FIN 320 Week 11 Final Exam

FIN 320 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

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Chapters 9, 10, 12 Through 15 And 17 Through 22

9

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Testing many different trading rules until you find one that would have worked in the past is called _______.

A. data mining

B. perceived patterning

C. pattern searching

D. behavioral analysis 2. Models of financial markets that emphasize psychological factors affecting investor behavior are called

_______.

A. data mining

B. fundamental analysis

C. charting

D. behavioral finance 3. The trin statistic is a ______ indicator.

A. sentiment

B. flow of funds

C. market structure

D. fundamental

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4. The put/call ratio is a ______ indicator.

A. sentiment

B. flow of funds

C. market structure

D. fundamental 5. Relative strength is ______ indicator.

A. a fundamental

B. an economic

C. a technical

D. an international 6. Short interest is a ______ indicator.

A. sentiment

B. flow of funds

C. market structure

D. fundamental 7. Moving averages are ______ indicators.

A. sentiment

B. flow of funds

C. trend

D. fundamental

8. Market breadth is a ______ indicator.

A. sentiment

B. flow of funds

C. technical

D. fundamental 9. The cumulative tally of the number of advancing stocks minus declining stocks is called the

______________.

A. market breadth

B. market volume

C. trin ratio

D. relative strength ratio 10. A high amount of short interest is typically considered as a __________ signal, and contrarians may

consider it as a _________ signal.

A. bearish; bullish

B. bullish; bearish

C. bearish; false

D. bullish; false 11. Technical analysis focuses on _____________________.

A. finding opportunities for risk-free investing

B. finding repeating trends and patterns in prices

C. changing prospects for earnings growth of particular firms or industries

D. forecasting technical regulatory changes

12. Behavioralists point out that even if market prices are ____________, there may be _______________.

A. distorted; limited arbitrage opportunities

B. distorted; fundamental efficiency

C. allocationally efficient; limitless arbitrage opportunities

D. distorted; allocational efficiency 13. According to market technicians, it is time to sell stock in a head-and-shoulders formation when

___________.

A. the price index pierces the left shoulder

B. the price index pierces the right shoulder

C. the price index pierces the head

D. none of these options takes place 14. When a stock price breaks through the moving average from below, this is considered to be ______.

A. the starting point for a new moving average

B. a bearish signal

C. a bullish signal

D. none of these options 15. When the stock price falls below a moving average, a possible conclusion is that _____.

A. market momentum has become positive

B. market momentum has become negative

C. there is no regular pattern for this stock's market momentum

D. professional analysts' opinions are invalid until the stock price rises again

16. Following a period of falling prices, the moving average will _____.

A. be below the current price

B. be above the current price

C. be equal to the current price

D. become more volatile than it had been before prices fell 17. A moving average of stock prices _________________.

A. always lies above the most recent price

B. always lies below the most recent price

C. is less volatile than the actual prices

D. is more volatile than the actual prices 18. When the housing bubble burst in 2007, it set off the worst financial crisis _____.

A. in 25 years.

B. in 40 years.

C. in 50 years.

D. in 75 years. 19. A support level is ___________________.

A. a level beyond which the market is unlikely to rise

B. a level below which the market is unlikely to fall

C. an equilibrium price level justified by characteristics such as earnings and cash flows

D. the peak of a market wave or cycle

20. According to Kondratieff, the macro economy moves in a series of waves that recur at intervals of approximately _________________.

A. 18 months

B. 4 years

C. 8 years

D. 50 years 21. According to Elliot's wave theory, stock market behavior can be explained as _________________.

A. a series of medium-term wave cycles with no short-term trend

B. a series of long-term wave cycles with no short-term trend

C. a series of superimposed long-term and short-term wave cycles

D. sine and cosine functions 22. Conventional finance theory assumes investors are _______, and behavioral finance assumes investors are

_______.

A. rational; irrational

B. irrational; rational

C. greedy; philanthropic

D. philanthropic; greedy 23. The only way for behavioral patterns to persist in prices is if ______________.

A. markets are not weak-form efficient

B. there are limits to arbitrage activity

C. there are no significant trading costs

D. market psychology is inconsistent over time

24. In the context of a point and figure chart, a horizontal band of Xs and Os is a _____________.

A. buy signal

B. sell signal

C. congestion area

D. trend reversal 25. Even though indexing is growing in popularity, only about _____ of equity in the mutual fund industry is

held in indexed funds. This may be a sign that investors and managers __________.

A. 5%; are excessively conservative

B. 15%; overestimate their ability

C. 20%; suffer from framing biases

D. 25%; engage in mental accounting 26. If investors are too slow to update their beliefs about a stock's future performance when new evidence

arises, they are exhibiting _______.

A. representativeness bias

B. framing error

C. conservatism

D. memory bias 27. If investors overweight recent performance in forecasting the future, they are exhibiting _______.

A. representativeness bias

B. framing error

C. memory bias

D. overconfidence

28. Trading activity and average returns in brokerage accounts tend to be _________.

A. uncorrelated

B. negatively correlated

C. positively correlated

D. positively correlated for women and negatively correlated for men 29. Your two best friends each tell you about a person they know who successfully started a small business.

That's it, you decide; if they can do it, so can you. This is an example of _____________.

A. mental accounting

B. framing bias

C. conservatism

D. representativeness bias 30. Which of the following is not a sentiment indicator?

A. Confidence index

B. Short interest

C. Odd-lot trading

D. Put/call ratio 31. Which of the following is considered a sentiment indicator?

A. A 200-day moving average

B. Short interest

C. Credit balances in brokerage accounts

D. Relative strength

32. An investor holds a very conservative portfolio invested for retirement, but she takes some extra cash she earned from her year-end bonus and buys gold futures. She appears to be engaging in ___________.

A. overconfidence

B. representativeness

C. forecast errors

D. mental accounting 33. Which of the following analysts focus more on past price movements of a firm's stock than on the

underlying determinants of its future profitability?

A. Credit analysts

B. Fundamental analysts

C. Systems analysts

D. Technical analysts 34. A trin ratio of greater than 1 is considered a __________.

A. bearish signal

B. bullish signal

C. bearish signal by some technical analysts and a bullish signal by other technical analysts

D. trend reversal signal 35. Contrarian investors consider a high put/call ratio a __________.

A. bearish signal

B. bullish signal

C. trend confirmation signal

D. signal to enter the options market

36. The ratio of the average yield on 10 top-rated corporate bonds to the average yield on 10 intermediate-grade bonds is called the __________.

A. bond price index

B. confidence index

C. relative strength index

D. trin ratio 37. An investor needs cash to pay some hospital bills. He is willing to use his dividend income to pay the bills,

but he will not sell any stock to do so. He is engaging in ___________.

A. overconfidence

B. representativeness

C. forecast errors

D. mental accounting 38. Bill and Shelly are friends. Bill invests in a portfolio of hot stocks that almost all his friends are invested in.

Shelly invests in a portfolio that is totally different from the portfolios of all her friends. Both Bill's and Shelly's stocks fall 15%. According to regret theory, _________________________________________.

A. Bill will have more regret over the loss than Shelly

B. Shelly will have more regret over the loss than Bill

C. Bill and Shelly will have equal regret over their losses

D. Bill's and Shelly's risk aversion will increase in the future 39. The most common measure of __________ is the spread between the number of stocks that advance in

price and the number of stocks that decline in price.

A. market breadth

B. market volume

C. odd-lot trading

D. short interest

40. Jill is offered a choice between receiving $50 with certainty or possibly receiving the proceeds from a gamble. In the gamble a fair coin is tossed, and if it comes up heads, Jill will receive $100; if the coin comes up tails, she will receive nothing. Jill chooses the $50 instead of the gamble. Jill's behavior indicates __________________.

A. regret avoidance

B. overconfidence

C. that she has a diminishing marginal utility of wealth

D. prospect theory loss aversion 41. When the market breaks through the moving average line from below, a technical analyst would probably

suggest that it is a good time to ___________.

A. buy the stock

B. hold the stock

C. sell the stock

D. short the stock 42. If you believed in the reversal effect, you should __________.

A. buy bonds this period if you held stocks last period

B. buy stocks this period that performed poorly last period

C. buy stocks this period that performed well last period

D. do nothing if you held the stock last period 43. According to technical analysts, a shift in market fundamentals will __________.

A. be reflected in stock prices immediately

B. lead to a gradual price change that can be recognized as a trend

C. lead to high volatility in stock market prices

D. leave prices unchanged

44. According to market technicians, a trin statistic of less than 1 is considered a __________.

A. bearish signal

B. bullish signal

C. volume decline

D. signal reversal 45. It is difficult to test the Kondratieff wave theory because _________.

A. it applies to only Russian stocks

B. its main proponent found contrary research results

C. only two independent data points are generated each century

D. the stock market is too volatile to generate smooth waves 46. A _________ is a value above which it is difficult for the market to rise.

A. book value

B. resistance level

C. support level

D. confidence level 47. _____________ is a tool that can help identify the direction of a stock's price.

A. Prospect theory

B. Framing

C. A moving average

D. Conservatism

48. If the utility you derive from your next dollar of wealth increases by less than a loss of a dollar reduces it, you are exhibiting __________.

A. loss aversion

B. regret avoidance

C. mental accounting

D. framing bias 49. In technical analysis, __________ is a value below which the market is relatively unlikely to fall.

A. book value

B. resistance level

C. support level

D. the Dow line 50. A possible limit on arbitrage activity that may allow behavioral biases to persist is _______.

A. technical trends in prices

B. momentum effects

C. fundamental risk

D. trend reversals 51. If you are not a contrarian, you consider a high put/call ratio to be a __________.

A. bearish signal

B. bullish signal

C. trend confirmation signal

D. signal to enter the options market

52. On day 1, the stock price of Ford was $12 and the automotive stock index was 127. On day 2, the stock price of Ford was $15 and the automotive stock index was 139. Consider the ratio of Ford to the automotive stock index at day 1 and day 2. Ford is __________ the automotive industry, and technical analysts who follow relative strength would advise __________ the stock.

A. outperforming; buying

B. outperforming; selling

C. underperforming; buying

D. underperforming; selling 53. At the end of July, the average yields on 10 top-rated corporate bonds and 10 intermediate-grade bonds

were 7.65% and 8.42%, respectively. At the end of August, the average yields on 10 top-rated corporate bonds and 10 intermediate-grade bonds were 6% and 6.71%, respectively. The confidence index _________ during August, and bond technical analysts are likely to be ________.

A. increased; bullish

B. increased; bearish

C. decreased; bullish

D. decreased; bearish 54. On a particular day, there were 890 stocks that advanced on the NYSE and 723 that declined. The volume

in advancing issues was 80,846,000, and the volume in declining issues was 70,397,000. The common measure of market breadth is __________.

A. -10,449,000

B. -167

C. 167

D. 10,449,000

55. On a particular day, there were 920 stocks that advanced on the NYSE and 723 that declined. The volume in advancing issues was 80,846,000, and the volume in declining issues was 70,397,000. The trin ratio is __________, and technical analysts are likely to be __________.

A. .90; bullish

B. .90; bearish

C. 1.11; bullish

D. 1.11; bearish 56. An accumulation of cash by mutual funds may be viewed by technical traders as a __________ indicator.

A. bullish

B. neutral

C. bearish

D. trend reversal 57. A point and figure chart:

I. Gives a sell signal when the stock price penetrates previous lowsII. Tracks significant upward or downward movementsIII. Has no time dimensionIV. Indicates congestion areas

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I, III, and IV only

D. I, II, III, and IV

58. When technical analysts say a stock has good "relative strength," they mean that in the recent past __________.

A. it has performed well compared to its closest competitors

B. it has exceeded its own historical high

C. trading volume in the stock has exceeded the normal trading volume

D. it has outperformed the market index 59. Technical traders view mutual fund investors as _________ market timers.

A. excellent

B. frequent

C. neutral

D. poor 60. An important assumption underlying the use of technical analysis techniques is that

___________________.

A. security prices adjust rapidly to new information

B. security prices adjust gradually to new information

C. security dealers will provide enough liquidity to keep price changes relatively small

D. all investors have immediate and costless access to information 61. If the put/call ratio increases, market contrarians may interpret this as what kind of signal?

A. Buy signal

B. Sell signal

C. Hold signal

D. This is not interpreted as a signal

62. The tendency of investors to hold on to losing investments is called the ________.

A. overweighting effect

B. head-in-the-sand effect

C. disposition effect

D. prospector effect 63. Which one of the following best describes fundamental risk?

A. A stock is overpriced, but your fund does not allow you to engage in short sales.

B. Your models indicate a stock is mispriced, but you are not sure if this is a real profit opportunity or a model input error.

C. You buy a stock that you believe is underpriced, and the underpricing persists for a long time, hurting your short-term results.

D. A stock is trading in two different markets at two different prices. 64.

The trin on day 2 is ___.

A. .72

B. 1.04

C. .92

D. .55

65.

The confidence index on day 1 is _____.

A. .82

B. .89

C. .92

D. 1.09 66.

The breadth on day 3 is _______.

A. -70

B. 10

C. 90

D. 170

67.

The cumulative breadth for the first 2 days is ___.

A. -240

B. -50

C. 110

D. 250 68.

Cumulative breadth for the 4 days is ___, which is ___.

A. -140; bullish

B. -140; bearish

C. -300; bullish

D. -300; bearish

69.

From day 1 to day 4, the trin has ___ and is ___.


B. increased; bearish

C. decreased; bullish

D. decreased; bearish 70.

From day 1 to day 4, the confidence index has _____. This is _____.


B. decreased; bullish

C. increased; bearish

D. decreased; bearish

71. Problems with behavioral finance include:

I. The behavioralists tell us nothing about how to exploit any irrationality.II. The implications of behavioral patterns are inconsistent from case to case, sometimes suggesting overreaction, sometimes underreaction.III. As with technical trading rules, behavioralists can always find some pattern in past data that supports a behavioralist trait.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 72. A major problem with technical trading strategies is that ________.

A. it is very difficult to identify a true trend before the fact

B. it is very difficult to identify the correct trend after the fact

C. it is so easy to identify trends that all investors quickly do so

D. Kondratieff showed that you can't identify trends without 48 to 60 years of data 73. The Elliott wave theory gives a buy signal when you can identify a primary bull trend by identifying

_________.

A. when the long-term direction of the market is positive

B. when the long-term direction of the market is negative

C. when the long-term direction of the market is stable

D. good stocks without regard to the long-term direction of the market

74. In 1997 CSX successfully purchased a significant share of Conrail. Immediately after the first offer was announced and the acquisition eventually consummated, the price of CSX fell below preacquisition levels and took many years to recover. This may be an example of ________________.

A. loss aversion

B. mental accounting

C. overreaction

D. managerial overconfidence 75. An investor has her money segregated into checking, savings, and investments. The allocation among the

categories is subjective, yet the investor spends freely from the checking account and not the others. This behavior can be explained as _______________.

A. loss aversion

B. mental accounting

C. overreaction

D. winner's curse 76.

Identify the resistance-level stock price.

A. $40

B. $42

C. $44

D. $46

77.

Identify the support level stock price.

A. $40

B. $42

C. $44

D. $46 78. Investors gravitate toward the latest hot stock even though it has never paid a dividend. Even though net

income is projected to fall over the current and next several years, the price of the stock continues to rise. What behavioral concept may explain this price pattern?

A. Overconfidence

B. Loss aversion

C. Mental accounting

D. Calendar bias 79. During a period when prices have been rising, the _________ will be _______ the current price.

A. relative strength index; declining with

B. relative strength index; declining faster than

C. moving average; above

D. moving average; below

80. An investor purchases shares of an index fund. The investor could take on the same level of risk by taking out a loan and purchasing a higher-risk specialty fund. The Sharpe ratio on this complete portfolio is higher than her existing investment. What behavioral concept prevents the investor from taking out the loan and investing in the index fund?

A. Framing bias

B. Excessive volatility

C. Loss aversion

D. Mental accounting 81. The price of a stock fluctuates between $43 and $60. If the time frame referenced encompasses the primary

trend, the $43 price may be considered the ___________.

A. intermediate trend level

B. minor trend level

C. resistance level

D. support level

82.

The moving average generates buy signal(s) _____.

A. on days 3, 11, and 15

B. on days 2 and 16

C. on days 5, 9, and 13

D. on no days

83.

The moving average generates sell signals _____.

A. on days 3, 11, and 15

B. on days 7, 15, and 18

C. on days 5, 9, and 13

D. on day 16 84. The price of a stock fluctuates over a period of 10 days. The movement of the stock price below the 10-day

minimum price of $25 triggers a rash of selling. The $25 price might now be considered the _______________.

A. congestion area

B. penetration point

C. resistance level

D. support level 85. Trend analysts who follow bonds are most likely to monitor the ____________.

A. confidence index

B. odd-lot trading

C. short interest

D. trin statistic

86. You find that the confidence index is down, the market breadth is up, and the trin ratio is down. In total, how many bullish signs do you have?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3 87. You find that the trin ratio is up, the market breadth is down, and the market has closed below its 50-day

moving average. In total, how many bearish signs do you have?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

10

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. The invoice price of a bond is the ______.

A. stated or flat price in a quote sheet plus accrued interest

B. stated or flat price in a quote sheet minus accrued interest

C. bid price

D. average of the bid and ask price 2. Sinking funds are commonly viewed as protecting the _______ of the bond.

A. issuer

B. underwriter

C. holder

D. dealer 3. A collateral trust bond is _______.

A. secured by other securities held by the firm

B. secured by equipment owned by the firm

C. secured by property owned by the firm

D. unsecured 4. A mortgage bond is _______.




D. unsecured

5. A debenture is _________.




D. unsecured 6. If you are holding a premium bond, you must expect a _______ each year until maturity. If you are holding

a discount bond, you must expect a _______ each year until maturity. (In each case assume that the yield to maturity remains stable over time.)

A. capital gain; capital loss

B. capital gain; capital gain

C. capital loss; capital gain

D. capital loss; capital loss 7. Floating-rate bonds have a __________ that is adjusted with current market interest rates.

A. maturity date

B. coupon payment date

C. coupon rate

D. dividend yield 8. Inflation-indexed Treasury securities are commonly called ____.

A. PIKs

B. CARs

C. TIPS

D. STRIPS

9. In regard to bonds, convexity relates to the _______.

A. shape of the bond price curve with respect to interest rates

B. shape of the yield curve with respect to maturity

C. slope of the yield curve with respect to liquidity premiums

D. size of the bid-ask spread 10. A Japanese firm issued and sold a pound-denominated bond in the United Kingdom. A U.S. firm issued

bonds denominated in dollars but sold the bonds in Japan. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Both bonds are examples of Eurobonds.

B. The Japanese bond is a Eurobond, and the U.S. bond is termed a foreign bond.

C. The U.S. bond is a Eurobond, and the Japanese bond is termed a foreign bond.

D. Neither bond is a Eurobond. 11. The primary difference between Treasury notes and bonds is ________.

A. maturity at issue

B. default risk

C. coupon rate

D. tax status 12. TIPS offer investors inflation protection by ______________ by the inflation rate each year.

A. increasing only the coupon rate

B. increasing only the par value

C. increasing both the par value and the coupon payment

D. increasing the promised yield to maturity

13. You would typically find all but which one of the following in a bond contract?

A. A dividend restriction clause

B. A sinking fund clause

C. A requirement to subordinate any new debt issued

D. A price-earnings ratio 14. To earn a high rating from the bond rating agencies, a company would want to have:

I. A low times-interest-earned ratioII. A low debt-to-equity ratioIII. A high quick ratio

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 15. According to the liquidity preference theory of the term structure of interest rates, an increase in the yield

on long-term corporate bonds versus short-term bonds could be due to _______.

A. declining liquidity premiums

B. an expectation of an upcoming recession

C. a decline in future inflation expectations

D. an increase in expected interest rate volatility 16. __________ are examples of synthetically created zero-coupon bonds.

A. COLTS

B. OPOSSMS

C. STRIPS

D. ARMs

17. A __________ bond gives the bondholder the right to cash in the bond before maturity at a specific price after a specific date.

A. callable

B. coupon

C. puttable

D. Treasury 18. TIPS are an example of _______________.

A. Eurobonds

B. convertible bonds

C. indexed bonds

D. catastrophe bonds 19. Bonds issued in the currency of the issuer's country but sold in other national markets are called

_____________.

A. Eurobonds

B. Yankee bonds

C. Samurai bonds

D. foreign bonds 20. You buy a TIPS at issue at par for $1,000. The bond has a 3% coupon. Inflation turns out to be 2%, 3%,

and 4% over the next 3 years. The total annual coupon income you will receive in year 3 is _________.

A. $30

B. $33

C. $32.78

D. $30.90

21. The bonds of Elbow Grease Dishwashing Company have received a rating of C by Moody's. The C rating indicates that the bonds are _________.

A. high grade

B. intermediate grade

C. investment grade

D. junk bonds 22. Bonds rated _____ or better by Standard & Poor's are considered investment grade.

A. AA

B. BBB

C. BB

D. CCC 23. Consider the liquidity preference theory of the term structure of interest rates. On average, one would

expect investors to require _________.

A. a higher yield on short-term bonds than on long-term bonds

B. a higher yield on long-term bonds than on short-term bonds

C. the same yield on both short-term bonds and long-term bonds

D. none of these options (The liquidity preference theory cannot be used to make any of the other statements.)

24. Consider two bonds, A and B. Both bonds presently are selling at their par value of $1,000. Each pays

interest of $120 annually. Bond A will mature in 5 years, while bond B will mature in 6 years. If the yields to maturity on the two bonds change from 12% to 14%, _________.

A. both bonds will increase in value but bond A will increase more than bond B

B. both bonds will increase in value but bond B will increase more than bond A

C. both bonds will decrease in value but bond A will decrease more than bond B

D. both bonds will decrease in value but bond B will decrease more than bond A

25. You hold a subordinated debenture in a firm. In the event of bankruptcy you will be paid off before which one of the following?

A. Mortgage bonds

B. Senior debentures

C. Preferred stock

D. Equipment obligation bonds 26. Bonds with coupon rates that fall when the general level of interest rates rise are called _____________.

A. asset-backed bonds

B. convertible bonds

C. inverse floaters

D. index bonds 27. _______ bonds represent a novel way of obtaining insurance from capital markets against specified

disasters.

A. Asset-backed bonds

B. TIPS

C. Catastrophe

D. Pay-in-kind 28. The issuer of ________ bond may choose to pay interest either in cash or in additional bonds.

A. an asset-backed

B. a TIPS

C. a catastrophe

D. a pay-in-kind

29. Everything else equal, the __________ the maturity of a bond and the __________ the coupon, the greater the sensitivity of the bond's price to interest rate changes.

