16 49. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured?
(A) 24 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 64 50. How many cubes are coloured orange on one face and have the remaining faces
1. This Question Paper contain 1 Section. Section-I. 2. The booklet given in the examination hall will be the Question Paper. An OMR Answer
Sheet will also be provided along with the Question Paper. 3. A candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate
bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. 4. Paper Carries 100 objective questions each of 1 (one) mark. 5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic
gadgets in any form is not allowed. 6. Write your Name & Registration No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. 7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the
answer sheet. 8. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question. 9. In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute shall
be final.
Registration Number :
Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ___________________________________________________________
SECTION – I 1. A iceberg is floating in water. The density of ice in the iceberg in 917 kg/m3 and density
of water is 1024 kg/m3. What percentage fraction of the iceberg would be visible? (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 12% (D) 8% 2. Two blocks A and B each of mass ‘m’ are placed on
the smooth horizontal surface. Two forces F and 2F are applied on the two blocks A and B respectively as shown in figure. The block A does not slide on the block B. The normal reaction between the
(A) 1 F (B) F/2 (C) F / 3 (D) 3F
F
30°
mm 2F
A B
3. Two planets have radii r1 and r2 and densities d1 and d2 respectively. Then the ratio of
acceleration due to gravity on then will be (A) r1d1 : r2d2 (B) r1d2 : r2d1 (C) 2 2
1 1 2 2r d : r d (D) r1 : r2 4. Two masses of 1 g and 4 g have same kinetic energy. What is the ratio of their
momentum?
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 2 (D) 4 5. A car moving with a speed of 50 km/hr can be stopped by brakes after at least 6 m. If the
same car is moving at speed of 100 km/hr, the minimum stopping distance is (A) 12 m (B) 18 m (C) 24 m (D) 6 m
6. A ball of mass m is thrown in air with speed v1 from a height h1 and it is caught at a height h2 > h1 when its speed becomes v2. Find the work done on the ball by the air resistance.
(A) ( ) ( )2 22 1 2 1
1mg h h m v v2
− + − (B) ( ) ( )2 22 1 2 1
1mg h h m v v2
+ + +
(C) ( ) ( )2 22 1 2 1
1mg h h m v v2
+ + − (D) ( ) ( )2 22 1 2 1
1mg h h m v v2
− − +
7. A block is kept stationary on a surface. The coefficient between block and surface is 0.2.
An external force of 1 N is applied on the block. Determine force of friction developed between block and surface if the block remains stationary (given that mass of block is 1 kg and take g = 10 m/sec2)
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 8. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the direction of its velocity and acceleration are (A) Perpendicular to each other. (B) Parallel to each other. (C) Inclined to each other at angle of 45° (D) Anti parallel to each other 9. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at the height of 6R above the surface of
earth, R being radius of earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the surface of earth, is
(A) 10 h (B) 6 h2
(C) 6h (D) 6 2 h 10. A body weighs 50 g in air and 40 g in water. How much would it weight in a liquid of
specific gravity 1.5? (A) 30 g (B) 35 g (C) 65 g (D) 45 g
11. A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passes through two points P and Q separated by a distance with velocity 30 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. The velocity of the car midway between P and Q is
(A) 33.3 km/hr (B) 20√3 km/hr (C) 25√2 km/hr (D) 35 km/hr 12. A long spring is stretched by 2 cm and its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched
by 10 cm the potential energy will be (A) 5U (B) 25 U
(C) U5
(D) U25
13. A, B and C are positions of the bob of a simple pendulum.
The ratio of potential energy of the bob when it is at B and when it is at C will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) ( )2 3 :1−
(C) ( )1: 2 3− (D) 1: 3
30° 60°
C
A
B
14. A block of mass 1 kg is released from rest from A on a
curved track as shown in figure. The horizontal section BC of length 1 m is rough, remaining all is smooth. The position with respect to B where the block finally stops is [g = 10 m/s2]
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.5 m (C) 1 m (D) 0.4 m
1 m
1kg
B C
µ = 0.4
A
15. No. of electrons present in 3.6 mg of 4NH+ are (A) 1.2 x 1021 (B) 1.2 x 1020 (C) 1.2 x 1022 (D) 2 x 10-3 16. The no. of atoms present in 11.2 L of SO2 at STP is (A) 1.5 NA (B) 2 NA (C) NA (D) 4 NA
17. For the reaction, A 2B C+ → , 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce in (A) 5 moles of ‘C’ (B) 4 moles of ‘C’ (C) 8 moles of ‘C’ (D) 12 moles of ‘C’ 18. The high diffusibility of gases is due to (A) high intermolecular forces of attraction (B) high K.E of molecules (C) restricted translatory motion in upward direction (D) all the above 19. In which of the following case cooking is very slow? (A) Pressure cooker at sea level (B) Pressure cooker at higher altitude (C) Open vessel at sea level (D) Open vessel at higher altitude 20. All sample of CO2 contain carbon & oxygen in the mass ratio 3:8. This is an agreement
with the law of (A) conservation of mass (B) constant proportions (C) multiple proportions (D) gaseous volume 21. In an experiment for determination of boiling point of water, a graph between
temperature and time was drawn. From the graph, the correct boiling point is
22. The correct order which describes the true solution, colloidal solution and suspension in order of their increasing stability is
(A) Suspension < colloidal solution < true solution (B) Colloidal solution < true solution < suspension (C) True solution < colloidal solution < suspension (D) Colloidal solution < suspension < true solution 23. A few pieces of zinc were treated with dilute sulphuric acid in a test tube. Which of the
following observations is correct? (A) It is a physical change and zinc dissolves (B) It is a chemical change and zinc dissolves (C) It is a chemical change, zinc dissolves and H2 gas is evolved (D) It is a physical change and H2 gas is evolved 24. A little soil was stirred into water taken in a beaker. The beaker was allowed to stand.
The mud was found to settle down. The contents were filtered. The filtrate will be (A) a true solution (B) a colloidal solution (C) can be a true solution or a colloidal solution (D) a suspension 25. Among the following groups which represents the collection of isoelectronic species? (A) NO+, 2
2C − , 2O− , CO (B) N2, 22C − , CO, NO
(C) NO+, CO, CN-, 22C − (D) NO, CN-, N2, 2O−
26. What pressure and voltage should be applied in a discharge tube to obtain cathode ray? (A) Low pressure and high voltage (B) Low pressure and low voltage (C) High pressure and high voltage (D) High pressure and low voltage 27. The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass no. of atom is 27 and no. of
neutrons is 14. What is the no. of electron in the ion? (A) 13 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 16
28. Rutherford’s α-particles scattering experiment showed that (i) electron have negative charge (ii) the mass of positive charge of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus (iii) neutron exists in the nucleus (iv) most of the space in atom is empty (A) i & iii (B) ii & iv (C) I & iv (D) iii & iv 29. Eutrophic lake means (A) Lake poor in nutrients (B) Lake rich in nutrients (C) Lake poor in flora & fauna (D) Lake lacking in water 30. The cholera patient are provided with saline drips. Why? (A) NaCl is an important constituent of our blood which maintains the RBCs and help
proteins to dissolve. (B) Sodium ions help to retain water in the body and selective transport through plasma
membrane, (C) Chlorine ions help in formation of HCl in stomach (D) None of these 31. Which of the following pair is characteristic by swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of
hands and legs and irritability. (A) Thiamine Beri Beri (B) Nicotinamide Pellagra (C) Iodine Goitre (D) Protein Kwashiorkor 32. Which of the following strategies is not correct approach to reduce the global warming? (A) Cutting down use of fossil fuel
(B) Improving efficiency of energy usage (C) Reducing deforestation
(D) Cutting trees and increasing growth of human population 33. What would happen if lysosomes get ruptured inside the cells in which they are present? (A) Cells will swell (B) Cells will shrink (C) Cells will die (D) Nothing will happen