A. longer; higher

B. longer; lower

C. shorter; higher

D. shorter; lower 30. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Invoice price = Flat price - Accrued interest

B. Invoice price = Flat price + Accrued interest

C. Flat price = Invoice price + Accrued interest

D. Invoice price = Settlement price - Accrued interest 31. A __________ bond gives the issuer an option to retire the bond before maturity at a specific price after a

specific date.

A. callable

B. coupon

C. puttable

D. Treasury 32. Which of the following possible provisions of a bond indenture is designed to ease the burden of principal

repayment by spreading it out over several years?

A. Callable feature

B. Convertible feature

C. Subordination clause

D. Sinking fund

33. Serial bonds are associated with _________.

A. staggered maturity dates

B. collateral

C. coupon payment dates

D. conversion features 34. In an era of particularly low interest rates, which of the following bonds is most likely to be called?

A. Zero-coupon bonds

B. Coupon bonds selling at a discount

C. Coupon bonds selling at a premium

D. Floating-rate bonds 35. Consider the expectations theory of the term structure of interest rates. If the yield curve is downward-

sloping, this indicates that investors expect short-term interest rates to __________ in the future.

A. increase

B. decrease

C. not change

D. change in an unpredictable manner 36. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000, but its current market price is $975. The current price of the

issuing company's stock is $26, and the conversion ratio is 34 shares. The bond's market conversion value is _________.

A. $1,000

B. $884

C. $933

D. $980

37. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000, but its current market price is $950. The current price of the issuing company's stock is $19, and the conversion ratio is 40 shares. The bond's conversion premium is _________.

A. $50

B. $190

C. $200

D. $240 38. A coupon bond that pays interest of 4% annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is

selling today at $785. The actual yield to maturity on this bond is _________.

A. 7.2%

B. 8.8%

C. 9.1%

D. 9.6% 39. A coupon bond that pays interest of $60 annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is

selling today at an $84.52 discount from par value. The yield to maturity on this bond is _________.

A. 6%

B. 7.23%

C. 8.12%

D. 9.45% 40. A coupon bond that pays interest of $60 annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is

selling today at a $75.25 discount from par value. The current yield on this bond is _________.

A. 6%

B. 6.49%

C. 6.73%

D. 7%

41. A callable bond pays annual interest of $60, has a par value of $1,000, matures in 20 years but is callable in 10 years at a price of $1,100, and has a value today of $1055.84. The yield to call on this bond is _________.

A. 6%

B. 6.58%

C. 7.2%

D. 8% 42. A coupon bond that pays interest semiannually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 8 years, and has a

yield to maturity of 6%. If the coupon rate is 7%, the intrinsic value of the bond today will be __________.

A. $1,000

B. $1,062.81

C. $1,081.82

D. $1,100.03 43. A coupon bond that pays interest annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to

maturity of 12%. If the coupon rate is 9%, the intrinsic value of the bond today will be _________.

A. $856.04

B. $891.86

C. $926.47

D. $1,000 44. A coupon bond that pays semiannual interest is reported in the Wall Street Journal as having an ask price

of 117% of its $1,000 par value. If the last interest payment was made 2 months ago and the coupon rate is 6%, the invoice price of the bond will be _________.

A. $1,140

B. $1,170

C. $1,180

D. $1,200

45. A Treasury bond due in 1 year has a yield of 6.3%, while a Treasury bond due in 5 years has a yield of 8.8%. A bond due in 5 years issued by High Country Marketing Corp. has a yield of 9.6%, while a bond due in 1 year issued by High Country Marketing Corp. has a yield of 6.8%. The default risk premiums on the 1-year and 5-year bonds issued by High Country Marketing Corp. are, respectively, __________ and _________.

A. .4%; .3%

B. .4%; .5%

C. .5%; .5%

D. .5%; .8% 46. A zero-coupon bond has a yield to maturity of 5% and a par value of $1,000. If the bond matures in 16

years, it should sell for a price of __________ today.

A. $458.11

B. $641.11

C. $789.11

D. $1,100.11 47. Yields on municipal bonds are typically ___________ yields on corporate bonds of similar risk and time to

maturity.

A. lower than

B. slightly higher than

C. identical to

D. twice as high as

48. You purchased a 5-year annual-interest coupon bond 1 year ago. Its coupon interest rate was 6%, and its par value was $1,000. At the time you purchased the bond, the yield to maturity was 4%. If you sold the bond after receiving the first interest payment and the bond's yield to maturity had changed to 3%, your annual total rate of return on holding the bond for that year would have been approximately _________.

A. 5%

B. 5.5%

C. 7.6%

D. 8.9% 49. Analysis of bond returns over a multiyear horizon based on forecasts of the bond's yield to maturity and

reinvestment rate of coupons is called ______.

A. multiyear analysis

B. horizon analysis

C. maturity analysis

D. reinvestment analysis 50. $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)

The expected 1-year interest rate 1 year from now should be about _________.

A. 6%

B. 7.5 %

C. 9.02%

D. 10.08%

51. $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)

One year from now bond C should sell for ________ (to the nearest dollar).

A. $857

B. $842

C. $835

D. $821 52. $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)

The expected 2-year interest rate 3 years from now should be _________.

A. 9.55%

B. 11.74%

C. 14.89%

D. 13.73% 53. The __________ of a bond is computed as the ratio of the annual coupon payment to the market price.

A. nominal yield

B. current yield

C. yield to maturity

D. yield to call

54. A bond has a par value of $1,000, a time to maturity of 10 years, and a coupon rate of 8% with interest paid annually. If the current market price is $750, what is the capital gain yield of this bond over the next year?

A. .72%

B. 1.85%

C. 2.58%

D. 3.42% 55. Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:


A. 7%

B. 8%

C. 9%

D. 10% 56. Which of the following bonds would most likely sell at the lowest yield?

A. A callable debenture

B. A puttable mortgage bond

C. A callable mortgage bond

D. A puttable debenture

57. A 1% decline in yield will have the least effect on the price of a bond with a _________.

A. 10-year maturity, selling at 80

B. 10-year maturity, selling at 100

C. 20-year maturity, selling at 80

D. 20-year maturity, selling at 100 58. Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:


A. 7%

B. 8%

C. 9%

D. 10% 59. Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:


A. 16%

B. 18%

C. 20%

D. 22%

60. You can be sure that a bond will sell at a premium to par when _________.

A. its coupon rate is greater than its yield to maturity

B. its coupon rate is less than its yield to maturity

C. its coupon rate is equal to its yield to maturity

D. its coupon rate is less than its conversion value 61. A corporate bond has a 10-year maturity and pays interest semiannually. The quoted coupon rate is 6%, and

the bond is priced at par. The bond is callable in 3 years at 110% of par. What is the bond's yield to call?

A. 6.72%

B. 9.17%

C. 4.49%

D. 8.98% 62. Consider a 7-year bond with a 9% coupon and a yield to maturity of 12%. If interest rates remain constant,

1 year from now the price of this bond will be _________.

A. higher

B. lower

C. the same

D. indeterminate 63. Under the pure expectations hypothesis and constant real interest rates for different maturities, an upward-

sloping yield curve would indicate __________________.

A. expected increases in inflation over time

B. expected decreases in inflation over time

C. the presence of a liquidity premium

D. that the equilibrium interest rate in the short-term part of the market is lower than the equilibrium interest rate in the long-term part of the market

64. The yield to maturity on a bond is:

I. Above the coupon rate when the bond sells at a discount and below the coupon rate when the bond sells at a premiumII. The discount rate that will set the present value of the payments equal to the bond priceIII. Equal to the true compound return on investment only if all interest payments received are reinvested at the yield to maturity

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I, II, and III 65. Yields on municipal bonds are generally lower than yields on similar corporate bonds because of

differences in _________.

A. marketability

B. risk

C. taxation

D. call protection 66. Assuming semiannual compounding, a 20-year zero coupon bond with a par value of $1,000 and a required

return of 12% would be priced at _________.

A. $97.22

B. $104.49

C. $364.08

D. $732.14

67. A discount bond that pays interest semiannually will:

I. Have a lower price than an equivalent annual payment bondII. Have a higher EAR than an equivalent annual payment bondIII. Sell for less than its conversion value

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III 68. A 6% coupon U.S. Treasury note pays interest on May 31 and November 30 and is traded for settlement on

August 10. The accrued interest on the $100,000 face amount of this note is _________.

A. $581.97

B. $1,163.93

C. $2,327.87

D. $3,000 69. The yield to maturity of a 10-year zero-coupon bond with a par value of $1,000 and a market price of $625

is _____.

A. 4.8%

B. 6.1%

C. 7.7%

D. 10.4%

70. Consider a newly issued TIPS bond with a 3-year maturity, par value of $1,000, and coupon rate of 5%. Assume annual coupon payments.

What is the nominal rate of return on the TIPS bond in the first year?

A. 5%

B. 5.15%

C. 8.15%

D. 9% 71. Consider a newly issued TIPS bond with a 3-year maturity, par value of $1,000, and coupon rate of 5%.

Assume annual coupon payments.

What is the real rate of return on the TIPS bond in the first year?

A. 5%

B. 8.15%

C. 7.15%

D. 4%

72. On May 1, 2007, Joe Hill is considering one of the following newly issued 10-year AAA corporate bonds.

Suppose market interest rates decline by 100 basis points (i.e., 1%). The effect of this decline would be ______.

A. The price of the Wildwood bond would decline by more than the price of the Asbury bond.

B. The price of the Wildwood bond would decline by less than the price of the Asbury bond.

C. The price of the Wildwood bond would increase by more than the price of the Asbury bond.

D. The price of the Wildwood bond would increase by less than the price of the Asbury bond. 73. On May 1, 2007, Joe Hill is considering one of the following newly issued 10-year AAA corporate bonds.

If interest rates are expected to rise, then Joe Hill should ____.

A. prefer the Wildwood bond to the Asbury bond

B. prefer the Asbury bond to the Wildwood bond

C. be indifferent between the Wildwood bond and the Asbury bond

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 74. On May 1, 2007, Joe Hill is considering one of the following newly issued 10-year AAA corporate bonds.

If the volatility of interest rates is expected to increase, then Joe Hill should __.

A. prefer the Wildwood bond to the Asbury bond

B. prefer the Asbury bond to the Wildwood bond

C. be indifferent between the Wildwood bond and the Asbury bond

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given.

75. One-, two-, and three-year maturity, default-free, zero-coupon bonds have yields to maturity of 7%, 8%, and 9%, respectively. What is the implied 1-year forward rate 1 year from today?

A. 2.07%

B. 8.03%

C. 9.01%

D. 11.12% 76. If the quote for a Treasury bond is listed in the newspaper as 98:09 bid, 98:13 ask, the actual price at which

you can purchase this bond given a $10,000 par value is _____________.

A. $9,828.12

B. $9,809.38

C. $9,840.62

D. $9,813.42 77. If the price of a $10,000 par Treasury bond is $10,237.50, the quote would be listed in the newspaper as

________.

A. 102:10

B. 102:11

C. 102:12

D. 102:13 78. A bond pays a semiannual coupon, and the last coupon was paid 61 days ago. If the annual coupon

payment is $75, what is the accrued interest? (Assume 182 days in the 6-month period.)

A. $13.21

B. $12.57

C. $15.44

D. $16.32

79. A bond has a flat price of $985, and it pays an annual coupon. The last coupon payment was made 90 days ago. What is the invoice price if the annual coupon is $69?

A. $999.55

B. $1,002.01

C. $1,007.45

D. $1,012.13 80. If the quote for a Treasury bond is listed in the newspaper as 99:08 bid, 99:11 ask, the actual price at which

you can sell this bond given a $10,000 par value is _____________.

A. $9,828.12

B. $9,925

C. $9,934.37

D. $9,955.43 81. A bond has a 5% coupon rate. The coupon is paid semiannually, and the last coupon was paid 35 days ago.

If the bond has a par value of $1,000, what is the accrued interest?

A. $4.81

B. $14.24

C. $25

D. $50 82. The price on a Treasury bond is 104:21, with a yield to maturity of 3.45%. The price on a comparable

maturity corporate bond is 103:11, with a yield to maturity of 4.59%. What is the approximate percentage value of the credit risk of the corporate bond?

A. 1.14%

B. 3.45%

C. 4.59%

D. 8.04%

83. You buy a bond with a $1,000 par value today for a price of $875. The bond has 6 years to maturity and makes annual coupon payments of $75 per year. You hold the bond to maturity, but you do not reinvest any of your coupons. What was your effective EAR over the holding period?

A. 10.4%

B. 9.57%

C. 7.45%

D. 8.78% 84. You buy an 8-year $1,000 par value bond today that has a 6% yield and a 6% annual payment coupon. In 1

year promised yields have risen to 7%. Your 1-year holding-period return was ___.

A. .61%

B. -5.39%

C. 1.28%

D. -3.25% 85. You buy a 10-year $1,000 par value zero-coupon bond priced to yield 6%. You do not sell the bond. If you

are in a 28% tax bracket, you will owe taxes on this investment after the first year equal to _______.

A. $0

B. $4.27

C. $9.38

D. $33.51 86. You buy a 10-year $1,000 par value 4% annual-payment coupon bond priced to yield 6%. You do not sell

the bond at year-end. If you are in a 15% tax bracket, at year-end you will owe taxes on this investment equal to _______.

A. $9.10

B. $4.25

C. $7.68

D. $5.20

87. An investor pays $989.40 for a bond. The bond has an annual coupon rate of 4.8%. What is the current yield on this bond?

A. 4.8%

B. 4.85%

C. 9.6%

D. 9.7% 88. If the coupon rate on a bond is 4.5% and the bond is selling at a premium, which of the following is the

most likely yield to maturity on the bond?

A. 4.3%

B. 4.5%

C. 5.2%

D. 5.5% 89. The price of a bond (with par value of $1,000) at the beginning of a period is $980 and at the end of the

period is $975. What is the holding-period return if the annual coupon rate is 4.5%?

A. 4.08%

B. 4.5%

C. 5.1%

D. 5.6% 90. A bond was purchased at a premium and is now selling at a discount because of a change in market interest

rates. If the bond pays a 4% annual coupon, what is the likely impact on the holding-period return if an investor decides to sell now?

A. Increased

B. Decreased

C. Stayed the same


91. The ___________ is the document that defines the contract between the bond issuer and the bondholder.

A. indenture

B. covenant agreement

C. trustee agreement

D. collateral statement

12

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. A top-down analysis of a firm's prospects starts with an analysis of the ____.

A. firm's position in its industry

B. U.S. economy or even the global economy

C. industry

D. specific firm under consideration 2. In 1980 the dollar-yen exchange rate was about $.0045. In 2012 the yen-dollar exchange rate was about 80

yen per dollar. A Japanese producer would have had to increase the dollar price of a good sold in the United States by approximately _____ to maintain the same yen price in 2012.

A. 178%

B. 79.5%

C. 265.4%

D. 36% 3. An increase in the value of the yen against the U.S. dollar can cause the Japanese automaker Toyota to

either _____________ on its U.S. sales.

A. lose market share or reduce its profit margin

B. gain market share or reduce its profit margin

C. lose market share or increase its profit margin

D. gain market share or increase its profit margin

4. You estimate that the present value of a firm's cash flow is valued at $15 million. The break up value of the firm if you were to sell the major assets and divisions separately would be $20 million. This is an example of what Peter Lynch would call ___________.

A. a stalwart

B. slow growth

C. a star

D. an asset play 5. Between 1999 and 2010, the purchasing power of the U.S. dollar increased relative to the purchasing power

of _______.

A. the United Kingdom

B. the Euro

C. Switzerland

D. Canada 6. If you believe the economy is about to go into a recession, you might change your asset allocation by

selling _______ and buying ______.

A. growth stocks; long-term bonds

B. long-term bonds; growth stocks

C. defensive stocks; growth stocks

D. defensive stocks; long-term bonds 7. The yield curve spread between the 10-year T-bond yield and the federal funds rate is a _______ economic

indicator.

A. leading

B. lagging

C. coincident

D. mixed

8. The Conference Board's Consumer Confidence Index is released ______.

A. daily

B. weekly

C. monthly

D. quarterly 9. You can earn abnormal returns on your investments via macro forecasting ______.

A. if you can forecast the economy at all

B. if you can forecast the economy as well as the average forecaster

C. if you can forecast the economy better than the average forecaster

D. only if you can forecast the economy with perfect accuracy 10. Which of the following industries would most analysts classify as mature?

A. Internet service providers

B. Biotechnology

C. Wireless communication

D. Auto manufacturing 11. Which one of the following stocks represents industries with below-average sensitivity to the state of the

economy?

A. Financials

B. Technology

C. Food and beverage

D. Cyclicals

12. The most widely used monetary policy tool is _________.

A. altering the discount rate

B. altering reserve requirements

C. open market operations

D. increasing the budget deficit 13. Which one of the following is the ratio of actual output from factories to potential output from factories?

A. Capacity utilizationrate

B. Participation rate

C. Durable goods orders rate

D. Industrial production rate 14. According to __________ economists, the growth of the U.S. economy in the 1980s can be attributed to

lower marginal tax rates, which improved the incentives for people to work.

A. Keynesian

B. monetarist

C. supply-side

D. demand-side 15. The market value of all goods and services produced during a given time period is called ______.

A. GDP

B. industrial production

C. capacity utilization

D. factory orders

16. A big increase in government spending is an example of a _________.

A. positive demand shock

B. positive supply shock

C. negative demand shock

D. negative supply shock 17. GDP refers to _________.

A. the amount of personal disposable income in the economy

B. the difference between government spending and government revenues

C. the total manufacturing output in the economy

D. the total production of goods and services in the economy 18. Portfolio manager Peter Lynch would classify Coca-Cola as _________.

A. an asset play

B. a slow grower

C. a stalwart

D. a turnaround 19. Attempting to forecast future earnings and dividends is consistent with which of the following approaches

to securities analysis?

A. Technical analysis

B. Fundamental analysis

C. Both technical analysis and fundamental analysis

D. Indexing

20. The analysis of the determinants of firm value is called _____________.

A. fundamental analysis

B. technical analysis

C. momentum analysis

D. indexing 21. Which of the following companies is the best example of a turnaround?

A. Coca-Cola

B. Microsoft

C. ExxonMobil

D. Kmart 22. Inflation is caused by ________________.

A. unions

B. rapid growth of the money supply

C. excess supply

D. low rates of capacity utilization 23. Everything else equal, if you expect a larger interest rate increase than other market participants, you

should _________.

A. buy long-term bonds

B. buy short-term bonds

C. buy common stocks

D. buy preferred stocks

24. To obtain an approximate estimate of the real interest rate, one must _________ the __________ the nominal risk-free rate.

A. add; default premium to

B. subtract; default premium from

C. add; expected inflation to

D. subtract; expected inflation from 25. Which of the following would not be considered a supply shock?

A. A change in the price of imported oil

B. Frost damage to the orange crop

C. A change in the level of education of the average worker

D. An increase in the level of government spending 26. If economic conditions are such that very slow growth is expected in the foreseeable future, one would

want to invest in industries with __________ sensitivity to economic conditions.

A. below-average

B. average

C. above-average

D. Since growth is expected to be slow, sensitivity to economic conditions is not an issue. 27. Which of the following is not an example of fiscal policy?

A. Social Security spending

B. Medicare spending

C. Fed purchases of Treasury securities

D. Changes in the tax rate

28. Supply-side economics tends to focus on _______________.

A. government spending

B. price controls

C. monetary policy

D. increasing productive capacity 29. Which one of the following describes the amount by which government spending exceeds government

revenues?

A. Balance of trade

B. Budget deficit

C. Gross domestic product

D. Output gap 30. Which one of the following is probably the most direct and immediate way to stimulate or slow the

economy, although it is not very useful for fine-tuning economic performance?

A. Fiscal policy

B. Monetary policy

C. Supply-side policy

D. Rising minimum wages 31. In macroeconomic terms, an increase in the price of imported oil or a decrease in the availability of oil is an

example of a _________.

A. demand shock

B. supply shock

C. monetary shock

D. refinery shock

32. ______________ in interest rates are associated with stock market declines.

A. Anticipated increases

B. Unanticipated increases

C. Anticipated decreases

D. Unanticipated decreases 33. The average duration of unemployment is _________.

A. a leading economic indicator

B. a coincidental economic indicator

C. a lagging economic indicator

D. both a coincidental indicator and a lagging indicator 34. The ratio of the purchasing power of two economies is termed the _______.

A. balance of trade

B. real exchange rate

C. real interest rate

D. nominal exchange rate 35. Everything else equal, an increase in the government budget deficit would:

I. Increase the government's demand for fundsII. Shift the demand curve for funds to the leftIII. Increase the interest rate in the economy

A. II only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III

36. Which of the following affects a firm's sensitivity of its earnings to the business cycle?

I. Financial leverageII. Operating leverageIII. Type of product

A. II only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 37. Which of the following describes the rate at which your ability to purchase grows while you hold an

interest-earning investment?

A. The nominal exchange rate

B. The nominal interest rate

C. The real exchange rate

D. The real interest rate 38. An example of a highly cyclical industry is the _________.

A. automobile industry

B. tobacco industry

C. pharmaceutical industry

D. utility industry 39. The stock price index and contracts and orders for nondefense capital goods are _________.

A. leading economic indicators

B. coincidental economic indicators

C. lagging economic indicators

D. leading and coincidental indicators, respectively

40. Which one of the following is not a demand shock?

A. Increase in government spending

B. Increases in the money supply

C. Reductions in consumer spending

D. Improvements in education of U.S. workers 41. Which one of the following is not a U.S. supply shock?

A. Unions force an increase in national wage rates.

B. The oil supply from the Middle East drops 30%.

C. Extended droughts reduce U.S. food production 25%.

D. Chinese purchases of U.S. exports increase. 42. Pharmaceuticals, food, and other necessities would be good performers during the ____ stage of the

business cycle.

A. peak

B. contraction

C. trough

D. expansion 43. Capital goods industries such as industrial equipment, transportation, and construction would be good

investments during the _____ stage of the business cycle.

A. peak

B. contraction

C. trough

D. expansion

44. If you are going to earn abnormal returns based on your macroeconomic analysis, it will most likely have to be because __________.

A. you have more information than others

B. you are a better analyst than others

C. you have the same information as others

D. you are an equally good analyst as others 45. If the economy is going into a recession, a good industry to invest in would be the __________ industry.

A. automobile

B. banking

C. construction

D. medical services 46. Members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System are appointed by ____________ to

serve _____________ terms.

A. the Senate; 10-year

B. the House of Representatives; 8-year

C. the President; 14-year

D. the Secretary of the Treasury; 6-year

47. A firm in the early stages of its industry life cycle will likely have _________.

A. low dividend payout rates

B. low rates of investment

C. low rates of return on investment

D. low R&D spending

48. Which of the following describes the percentage of the total labor force that has yet to find work?

A. The capacity utilization rate

B. The participation rate

C. The unemployment rate

D. The natural rate 49. Which of the following is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising?

A. The exchange rate

B. The gross domestic product growth rate

C. The inflation rate

D. The real interest rate 50. An analyst starts by examining the broad economic environment and then considers the implications of the

economy on the industry in which the firm operates. Finally, the firm's position within the industry is examined. This is called __________ analysis.

A. bottom-up

B. outside-inside

C. top-down

D. upside-down 51. Assume that the Federal Reserve increases the money supply. This will cause:

I. Interest rates to decreaseII. Consumption and investment to decreaseIII. Inflation to fall

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

52. The discount rate is the ________.

A. interest rate banks charge each other for overnight loans of deposits on reserve at the Fed

B. interest rate the Fed charges commercial banks on short-term loans

C. interest rate that the U.S. Treasury pays on its bills

D. interest rate that banks charge their best corporate customers 53. If the currency of your country is depreciating, this should __________ exports and __________ imports.

A. stimulate; stimulate

B. stimulate; discourage

C. discourage; stimulate

D. discourage; discourage 54. If interest rates increase, business investment expenditures are likely to __________ and consumer durable

expenditures are likely to _________.

A. increase; increase

B. increase; decrease

C. decrease; increase

D. decrease; decrease 55. Increases in the money supply will cause demand for investment and consumption goods to __________ in

the short run and may cause prices to __________ in the long run.

A. increase; increase

B. increase; decrease

C. decrease; increase

D. decrease; decrease

56. The nominal interest rate is 6%. The inflation rate is 3%. The exact real interest rate must be _________.

A. 2.91%

B. 3.85%

C. 1.45%

D. 2.12% 57. The nominal interest rate is 10%. The real interest rate is 4%. The inflation rate must be _________.

A. -6%

B. 4%

C. 5.77%

D. 14.4% 58. Order the following stages in the industry life cycle from the earliest to latest to occur after the start-up

phase:

I. MaturityII. Relative declineIII. Consolidation

A. III, I, II

B. I, III, II

C. III, II, I

D. I, II, III 59. An investment strategy that entails shifting the portfolio into industry sectors that are expected to

outperform others based on macroeconomic forecasts is termed ______________.

A. sector rotation

B. contraction/expansion analysis

C. life-cycle analysis

D. business-cycle shifting

60. Firm A produces gadgets. The price of gadgets is $2 each. Firm A has total fixed costs of $1,000,000 and variable costs of $1 per gadget. The corporate tax rate is 40%. If the economy is strong, the firm will sell 2,000,000 gadgets. If the economy enters a recession, the firm will sell only half as many gadgets. If the economy enters a recession, the after-tax profit of firm A will be _________.

A. $0

B. $90,000

C. $180,000

D. $270,000 61. Firm B produce gadgets. The price of gadgets is $2 each. Firm B has total fixed costs of $300,000 and

variable costs of $1.40 per gadget. The corporate tax rate is 30%. If the economy is strong, the firm will sell 2,000,000 gadgets. If the economy enters a recession, the firm will sell only half as many gadgets. If the economy is strong, the after-tax profit of firm B will be _________.

A. $90,000

B. $210,000

C. $300,000

D. $630,000 62. The fed funds rate is the __________.

A. interest rate that banks charge their best corporate customers

B. interest rate banks charge each other for overnight loans of deposits on reserve at the Fed

C. interest rate the Fed charges commercial banks on short-term loans

D. interest rate that the U.S. Treasury pays on its bills 63. Firm B produce gadgets. The price of gadgets is $2 each. Firm B has total fixed costs of $300,000 and

variable costs of $1.40 per gadget. The corporate tax rate is 40%. What is the breakeven number of gadgets B must sell to make a zero after-tax profit?

A. 300,000

B. 400,000

C. 500,000

D. 600,000

64. The goal of supply-side policies is to _______.

A. increase government involvement in the economy

B. create an environment where workers and owners of capital have the maximum incentive and ability to produce and develop goods

C. maximize tax revenues of the government

D. focus more on wealth redistribution policies 65. An industry analysis for manufacturers of a small personal care gadget observed the following

characteristics:

1. Industry sales have grown at 15%-20% per year in recent years and are expected to grow at 10%-15% per year over the next 3 years, still well above the economic growth rate.2. Some U.S. manufacturers are attempting to enter fast-growing non-U.S. markets, which remain largely unexploited.3. Some manufacturers have created a new niche in the industry by selling directly to customers through mail order. Sales for this industry segment are growing at 40% per year.4. The current penetration rate in the United States is 60% of households and will be difficult to increase.5. Manufacturers compete fiercely on the basis of price, and price wars within the industry are common.6. Some manufacturers are able to develop new, unexploited niche markets in the United States based on company reputation, quality, and service.7. Several manufacturers have recently merged, and it is expected that consolidation in the industry will increase.8. New manufacturers continue to enter the market.

Characteristics 4 and 5 would indicate that the industry is in the _________ stage.

A. start-up

B. consolidation

C. maturity

D. relative decline

66. An industry analysis for manufacturers of a small personal care gadget observed the following characteristics:


Characteristics _______ would be typical of an industry that is in the start-up stage.

A. 4 and 7

B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 5

D. none of these options



Characteristics ____ would be typical of an industry that is in the consolidation stage.

A. 6 and 7

B. 1 and 4

C. 5 and 6

D. 2 and 8



Which of the characteristics would be typical of an industry that is in the maturity stage?

A. 1, 2, and 3

B. 4 and 5

C. 6, 7, and 8

D. all of these options 69. Countercyclical fiscal policy is best described by which of the following statements?

A. Government surpluses are planned during economic booms, and deficits are planned during economic recessions.

B. The annual budget should always be balanced.

C. Deficits should always equal surpluses.

D. Government deficits are planned during economic booms, and surpluses are planned during economic recessions.

70. A supply-side economist would likely agree with which of the following statements?

A. Real output and aggregate employment are primarily determined by aggregate demand.

B. Real income will rise when government expenditures and tax rates increase.

C. Real output and aggregate employment are primarily determined by tax rates.

D. Increasing the money supply will increase real output without causing higher inflation.

71. Which of the following actions should the central bank take if monetary authorities want to reduce the supply of money to slow the rate of inflation?

A. Sell government bonds, reducing money supply, increasing interest rates, and slowing aggregate demand.

B. Buy government bonds, reducing money supply, increasing interest rates, and slowing aggregate demand.

C. Decrease the discount rate, lowering interest rates and causing both costs and prices to fall.

D. Increase taxes, reducing costs and causing prices to fall. 72. The decline in the value of the dollar relative to the yen will have what impact on the purchase of U.S.

goods in Japan?

A. U.S. goods will increase in cost, and Japan will import more.

B. U.S. goods will increase in cost, and Japan will import less.

C. U.S. goods will decrease in cost, and Japan will import more.

D. U.S. goods will increase in cost, and Japan will export less. 73. Which of the following are examples of cyclical industries?

I. MaytagII. Computer chip manufacturersIII. Kellogg's Frosted FlakesIV. Pfizer

A. I and II only

B. I, II, and III only

C. II, III, and IV only


74. You would expect the beta of cyclical industries to be ______ and the beta of defensive industries to be ______.

A. greater than 1; less than 1

B. less than 1; less than 1

C. less than 1; greater than 1

D. greater than 1; greater than 1 75. What economic variable is most closely associated with increasing corporate profits?

A. Exchange rates

B. Inflation

C. Gross domestic product

D. Budget deficits 76. The federal government decides to pay for the transition to private social security accounts with a one-time

$1 trillion bond issue. What will be the biggest concern to businesses relative to the "crowding out" effect?

A. Higher interest rates due to the new government borrowing

B. Inflation resulting from more government purchases

C. A negative supply shock

D. Shortage of investment due to new accounts 77. An expanding economy requires more workers. If the supply of workers becomes inadequate to meet the

demand, what is the likely impact on the economy?

A. An economic slowdown is likely

B. Employment trends will reverse and unemployment will occur

C. Government deficits will result from capacity utilization

D. Inflation may result from upward wage pressures

78. An expanding economy puts stress on the manufacturing ability of a company. When a firm turns business down during periods of economic expansion, a problem exists in the area of ____________.

A. asset allocation

B. capacity utilization

C. employment management

D. strategic planning 79. The expansion of the money supply at a rate that exceeds the increase in goods and services will likely

result in ___________.

A. expanding economy

B. increased inflation

C. interest rate declines

D. lower GDP 80. The supply of funds in the economy is controlled primarily by ____________.

A. the Federal Reserve System

B. Congress

C. money center banks

D. the Treasury department 81. The classification system used to classify firms into industries is now called the _____ code.

A. SIC

B. NAICS

C. ISO 57

D. ISM

82. During 2004 China increased its use of global oil by 40%. This followed a 100% increase during the previous 5 years. How do economists refer to this kind of economic event?

A. Demand shock

B. Equilibrium event

C. Expanding commodity event

D. Supply shock 83. Whenever OPEC attempts to influence the price of oil by significantly altering production, economists refer

to this type of event as a ______________.

A. demand shock

B. equilibrium event

C. expanding commodity event

D. supply shock 84. Items that are ____________ and product purchases for which ________ is not important tend to be less

cyclical in nature.

A. necessities; income

B. luxuries; leverage

C. discretionary goods; time of purchase

D. produced with high fixed costs; entertainment 85. Cash cows are typically found in the _________ stage of the industry life cycle.

A. start-up

B. consolidation

C. maturity

D. relative decline

86. At what point in the industry life cycle are inefficiencies in competitors most likely to be removed?

A. Start-up stage

B. Consolidation stage

C. Maturity stage

D. Relative decline stage 87. Stalwarts are typically found in the _________ stage of the industry life cycle.

A. start-up

B. consolidation

C. maturity

D. relative decline 88. Large-growth companies generally emerge in the __________ stage.

A. start-up

B. consolidation

C. maturity

D. relative decline 89. Which of the following are barriers to entry?

I. Large economies of scale required to be profitableII. Established brand loyaltyIII. Patent protection for the firm's productIV. Rapid industry growth

A. I and II only

B. I, II, and III only

C. II, III, and IV only

D. III and IV only

13

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. The accounting measure of a firm's equity value generated by applying accounting principles to asset and liability acquisitions is called ________.

A. book value

B. market value

C. liquidation value

D. Tobin's q 2. The price-to-sales ratio is probably most useful for firms in which phase of the industry life cycle?

A. Start-up phase

B. Consolidation

C. Maturity

D. Relative decline 3. If a firm increases its plowback ratio, this will probably result in _______ P/E ratio.

A. a higher

B. a lower

C. an unchanged

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 4. The value of Internet companies is based primarily on _____.

A. current profits

B. Tobin's q

C. growth opportunities

D. replacement cost

5. New-economy companies generally have higher _______ than old-economy companies.

A. book value per share

B. P/E multiples

C. profits

D. asset values 6. P/E ratios tend to be _______ when inflation is ______.

A. higher; higher

B. lower; lower

C. higher; lower

D. They are unrelated. 7. Which one of the following statements about market and book value is correct?

A. All firms sell at a market-to-book ratio above 1.

B. All firms sell at a market-to-book ratio greater than or equal to 1.

C. All firms sell at a market-to-book ratio below 1.

D. Most firms have a market-to-book ratio above 1, but not all. 8. Earnings yields tend to _______ when Treasury yields fall.

A. fall

B. rise

C. remain unchanged

D. fluctuate wildly

9. Which one of the following is a common term for the market consensus value of the required return on a stock?

A. Dividend payout ratio

B. Intrinsic value

C. Market capitalization rate

D. Plowback ratio 10. Which one of the following is equal to the ratio of common shareholders' equity to common shares

outstanding?

A. Book value per share

B. Liquidation value per share

C. Market value per share

D. Tobin's q 11. A firm has current assets that could be sold for their book value of $10 million. The book value of its fixed

assets is $60 million, but they could be sold for $95 million today. The firm has total debt at a book value of $40 million, but interest rate changes have increased the value of the debt to a current market value of $50 million. This firm's market-to-book ratio is ________.

A. 1.83

B. 1.5

C. 1.35

D. 1.46 12. If a stock is correctly priced, then you know that ____________.

A. the dividend payout ratio is optimal

B. the stock's required return is equal to the growth rate in earnings and dividends

C. the sum of the stock's expected capital gain and dividend yield is equal to the stock's required rate of return

D. the present value of growth opportunities is equal to the value of assets in place

13. A stock has an intrinsic value of $15 and an actual stock price of $13.50. You know that this stock ________.

A. has a Tobin's q value < 1

B. will generate a positive alpha

C. has an expected return less than its required return

D. has a beta > 1 14. Bill, Jim, and Shelly are all interested in buying the same stock that pays dividends. Bill plans on holding

the stock for 1 year. Jim plans on holding the stock for 3 years. Shelly plans on holding the stock until she retires in 10 years. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Bill will be willing to pay the most for the stock because he will get his money back in 1 year when he sells.

B. Jim should be willing to pay three times as much for the stock as Bill will pay because his expected holding period is three times as long as Bill's.

C. Shelly should be willing to pay the most for the stock because she will hold it the longest and hence will get the most dividends.

D. All three should be willing to pay the same amount for the stock regardless of their holding period. 15. A firm that has an ROE of 12% is considering cutting its dividend payout. The stockholders of the firm

desire a dividend yield of 4% and a capital gain yield of 9%. Given this information, which of the following statements is (are) correct?

I. All else equal, the firm's growth rate will accelerate after the payout change.II. All else equal, the firm's stock price will go up after the payout change.III. All else equal, the firm's P/E ratio will increase after the payout change.

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

16. A firm cuts its dividend payout ratio. As a result, you know that the firm's _______.

A. return on assets will increase

B. earnings retention ratio will increase

C. earnings growth rate will fall

D. stock price will fall 17. __________ is the amount of money per common share that could be realized by breaking up the firm,

selling its assets, repaying its debt, and distributing the remainder to shareholders.

A. Book value per share

B. Liquidation value per share

C. Market value per share

D. Tobin's q 18. An underpriced stock provides an expected return that is ____________ the required return based on the

capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

A. less than

B. equal to

C. greater than

D. greater than or equal to 19. Stockholders of Dogs R Us Pet Supply expect a 12% rate of return on their stock. Management has

consistently been generating an ROE of 15% over the last 5 years but now believes that ROE will be 12% for the next 5 years. Given this, the firm's optimal dividend payout ratio is now ______.

A. 0%

B. 100%

C. between 0% and 50%

D. between 50% and 100%

20. The constant-growth dividend discount model (DDM) can be used only when the ___________.

A. growth rate is less than or equal to the required return

B. growth rate is greater than or equal to the required return

C. growth rate is less than the required return

D. growth rate is greater than the required return 21. Suppose that in 2012 the expected dividends of the stocks in a broad market index equaled $240 million

when the discount rate was 8% and the expected growth rate of the dividends equaled 6%. Using the constant-growth formula for valuation, if interest rates increase to 9%, the value of the market will change by _____.

A. -10%

B. -20%

C. -25%

D. -33% 22. You want to earn a return of 10% on each of two stocks, A and B. Each of the stocks is expected to pay a

dividend of $4 in the upcoming year. The expected growth rate of dividends is 6% for stock A and 5% for stock B. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of stock A _________.

A. will be higher than the intrinsic value of stock B

B. will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock B

C. will be less than the intrinsic value of stock B

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 23. Each of two stocks, A and B, is expected to pay a dividend of $7 in the upcoming year. The expected

growth rate of dividends is 6% for both stocks. You require a return of 10% on stock A and a return of 12% on stock B. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of stock A _________.





24. You want to earn a return of 11% on each of two stocks, A and B. Stock A is expected to pay a dividend of $3 in the upcoming year, while stock B is expected to pay a dividend of $2 in the upcoming year. The expected growth rate of dividends for both stocks is 4%. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of stock A _________.




D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 25. You are considering acquiring a common share of Sahali Shopping Center Corporation that you would like

to hold for 1 year. You expect to receive both $1.25 in dividends and $35 from the sale of the share at the end of the year. The maximum price you would pay for a share today is __________ if you wanted to earn a 12% return.

A. $31.25

B. $32.37

C. $38.47

D. $41.32 26. The market capitalization rate on the stock of Aberdeen Wholesale Company is 10%. Its expected ROE is

12%, and its expected EPS is $5. If the firm's plowback ratio is 50%, its P/E ratio will be _________.

A. 8.33

B. 12.5

C. 19.23

D. 24.15 27. The market capitalization rate on the stock of Aberdeen Wholesale Company is 10%. Its expected ROE is

12%, and its expected EPS is $5. If the firm's plowback ratio is 60%, its P/E ratio will be _________.

A. 7.14

B. 14.29

C. 16.67

D. 22.22

28. Weyerhaeuser Incorporated has a balance sheet that lists $70 million in assets, $45 million in liabilities, and $25 million in common shareholders' equity. It has 1 million common shares outstanding. The replacement cost of its assets is $85 million. Its share price in the market is $49. Its book value per share is _________.

A. $16.67

B. $25

C. $37.50

D. $40.83 29. Eagle Brand Arrowheads has expected earnings of $1.25 per share and a market capitalization rate of 12%.

Earnings are expected to grow at 5% per year indefinitely. The firm has a 40% plowback ratio. By how much does the firm's ROE exceed the market capitalization rate?

A. .5%

B. 1%

C. 1.5%

D. 2% 30. Gagliardi Way Corporation has an expected ROE of 15%. If it pays out 30% of its earnings as dividends,

its dividend growth rate will be _____.

A. 4.5%

B. 10.5%

C. 15%

D. 30% 31. A preferred share of Coquihalla Corporation will pay a dividend of $8 in the upcoming year and every year

thereafter; that is, dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 7% on this stock. Using the constant-growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value, a preferred share of Coquihalla Corporation is worth _________.

A. $13.50

B. $45.50

C. $91

D. $114.29

32. Brevik Builders has an expected ROE of 25%. Its dividend growth rate will be __________ if it follows a policy of paying 30% of earnings in the form of dividends.

A. 5%

B. 15%

C. 17.5%

D. 45% 33. A firm is planning on paying its first dividend of $2 three years from today. After that, dividends are

expected to grow at 6% per year indefinitely. The stock's required return is 14%. What is the intrinsic value of a share today?

A. $25

B. $16.87

C. $19.24

D. $20.99 34. Rose Hill Trading Company is expected to have EPS in the upcoming year of $8. The expected ROE is

18%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 14%. If the firm has a plowback ratio of 70%, its dividend in the upcoming year should be _________.

A. $1.12

B. $1.44

C. $2.40

D. $5.60 35. Rose Hill Trading Company is expected to have EPS in the upcoming year of $6. The expected ROE is

18%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 14%. If the firm has a plowback ratio of 70%, its intrinsic value should be _________.

A. $20.93

B. $69.77

C. $128.57

D. $150

36. Cache Creek Manufacturing Company is expected to pay a dividend of $3.36 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to grow at 8% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 4%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. Investors use the CAPM to compute the market capitalization rate and use the constant-growth DDM to determine the value of the stock. The stock's current price is $84. Using the constant-growth DDM, the market capitalization rate is _________.

A. 9%

B. 12%

C. 14%

D. 18% 37. Grott and Perrin, Inc., has expected earnings of $3 per share for next year. The firm's ROE is 20%, and its

earnings retention ratio is 70%. If the firm's market capitalization rate is 15%, what is the present value of its growth opportunities?

A. $20

B. $70

C. $90

D. $115 38. Ace Ventura, Inc., has expected earnings of $5 per share for next year. The firm's ROE is 15%, and its

earnings retention ratio is 40%. If the firm's market capitalization rate is 10%, what is the present value of its growth opportunities?

A. $25

B. $50

C. $75

D. $100

39. Annie's Donut Shops, Inc., has expected earnings of $3 per share for next year. The firm's ROE is 18%, and its earnings retention ratio is 60%. If the firm's market capitalization rate is 12%, what is the value of the firm excluding any growth opportunities?

A. $25

B. $50

C. $83.33

D. $208 40. Flanders, Inc., has expected earnings of $4 per share for next year. The firm's ROE is 8%, and its earnings

retention ratio is 40%. If the firm's market capitalization rate is 15%, what is the present value of its growth opportunities?

A. -$6.33

B. $0

C. $20.34

D. $26.67 41. Firm A is high-risk, and Firm B is low-risk. Everything else equal, which firm would you expect to have a

higher P/E ratio?

A. Firm A

B. Firm B

C. Both would have the same P/E if they were in the same industry.

D. There is not necessarily any linkage between risk and P/E ratios. 42. Firms with higher expected growth rates tend to have P/E ratios that are ___________ the P/E ratios of

firms with lower expected growth rates.

A. higher than

B. equal to

C. lower than

D. There is not necessarily any linkage between risk and P/E ratios.

43. Value stocks are more likely to have a PEG ratio _____.

A. less than 1

B. equal to 1

C. greater than 1

D. less than zero 44. Generally speaking, as a firm progresses through the industry life cycle, you would expect the PVGO to

________ as a percentage of share price.

A. increase

B. decrease

C. stay the same

D. No typical pattern can be expected. 45. Cache Creek Manufacturing Company is expected to pay a dividend of $4.20 in the upcoming year.

Dividends are expected to grow at the rate of 8% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 4%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. Investors use the CAPM to compute the market capitalization rate on the stock and use the constant-growth DDM to determine the intrinsic value of the stock. The stock is trading in the market today at $84. Using the constant-growth DDM and the CAPM, the beta of the stock is _________.

A. 1.4

B. .9

C. .8

D. .5

46. Westsyde Tool Company is expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 in the upcoming year. The risk-free rate of return is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. Analysts expect the price of Westsyde Tool Company shares to be $29 a year from now. The beta of Westsyde Tool Company's stock is 1.2. Using the CAPM, an appropriate required return on Westsyde Tool Company's stock is _________.

A. 8%

B. 10.8%

C. 15.6%

D. 16.8% 47. Westsyde Tool Company is expected to pay a dividend of $2 in the upcoming year. The risk-free rate of

return is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 12%. Analysts expect the price of Westsyde Tool Company shares to be $29 a year from now. The beta of Westsyde Tool Company's stock is 1.2. Using a one-period valuation model, the intrinsic value of Westsyde Tool Company stock today is _________.

A. $24.29

B. $27.39

C. $31.13

D. $34.52 48. Todd Mountain Development Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $2.50 in the upcoming year.

Dividends are expected to grow at the rate of 8% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 12%. The stock of Todd Mountain Development Corporation has a beta of .75. Using the CAPM, the return you should require on the stock is _________.

A. 7.25%

B. 10.25%

C. 14.75%

D. 21%

49. Todd Mountain Development Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $3 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to grow at the rate of 8% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 17%. The stock of Todd Mountain Development Corporation has a beta of .75. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of the stock is _________.