34. Match the following A. Leishmania donovani I. Anthrax B. Entamoeba histolytica II. Vibrio cholerae C. Cholera III. Kala-Azar D. Bacillus anthrasis IV. Dysentry (A) A- II, B- III, C- I, D-IV (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (C) A- I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 35. Give the correct match in the following
Column – I Column – II a Flame Cells p Sponges b Collar Cells q Hydra c Stinging Cells r Planaria s Ascaris
(A) a = r, b = p, c = q (B) a = r, b = p, c = s (C) a = r, b = s, c = p (D) a = r, b = q, c = s 36. AIDS related complex (ARC) leads to fever, swollen lymph nodes, night sweats, loss of
weight etc. represents. (A) Severe form of Lymphysema Disease (B) Initial form of AIDS (C) No link with AIDS (D) None of the above 37. Maximum DDT will occur in (A) Phytoplankton (B) Crab (C) Eel (D) Seagull 38. It is now possible to breed plants and animals with desired characters through (A) Genetic engineering (B) Chromosome engineering (C) Tissue culture (D) None of these 39. Silk, honey and lac are (A) Secretory substance of insects (B) Secretory substance of plants (C) Artificial chemicals (D) All of the above
40. Artificial breeding of cattle is brought about by (A) Artificial insemination
(B) Super ovulation and embryo transplantation (C) Both (D) All of these
41. If AB and CD are two chords of a circle, intersecting at O, such
that AO = 2x + 1, OB = 3x – 2, CD = 9, OD = 10 then x = (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
10
9
3x –
2
2x +
1
O
D B
A C
42. If p(x) = ax2 + bx + c has no real zeros and 16a + 4b + c < 0 then : (A) c = 0 (B) c > 0 (C) c < 0 (D) None of these 43. A rectangular with perimeter 44cm is partitioned into 5 congruent
rectangles, as indicated in the diagram. The perimeter of each of the congruent rectangle is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D) 48
44. The sum of the deviations of a set of values 1 2 nx ,x ,........x , measured from 50 is -10, and
the sum of deviations of the values from 46 is 70. The mean is (A) 49 (B) 49.5 (C) 49.75 (D) 50
46. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ can take values 1, 2, 3, 4, then the number of equations of the form
2ax bx 1 0+ + = having real roots is (A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 7 (D) 6 47. If the interior angles of a polygon are in A.P. with common difference 5 and the
smallest angle is 120ο, then the number of sides of the polygon are (A) 9 (B) 16 (C) 9 or 16 (D) 12 48. Two integers are chosen at random and multiplied. The probability that the product is an
even integer is. (A) 1/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/4 (D) 4/5 49. A circle passes through the vertex N of a rectangle LMNO and is tangent to its sides LM
and LO at A and B respectively. If the distance from N to the line segment AB is equal to 6 units, find the area of the rectangle LMNO
(A) 6 (B) 6 3 (C) 6 2 (D) None 50. A right angle triangle with perpendicular and base as 8 and 6 cm respectively, is rotated
about its longest side. Find the volume of the solid generated. (A)50.28π (B) 150.85π
(C) 76.8π (D) None of these 51. Suppose ( )p x is a polynomial of degree 4 with leading coefficient 2. Given that
( )p 1 5,= ( ) ( ) ( )p 2 8, p 3 11, p 4 14,= = = then value of ( )p 5 = ? (A) 17 (B) 34 (C) 65 (D) 45
52. 2004 2004 200427 22 4 1+ − − is divisible by (A) 299 (B) 296 (C) 298 (D) 297 53. The circumcircle of ABC∆ with A 60∠ = has its centre at O
and radius equal to 2 cm. Circle centred at O’, touches the circumcircle and also OB and OC. Then what is the radius of smaller circle (in cm) ?
(A) 12 4 3− (B) 6 32−
(C) 3 32− (D) 4 3 6−
A
B C
60
O
O’
54. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its summit is 45 after ascending 500 m
towards the mountain up a slope of 30 inclination the elevation is found to be 60 . Find the height of the mountain.
(A) ( )500 3 1 m+ (B) ( )250 3 1 m+
(C) ( )250 3 1 m− (D) ( )500 3 1 m−
55. If 2 3sin sin sin 1,θ + θ + θ = then find the value of 6 4 2cos 4cos 8cosθ − θ + θ (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) -3 56. Find the probability that an year has 53 Sundays.
62. What is Bastille? (A) Fort (B) Palace (C) Jail (D) none of these 63. Who wrote the “Two Treatises of government?”
(A) Rousseau (B) John Lock (C) Montesquieu (D) none of these 64. Who founded the first Hindu Club in India?
(A) R.V. Navelkar (B) R.D. Ratnakar (C) Kapil Dev (D) Mohindra Amarnath 65. The first Indian community to establish a cricket club in India?
(A) Parsis (B) Christians (C) Muslims (D) Hindus 66. The people who were against private property were known as
(A) The capitalists (B) The socialists (C) The anarchists (D) The revolutionaries
67. Who was the ruler of Russia in 1917?
(A) Henry VII (B) Richard II (C) Nicholas I (D) Nicholas II
68. Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler? (A) Goebbels (B) Bismark (C) Hjalmar Schacht (D) Hinden burg 69. What is right about Nazi Germany? (A) Desirables were segregated from undesirables.