A. 4

B. 17.65

C. 37.50

D. 50 50. Generally speaking, the higher a firm's ROA, the _________ the dividend payout ratio and the _________

the firm's growth rate of earnings.

A. higher; lower

B. higher; higher

C. lower; lower

D. lower; higher 51. Interior Airline is expected to pay a dividend of $3 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to grow

at the rate of 10% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 4%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Interior Airline has a beta of 4. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of the stock is _________.

A. $10

B. $22.73

C. $27.78

D. $41.67

52. Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $4 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the CAPM, the return you should require on the stock is _________.

A. 2%

B. 5%

C. 8%

D. 9% 53. Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are

expected to decline at the rate of 3% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Caribou Gold Mining Corporation has a beta of .5. Using the constant-growth DDM, the intrinsic value of the stock is _________.

A. $50

B. $100

C. $150

D. $200 54. Lifecycle Motorcycle Company is expected to pay a dividend in year 1 of $2, a dividend in year 2 of $3,

and a dividend in year 3 of $4. After year 3, dividends are expected to grow at the rate of 7% per year. An appropriate required return for the stock is 12%. Using the multistage DDM, the stock should be worth __________ today.

A. $63.80

B. $65.13

C. $67.95

D. $85.60

55. Ace Frisbee Corporation produces a good that is very mature in the firm's product life cycles. Ace Frisbee Corporation is expected to pay a dividend in year 1 of $3, a dividend in year 2 of $2, and a dividend in year 3 of $1. After year 3, dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 2% per year. An appropriate required return for the stock is 8%. Using the multistage DDM, the stock should be worth __________ today.

A. $13.07

B. $13.58

C. $18.25

D. $18.78 56. A firm's earnings per share increased from $10 to $12, its dividends increased from $4 to $4.40, and its

share price increased from $80 to $100. Given this information, it follows that _________.

A. the stock experienced a drop in its P/E ratio

B. the company had a decrease in its dividend payout ratio

C. both earnings and share price increased by 20%

D. the required rate of return increased 57. Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, __________ would increase a firm's price-earnings ratio.

A. an increase in the dividend payout ratio

B. a reduction in investor risk aversion

C. an expected increase in the level of inflation

D. an increase in the yield on Treasury bills 58. A company with an expected earnings growth rate which is greater than that of the typical company in the

same industry most likely has _________________.

A. a dividend yield which is greater than that of the typical company

B. a dividend yield which is less than that of the typical company

C. less risk than the typical company

D. less sensitivity to market trends than the typical company

59. Everything else equal, which variable is negatively related to the intrinsic value of a company?

A. D1

B. D0

C. g

D. k 60. Sanders, Inc., paid a $4 dividend per share last year and is expected to continue to pay out 60% of its

earnings as dividends for the foreseeable future. If the firm is expected to generate a 13% return on equity in the future, and if you require a 15% return on the stock, the value of the stock is _________.

A. $26.67

B. $35.19

C. $42.94

D. $59.89 61. A firm has PVGO of 0 and a market capitalization rate of 12%. What is the firm's P/E ratio?

A. 12

B. 8.33

C. 10.25

D. 18.55 62. A firm has an earnings retention ratio of 40%. The stock has a market capitalization rate of 15% and an

ROE of 18%. What is the stock's P/E ratio?

A. 12.82

B. 7.69

C. 8.33

D. 9.46

63. A common stock pays an annual dividend per share of $1.80. The risk-free rate is 5%, and the risk premium for this stock is 4%. If the annual dividend is expected to remain at $1.80 per share, what is the value of the stock?

A. $17.78

B. $20

C. $40

D. None of these options 64. Transportation stocks currently provide an expected rate of return of 15%. TTT, a large transportation

company, will pay a year-end dividend of $3 per share. If the stock is selling at $60 per share, what must be the market's expectation of the constant-growth rate of TTT dividends?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 20%

D. None of these options 65. A stock is priced at $45 per share. The stock has earnings per share of $3 and a market capitalization rate of

14%. What is the stock's PVGO?

A. $23.57

B. $15

C. $19.78

D. $21.34 66. A firm increases its dividend plowback ratio. All else equal, you know that _____________.

A. earnings growth will increase and the stock's P/E will increase

B. earnings growth will decrease and the stock's P/E will increase

C. earnings growth will increase and the stock's P/E will decrease

D. earnings growth will increase and the stock's P/E may or may not increase

67. A firm has a stock price of $54.75 per share. The firm's earnings are $75 million, and the firm has 20 million shares outstanding. The firm has an ROE of 15% and a plowback of 65%. What is the firm's PEG ratio?

A. 1.5

B. 1.25

C. 1.1

D. 1 68. ART has come out with a new and improved product. As a result, the firm projects an ROE of 25%, and it

will maintain a plowback ratio of .20. Its earnings this year will be $3 per share. Investors expect a 12% rate of return on the stock.

At what price would you expect ART to sell?

A. $25

B. $34.29

C. $42.86

D. $45.67 69. ART has come out with a new and improved product. As a result, the firm projects an ROE of 25%, and it


At what P/E ratio would you expect ART to sell?

A. 8.33

B. 11.43

C. 14.29

D. 15.25

70. ART has come out with a new and improved product. As a result, the firm projects an ROE of 25%, and it will maintain a plowback ratio of .20. Its earnings this year will be $3 per share. Investors expect a 12% rate of return on the stock.

What is the present value of growth opportunities for ART?

A. $8.57

B. $9.29

C. $14.29

D. $16.29 71. ART has come out with a new and improved product. As a result, the firm projects an ROE of 25%, and it


What price do you expect ART shares to sell for in 4 years?

A. $53.96

B. $44.95

C. $41.68

D. $39.76 72. The EBIT of a firm is $300, the tax rate is 35%, the depreciation is $20, capital expenditures are $60, and

the increase in net working capital is $30. What is the free cash flow to the firm?

A. $85

B. $125

C. $185

D. $305

73. A firm reports EBIT of $100 million. The income statement shows depreciation of $20 million. If the tax rate is 35% and total capital expenditures and increases in working capital total $10 million, what is the free cash flow to the firm?

A. $57

B. $65

C. $75

D. $95 74. The free cash flow to the firm is $300 million in perpetuity, the cost of equity equals 14%, and the WACC

is 10%. If the market value of the debt is $1 billion, what is the value of the equity using the free cash flow valuation approach?

A. $1 billion

B. $2 billion

C. $3 billion

D. $4 billion 75. If a firm has a free cash flow equal to $50 million and that cash flow is expected to grow at 3% forever,

what is the total firm value given a WACC of 9.5%?

A. $679.81 million

B. $715.54 million

C. $769.23 million

D. $803.03 million 76. The free cash flow to the firm is reported as $405 million. The interest expense to the firm is $76 million. If

the tax rate is 35% and the net debt of the firm increased by $50 million, what is the free cash flow to the equity holders of the firm?

A. $405.6 million

B. $454.2 million

C. $505.8 million

D. $553.5 million

77. The free cash flow to the firm is reported as $275 million. The interest expense to the firm is $60 million. If the tax rate is 35% and the net debt of the firm increased by $33 million, what is the free cash flow to the equity holders of the firm?

A. $269 million

B. $296 million

C. $305 million

D. $327 million 78. The free cash flow to the firm is reported as $205 million. The interest expense to the firm is $22 million. If

the tax rate is 35% and the net debt of the firm increased by $25 million, what is the approximate market value of the firm if the FCFE grows at 2% and the cost of equity is 11%?

A. $2,168 billion

B. $2,445 billion

C. $2,565 billion

D. $2,998 billion 79. The free cash flow to the firm is reported as $198 million. The interest expense to the firm is $15 million. If

the tax rate is 35% and the net debt of the firm increased by $20 million, what is the approximate market value of the firm if the FCFE grows at 3% and the cost of equity is 14%?

A. $1,950 billion

B. $2,497 billion

C. $2,585 billion

D. $3,098 billion

80. Firm A has a stock price of $35, and 60% of the value of the stock is in the form of PVGO. Firm B also has a stock price of $35, but only 20% of the value of stock B is in the form of PVGO. We know that:

I. Stock A will give us a higher return than Stock B.II. An investment in stock A is probably riskier than an investment in stock B.III. Stock A has higher forecast earnings growth than stock B.

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III 81. A firm is expected to produce earnings next year of $3 per share. It plans to reinvest 25% of its earnings at

20%. If the cost of equity is 11%, what should be the value of the stock?

A. $27.27

B. $37.50

C. $66.67

D. $70 82. Next year's earnings are estimated to be $5. The company plans to reinvest 20% of its earnings at 15%. If

the cost of equity is 9%, what is the present value of growth opportunities?

A. $9.09

B. $10.10

C. $11.11

D. $12.21

83. Next year's earnings are estimated to be $6. The company plans to reinvest 33% of its earnings at 12%. If the cost of equity is 8%, what is the present value of growth opportunities?

A. $6

B. $24.50

C. $44.44

D. $75 84. When Google's share price reached $475 per share, Google had a P/E ratio of about 68 and an estimated

market capitalization rate of 11.5%. Google pays no dividends. Approximately what percentage of Google's stock price was represented by PVGO?

A. 92%

B. 87%

C. 77%

D. 64% 85. A firm has a stock price of $55 per share and a P/E ratio of 75. If you buy the stock at this P/E and earnings

fail to grow at all, how long should you expect it to take to just recover the cost of your investment?

A. 27 years

B. 37 years

C. 55 years

D. 75 years 86. In what industry are investors likely to use the dividend discount model and arrive at a price close to the

observed market price?

A. Import/export trade

B. Software

C. Telecommunications

D. Utility

87. Estimates of a stock's intrinsic value calculated with the free cash flow methodology depend most critically on _______.

A. the terminal value used

B. whether one uses FCFF or FCFE

C. the time period used to estimate the cash flows

D. whether the firm is currently paying dividends 88. The greatest value to an analyst from calculating a stock's intrinsic value is _______.

A. how easy it is to come up with accurate model inputs

B. the precision of the value estimate

C. how the process forces analysts to understand the critical variables that have the greatest impact on value

D. how all the different models typically yield identical value results 89. Which of the following valuation measures is often used to compare firms that have no earnings?

A. Price-to-book ratio

B. P/E ratio

C. Price-to-cash-flow ratio

D. Price-to-sales ratio

14

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Which of the following assets is most liquid?

A. Cash equivalents

B. Receivables

C. Inventories

D. Plant and equipment 2. Cost of goods sold refers to ___________.

A. direct costs attributable to producing the product sold by the firm

B. salaries, advertising, and selling expenses

C. payments to the firm's creditors

D. payments to federal and local governments 3. Many observers believe that firms "manage" their income statements to _______.

A. minimize taxes over time

B. maximize expenditures

C. smooth their earnings over time

D. generate level sales 4. Depreciation expense is in what broad category of expenditures?

A. Operating expenses

B. General and administrative expenses

C. Debt interest expense

D. Tax expenditures

5. Firm A acquires firm B when firm B has a book value of assets of $155 million and a book value of liabilities of $35 million. Firm A actually pays $175 million for firm B. This purchase would result in goodwill for firm A equal to _____.

A. $175 million

B. $155 million

C. $120 million

D. $55 million 6. One of the biggest impediments to a global capital market has been _________.

A. volatile exchange rates

B. the lack of common accounting standards

C. lower disclosure standards in the United States than abroad

D. the lack of transparent reporting standards across the EU 7. Benjamin Graham thought that the benefits from detailed analysis of a firm's financial statements had

_________ over his long professional life.

A. increased greatly

B. increased slightly

C. remained constant

D. decreased 8. If the interest rate on debt is higher than the ROA, then a firm's ROE will _________.

A. decrease

B. increase

C. not change

D. change but in an indeterminable manner

9. Which of the following is not one of the three key financial statements available to investors in publicly traded firms?

A. Income statement

B. Balance sheet

C. Statement of operating earnings

D. Statement of cash flows 10. In 2006 Hewlett-Packard repurchased shares of common stock worth $5,241 million and made dividend

payments of $894 million. Other financing activities raised $196 million, and Hewlett-Packard's total cash flow from financing was -$6,077 million. How much did the long-term debt accounts of Hewlett-Packard change?

A. Increased $138 million

B. Decreased $138 million

C. Increased $836 million

D. Decreased $836 million 11.

What must cash flow from financing have been in 2008 for Interceptors, Inc.?

A. $5

B. $28

C. $30

D. $33

12.

Based on the cash flow data in the table for Interceptors Inc., which of the following statements is (are) correct?

I. This firm appears to be a good investment because of its steady growth in cash.II. This firm has been able to generate growing cash flows only by borrowing or selling equity to offset declining operating cash flows.III. Financing activities have been increasingly important for this firm's operations, at least in the short run.

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. II only

D. I and II only 13. Common-size balance sheets are prepared by dividing all quantities by ____________.

A. total assets

B. total liabilities

C. shareholders' equity

D. fixed assets 14. Operating ROA is calculated as __________, while ROE is calculated as _________.

A. EBIT/Total assets; Net profit/Total assets

B. Net profit/Total assets; EBIT/Total assets

C. EBIT/Total assets; Net profit/Equity

D. Net profit/EBIT; Sales/Total assets

15. A firm increases its financial leverage when its ROA is greater than the cost of debt. Everything else equal, this change will probably increase the firm's:

I. BetaII. Earnings variability over the business cycleIII. ROEIV. Stock price

A. I and II only

B. III and IV only

C. I, III, and IV only

D. I, II, and III only

16. The highest possible value for the interest-burden ratio is ______, and this occurs when the firm

_________.

A. 0; uses as much debt as possible

B. 1; uses debt to the point where ROA = interest cost of debt

C. 1; uses no interest-bearing debt

D. -1; pays down its existing debts 17. Which one of the following ratios is used to calculate the times-interest-earned ratio?

A. Net profit/Interest expense

B. Pretax profit/EBIT

C. EBIT/Sales

D. EBIT/Interest expense 18. The process of decomposing ROE into a series of component ratios is called ______________.

A. DuPont analysis

B. technical analysis

C. comparative analysis

D. liquidity analysis

19. Which of the following is not a ratio used in the DuPont analysis?

A. Interest burden

B. Profit margin

C. Asset turnover

D. Earnings yield ratio 20. By 2008, over 100 countries had adopted financial reporting standards that are in conformance with

________.

A. GAAP

B. IFRS

C. FASB

D. GASB 21. Operating ROA can be found as the product of ______.

A. Return on sales × ATO

B. Tax burden × Interest burden

C. Interest burden × Leverage ratio

D. ROE × Dividend payout ratio 22. A firm has an ROE of 20% and a market-to-book ratio of 2.38. Its P/E ratio is _________.

A. 8.4

B. 11.9

C. 17.62

D. 47.6

23. If a firm has a positive tax rate and a positive operating ROA, and the interest rate on debt is the same as the operating ROA, then operating ROA will be _________.

A. greater than zero, but it is impossible to determine how operating ROA will compare to ROE

B. equal to ROE

C. greater than ROE

D. less than ROE 24. You find that a firm that uses debt has a compound leverage factor less than 1. This tells you that

________.

A. the firm's use of financial leverage is positively contributing to ROE

B. the firm's use of financial leverage is negatively contributing to ROE

C. the firm's use of operating leverage is positively contributing to ROE

D. the firm's use of operating leverage is negatively contributing to ROE 25. A firm has a P/E ratio of 24 and an ROE of 12%. Its market-to-book-value ratio is _________.

A. 2.88

B. 2

C. 1.75

D. .69 26. A firm has an ROA of 8% and a debt/equity ratio of .5; its ROE is _________.

A. 4%

B. 6%

C. 8%

D. 12%

27. A firm has a tax burden of .7, a leverage ratio of 1.3, an interest burden of .8, and a return-on-sales ratio of 10%. The firm generates $2.28 in sales per dollar of assets. What is the firm's ROE?

A. 12.4%

B. 14.5%

C. 16.6%

D. 17.8% 28. Economic value added (EVA) is:

A. the difference between the return on assets and the opportunity cost of capital times the capital base

B. ROA × ROE

C. a measure of the firm's abnormal return

D. largest for high-growth firms 29. Which of the following statements is true concerning economic value added?

A. A growing number of firms tie managers' compensation to EVA.

B. A profitable firm will always have a positive EVA.

C. EVA recognizes that the cost of capital is not a real cost.

D. If a firm has positive present value of growth opportunities, it will have positive EVA.

30. The financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company are shown below:

Note: The common shares are trading in the stock market for $15 per share

Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's current ratio for 2012 indicates that Flathead's liquidity has ________ since 2011.

A. risen

B. fallen

C. stayed the same




Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's inventory turnover ratio is _________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. 11.6

B. 10.2

C. 9.5

D. 7.7



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's debt-to-equity ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 2.13

B. 2.44

C. 2.56

D. 2.89



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's cash flow from operating activities for 2012 was _______.

A. $810,000

B. $775,000

C. $755,000

D. $735,000



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The industry average ACP is 32 days. How is Flathead doing in its collections relative to the industry? (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. Flathead's receivables are outstanding about 9 fewer days than the industry average.

B. Flathead's receivables are outstanding about 15 fewer days than the industry average.

C. Flathead's receivables are outstanding about 12 more days than the industry average.

D. Flathead's receivables are outstanding about 6 more days than the industry average.



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's total asset turnover for 2012 is _________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. 3.56

B. 3.26

C. 3.14

D. 3.02



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. In 2012 Flathead generated ______ of EBIT for every dollar of sales.

A. $.075

B. $.086

C. $.092

D. $.099



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's return on equity ratio for 2012 is _________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. 6.5%

B. 26.5%

C. 33.4%

D. 38%



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's P/E ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 3.39

B. 3.6

C. 13.33

D. 10.67



Refer to the financial statements of Flathead Lake Manufacturing Company. The firm's compound leverage ratio is __________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. 1.5

B. 2

C. 2.5

D. 3

40. The financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company are shown below.

Note: The common shares are trading in the stock market for $27 each.

Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's current ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 1.3

B. 1.5

C. 1.69

D. 2.83



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's quick ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 1.3

B. 1.5

C. 1.69

D. 2.83



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's leverage ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 1.3

B. 1.5

C. 1.69

D. 2.83



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's times-interest-earned ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 2.8

B. 6

C. 9

D. 11.11



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's fixed-asset turnover ratio for 2012 is _________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. 2.8

B. 6

C. 9

D. 11.11



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's asset turnover ratio for 2012 is _________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. 1.3

B. 1.5

C. 1.69

D. 2.83



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's return-on-sales ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. .0409

B. .0429

C. .0475

D. .0753



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's return-on-equity ratio for 2012 is _________. (Please keep in mind that when a ratio involves both income statement and balance sheet numbers, the balance sheet numbers for the beginning and end of the year must be averaged.)

A. .0409

B. .0429

C. .0462

D. .0923



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's P/E ratio for 2012 is _________.

A. 2.8

B. 3.6

C. 6

D. 11.11



Refer to the financial statements of Burnaby Mountain Trading Company. The firm's market-to-book value for 2012 is _________.

A. .1708

B. .1529

C. .1462

D. .1636

50. A firm has a net profit/pretax profit ratio of .6, a leverage ratio of 1.5, a pretax profit/EBIT of .7, an asset turnover ratio of 4, a current ratio of 2, and a return-on-sales ratio of 6%. Its ROE is _________.

A. 7.56%

B. 15.12%

C. 20.16%

D. 30.24% 51. A firm has an ROA of 19%, a debt/equity ratio of 1.8, and a tax rate of 30%, and the interest rate on its debt

is 7%. Its ROE is _________.

A. 15.12%

B. 28.42%

C. 37.24%

D. 40.6% 52. The level of real income of a firm can be distorted by the reporting of depreciation and interest expense.

During periods of low inflation, the level of reported depreciation tends to __________ income, and the level of interest expense reported tends to __________ income.

A. understate; overstate

B. understate; understate

C. overstate; understate

D. overstate; overstate 53. If a firm's ratio of stockholders' equity/total assets is lower than the industry average and its ratio of long-

term debt/stockholders' equity is also lower than the industry average, this would suggest that the firm _________.

A. has more current liabilities than the industry average

B. has more leased assets than the industry average

C. will be less profitable than the industry average

D. has more current assets than the industry average

54. A firm has a lower inventory turnover, a longer ACP, and a lower fixed-asset turnover than the industry averages. You should not be surprised to find that this firm has:

I. Lower ATO than the industry averageII. Lower ROA than the industry averageIII. Lower ROE than the industry average

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III 55. A high price-to-book ratio may indicate which one of the following?

A. The firm expanded its plant and equipment in the past few years.

B. The firm is doing a poorer job controlling its inventory expense than other related firms.

C. Investors may believe that this firm has opportunities for earning a rate of return in excess of the market capitalization rate.

D. All of these options. 56. A firm has an ROE equal to the industry average, but its price-to-book ratio is below the industry average.

You know that the firm's _________.

A. earnings yield is above the industry average

B. P/E ratio is above the industry average

C. dividend payout ratio is too high

D. interest burden must be below the industry average

57. Use the following cash flow data of Haven Hardware for the year ended December 31, 2012.

What is the net cash provided by operating activities of Haven Hardware?

A. -$30,000

B. $220,000

C. $320,000

D. $780,000 58. Use the following cash flow data of Haven Hardware for the year ended December 31, 2012.

What is the net cash provided by or used in investing activities of Haven Hardware?

A. -$12,000

B. -$62,000

C. $12,000

D. $164,000


What is the net cash provided by or used in financing activities of Haven Hardware?

A. -$10,000

B. -$120,000

C. $10,000

D. $120,000 60. Use the following cash flow data of Haven Hardware for the year ended December 31, 2012.

What is the net increase or decrease in cash for Haven Hardware for 2012?

A. -$94,000

B. -$88,000

C. $88,000

D. $188,000


What is the cash at the end of 2012 for Haven Hardware?

A. $6,000

B. $94,000

C. $736,000

D. $188,000 62. All of the following ratios are related to efficiency except _______.

A. total asset turnover

B. fixed-asset turnover

C. average collection period

D. cash ratio 63. Which of the following would result in a cash inflow under the heading "Cash flow from investing" in the

statement of cash flows?

A. Purchase of capital equipment

B. Payments to suppliers for inventory

C. Collections on receivables

D. Sale of production machinery

64. When assessing the sustainability of a firm's cash flows, analysts will prefer to see cash growth generated from which of the following sources?

A. Cash flow from investment activities

B. Cash flow from operating activities

C. Cash flow from financing

D. Cash flow from extraordinary events 65. The ABS company has a capital base of $100 million, an opportunity cost of capital (k) of 15%, a return on

assets (ROA) of 9%, and a return on equity (ROE) of 18%. What is the economic value added (EVA) for ABS?

A. $8 million

B. -$6 million

C. $3 million

D. -$4 million 66. Another term for EVA is ______.

A. net income

B. operating income

C. residual income

D. market-based income 67. Which of the following transactions will result in a decrease in cash flow from operations?

A. Increase in accounts receivable

B. Decrease in inventories

C. Decrease in taxes payable

D. Decrease in bonds outstanding

68. Which of the following transactions will result in a decrease in cash flow from investments?

A. Acquisition of another business

B. Capital gain from sale of a subsidiary

C. Decrease in net investments

D. Sale of equipment 69. Which of the following will result in an increase in cash to the firm?

A. Dividends paid

B. A delay in collecting on accounts receivable

C. Net new investments

D. An increase in accounts payable 70. The table below shows some data for Key Biscuit Company:

What must have caused the firm's ROE to drop?

A. The firm began using more debt as a percentage of financing.

B. The firm began using less debt as a percentage of financing.

C. The compound leverage ratio was less than 1.

D. The operating ROA was declining.

71. A firm purchases goods on credit worth $150. The same firm pays off $100 in old credit purchases. An investment is made via the purchase of a new facility, and equity is issued in the amount of $300 to pay for the purchase. What is the change in net cash provided by operations?

A. $50 increase

B. $100 increase

C. $150 increase

D. $250 increase 72. A firm purchases goods on credit worth $100. The same firm pays off $80 in old credit purchases. An

investment is made via the purchase of a new facility, and equity is issued in the amount of $200 to pay for the purchase. What is the change in net cash provided by financing?

A. $20 increase

B. $80 increase

C. $100 increase

D. $200 increase 73. A firm purchases goods on credit worth $90. The same firm pays off $100 in old credit purchases. An

investment is made via the purchase of a new facility, and equity is issued in the amount of $180 to pay for the purchase. What is the change in net cash provided by investments?

A. $10 decrease

B. $90 decrease

C. $180 decrease

D. $190 decrease 74. The net income of the company is $120. Accounts payable increase by $20, depreciation is $15, and

equipment is purchased for $40. If the firm issued $110 in new bonds, what is the total change in cash for the firm for all activities?

A. Increase of $225

B. Increase of $130

C. Decrease of $195

D. Decrease of $110

75. The term quality of earnings refers to ________.

A. how well reported earnings conform to GAAP

B. the realism and sustainability of reported earnings

C. whether actual earnings matched expected earnings

D. how well reported earnings fit a trend line of earnings growth 76. The practice of "selling" large quantities of goods to customers in order to get quarterly sales up while

allowing these customers to return the goods next quarter is termed _____________.

A. channel stuffing

B. clogging the network

C. spamming the johns

D. artificial sales 77. What ratio will definitely increase when a firm increases its annual sales with no corresponding increase in

assets?

A. Asset turnover

B. Current ratio

C. Liquidity ratio

D. Quick ratio 78. A firm's leverage ratio is 1.2, interest-burden ratio is .81, and profit margin is .25, and its asset turnover is

1.1. What is the firm's compound leverage factor?

A. .243

B. .267

C. .826

D. .972

79. The tax burden of the firm is .4, the interest burden is .65, the return on sales is .05, the asset turnover is .90, and the leverage ratio is 1.35. What is the ROE of the firm?

A. 1.58%

B. 5.68%

C. 12.2%

D. 13.33% 80. The tax burden of the firm is .5, the interest burden is .55, the profit margin is .25, the asset turnover is 1.5,

and the leverage ratio is 1.65. What is the ROE of the firm?

A. 1.88%

B. 6.68%

C. 12.15%

D. 17.02% 81. The major difference between IFRS and GAAP is that U.S. standards are ___________ and IFRS standards

are _________.

A. strictly enforced; weakly enforced

B. rules-based; principles-based

C. evolutionary; devolutionary

D. based on government standards; based on corporate practice 82. The quick ratio is a measure of a firm's __________.

A. asset turnover

B. market valuation

C. liquidity

D. interest burden

83. The firm's leverage ratio is 1.2, interest-burden ratio is .81, and profit margin is .24, and its asset turnover is 1.25. What is the firm's ROA?

A. .25

B. .3

C. .335

D. .372 84. A firm has a compound leverage factor greater than 1; this indicates that ______.

A. the firm has no interest payments

B. the firm uses less debt as a percentage of financing

C. the firm's interest payments are equal to the firm's pretax profits

D. the firm's debt has a positive contribution to the firm's ROA

15

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. You purchase one IBM July 120 call contract for a premium of $5. You hold the option until the expiration date, when IBM stock sells for $123 per share. You will realize a ______ on the investment.

A. $200 profit

B. $200 loss

C. $300 profit

D. $300 loss 2. You purchase one IBM July 125 call contract for a premium of $5. You hold the option until the expiration

date, when IBM stock sells for $123 per share. You will realize a ______ on the investment.

A. $200 profit

B. $200 loss

C. $500 profit

D. $500 loss 3. You purchase one IBM July 120 put contract for a premium of $3. You hold the option until the expiration

date, when IBM stock sells for $123 per share. You will realize a ______ on the investment.

A. $300 profit

B. $300 loss

C. $500 loss

D. $200 profit

4. You write one IBM July 120 call contract for a premium of $4. You hold the option until the expiration date, when IBM stock sells for $121 per share. You will realize a ______ on the investment.

A. $300 profit

B. $200 loss

C. $600 loss

D. $200 profit 5. ______ option can only be exercised on the expiration date.

A. A Mexican

B. An Asian

C. An American

D. A European 6. All else the same, an American style option will be ______ valuable than a ______ style option.

A. more; European-

B. less; European-

C. more; Canadian-

D. less; Canadian- 7. At contract maturity the value of a call option is ___________, where X equals the option's strike price and

ST is the stock price at contract expiration.

A. Max (0, ST - X)

B. Min (0, ST - X)

C. Max (0, X - ST)

D. Min (0, X - ST)

8. At contract maturity the value of a put option is ___________, where X equals the option's strike price and ST is the stock price at contract expiration.

A. Max (0, ST - X)

B. Min (0, ST - X)

C. Max (0, X - ST)

D. Min (0, X - ST) 9. An American put option gives its holder the right to _________.

A. buy the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date

B. buy the underlying asset at the exercise price only at the expiration date

C. sell the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date

D. sell the underlying asset at the exercise price only at the expiration date 10. An Asian call option gives its holder the right to ____________.


B. buy the underlying asset at a price determined by the average stock price during some specified portion of the option's life


D. sell the underlying asset at a price determined by the average stock price during some specified portion of the option's life

11. An Asian put option gives its holder the right to ____________.


B. buy the underlying asset at a price determined by the average stock price during some specified portion of the option's life


D. sell the underlying asset at a price determined by the average stock price during some specified portion of the option's life

12. A time spread may be executed by _____.

A. selling an option with one exercise price and buying a similar one with a different exercise price

B. buying two options that have the same expiration dates but different strike prices

C. selling two options that have the same expiration dates but different strike prices

D. selling an option with one expiration date and buying a similar option with a different expiration date 13. Which of the following statements about convertible bonds are true?

I. The conversion price does not change over time.II. The associated stocks may not pay dividends as long as the bonds are outstanding.III. Most convertibles are also callable at the discretion of the firm.IV. They may be thought of as straight bonds plus a call option.

A. I and III only

B. I and IV only

C. I, II, and IV only

D. III and IV only 14. A quanto provides its holder with the right to ______________.

A. participate in the payoffs from a portfolio of gambling casino stocks

B. exchange a fixed amount of a foreign currency for dollars at a specified exchange rate

C. participate in the investment performance of a foreign security

D. exchange the payoff from a foreign investment for dollars at a fixed exchange rate 15. You purchase a call option on a stock. The profit at contract maturity of the option position is

___________, where X equals the option's strike price, ST is the stock price at contract expiration, and C0 is the original purchase price of the option.

A. Max (-C0, ST - X - C0)

B. Min (-C0, ST - X - C0)

C. Max (C0, ST - X + C0)

D. Max (0, ST - X - C0)

16. Strips and straps are variations of __________.

A. straddles

B. collars

C. money spreads

D. time spreads 17. You write a put option on a stock. The profit at contract maturity of the option position is ___________,

where X equals the option's strike price, ST is the stock price at contract expiration, and P0 is the original premium of the put option.

A. Max (P0, X - ST - P0)

B. Min (-P0, X - ST - P0)

C. Min (P0, ST - X + P0)

D. Max (0, ST - X - P0) 18. Longer-term American-style options with maturities of up to 3 years are called __________.

A. warrants

B. LEAPS

C. GICs

D. CATs 19. The initial maturities of most exchange-traded options are generally __________.

A. less than 1 year

B. less than 2 years

C. between 1 and 2 years

D. between 1 and 3 years

20. A futures call option provides its holder with the right to ___________.

A. purchase a particular stock at some time in the future at a specified price

B. purchase a futures contract for the delivery of options on a particular stock

C. purchase a futures contract at a specified price for a specified period of time

D. deliver a futures contract and receive a specified price at a specific date in the future 21. Exchange-traded stock options expire on the _______________ of the expiration month.

A. second Monday

B. third Wednesday

C. second Thursday

D. third Friday 22. The writer of a put option _______________.

A. agrees to sell shares at a set price if the option holder desires

B. agrees to buy shares at a set price if the option holder desires

C. has the right to buy shares at a set price

D. has the right to sell shares at a set price 23. Advantages of exchange-traded options over OTC options include all but which one of the following?

A. Ease and low cost of trading

B. Anonymity of participants

C. Contracts that are tailored to meet the needs of market participants

D. No concerns about counterparty credit risk

24. Each listed stock option contract gives the holder the right to buy or sell __________ shares of stock.

A. 1

B. 10

C. 100

D. 1,000 25. Exercise prices for listed stock options usually occur in increments of ____ and bracket the current stock

price.

A. $1

B. $5

C. $20

D. $25 26. You buy a call option and a put option on General Electric. Both the call option and the put option have the

same exercise price and expiration date. This strategy is called a _________.

A. time spread

B. long straddle

C. short straddle

D. money spread 27. In 1973, trading of standardized options on a national exchange started on the _________.

A. AMEX

B. CBOE

C. NYSE

D. CFTC

28. An American call option gives the buyer the right to _________.




D. sell the underlying asset at the exercise price only at the expiration date 29. A put option on Dr. Pepper Snapple Group, Inc., has an exercise price of $45. The current stock price is

$41. The put option is _________.

A. at the money

B. in the money

C. out of the money

D. knocked out 30. You buy a call option on Merritt Corp. with an exercise price of $50 and an expiration date in July, and you

write a call option on Merritt Corp. with an exercise price of $55 and an expiration date in July. This is called a ________.

A. time spread

B. long straddle

C. short straddle

D. money spread 31. A call option on Brocklehurst Corp. has an exercise price of $30. The current stock price of Brocklehurst

Corp. is $32. The call option is _________.

A. at the money

B. in the money

C. out of the money

D. knocked in

32. You invest in the stock of Rayleigh Corp. and write a call option on Rayleigh Corp. This strategy is called a _________.

A. covered call

B. long straddle

C. naked call

D. money spread 33. You buy a call option on Summit Corp. with an exercise price of $40 and an expiration date in September,

and you write a call option on Summit Corp. with an exercise price of $40 and an expiration date in October. This strategy is called a _________.

A. time spread

B. long straddle

C. short straddle

D. money spread 34. A European call option gives the buyer the right to _________.




D. sell the underlying asset at the exercise price only at the expiration date 35. You invest in the stock of Valleyview Corp. and purchase a put option on Valleyview Corp. This strategy is

called a _________.

A. long straddle

B. naked put

C. protective put

D. short stroll

36. The value of a listed call option on a stock is lower when:

I. The exercise price is higher.II. The contract approaches maturity.III. The stock decreases in value.IV. A stock split occurs.

A. II, III, and IV only

B. I, III, and IV only

C. I, II, and III only

D. I, II, III, and IV 37. The Option Clearing Corporation is owned by _________.

A. the exchanges on which stock options are traded

B. the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

C. the Federal Reserve System

D. major U.S. banks 38. The value of a listed put option on a stock is lower when:

I. The exercise price is higher.II. The contract approaches maturity.III. The stock decreases in value.IV. A stock split occurs.

A. II only

B. II and IV only



39. The maximum loss a buyer of a stock call option can suffer is the _________.

A. call premium

B. stock price

C. stock price minus the value of the call

D. strike price minus the stock price 40. Which one of the statements about margin requirements on option positions is not correct?

A. The margin required will be higher if the option is in the money.

B. If the required margin exceeds the posted margin, the option writer will receive a margin call.

C. A buyer of a put or call option does not have to post margin.

D. Even if the writer of a call option owns the stock, the writer will have to meet the margin requirement in cash.

41. A European put option gives its holder the right to _________.




D. sell the underlying asset at the exercise price only at the expiration date 42. The potential loss for a writer of a naked call option on a stock is _________.

A. equal to the call premium

B. larger the lower the stock price

C. limited

D. unlimited

43. A writer of a call option will want the value of the underlying asset to __________, and a buyer of a put option will want the value of the underlying asset to _________.

A. decrease; decrease

B. decrease; increase

C. increase; decrease

D. increase; increase 44. Buyers of listed options __________ required to post margins, and writers of naked listed options

__________ required to post margins.

A. are; are not

B. are; are

C. are not; are

D. are not; are not 45. An option with a payoff that depends on the average price of the underlying asset during at least some

portion of the life of the option is called ______ option.

A. an American

B. a European

C. an Asian

D. an Australian 46. Which of the following expressions represents the value of a call option to its holder on the expiration

date?

A. ST - X if ST > X, 0 if ST ≤ X

B. - (ST - X) if ST > X, 0 if ST ≤ X

C. 0 if ST ≥ X, X - ST if ST < X

D. 0 if ST ≥ X, - (X - ST) if ST < X

47. A "bet" option is also called a ____ option.

A. barrier

B. lookback

C. digital

D. foreign exchange 48. Which one of the following is the ticker symbol for the CBOE option contract on the S&P 100 Index?

A. SPX

B. DJX

C. CME

D. OEX 49. The May 17, 2012, price quotation for a Boeing call option with a strike price of $50 due to expire in

November is $20.80, while the stock price of Boeing is $69.80. The premium on one Boeing November 50 call contract is _________.

A. $1,980

B. $4,900

C. $5,000

D. $2,080 50. You purchase one IBM March 120 put contract for a put premium of $10. The maximum profit that you

could gain from this strategy is _________.

A. $120

B. $1,000

C. $11,000

D. $12,000

51. You buy one Hewlett Packard August 50 call contract and one Hewlett Packard August 50 put contract. The call premium is $1.25, and the put premium is $4.50. Your highest potential loss from this position is _________.

A. $125

B. $450

C. $575

D. unlimited 52. You sell one Hewlett Packard August 50 call contract and sell one Hewlett Packard August 50 put contract.

The call premium is $1.25 and the put premium is $4.50. Your strategy will pay off only if the stock price is __________ in August.

A. either lower than $44.25 or higher than $55.75

B. between $44.25 and $55.75

C. higher than $55.75

D. lower than $44.25 53. Suppose you purchase one Texas Instruments August 75 call contract quoted at $8.50 and write one Texas

Instruments August 80 call contract quoted at $6. If, at expiration, the price of a share of Texas Instruments stock is $79, your profit would be _________.

A. $150

B. $400

C. $600

D. $1,850 54. __________ is the most risky transaction to undertake in the stock-index option markets if the stock market

is expected to fall substantially after the transaction is completed.

A. Writing an uncovered call option

B. Writing an uncovered put option

C. Buying a call option

D. Buying a put option

55. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

A. Exercise of warrants results in more outstanding shares of stock, while exercise of listed call options does not.

B. A convertible bond consists of a straight bond plus a specified number of detachable warrants.

C. Call options always have an initial maturity greater than 1 year, while warrants have an initial maturity less than 1 year.

D. Call options may be convertible into the stock, while warrants are not convertible into the stock. 56. A put on Sanders stock with a strike price of $35 is priced at $2 per share, while a call with a strike price of

$35 is priced at $3.50. The maximum per-share loss to the writer of an uncovered put is __________, and the maximum per-share gain to the writer of an uncovered call is _________.

A. $33; $3.50

B. $33; $31.50

C. $35; $3.50

D. $35; $35 57. You are cautiously bullish on the common stock of the Wildwood Corporation over the next several

months. The current price of the stock is $50 per share. You want to establish a bullish money spread to help limit the cost of your option position. You find the following option quotes:

To establish a bull money spread with calls, you would _______________.

A. buy the 55 call and sell the 45 call

B. buy the 45 call and buy the 55 call

C. buy the 45 call and sell the 55 call

D. sell the 45 call and sell the 55 call

58. You are cautiously bullish on the common stock of the Wildwood Corporation over the next several months. The current price of the stock is $50 per share. You want to establish a bullish money spread to help limit the cost of your option position. You find the following option quotes:

Ignoring commissions, the cost to establish the bull money spread with calls would be _______.

A. $1,050

B. $650

C. $400

D. $400 income rather than cost 59. You are cautiously bullish on the common stock of the Wildwood Corporation over the next several


If in June the stock price is $53, your net profit on the bull money spread (buy the 45 call and sell the 55 call) would be ________.

A. $300

B. -$400

C. $150

D. $50

60. You are cautiously bullish on the common stock of the Wildwood Corporation over the next several months. The current price of the stock is $50 per share. You want to establish a bullish money spread to help limit the cost of your option position. You find the following option quotes:

To establish a bull money spread with puts, you would _______________.

A. sell the 55 put and buy the 45 put

B. buy the 45 put and buy the 55 put

C. buy the 55 put and sell the 45 put

D. sell the 45 put and sell the 55 put 61. You are cautiously bullish on the common stock of the Wildwood Corporation over the next several


Suppose you establish a bullish money spread with the puts. In June the stock's price turns out to be $52. Ignoring commissions, the net profit on your position is _______________.

A. $500

B. $700

C. $200

D. $250

62. The common stock of the Avalon Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $40 per share for months, and you believe it is going to stay in that range for the next 3 months. The price of a 3-month put option with an exercise price of $40 is $3, and a call with the same expiration date and exercise price sells for $4.

What would be a simple options strategy using a put and a call to exploit your conviction about the stock price's future movement?

A. Sell a call.

B. Purchase a put.

C. Sell a straddle.

D. Buy a straddle. 63. The common stock of the Avalon Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $40 per share for

months, and you believe it is going to stay in that range for the next 3 months. The price of a 3-month put option with an exercise price of $40 is $3, and a call with the same expiration date and exercise price sells for $4.

Selling a straddle would generate total premium income of _____.

A. $300

B. $400

C. $500

D. $700 64. The common stock of the Avalon Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $40 per share for

months, and you believe it is going to stay in that range for the next 3 months. The price of a 3-month put option with an exercise price of $40 is $3, and a call with the same expiration date and exercise price sells for $4.

Suppose you write a strap and the stock price winds up to be $42 at contract expiration. What was your net profit on the strap?

A. $200

B. $300

C. $700

D. $400

65. The common stock of the Avalon Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $40 per share for months, and you believe it is going to stay in that range for the next 3 months. The price of a 3-month put option with an exercise price of $40 is $3, and a call with the same expiration date and exercise price sells for $4.

How can you create a position involving a put, a call, and riskless lending that would have the same payoff structure as the stock at expiration?

A. Buy the call, sell the put; lend the present value of $40.

B. Sell the call, buy the put; lend the present value of $40.

C. Buy the call, sell the put; borrow the present value of $40.

D. Sell the call, buy the put; borrow the present value of $40. 66. A stock is trading at $50. You believe there is a 60% chance the price of the stock will increase by 10%

over the next 3 months. You believe there is a 30% chance the stock will drop by 5%, and you think there is only a 10% chance of a major drop in price of 20%. At-the-money 3-month puts are available at a cost of $650 per contract. What is the expected dollar profit for a writer of a naked put at the end of 3 months?

A. $300

B. $200

C. $475

D. $0 67. A covered call strategy benefits from what environment?

A. Falling interest rates

B. Price stability

C. Price volatility

D. Unexpected events

68. You sell one IBM July 90 call contract for a premium of $4 and two puts for a premium of $3 each. You hold the position until the expiration date, when IBM stock sells for $95 per share. You will realize a ______ on this strip.

A. $300 profit

B. $100 loss

C. $500 profit

D. $200 profit 69. Which strategy benefits from upside price movement and has some protection should the price of the

security fall?

A. Bull spread

B. Long put

C. Short call

D. Straddle 70. What combination of puts and calls can simulate a long stock investment?

A. Long call and short put

B. Long call and long put

C. Short call and short put

D. Short call and long put 71. An investor purchases a long call at a price of $2.50. The expiration price is $35. If the current stock price

is $35.10, what is the break-even point for the investor?

A. $32.50

B. $35

C. $37.50

D. $37.60

72. An investor is bearish on a particular stock and decided to buy a put with a strike price of $25. Ignoring commissions, if the option was purchased for a price of $.85, what is the break-even point for the investor?

A. $24.15

B. $25

C. $25.87

D. $27.86 73. Which of the following strategies makes a profit if the stock price stays stable?




D. Short call and long put 74. Which of the following strategies makes a profit when the stock price declines and loses money when the

stock price increases?




D. Short call and long put 75. If you combine a long stock position with selling an at-the-money call option, the resulting net payoff

profile will resemble the payoff profile of a _______.

A. long call

B. short call

C. short put

D. long put

76. What strategy could be considered insurance for an investment in a portfolio of stocks?

A. Covered call

B. Protective put

C. Short put

D. Straddle 77. What strategy is designed to ensure a value within the bounds of two different stock prices?

A. Collar

B. Covered Call

C. Protective put

D. Straddle 78. You are convinced that a stock's price will move by at least 15% over the next 3 months. You are not sure

which way the price will move, but you believe that the results of a patent hearing are definitely going to have a major effect on the stock price. You are somewhat more bullish than bearish however. Which one of the following options strategies best fits this scenario?

A. Buy a strip.

B. Buy a strap.

C. Buy a straddle.

D. Write a straddle. 79. When issued, most convertible bonds are issued _____________.

A. deep in the money

B. deep out of the money

C. slightly out of the money

D. slightly in the money

80. A convertible bond is deep in the money. This means the bond price will closely track the __________.

A. straight debt value of the bond

B. conversion value of the bond

C. straight debt value of the bond minus the conversion value

D. straight debt value of the bond plus the conversion value 81. Warrants differ from listed options in that:

I. Exercise of warrants results in dilution of a firm's earnings per share.II. When warrants are exercised, new shares of stock must be created.III. Warrant exercise results in cash flows to the firm, whereas exercise of listed options does not.

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III 82. Suppose you find two bonds identical in all respects except that bond A is convertible to common stock and

bond B is not. Bond A is priced at $1,245, and bond B is priced at $1,120. Bond A has a promised yield to maturity of 5.6%, and bond B has a promised yield to maturity of 6.7%. The stock of bond A is trading at $49.80 per share. Which of the following statements is (are) correct?