(B) Boys were taught to be aggressive and masculine (C) Girls were expected to be good mother and not to ask for equal rights to men.
70. To which state do the Gaddis belong? (A) Bihar (B) Rajasthan
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) J & K 71. Masais belong to:
(A) Kenya (B) South Africa (C) Egypt (D) Poland 72. What is known as ‘Milpa’ in Central Asia?
(A) Extensive Cultivation (B) Dairy Farming (C) Shifting Cultivation (D) Fallow land. 73. Who was Captain Swing?
(A) A mythic name used in letters addressed to land owners. (B) A landlord of midland. (C) A person who discovered England.
(D) A symbol of agrarian resistance.
GEOGRAPHY 74. Summer rainfall in India is caused by (A) Relief (B) Distance from equator (C) Regular seasonal wind (D) None of the above 75. The only part of India that gets winter rain is (A) North east (B) Jammu and Kashmir (C) Rajasthan (D) Tamil Nadu 76. Which is the largest river basin in India? (A) Ganga (B) Yamuna (C) Mahanadi (D) Godawari 77. The drainage system with branches resemble _________ structure
78. Which is a trans Himalayan river? (A) Ganga (B) Chambal (C) Satluj (D) Beas 79. The standard meridian of India pass through which of the following place? (A) Srinagar (B) Delhi (C) Mirzapur (D) Kolkata 80. Lakshadweep is situated in.... (A) Bay of Bengal (B) Arabian Sea (C) Indian Ocean (D) Gulf of Cambay 81. Mangrove forests are found in delta of.
(A) Ganga (B) Mahanadi (C) Krishna (D) all the above 82. What is the average sex ratio in India (2001)? (A) 910 (B) 923 (C) 933 (D) 953 83. What is life expectancy in India? (A) 55 years (B) 60 years (C) 65 years (D) 70 years 84. The highest peak of Himalayas in India? (A) Mt. Everest (B) Kanchenjunga (C) K – 2 (D) Dhaulgiri 85. The Southern part of west coastal plain is called: (A) Konkan Coast (B) Coromandel Coast (C) Kanara Coast (D) Malabar Coast 86. Which sea existed in place of Himalayas in ancient period? (A) Tethys (B) Southern (C) Arabian (D) Indian
87. Which of the following is a feature of Democracy? (A) Franchise based on caste system.
(B) Franchise based on educational qualification. (C) Landlords are the voters.
(D) Universal Adult Franchise. 88. Which of the following rights is available under the Indian constitution? (A) Right to work (B) Right to adequate livelihood (C) Right to protect one’s culture (D) Right to privacy 89. Who was the Chairman of drafting committee? (A) J L Nehru (B) B R Ambedkar (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) none of these 90. Whose autobiography is named as ‘The Long Walk of Freedom’? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) J L Nehru (C) Nelson Mandela (D) B R Ambedkar 91. Which of the following is not an institution of the Parliamentary democracy? (A) Legislature (B) Executive (C) Autocracy (D) Judiciary 92. The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is called (A) The Lok Sabha (B) The Rajya Sabha (C) The Congress (D) The Senate 93. What can be the maximum number of the members of Rajya Sabha? (A) 238 (B) 250 (C) 248 (D) 260 94. Who is the real source of power in a democratic country? (A) People (B) Educated people (C) Aristocratic people (D) King
95. “Democracy is government of the people, for the people and by the people”. Who gave this definition?
(A) A. B. Hal (B) Abraham Lincoln (C) Aristotle (D) Herodotus
ECONOMICS 96. Which of the following social groups is not so much vulnerable to poverty in India?
(A) Scheduled Classes (B) Scheduled Tribes (C) Agricultural Labour (D) Factory owners 97. Which of the following states is the poorest state of India? (A) Punjab (B) Bengal (C) Bihar (D) Orissa 98. In which field the investment formulates human capital? (A) Education (B) Health (C) Training (D) All of these 99. Agriculture, Forestry and dairy come in which sector? (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) None of these 100. How many factors of production are required in order to produce goods and services?
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. C 56. D 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. A 69. D 70. C 71. A 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. D 76. A 77. C 78. C 79. C 80. B 81. D 82. C 83. C 84. B 85. D 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. B 90. C 91. C 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. D 97. C 98. D 99. A 100. A