I. The value of the conversion option for bond A is $125.II. The lower promised yield to maturity of bond A indicates that the bond is priced according to its straight debt value rather than its conversion value.III. If bond A can be converted into 25 shares of stock, the investor would break even at the current prices.

A. II only

B. I and III only

C. III only

D. I, II, and III

83. You find digital option quotes on jobless claims. You can buy a call option with a strike price of 300,000 jobless claims. This option pays $100 if actual claims exceed the strike price and pays zero otherwise. The option costs $68. A second digital call with a strike price of 305,000 jobless claims is available at a cost of $53. Suppose you buy the option with the 300,000 strike and sell the option with the 305,000 strike and jobless claims actually wind up at 303,000. Your net profit on the position is ______.

A. -$15

B. $200

C. $85

D. $185 84. Bill Jones inherited 5,000 shares of stock priced at $45 per share. He does not want to sell the stock this

year due to tax reasons, but he is concerned that the stock will drop in value before year-end. Bill wants to use a collar to ensure that he minimizes his risk and doesn't incur too much cost in deferring the gain. January call options with a strike of $50 are quoted at a cost of $2, and January puts with a $40 exercise price are quoted at a cost of $3. If Bill establishes the collar and the stock price winds up at $35 in January, Bill's net position value including the option profit or loss and the stock is _________.

A. $195,000

B. $220,000

C. $175,000

D. $215,000 85. You own a stock portfolio worth $50,000. You are worried that stock prices may take a dip before you are

ready to sell, so you are considering purchasing either at-the-money or out-of-the-money puts. If you decide to purchase the out-of-the-money puts, your maximum loss is __________ than if you buy at-the-money puts and your maximum gain is __________.

A. greater; lower

B. greater; greater

C. lower; greater

D. lower; lower

86. You purchase one IBM July 90 call contract for a premium of $4. The stock has a 2-for-1 split prior to the expiration date. You hold the option until the expiration date, when IBM stock sells for $48 per share. You will realize a ______ on the investment.

A. $300 profit

B. $100 loss

C. $400 loss

D. $200 profit 87. You own $75,000 worth of stock, and you are worried the price may fall by year-end in 6 months. You are

considering using either puts or calls to hedge this position. Given this, which of the following statements is (are) correct?

I. One way to hedge your position would be to buy puts.II. One way to hedge your position would be to write calls.III. If major stock price declines are likely, hedging with puts is probably better than hedging with short calls.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III

17

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Today's futures markets are dominated by trading in _______ contracts.

A. metals

B. agriculture

C. financial

D. commodity 2. A person with a long position in a commodity futures contract wants the price of the commodity to

______.

A. decrease substantially

B. increase substantially

C. remain unchanged

D. increase or decrease substantially 3. If an asset price declines, the investor with a _______ is exposed to the largest potential loss.

A. long call option

B. long put option

C. long futures contract

D. short futures contract

4. The clearing corporation has a net position equal to ______.

A. the open interest

B. the open interest times 2

C. the open interest divided by 2

D. zero 5. The S&P 500 Index futures contract is an example of a(n) ______ delivery contract. The pork bellies

contract is an example of a(n) ______ delivery contract.

A. cash; cash

B. cash; actual

C. actual; cash

D. actual; actual 6. Which one of the following contracts requires no cash to change hands when initiated?

A. Listed put option

B. Short futures contract

C. Forward contract

D. Listed call option 7. Synthetic stock positions are commonly used by ______ because of their ______.

A. market timers; lower transaction cost

B. banks; lower risk

C. wealthy investors; tax treatment

D. money market funds; limited exposure

8. _____________ are likely to close their positions before the expiration date, while ____________ are likely to make or take delivery.

A. Investors; regulators

B. Hedgers; speculators

C. Speculators; hedgers

D. Regulators; investors 9. Futures contracts have many advantages over forward contracts except that _________.

A. futures positions are easier to trade

B. futures contracts are tailored to the specific needs of the investor

C. futures trading preserves the anonymity of the participants

D. counterparty credit risk is not a concern on futures 10. An investor who is hedging a corporate bond portfolio using a T-bond futures contract is said to have

_______.

A. an arbitrage

B. a cross-hedge

C. an over hedge

D. a spread hedge 11. The open interest on silver futures at a particular time is the number of __________.

A. all outstanding silver futures contracts

B. long and short silver futures positions counted separately on a particular trading day

C. silver futures contracts traded during the day

D. silver futures contracts traded the previous day

12. An investor who goes short in a futures contract will _____ any increase in value of the underlying asset and will _____ any decrease in value in the underlying asset.

A. pay; pay

B. pay; receive

C. receive; pay

D. receive; receive 13. An investor who goes long in a futures contract will _____ any increase in value of the underlying asset

and will _____ any decrease in value in the underlying asset.

A. pay; pay

B. pay; receive

C. receive; pay

D. receive; receive 14. The advantage that standardization of futures contracts brings is that _____ is improved because

____________________.

A. liquidity; all traders must trade a small set of identical contracts

B. credit risk; all traders understand the risk of the contracts

C. pricing; convergence is more likely to take place with fewer contracts

D. trading cost; trading volume is reduced 15. The fact that the exchange is the counterparty to every futures contract issued is important because it

eliminates _________ risk.

A. market

B. credit

C. interest rate

D. basis

16. In the futures market the short position's loss is ___________ the long position's gain.

A. greater than

B. less than

C. equal to

D. sometimes less than and sometimes greater than 17. A wheat farmer should __________ in order to reduce his exposure to risk associated with fluctuations in

wheat prices.

A. sell wheat futures

B. buy wheat futures

C. buy a contract for delivery of wheat now and sell a contract for delivery of wheat at harvest time

D. sell wheat futures if the basis is currently positive and buy wheat futures if the basis is currently negative 18. Which of the following provides the profit to a long position at contract maturity?

A. Original futures price - Spot price at maturity

B. Spot price at maturity - Original futures price

C. Zero

D. Basis 19. You take a long position in a futures contract of one maturity and a short position in a contract of a

different maturity, both on the same commodity. This is called a __________.

A. cross-hedge

B. reversing trade

C. spread position

D. straddle

20. Interest rate futures contracts exist for all of the following except __________.

A. federal funds

B. Eurodollars

C. banker's acceptances

D. repurchase agreements 21. Initial margin is usually set in the region of ________ of the total value of a futures contract.

A. 5%-15%

B. 10%-20%

C. 15%-25%

D. 20%-30% 22. Margin must be posted by ________.

A. buyers of futures contracts only

B. sellers of futures contracts only

C. both buyers and sellers of futures contracts

D. speculators only 23. The daily settlement of obligations on futures positions is called _____________.

A. a margin call

B. marking to market

C. a variation margin check

D. the initial margin requirement

24. Which of the following provides the profit to a short position at contract maturity?

A. Original futures price - Spot price at maturity

B. Spot price at maturity - Original futures price

C. Zero

D. Basis 25. Margin requirements for futures contracts can be met by ______________.

A. cash only

B. cash or highly marketable securities such as Treasury bills

C. cash or any marketable securities

D. cash or warehouse receipts for an equivalent quantity of the underlying commodity 26. An established value below which a trader's margin may not fall is called the ________.

A. daily limit

B. daily margin

C. maintenance margin

D. convergence limit 27. Which one of the following is a true statement?

A. A margin deposit can be met only by cash.

B. All futures contracts require the same margin deposit.

C. The maintenance margin is the amount of money you post with your broker when you buy or sell a futures contract.

D. The maintenance margin is the value of the margin account below which the holder of a futures contract receives a margin call.

28. At maturity of a futures contract, the spot price and futures price must be approximately the same because of __________.

A. marking to market

B. the convergence property

C. the open interest

D. the triple witching hour 29. A futures contract __________.

A. is a contract to be signed in the future by the buyer and the seller of a commodity

B. is an agreement to buy or sell a specified amount of an asset at a predetermined price on the expiration date of the contract

C. is an agreement to buy or sell a specified amount of an asset at whatever the spot price happens to be on the expiration date of the contract

D. gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy an asset some time in the future 30. Which one of the following exploits differences between actual future prices and their theoretically correct

parity values?

A. Index arbitrage

B. Marking to market

C. Reversing trades

D. Settlement transactions 31. Which one of the following refers to the daily settlement of obligations on future positions?

A. Marking to market

B. The convergence property

C. The open interest

D. The triple witching hour

32. The most actively traded interest rate futures contract is for ___________.

A. LIBOR

B. Treasury bills

C. Eurodollars

D. Treasury bonds 33. The CME weather futures contract is an example of ______________.

A. a cash-settled contract

B. an agricultural contract

C. a financial future

D. a commodity future 34. Single stock futures, as opposed to stock index futures, are _______________.

A. not yet being offered by any exchanges

B. offered overseas but not in the United States

C. currently trading on One Chicago, a joint venture of several exchanges

D. scheduled to begin trading in 2015 on several exchanges 35. You are currently long in a futures contract. You instruct a broker to enter the short side of a futures

contract to close your position. This is called __________.

A. a cross-hedge

B. a reversing trade

C. a speculation

D. marking to market

36. A company that mines bauxite, an aluminum ore, decides to short aluminum futures. This is an example of __________ to limit its risk.

A. cross-hedging

B. long hedging

C. spreading

D. speculating 37. Futures markets are regulated by the __________.

A. CFA Institute

B. CFTC

C. CIA

D. SEC 38. A hog farmer decides to sell hog futures. This is an example of __________ to limit risk.

A. cross-hedging

B. short hedging

C. spreading

D. speculating 39. On May 21, 2012, you could have purchased a futures contract from Intrade for a price of $5.70 that would

pay you $10 if Barack Obama won the 2012 presidential election. This tells you _____.

A. that the market believed that Obama had a 57% chance of winning

B. that the market believed that Obama would not win the election

C. nothing about the market's belief concerning the odds of Obama winning

D. that the market believed Obama's chances of winning were about 43%

40. An investor would want to __________ to exploit an expected fall in interest rates.

A. sell S&P 500 Index futures

B. sell Treasury-bond futures

C. buy Treasury-bond futures

D. buy wheat futures 41. Forward contracts _________ traded on an organized exchange, and futures contracts __________ traded

on an organized exchange.

A. are; are

B. are; are not

C. are not; are

D. are not; are not 42. If the S&P 500 Index futures contract is overpriced relative to the spot S&P 500 Index, you should

__________.

A. buy all the stocks in the S&P 500 and write put options on the S&P 500 Index

B. sell all the stocks in the S&P 500 and buy call options on S&P 500 Index

C. sell S&P 500 Index futures and buy all the stocks in the S&P 500

D. sell short all the stocks in the S&P 500 and buy S&P 500 Index futures 43. A long hedge is a simultaneous __________ position in the spot market and a __________ position in the

futures market.

A. long; long

B. long; short

C. short; long

D. short; short

44. Investors who take short positions in futures contract agree to ___________ delivery of the commodity on the delivery date, and those who take long positions agree to __________ delivery of the commodity.

A. make; make

B. make; take

C. take; make

D. take; take 45. An investor would want to __________ to hedge a long position in Treasury bonds.

A. buy interest rate futures

B. buy Treasury bonds in the spot market

C. sell interest rate futures

D. sell S&P 500 futures 46. Futures contracts are said to exhibit the property of convergence because _______________.

A. the profits from long positions and short positions must ultimately be equal

B. the profits from long positions and short positions must ultimately net to zero

C. price discrepancies would open arbitrage opportunities for investors who spot them

D. the futures price and spot price of any asset must ultimately net to zero 47. In the context of a futures contract, the basis is defined as ______________.

A. the futures price minus the spot price

B. the spot price minus the futures price

C. the futures price minus the initial margin

D. the profit on the futures contract

48. The __________ is among the world's largest derivatives exchanges and operates a fully electronic trading and clearing platform.

A. CBOE

B. CBOT

C. CME

D. Eurex 49. Violation of the spot-futures parity relationship results in _______________.

A. fines and other penalties imposed by the SEC

B. arbitrage opportunities for investors who spot them

C. suspension of delivery privileges

D. suspension of trading 50. When dividend-paying assets are involved, the spot-futures parity relationship can be stated as

_________________.

A. F1 = S0(1 + rf)

B. F0 = S0(1 + rf - d)T

C. F0 = S0(1 + rf + d)T

D. F0 = S0(1 + rf)T

51. An investor establishes a long position in a futures contract now (time 0) and holds the position until

maturity (time T). The sum of all daily settlements will be __________.

A. F0 - FT

B. F0 - S0

C. FT - F0

D. FT - S0

52. A short hedge is a simultaneous __________ position in the spot market and a __________ position in the futures market.

A. long; long

B. long; short

C. short; long

D. short; short 53. Approximately __________ of futures contracts result in actual delivery.

A. 0%

B. less than 1% to 3%

C. less than 5% to 15%

D. less than 60% to 80% 54. A long hedger will __________ from an increase in the basis; a short hedger will __________.

A. be hurt; be hurt

B. be hurt; profit

C. profit; be hurt

D. profit; profit 55. At year-end, taxes on a futures position _______________.

A. must be paid if the position has been closed out

B. must be paid if the position has not been closed out

C. must be paid regardless of whether the position has been closed out or not

D. need not be paid if the position supports a hedge

56. A speculator will often prefer to buy a futures contract rather than the underlying asset because:

I. Gains in futures contracts can be larger due to leverage.II. Transaction costs in futures are typically lower than those in spot markets.III. Futures markets are often more liquid than the markets of the underlying commodities.

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 57. On January 1, you sold one April S&P 500 Index futures contract at a futures price of 1,300. If the April

futures price is 1,250 on February 1, your profit would be __________ if you close your position. (The contract multiplier is 250.)

A. -$12,500

B. -$15,000

C. $15,000

D. $12,500 58. The current level of the S&P 500 is 1,250. The dividend yield on the S&P 500 is 3%. The risk-free interest

rate is 6%. The futures price quote for a contract on the S&P 500 due to expire 6 months from now should be __________.

A. 1,274.33

B. 1,286.95

C. 1,268.61

D. 1,291.29

59. The spot price for gold is $1,550 per ounce. The dividend yield on the S&P 500 is 2.5%. The risk-free interest rate is 3.5%. The futures price for gold for a 6-month contract on gold should be __________.

A. $1,504.99

B. $1,569.08

C. $1,554.04

D. $1,557.73 60. If you expect a stock market downturn, one potential defensive strategy would be to __________.

A. buy stock-index futures

B. sell stock-index futures

C. buy stock-index options

D. sell foreign exchange futures 61. At contract maturity the basis should equal ___________.

A. 1

B. 0

C. the risk-free interest rate

D. -1 62. You believe that the spread between the September T-bond contract and the June T-bond futures contract is

too large and will soon correct. This market exhibits positive cost of carry for all contracts. To take advantage of this, you should ______________.

A. buy the September contract and sell the June contract

B. sell the September contract and buy the June contract

C. sell the September contract and sell the June contract

D. buy the September contract and buy the June contract

63. A 1-year gold futures contract is selling for $1,645. Spot gold prices are $1,592 and the 1-year risk-free rate is 3%.

The arbitrage profit implied by these prices is _____________.

A. $3.27

B. $4.39

C. $5.24

D. $6.72 64. A 1-year gold futures contract is selling for $1,645. Spot gold prices are $1,592 and the 1-year risk-free rate

is 3%.

Based on the above data, which of the following set of transactions will yield positive riskless arbitrage profits?

A. Buy gold in the spot with borrowed money, and sell the futures contract.

B. Buy the futures contract, and sell the gold spot and invest the money earned.

C. Buy gold spot with borrowed money, and buy the futures contract.

D. Buy the futures contract, and buy the gold spot using borrowed money. 65. A hypothetical futures contract on a nondividend-paying stock with a current spot price of $100 has a

maturity of 1 year. If the T-bill rate is 5%, what should the futures price be?

A. $95.24

B. $100

C. $105

D. $107

66. A hypothetical futures contract on a nondividend-paying stock with a current spot price of $100 has a maturity of 4 years. If the T-bill rate is 7%, what should the futures price be?

A. $76.29

B. $93.46

C. $107

D. $131.08 67. On Monday morning you sell one June T-bond futures contract at 97:27, that is, for $97,843.75. The

contract's face value is $100,000. The initial margin requirement is $2,700, and the maintenance margin requirement is $2,000 per contract. Use the following price data to answer the following questions.

After Monday's close the balance on your margin account will be ________.

A. $2,700

B. $2,000

C. $3,137.50

D. $2,262.50

68. On Monday morning you sell one June T-bond futures contract at 97:27, that is, for $97,843.75. The contract's face value is $100,000. The initial margin requirement is $2,700, and the maintenance margin requirement is $2,000 per contract. Use the following price data to answer the following questions.

At the close of day on Tuesday your cumulative rate of return on your investment is _____.

A. 16.2%

B. -5.8%

C. -.16%

D. -2.2% 69. On Monday morning you sell one June T-bond futures contract at 97:27, that is, for $97,843.75. The

contract's face value is $100,000. The initial margin requirement is $2,700, and the maintenance margin requirement is $2,000 per contract. Use the following price data to answer the following questions.

On which of the given days do you get a margin call?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. None of these options

70. On Monday morning you sell one June T-bond futures contract at 97:27, that is, for $97,843.75. The contract's face value is $100,000. The initial margin requirement is $2,700, and the maintenance margin requirement is $2,000 per contract. Use the following price data to answer the following questions.

The cumulative rate of return on your investment after Wednesday is a ____.

A. 79.9% loss

B. 2.6% loss

C. 33% gain

D. 53.9% loss 71. The volume of interest rate swaps increased from almost zero in 1980 to over __________ today.

A. $40 million

B. $400 million

C. $400 billion

D. $400 trillion 72. If the risk-free rate is greater than the dividend yield, then we know that _______________.

A. the futures price will be higher as contract maturity increases

B. F0 < S0

C. FT > ST

D. arbitrage profits are possible

73. Sahali Trading Company has issued $100 million worth of long-term bonds at a fixed rate of 9%. Sahali Trading Company then enters into an interest rate swap where it will pay LIBOR and receive a fixed 8% on a notional principal of $100 million. After all these transactions are considered, Sahali's cost of funds is __________.

A. 17%

B. LIBOR

C. LIBOR + 1%

D. LIBOR - 1% 74. Interest rate swaps involve the exchange of ________________.

A. actual fixed-rate bonds for actual floating-rate bonds

B. actual floating-rate bonds for actual fixed-rate bonds

C. net interest payments and an actual principal swap

D. net interest payments based on notional principal, but no exchange of principal 75. From the perspective of determining profit and loss, the long futures position most closely resembles a

levered investment in a ____________.

A. long call

B. short call

C. short stock position

D. long stock position 76. The _________ contract dominates trading in stock-index futures.

A. S&P 500

B. DJIA

C. Nasdaq 100

D. Russell 2000

77. The ________ and the _______ have the lowest correlations with the large-cap indexes.

A. Nasdaq Composite; Russell 2000

B. NYSE; DJIA

C. S&P 500; DJIA

D. Russell 2000; S&P 500 78. The use of leverage is practiced in the futures markets due to the existence of _________.

A. banks

B. brokers

C. clearinghouses

D. margin 79. You purchase an interest rate futures contract that has an initial margin requirement of 15% and a futures

price of $115,098. The contract has a $100,000 underlying par value bond. If the futures price falls to $108,000, you will experience a ______ loss on your money invested.

A. 31%

B. 41%

C. 52%

D. 64% 80. You own a $15 million bond portfolio with a modified duration of 11 years. Interest rates are expected to

increase by 5 basis points, or .05%. What is the price value of a basis point?

A. $10,400

B. $14,300

C. $16,500

D. $21,300

81. The price of a corn futures contract is $2.65 per bushel when the contract is issued, and the commodity spot price is $2.55. When the contract expires, the two prices are identical. What principle is represented by this price behavior?

A. Convergence

B. Margin

C. Basis

D. Volatility 82. A corporation will be issuing bonds in 6 months, and the treasurer is concerned about unfavorable interest

rate moves in the interim. The best way for her to hedge the risk is to _________________.

A. buy T-bond futures

B. sell T-bond futures

C. buy stock-index futures

D. sell stock-index futures 83. A farmer sells futures contracts at a price of $2.75 per bushel. The spot price of corn is $2.55 at contract

expiration. The farmer harvested 12,500 bushels of corn and sold futures contracts on 10,000 bushels of corn.

What are the farmer's proceeds from the sale of corn?

A. $27,500

B. $31,875

C. $33,875

D. $35,950

84. A farmer sells futures contracts at a price of $2.75 per bushel. The spot price of corn is $2.55 at contract expiration. The farmer harvested 12,500 bushels of corn and sold futures contracts on 10,000 bushels of corn.

Ignoring the transaction costs, how much did the farmer improve his cash flow by hedging sales with the futures contracts?

A. $0

B. $2,000

C. $31,875

D. $33,875 85. A bank has made long-term fixed-rate mortgages and has financed them with short-term deposits. To hedge

out its interest rate risk, the bank could ________.

A. sell T-bond futures

B. buy T-bond futures

C. buy stock-index futures

D. sell stock-index futures 86. A market timer now believes that the economy will soften over the rest of the year as the housing market

slump continues, and she also believes that foreign investors will stop buying U.S. fixed-income securities in the large quantities that they have in the past. One way the timer could take advantage of this forecast is to ________________.

A. buy T-bond futures and sell stock-index futures

B. sell T-bond futures and buy stock-index futures

C. buy stock-index futures and buy T-bond futures

D. sell stock-index futures and sell T-bond futures

87. The Student Loan Marketing Association (SLMA) has short-term student loans funded by long-term debt. To hedge out this interest rate risk, SLMA could:

I. Engage in a swap to pay fixed and receive variable interest paymentsII. Engage in a swap to pay variable and receive fixed interest paymentsIII. Buy T-bond futuresIV. Sell T-bond futures

A. I and II only

B. I and IV only

C. II and III only

D. II and IV only

18

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. A mutual fund with a beta of 1.1 has outperformed the S&P 500 over the last 20 years. We know that this mutual fund manager _____.

A. must have had superior stock selection ability.

B. must have had superior asset allocation ability.

C. must have had superior timing ability.

D. may or may not have outperformed the S&P 500 on a risk-adjusted basis. 2. The comparison universe is __________.

A. the bogey portfolio

B. a set of mutual funds with similar risk characteristics to your mutual fund

C. the set of all mutual funds in the United States

D. the set of all mutual funds in the world 3. Which one of the following performance measures is the Sharpe ratio?

A. Average excess return to beta ratio

B. Average excess return to standard deviation ratio

C. Alpha to standard deviation of residuals ratio

D. Average return minus required return 4. The M2 measure is a variant of ________________.

A. the Sharpe measure

B. the Treynor measure

C. Jensen's alpha

D. the appraisal ratio

5. A managed portfolio has a standard deviation equal to 22% and a beta of .9 when the market portfolio's standard deviation is 26%. The adjusted portfolio P* needed to calculate the M2 measure will have ________ invested in the managed portfolio and the rest in T-bills.

A. 84.6%

B. 118%

C. 18%

D. 15.4% 6. Your return will generally be higher using the __________ if you time your transactions poorly, and your

return will generally be higher using the __________ if you time your transactions well.

A. dollar-weighted return method; dollar-weighted return method

B. dollar-weighted return method; time-weighted return method

C. time-weighted return method; dollar-weighted return method

D. time-weighted return method; time-weighted return method 7. Consider the Sharpe and Treynor performance measures. When a pension fund is large and well diversified

in total and it has many managers, the __________ measure is better for evaluating individual managers while the __________ measure is better for evaluating the manager of a small fund with only one manager responsible for all investments, which may not be fully diversified.

A. Sharpe; Sharpe

B. Sharpe; Treynor

C. Treynor; Sharpe

D. Treynor; Treynor 8. Consider the theory of active portfolio management. Stocks A and B have the same beta and the same

positive alpha. Stock A has higher nonsystematic risk than stock B. You should want __________ in your active portfolio.

A. equal proportions of stocks A and B

B. more of stock A than stock B

C. more of stock B than stock A


9. Suppose that over the same time period two portfolios have the same average return and the same standard deviation of return, but portfolio A has a higher beta than portfolio B. According to the Sharpe ratio, the performance of portfolio A __________.

A. is better than the performance of portfolio B

B. is the same as the performance of portfolio B

C. is poorer than the performance of portfolio B

D. cannot be measured since there is no data on the alpha of the portfolio 10. Which model is preferred by academics, and is gaining in popularity with practitioners, when evaluating

investment performance?

A. The Treynor-Black model

B. The single-index model

C. The Fama-French three-factor model

D. The Sharpe model 11. The risk-free rate, average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds and the S&P 500 are

given below.

What is the Treynor measure for portfolio A?

A. 12.38%

B. 2.38%

C. .91%

D. 3.64%

12. The risk-free rate, average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds and the S&P 500 are given below.

What is the M2 measure for portfolio B?

A. .43%

B. 1.25%

C. 1.77%

D. 1.43% 13. The risk-free rate, average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds and the S&P 500 are

given below.

If these portfolios are subcomponents that make up part of a well-diversified portfolio, then portfolio ______ is preferred.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. S&P 500

14. The risk-free rate, average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds and the S&P 500 are given below.

Based on the M2 measure, portfolio C has a superior return of _____ as compared to the S&P 500.

A. -1.33%

B. 1.43%

C. 2%

D. 0% 15. Which one of the following is largely based on forecasts of macroeconomic factors?

A. Security selection

B. Passive investing

C. Market efficiency

D. Market timing 16. Based on the example used in the book, a perfect market timer would have made _______ by 2008 on a $1

investment made in 1926.

A. $100

B. $1,626

C. $1.5 million

D. $36.7 billion

17. The average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds are given below along with data for the S&P 500 Index. The risk-free return during the sample period is 6%.

You want to evaluate the three mutual funds using the Sharpe ratio for performance evaluation. The fund with the highest Sharpe ratio of performance is __________.

A. fund A

B. fund B

C. fund C

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 18. The average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds are given below along with data for the

S&P 500 Index. The risk-free return during the sample period is 6%.

You want to evaluate the three mutual funds using the Treynor measure for performance evaluation. The fund with the highest Treynor measure of performance is __________.

A. fund A

B. fund B

C. fund C


19. The average returns, standard deviations, and betas for three funds are given below along with data for the S&P 500 Index. The risk-free return during the sample period is 6%.

You want to evaluate the three mutual funds using the Jensen measure for performance evaluation. The fund with the highest Jensen measure of performance is __________.

A. fund A

B. fund B

C. fund C

D. S&P 500 20. In a particular year, Salmon Arm Mutual Fund earned a return of 16% by making the following

investments in asset classes:

The return on a bogey portfolio was 12%, based on the following:

The total excess return on the managed portfolio was __________.

A. 2%

B. 3%

C. 4%

D. 5%

21. In a particular year, Salmon Arm Mutual Fund earned a return of 16% by making the following investments in asset classes:


The contribution of asset allocation across markets to the total excess return was __________.

A. 1.5%

B. 2%

C. 2.5%

D. 3.5% 22. In a particular year, Salmon Arm Mutual Fund earned a return of 16% by making the following

investments in asset classes:


The contribution of security selection within asset classes to the total excess return was __________.

A. 1.5%

B. 2%

C. 2.5%

D. 3.5%

23. In a particular year, Lost Hope Mutual Fund made the following investments in asset classes:


The total extra return on the managed portfolio was __________.

A. 1%

B. 2%

C. 3%

D. 4% 24. In a particular year, Lost Hope Mutual Fund made the following investments in asset classes:


The contribution of asset allocation across markets to the total extra return was __________.

A. -1%

B. 0%

C. 1%

D. 2%

25. In a particular year, Lost Hope Mutual Fund made the following investments in asset classes:


The contribution of security selection within asset classes to the total extra return was __________.

A. -1%

B. 0%

C. 1%

D. 2% 26. Which one of the following averaging methods is the preferred method of constructing returns series for

use in evaluating portfolio performance?

A. Geometric average

B. Arithmetic average

C. Dollar weighted

D. Internal 27. The __________ calculates the reward to risk trade-off by dividing the average portfolio excess return by

the portfolio beta.

A. Sharpe ratio

B. Treynor measure

C. Jensen measure

D. appraisal ratio

28. 28. In creating the P* portfolio, one mixes the original portfolio P and T-bills to match the _________ of the market.

A. alpha

B. beta

C. excess return

D. standard deviation 29. The M2 measure of portfolio performance was developed by ______________.

A. Modigliani and Miller

B. Modigliani and Modigliani

C. Merton and Miller

D. Fama and French 30. Probably the biggest problem with evaluating the portfolio performance of actively managed funds is the

assumption that __________________________.

A. the markets are efficient

B. portfolio risk is constant over time

C. diversification pays off

D. security selection is more valuable than asset allocation 31. Perfect-timing ability is equivalent to having __________ on the market portfolio.

A. a call option

B. a futures contract

C. a put option

D. a forward contract

32. One hundred fund managers enter a contest to see how many times in 13 years they can earn a higher return than their competitors. The probability distribution of the number of successful years out of 13 for the best-performing money managers is

Out of this sample, chance alone would indicate that there is a ______ probability that someone would beat the market at least 11 times out of 13 years.

A. 51.3%

B. 65.9%

C. 67.1%

D. 10.83% 33. The Treynor-Black model is a model that shows how an investment manager can use security analysis and

statistics to construct __________.

A. a market portfolio

B. a passive portfolio

C. an active portfolio

D. an index portfolio 34. If an investor is a successful market timer, his distribution of monthly portfolio returns will __________.

A. be skewed to the left

B. be skewed to the right

C. exhibit kurtosis

D. exhibit neither skewness nor kurtosis

35. Recent analysis indicates that the style of investing is a critical component of fund performance. In fact, on average about _____ of fund performance is attributable to the asset allocation decision.

A. 68%

B. 74%

C. 88%

D. 97% 36. In the Treynor-Black model, the active portfolio will contain stocks with __________.

A. alphas equal to zero

B. negative alphas

C. positive alphas

D. some negative and some positive alphas 37. Portfolio performance is often decomposed into various subcomponents, such as the return due to:

I. Broad asset allocation across security classesII. Sector weightings within equity marketsIII. Security selection with a given sector

The one decision that contributes most to the fund performance is _____.

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. All contribute equally to fund performance. 38. The theory of efficient frontiers has __________.

A. no adherents among practitioners

B. a small number of adherents among practitioners

C. a significant number of adherents among practitioners

D. complete support by practitioners

39. In the Treynor-Black model, security analysts __________.

A. analyze a relatively small number of stocks

B. analyze all stocks that are publicly traded

C. are redundant

D. devote their attention to market timing rather than fundamental analysis 40. In the Treynor-Black model, security analysts __________.

A. analyze the entire universe of stocks

B. assume that markets are inefficient

C. treat market index as a baseline portfolio from which an active portfolio is constructed

D. focus on selecting the best-performing bogey 41. Active portfolio management consists of:

I. Market timingII. Security selectionIII. Sector selection within given marketsIV. Indexing

A. I and II only

B. II and III only


D. I, II, III, and IV 42. A market-timing strategy is one in which asset allocation in the stock market __________ when one

forecasts that the stock market will outperform Treasury bills.

A. decreases

B. increases

C. remains the same

D. may increase or decrease

43. In the Treynor-Black model, the contribution of individual security to the active portfolio should be based primarily on the stock's _________.

A. alpha

B. beta

C. residual variance

D. information ratio 44. If all ______ are ______ in the Treynor-Black model, there would be no reason to depart from the passive

portfolio.

A. alphas; zero

B. alphas; positive

C. betas; positive

D. standard deviations; positive 45. In the Treynor-Black model, the weight of each analyzed security in the portfolio should be proportional to

its __________.

A. alpha/beta

B. alpha/residual variance

C. beta/residual variance

D. none of these options 46. The critical variable in the determination of the success of the active portfolio is the stock's __________.

A. alpha/nonsystematic risk ratio

B. alpha/systematic risk ratio

C. delta/nonsystematic risk ratio

D. delta/systematic risk ratio

47. Consider the theory of active portfolio management. Stocks A and B have the same positive alpha and the same nonsystematic risk. Stock A has a higher beta than stock B. You should want __________ in your active portfolio.




D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 48. Consider the theory of active portfolio management. Stocks A and B have the same beta and nonsystematic

risk. Stock A has a higher positive alpha than stock B. You should want __________ in your active portfolio.




D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 49. The market-timing form of active portfolio management relies on __________ forecasting, and the security

selection form of active portfolio management relies on __________ forecasting.

A. macroeconomic; macroeconomic

B. macroeconomic; microeconomic

C. microeconomic; macroeconomic

D. microeconomic; microeconomic 50. Active portfolio managers try to construct a risky portfolio with _______.

A. a higher Sharpe ratio than a passive strategy

B. a lower Sharpe ratio than a passive strategy

C. the same Sharpe ratio as a passive strategy

D. very few securities

51. In performance measurement, the bogey portfolio is designed to _________.

A. measure the returns to a completely passive strategy

B. measure the returns to a similar active strategy

C. measure the returns to a given investment style

D. equal the return on the S&P 500 52. __________ portfolio managers experience streaks of abnormal returns that are hard to label as lucky

outcomes, and _________ anomalies in realized returns have been sufficiently persistent that portfolio managers could use them to beat a passive strategy over prolonged periods.

A. No; no

B. No; some

C. Some; no

D. Some; some 53. A passive benchmark portfolio is:

I. A portfolio in which the asset allocation across broad asset classes is neutral and not determined by forecasts of performance of the different asset classesII. One in which an indexed portfolio is held within each asset classIII. Often called the bogey

A. I only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

54. The correct measure of timing ability is ____________ for a portfolio manager who correctly forecasts 55% of bull markets and 55% of bear markets.

A. -5%

B. 5%

C. 10%

D. 95% 55. It is very hard to statistically verify abnormal fund performance because of all of the following except

which one?

A. Inevitably, some fund managers experience streaks of good performance that may just be due to luck.

B. The noise in realized rates of return is so large as to make it hard to identify abnormal performance in competitive markets.

C. Portfolio composition is rarely stable long enough to identify abnormal performance.

D. Even if successful, there is really not much value to be added by active strategies such as market timing. 56. The term alpha transport refers to _____.

A. establishing alpha and then using index products to hedge market exposure and reduce exposure to particular sectors.

B. establishing alpha and then using sector mutual funds to hedge market exposure and reduce exposure to the general market.

C. establishing alpha and then using sector mutual funds to hedge market exposure and gain exposure to the general market.

D. establishing alpha and then using index products to hedge market exposure and gain exposure to particular sectors.

57. Portfolio managers Martin and Krueger each manage $1 million funds. Martin has perfect foresight, and the call option value of his perfect foresight is $150,000. Krueger is an imperfect forecaster and correctly predicts 50% of all bull markets and 70% of all bear markets. The correct measure of timing ability for Krueger is __________.

A. 20%

B. 60%

C. 75%

D. 120% 58. Portfolio managers Martin and Krueger each manage $1 million funds. Martin has perfect foresight, and the

call option value of his perfect foresight is $150,000. Krueger is an imperfect forecaster and correctly predicts 50% of all bull markets and 70% of all bear markets. The value of Krueger's imperfect forecasting ability is __________.

A. $30,000

B. $67,500

C. $108,750

D. $217,500 59. Douglass, an imperfect forecaster, correctly predicts 57% of all bull markets and 68% of all bear markets.

Simmonds is a perfect forecaster. If Douglass is able to charge a fee of $125,000, the fee that Roy Simmonds should charge is __________. Assume that both forecasters manage similar-size funds.

A. $31,250

B. $200,000

C. $500,000

D. $625,000

60. A mutual fund invests in large-capitalization stocks. Its performance should be measured against which one of the following?

A. Russell 2000 Index

B. S&P 500 Index

C. Wilshire 5000 Index

D. Dow Jones Industrial Average 61. Assume you purchased a rental property for $100,000 and sold it 1 year later for $115,000 (there was no

mortgage on the property). At the time of the sale, you paid $3,000 in commissions and $1,000 in taxes. If you received $10,000 in rental income (all received at the end of the year), what annual rate of return did you earn?

A. 6%

B. 11%

C. 21%

D. 25% 62. The table presents the actual return of each sector of the manager's portfolio in column (1), the fraction of

the portfolio allocated to each sector in column (2), the benchmark or neutral sector allocations in column (3), and the returns of sector indexes in column 4.

What was the manager's return in the month?

A. 2.07%

B. 2.21%

C. 2.24%

D. 4.8%

63. The table presents the actual return of each sector of the manager's portfolio in column (1), the fraction of the portfolio allocated to each sector in column (2), the benchmark or neutral sector allocations in column (3), and the returns of sector indexes in column 4.

What was the bogey's return in the month?

A. 2.07%

B. 2.21%

C. 2.24%

D. 4.8% 64. The table presents the actual return of each sector of the manager's portfolio in column (1), the fraction of


What was the manager's over- or underperformance for the month?

A. Underperformance = .03%

B. Overperformance = .03%

C. Overperformance = .14%

D. Underperformance = 3%

65. The table presents the actual return of each sector of the manager's portfolio in column (1), the fraction of the portfolio allocated to each sector in column (2), the benchmark or neutral sector allocations in column (3), and the returns of sector indexes in column 4.

What is the contribution of security selection to relative performance?

A. -.15%

B. .15%

C. -.3%

D. .3% 66. The table presents the actual return of each sector of the manager's portfolio in column (1), the fraction of


What is the contribution of asset allocation to relative performance?

A. -.18%

B. .18%

C. -.15%

D. .15%

67. Morningstar's RAR produce results that are similar but not identical to ________.

A. Jensen's alpha

B. M2

C. the Treynor ratio

D. the Sharpe ratio 68. The Treynor-Black model assumes that security markets are _________.

A. completely efficient

B. nearly efficient

C. very inefficient

D. random walks 69. The information ratio is equal to the stock's ____ divided by its ______.

A. diversifiable risk; beta

B. beta; alpha

C. alpha; beta

D. alpha; diversifiable risk 70. Empirical tests to date show ______________.

A. that many investors have earned large rewards by market timing

B. little evidence of market-timing ability

C. clear-cut evidence of substantial market-timing ability

D. evidence that absolutely no market-timing ability exists

71. A portfolio generates an annual return of 13%, a beta of .7, and a standard deviation of 17%. The market index return is 14% and has a standard deviation of 21%. What is the M2 measure of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 5%?

A. .58%

B. .68%

C. .78%

D. .88% 72. A portfolio generates an annual return of 17%, a beta of 1.2, and a standard deviation of 19%. The market

index return is 12% and has a standard deviation of 16%. What is the M2 measure of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 4%?

A. 2.15%

B. 2.76%

C. 2.94%

D. 3.14% 73. A portfolio generates an annual return of 13%, a beta of .7, and a standard deviation of 17%. The market

index return is 14% and has a standard deviation of 21%. What is the Treynor measure of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 5%?

A. .1143

B. .1233

C. .1354

D. .1477 74. A portfolio generates an annual return of 16%, a beta of 1.2, and a standard deviation of 19%. The market

index return is 12% and has a standard deviation of 16%. What is the Treynor measure of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 6%?

A. .0833

B. .1083

C. .1114

D. .1163

75. A portfolio generates an annual return of 13%, a beta of .7, and a standard deviation of 17%. The market index return is 14% and has a standard deviation of 21%. What is the Sharpe measure of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 5%?

A. .3978

B. .4158

C. .4563


index return is 12% and has a standard deviation of 16%. What is the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 6%?

A. .4757

B. .5263

C. .6842

D. .7252 77. A portfolio generates an annual return of 13%, a beta of .7, and a standard deviation of 17%. The market

index return is 14% and has a standard deviation of 21%. What is Jensen's alpha of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 5%?

A. .017

B. .034

C. .067


index return is 12% and has a standard deviation of 16%. What is Jensen's alpha of the portfolio if the risk-free rate is 6%?

A. .017

B. .028

C. .036

D. .078

79. The portfolio that contains the benchmark asset allocation against which a manager will be measured is often called _____________.

A. the bogey portfolio

B. the Vanguard Index

C. Jensen's alpha

D. the Treynor measure 80. An attribution analysis will not likely contain which of the following components?

A. Asset allocation

B. Index returns

C. Risk-free returns

D. Security selection 81. Which of the following investment strategies would have produced the highest returns in the time period

since 1926?

A. T-bills portfolio

B. S&P 500 Index fund

C. Perfect market timing

D. Random stock selection 82. What phrase might be used as a substitute for the Treynor-Black model developed in 1973?

A. Solely active management

B. Enhanced index approach

C. Passive management

D. Random selection

83. What is the term for the process used to assess portfolio manager performance?

A. Active analysis

B. Attribution analysis

C. Passive analysis

D. Treynor-Black Analysis 84. A fund has excess performance of 1.5%. In looking at the fund's investment breakdown, you see that the

fund overweighted equities relative to the benchmark and that the average return on the fund's equity portfolio was slightly lower than the equity benchmark return. The excess performance for this fund is probably due to _______________.

A. security selection ability

B. better sector weightings in the equity portfolio

C. the asset allocation decision

D. finding securities with positive alphas 85. For a market timer, the _____________ will be higher when RM is higher.

A. portfolio's alpha and beta

B. portfolio's unsystematic risk

C. portfolio's beta and slope of the characteristic line

D. security selection component of the portfolio

86. The Treynor-Black model combines an actively managed portfolio with an efficiently diversified portfolio in order to:

I. Improve the diversification of the overall portfolioII. Improve the overall portfolio's Sharpe ratioIII. Reach a higher CAL than would otherwise be possible

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

19

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. In 2011, U.S. securities represented ______ of the world market for equities.

A. less than 25%

B. more than two-thirds

C. between 30% and 40%

D. a consistent 50% 2. _____ has the highest market capitalization of listed corporations among developed markets.

A. The United States

B. Japan

C. The United Kingdom

D. Switzerland 3. Total capitalization of corporate equity in the United States in 2011 was about _______ trillion.

A. $13.9

B. $23.4

C. $30.2

D. $45.5

4. If you limit your investment opportunity set to only the largest six countries in the world in terms of equity capitalization as a percentage of total global equity capital, you will include about _______ of the world's equity.

A. 34%

B. 44%

C. 54%

D. 64% 5. Limiting your investments to the top six countries in the world in terms of market capitalization may make

sense for _________ investor but probably does not make sense for ________ investor.

A. an active; a passive

B. a passive; an active

C. a security selection expert; a market timer

D. a fundamental; a technical 6. WEBS are ____________________.

A. investments in country-specific portfolios

B. traded exactly like mutual funds

C. identical to ADRs

D. designed to give investors foreign currency exposure to multiple countries 7. Which one of the following allows you to purchase the stock of a specific foreign company?

A. WEBS

B. MSCI

C. ADR

D. EAFE

8. Generally speaking, countries with ______ capitalization of equities ________.

A. larger; have higher GDP

B. smaller; are wealthier

C. larger; have smaller GDP

D. larger; are higher-growth countries 9. The 32 "developed" countries with the largest equity capitalization made up about _____ of the world GDP

in 2011.

A. 22%

B. 44%

C. 68%

D. 85% 10. According to a regression of GDP on market capitalization in 2010, virtually all developed countries had

_______ per capita GDP than (as) predicted by the regression.

A. higher

B. lower

C. the same

D. sometimes lower and sometimes higher 11. If the direct quote for the exchange rate for the U.S. dollar versus the Canadian dollar is .98, what is the

indirect quote?

A. 1.98

B. 1.02

C. .02

D. 1.05

12. EAFE stands for _______.

A. Equity And Foreign Exchange

B. European, Australian, Far East

C. European, Asian, Foreign Exchange

D. European, American, Far East 13. Which one of the following country risks includes the possibility of expropriation of assets, changes in tax

policy, and restrictions on foreign exchange transactions?

A. Default risk

B. Foreign exchange risk

C. Market risk

D. Political risk 14. The __________ index is a widely used index of non-U.S. stocks.

A. CBOE

B. Dow Jones

C. EAFE

D. Lehman Index 15. Suppose that U.S. equity markets represent about 35% of total global equity markets and that the typical

U.S. investor has about 95% of her portfolio invested only in U.S. equities. This is an example of _________.

A. home-country bias

B. excessive diversification

C. active management

D. passive management

16. The four largest economies in the world in 2010 were ____________.

A. United States, India, China, and Japan

B. United States, China, Canada, and Japan

C. United States, China, Japan, and Germany

D. China, United Kingdom, Canada, and United States 17. The proper formula for interest rate parity is ___________.

A. [1 + rf(foreign)]/[1 + rf(US)] = F1/E0

B. [1 + rf(US)]/[1 + rf(foreign)] = E0/F1

C. [1 + rf(US)]/[1 + rf(foreign)] = F0/E0

D. [1 + rf(foreign)]/[1 + rf(foreign)] = F0/E1

18. Research indicates that exchange risk of the major currencies has been _________ so far in this century.

A. relatively high

B. relatively low

C. declining slightly

D. declining rapidly 19. It appears from empirical work that exchange rate risk ____________.

A. has been declining for individual investments in recent years

B. is mostly diversifiable

C. is mostly systematic risk

D. is unimportant for an investment in a single foreign country

20. Passive investors with well-diversified international portfolios _________.

A. can safely ignore all political risk in emerging markets

B. can expect very large diversification gains from their international investing

C. do not need to be concerned with hedging exposure to foreign currencies

D. can expect returns to be better than the EAFE on a consistent basis 21. Which stock market has the largest weight in the EAFE index?

A. Japan

B. Germany

C. United Kingdom

D. Australia 22. The correlation coefficient between the U.S. stock market index and stock market indexes of major

countries is __________.

A. between -1 and -.5

B. between -.50 and 0

C. between 0 and .5

D. between .5 and 1 23. In 2010, the ___ countries with the largest capitalization of equities made up approximately 60% of the

world equity portfolio.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 12

24. Investor portfolios are notoriously overweighted in home-country stocks. This is commonly called ________.

A. local fat

B. nativism

C. home-country bias

D. misleading representation 25. Corruption is _________ risk variable.

A. a firm-specific

B. a political

C. a financial

D. an economic 26. A U.S. hedge fund owns Swiss franc bonds. The fund manager believes that if Swiss interest rates rise

relative to U.S. interest rates, the value of the franc will rise. To limit the risk to the fund's dollar return, the fund manager should __________.

A. sell the Swiss franc bonds now

B. sell the Swiss franc forward

C. probably do nothing because the franc move will offset the lower bond price

D. enter into an interest rate swap to pay variable and receive fixed 27. The annual inflation rate is ______ risk variable.

A. a firm-specific

B. a political

C. a financial

D. an economic

28. A U.S. insurance firm must pay €75,000 in 6 months. The spot exchange rate is $1.32 per euro, and in 6 months the exchange rate is expected to be $1.35. The 6-month forward rate is currently $1.36 per euro. If the insurer's goal is to limit its risk, should the insurer hedge this transaction? If so how?

A. The insurer need not hedge because the expected exchange rate move will be favorable.

B. The insurer should hedge by buying the euro forward even though this will cost more than the expected cost of not hedging.

C. The insurer should hedge by selling the euro forward because this will cost less than the expected cost of not hedging.

D. The insurer should hedge by buying the euro forward even though this will cost less than the expected cost of not hedging.

29. A fund has assets denominated in euros and liabilities in yen due in 6 months. The 6-month forward rate for

the euro is $1.36 per euro, and the 6-month forward rate for the yen is 121 yen per dollar. The 6-month forward rate for the euro versus the yen should be ________ per euro.

A. ×88.97

B. ×145.34

C. ×154.67

D. ×164.56 30. You invest in various broadly diversified international mutual funds as well as your U.S. portfolio. The one

risk you probably don't have to worry about affecting your returns is __________.

A. business-cycle risk

B. beta risk

C. inflation risk

D. currency risk

31. According to the International Country Risk Guide in 2011, which of the following countries was the riskiest according to the current composite risk rating?

A. Japan

B. United States

C. China

D. India 32. Suppose the 6-month risk-free rate of return in the United States is 5%. The current exchange rate is 1

pound = US$2.05. The 6-month forward rate is 1 pound = US$2. The minimum yield on a 6-month risk-free security in Britain that would induce a U.S. investor to invest in the British security is ________.

A. 5.06%

B. 6.74%

C. 8.48%

D. 10.13% 33. The quoted interest rate on a 3-month Canadian security is 8%. The current exchange rate is C$1 = US$.68.

The 3-month forward rate is C$1 = US$.70. The APR (denominated in US$) that a U.S. investor can earn by investing in the Canadian security is __________.

A. 5%

B. 7.25%

C. 20%

D. 22.43% 34. Suppose the 1-year risk-free rate of return in the United States is 5% and the 1-year risk-free rate of return

in Britain is 8%. The current exchange rate is $1 = ₤.50. A 1-year future exchange rate of __________ would make a U.S. investor indifferent between investing in the U.S. security and investing in the British security.

A. ₤.5150

B. ₤.5142

C. ₤.5123

D. ₤.4859

35. The risk-free interest rate in the United States is 4%, while the risk-free interest rate in the United Kingdom is 9%. If the British pound is worth $2 in the spot market, a 1-year futures rate on the British pound should be worth __________.

A. $1.83

B. $1.91

C. $2.08

D. $2.18 36. The risk-free interest rate in the United States is 8%, while the risk-free interest rate in the United Kingdom

is 15%. If the 1-year futures price on the British pound is $2.40, the spot market value of the British pound today should be __________.

A. $1.93

B. $2.22

C. $2.56

D. $2.76 37. The present exchange rate is C$1 = US$.77. The 1-year futures rate is C$1 = US$.73. The yield on a 1-year

U.S. bill is 4%. A yield of __________ on a 1-year Canadian bill will make investors indifferent between investing in the U.S. bill and the Canadian bill.

A. 9.7%

B. 2.9%

C. 2.8%

D. 2% 38. The yield on a 1-year bill in the United Kingdom is 6%, and the present exchange rate is 1 pound = US$2.

If you expect the exchange rate to be 1 pound = US$1.95 a year from now, the return a U.S. investor can expect to earn by investing in U.K. bills is approximately __________.

A. -3%

B. 3%

C. 3.35%

D. 8.72%

39. Assume there is a fixed exchange rate between the Canadian and U.S. dollars. The expected return and standard deviation of return on the U.S. stock market are 13% and 15%, respectively. The expected return and standard deviation of return on the Canadian stock market are 12% and 16%, respectively. The covariance of returns between the U.S. and Canadian stock markets is 1.2%. If you invested 50% of your money in the Canadian stock market and 50% in the U.S. stock market, the expected return on your portfolio would be __________.

A. 12%

B. 12.5%

C. 14%

D. 15.5% 40. Assume there is a fixed exchange rate between the Canadian and U.S. dollars. The expected return and

standard deviation of return on the U.S. stock market are 10% and 15%, respectively. The expected return and standard deviation of return on the Canadian stock market are 12% and 16%, respectively. The covariance of returns between the U.S. and Canadian stock markets is .012. If you invested 50% of your money in the Canadian stock market and 50% in the U.S. stock market, the standard deviation of return on your portfolio would be __________.

A. 10.96%

B. 12.25%

C. 13.42%

D. 15.5% 41. Inclusion of international equities in a U.S. investor's portfolio has historically produced

___________________.

A. a substantially reduced portfolio variance

B. a slightly reduced portfolio variance

C. a substantially poorer portfolio variance

D. a slightly poorer portfolio variance

42. WEBS are _____________.

A. mutual funds marketed internationally on the Internet

B. synthetic domestic stock indexes

C. equity indexes that replicate the price and yield performance of foreign stock portfolios

D. single stock investments in a foreign security 43. You are a U.S. investor who purchased British securities for 3,500 pounds 1 year ago when the British

pound cost $1.35. No dividends were paid on the British securities in the past year. Your total return based on U.S. dollars was __________ if the value of the securities is now 4,200 pounds and the pound is worth $1.15.

A. -3.8%

B. 2.2%

C. 5.6%

D. 15% 44. Real U.S. interest rates move above Japanese interest rates. If you believe that Japanese interest rates won't

move and that interest rate parity will hold, then ____________.

A. the yen-per-dollar exchange rate should rise

B. the dollar-per-yen exchange rate should rise

C. the exchange rate should stay the same if parity holds

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 45. Suppose a U.S. investor wants to invest in a British firm currently selling for ₤50 per share. The investor

has $7,000 to invest, and the current exchange rate is $1.40/₤.

How many shares can the investor purchase?

A. 140

B. 100

C. 71.43

D. None of these options

46. Suppose a U.S. investor wants to invest in a British firm currently selling for ₤50 per share. The investor has $7,000 to invest, and the current exchange rate is $1.40/₤.

After 1 year, the exchange rate is unchanged and the share price is ₤55. What is the dollar-denominated return?

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 9.3%

D. 7.1% 47. Suppose a U.S. investor wants to invest in a British firm currently selling for ₤50 per share. The investor


After 1 year, the exchange rate is unchanged and the share price is ₤55. What is the pound-denominated return?

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 9.3%

D. 7.1% 48. Suppose a U.S. investor wants to invest in a British firm currently selling for ₤50 per share. The investor


After 1 year, the exchange rate is $1.60/₤ and the share price is ₤55. What is the dollar-denominated return?

A. 25.7%

B. 16%

C. 14.3%

D. 9.3%

49. Suppose a U.S. investor wants to invest in a British firm currently selling for ₤50 per share. The investor has $7,000 to invest, and the current exchange rate is $1.40/₤.

After 1 year, the exchange rate is $1.50/₤ and the share price is ₤45. How much of your dollar-denominated return is due to the currency change?

A. 10%

B. 6.43%

C. 4.34%

D. 2.12% 50. You find that the exchange rate quote for the yen is 121 yen per dollar. This is an example of ________

quote. You also find that the euro is worth $1.33. This second quote is an example of _______ quote.

A. a direct; an indirect

B. an indirect; a direct

C. a foreign; a U.S.

D. a U.S.; a foreign 51. Among emerging countries the largest equity market in 2011 was located in _____________.

A. China

B. India

C. Brazil

D. Russia 52. In the PRS country composite risk ratings, a score of ______ represents the least risky and a score of _____

represents the most risky.

A. 0; 100

B. 0; 50

C. 50; 0

D. 100; 0

53. Which emerging country had the highest percentage growth in market capitalization during the 2000-2011 period?

A. Brazil

B. China

C. Columbia

D. Turkey 54. The dollar-per-euro spot rate is 1.2 when an importer of French wines places an order. Six months later,

when she takes delivery, the spot rate is 1.3 dollars per euro. If her original invoice was for 30,000 euro, what is her gain or loss due to exchange rate risk?

A. $3,000 gain

B. $3,000 loss

C. $6,000 loss

D. No gain or loss 55. An importer of televisions from Japan has a contract to purchase a shipment of televisions for 2 million

yen. The spot rate increases from 105 yen per dollar to 108 yen per dollar. What is the importer's gain or loss?

A. $529 gain

B. $529 loss

C. $619 gain

D. $619 loss 56. A country has a PRS political risk rating of 75, a financial score of 40, and an economic score of 35. The

country's composite rating is _________.

A. 75

B. 50

C. 40

D. 35

57. The risk-free rate in the United States is 2.5%, and the risk-free rate in Europe is 3.2%. If the spot rate of dollars per euro is 1.32, what is the likely forward rate in terms of dollars per euro?

A. 1.30

B. 1.31

C. 1.32

D. 1.33 58. The risk-free rate in the United States is 4%, and the risk-free rate in Japan is 1.2%. If the spot rate of yen

to dollars is 105, what is the likely yen-per-dollar forward rate?

A. 101

B. 102

C. 105

D. 108 59. The yen-per-dollar spot rate is 104. The yen-per-dollar forward rate is 107. If the U.S. risk-free rate is

2.4%, what is the likely yen risk-free rate?

A. 1.24%

B. 2.35%

C. 3.98%

D. 5.35% 60. In the PRS financial risk ratings, the United States rates poorly because of the U.S. ________.

I. Large budget deficitII. Large trade deficitIII. Large amount of total debt

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III

61. The major participants who directly purchase securities in the capital markets of other countries are predominantly ____________.

A. large institutional investors

B. individual investors

C. government agencies

D. central banks 62. Of the following, which is the most commonly used international index?

A. DJIA

B. EAFE

C. Russell 2000

D. S&P 500 63. WEBS differ from mutual funds in that:

I. WEBS can be shorted.II. WEBS trade continuously on the AMEX.III. WEBS are passively managed.

A. II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 64. The variation in the betas of emerging markets suggests that ____________.

A. emerging markets are more uniform than developed markets

B. beta does not hold in international markets

C. international diversification may reduce portfolio risk

D. riskier emerging markets have uniformly lower betas

65. One year U.S. interest rates are 5%, and European interest rates are 7%. The spot euro direct exchange rate quote is 1.32, and the 1-year forward rate direct quote is 1.35. If you can borrow either $1 million or €1 million to start with, what would be your dollar profits from interest arbitrage based on these data?

A. $94,322

B. $55,345

C. $44,318

D. $33,595 66. One year U.S. interest rates are 7%, and European interest rates are 5%. The spot euro direct exchange rate

quote is 1.30 and the 1-year forward rate direct quote is 1.25. If you can borrow either $1 million or €1 million to start with, what would be your dollar profits from interest arbitrage based on these data?

A. $60,384

B. $42,973

C. $68,422

D. $78,500 67.

All exchange rates are expressed as units of foreign currency that can be purchased with one U.S. dollar. Answer the following about decomposing the manager's performance.

What is the difference in return of the manager's portfolio due to currency selection?

A. -5%

B. -3%

C. 2%

D. 1%

68.


What is the difference in return of the manager's portfolio due to country selection?

A. -.60%

B. -.75%

C. .12%

D. .22% 69.


What is the difference in return of the manager's portfolio due to stock selection?

A. 1.15%

B. 3.25%

C. 5.45%

D. 6.13%

20

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Which of the following are characteristics of a hedge fund?

I. Pooling of assetsII. Strict regulatory oversight by the SECIII. Investing in equities, debt instruments, and derivative instrumentsIV. Professional management of assets

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. III and IV only

D. I, III, and IV only 2. A __________ is a private investment pool open only to wealthy or institutional investors that is exempt

from SEC regulation and can therefore pursue more speculative policies than mutual funds.

A. commingled pool

B. unit trust

C. hedge fund

D. money market fund 3. Hedge funds are typically set up as _______________.

A. limited liability partnerships

B. corporations

C. REITs

D. mutual funds

4. A(n) _______________ hedge fund attempts to profit from situations such as mergers, acquisitions, restructuring, bankruptcy, or reorganization.

A. multistrategy

B. managed futures

C. dedicated short bias

D. event-driven 5. ______ are private partnerships of a small number of wealthy investors, are often subject to lock-up

periods, and are allowed to pursue a wide range of investment activities.

A. Hedge funds

B. Closed-end funds

C. REITs

D. Mutual funds 6. Which of the following typically employ(s) significant amounts of leverage?

I. Hedge fundsII. Equity mutual fundsIII. Money market fundsIV. Income mutual funds

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. III and IV only

D. I, II, and III only

7. As of 2012, hedge funds had approximately _____ under management.

A. $.5 trillion

B. $1.6 trillion

C. $2 trillion

D. $3.2 trillion

8. A restriction under which investors cannot withdraw their funds for as long as several months or years is called __________.

A. transparency

B. a lock-up period

C. a back-end load

D. convertible arbitrage 9. Hedge fund managers are compensated by ___________________.

A. deducting management fees from fund assets and receiving incentive bonuses for beating index benchmarks

B. deducting a percentage of any gains in asset value

C. selling shares in the trust at a premium to the cost of acquiring the underlying assets

D. charging portfolio turnover fees 10. Management fees for hedge funds typically range between _____ and _____.

A. .5%; 1.5%

B. 1%; 2%

C. 2%; 5%

D. 5%; 8%

11. Hedge funds can invest in various investment options that are not generally available to mutual funds. These include:

I. Futures and optionsII. Merger arbitrageIII. Currency contractsIV. Companies undergoing Chapter 11 restructuring and reorganization

A. I only

B. I and II only


D. I, II, III, and IV 12. A typical traditional initial investment in a hedge fund generally is in the range between _____ and _____.

A. $1,000; $5,000

B. $5,000; $25,000

C. $25,000; $250,000

D. $250,000; $1,000,000 13. The difference between market-neutral and long-short hedges is that market-neutral hedge funds

_________.

A. establish long and short positions on both sides of the market to eliminate risk and to benefit from security asset mispricing whereas long-short hedges establish positions only on one side of the market

B. allocate money to several other funds while long-short funds do not

C. invest in relatively stable proportions of stocks and bonds while the proportions may vary dramatically for long-short funds

D. invest only in equities and bonds while long-short funds use only derivatives

14. Convertible arbitrage hedge funds _________.

A. attempt to profit from mispriced interest-sensitive securities

B. hold long positions in convertible bonds and offsetting short positions in stocks

C. establish long and short positions in global capital markets

D. use derivative products to hedge their short positions in convertible bonds 15. Assuming positive basis and negligible borrowing cost, which of the following transactions could yield

positive arbitrage profits if pursued by a hedge fund?

A. Buy gold in the spot market, and sell the futures contract.

B. Buy the futures contract, and sell the gold spot and invest the money earned.

C. Buy gold spot with borrowed money, and buy the futures contract.

D. Buy the futures contract, and buy the gold spot using borrowed money. 16. An example of a neutral pure play is _______.

A. pairs trading

B. statistical arbitrage

C. convergence arbitrage

D. directional strategy 17. You believe that the spread between the September S&P 500 future and the S&P 500 Index is too large and

will soon correct. To take advantage of this mispricing, a hedge fund should ______________.

A. buy all the stocks in the S&P 500 and write put options on the S&P 500 Index

B. sell all the stocks in the S&P 500 and buy call options on the S&P 500 Index

C. sell S&P 500 Index futures and buy all the stocks in the S&P 500

D. sell short all the stocks in the S&P 500 and buy S&P 500 Index futures

18. You believe that the spread between the September S&P 500 future and the S&P 500 Index is too large and will soon correct. This is an example of ______________.

A. pairs trading

B. convergence play

C. statistical arbitrage

D. a long-short equity hedge 19. A 1-year oil futures contract is selling for $74.50. Spot oil prices are $68, and the 1-year risk-free rate is

3.25%.

The 1-year oil futures price should be equal to __________.

A. $68

B. $70.21

C. $71.25

D. $74.88 20. A 1-year oil futures contract is selling for $74.50. Spot oil prices are $68, and the 1-year risk-free rate is

3.25%.

The arbitrage profit implied by these prices is _____________.

A. $6.50

B. $5.44

C. $4.29

D. $3.25

21. A 1-year oil futures contract is selling for $74.50. Spot oil prices are $68, and the 1-year risk-free rate is 3.25%.

Based on the above data, which of the following sets of transactions will yield positive riskless arbitrage profits?

A. Buy oil in the spot market with borrowed money, and sell the futures contract.

B. Buy the futures contract, and sell the oil spot and invest the money earned.

C. Buy the oil spot with borrowed money, and buy the futures contract.

D. Buy the futures contract, and buy the oil spot using borrowed money. 22. Assume that you have invested $500,000 to purchase shares in a hedge fund reporting $800 million in

assets, $100 million in liabilities, and 70 million shares outstanding. Your initial lockout period is 3 years.

How many shares did you purchase?

A. 13,333

B. 25,000

C. 50,000

D. 66,000 23. Assume that you have invested $500,000 to purchase shares in a hedge fund reporting $800 million in

assets, $100 million in liabilities, and 70 million shares outstanding. Your initial lockout period is 3 years.

If the share price after 3 years increases to $15.28, what is the value of your investment?

A. $553,600

B. $625,000

C. $733,800

D. $764,000

24. Assume that you have invested $500,000 to purchase shares in a hedge fund reporting $800 million in assets, $100 million in liabilities, and 70 million shares outstanding. Your initial lockout period is 3 years.

What is your annualized return over the 3-year holding period?

A. 14.45%

B. 15.18%

C. 16%

D. 17.73% 25. Which of the following are not managed investment companies?

A. Hedge funds

B. Unit investment trusts

C. Closed-end funds

D. Open-end funds 26. You manage a $15 million hedge fund portfolio with beta = 1.2 and alpha = 2% per quarter. Assume the

risk-free rate is 2% per quarter and the current value of the S&P 500 Index is 1,200. You want to exploit the positive alpha, but you are afraid that the stock market may fall and you want to hedge your portfolio by selling 3-month S&P 500 future contracts. The S&P contract multiplier is $250.

How many S&P 500 contracts do you need to sell to hedge your portfolio?

A. 25

B. 35

C. 50

D. 60

27. You manage a $15 million hedge fund portfolio with beta = 1.2 and alpha = 2% per quarter. Assume the risk-free rate is 2% per quarter and the current value of the S&P 500 Index is 1,200. You want to exploit the positive alpha, but you are afraid that the stock market may fall and you want to hedge your portfolio by selling 3-month S&P 500 future contracts. The S&P contract multiplier is $250.

When you hedge your stock portfolio with futures contracts, the value of your portfolio beta is __________.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 1.2

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 28. You manage a $15 million hedge fund portfolio with beta = 1.2 and alpha = 2% per quarter. Assume the


What is the expected quarterly return on the hedged portfolio?

A. 0%

B. 2%

C. 3%

D. 4% 29. You manage a $15 million hedge fund portfolio with beta = 1.2 and alpha = 2% per quarter. Assume the


How much is the portfolio expected to be worth 3 months from now?

A. $15,000,000

B. $15,450,000

C. $15,600,000

D. $16,000,000

30. You manage a $15 million hedge fund portfolio with beta = 1.2 and alpha = 2% per quarter. Assume the risk-free rate is 2% per quarter and the current value of the S&P 500 Index is 1,200. You want to exploit the positive alpha, but you are afraid that the stock market may fall and you want to hedge your portfolio by selling 3-month S&P 500 future contracts. The S&P contract multiplier is $250.

Hedging this portfolio by selling S&P 500 futures contracts is an example of ___________.

A. statistical arbitrage

B. pure play

C. a short equity hedge

D. fixed-income arbitrage 31. Hedge funds that change strategies and types of securities invested and also vary the proportions of assets

invested in particular market sectors according to the fund manager's outlook are called ____________________.

A. asset allocation funds

B. multistrategy funds

C. event-driven funds

D. market-neutral funds 32. When a short-selling hedge fund advertises in a prospectus that it is a 120/20 fund, this means that the fund

may sell short up to ______ for every $100 in net assets and increase the long position to __________ of net assets.

A. $120; $20

B. $20; $120

C. $20; $20

D. $120; $120

33. The collapse of the Long Term Capital Management hedge fund in 1998 was a case of an extremely unlikely statistical event called ________.

A. statistical arbitrage

B. an unhedged play

C. a tail event

D. a liquidity trap 34. Which of the following investment styles could be the best description of the Long Term Capital

Management market-neutral strategies?

A. Convergence arbitrage

B. Statistical arbitrage

C. Pairs trading

D. Convertible arbitrage 35. Consider a hedge fund with $250 million in assets at the start of the year. If the gross return on assets is

18% and the total expense ratio is 2.5% of the year-end value, what is the rate of return on the fund?

A. 15.05%

B. 15.5%

C. 17.25%

D. 18% 36. Consider a hedge fund with $200 million at the start of the year. The benchmark S&P 500 Index was up

16.5% during the same period. The gross return on assets is 21%, and the expense ratio is 2%. For each 1% above the benchmark return, the fund managers receive a .1% incentive bonus.

What was the management cost for the year?

A. $4,877,000

B. $4,900,000

C. $5,929,000

D. $6,446,000

37. Consider a hedge fund with $200 million at the start of the year. The benchmark S&P 500 Index was up 16.5% during the same period. The gross return on assets is 21%, and the expense ratio is 2%. For each 1% above the benchmark return, the fund managers receive a .1% incentive bonus.

What was the annual return on this fund?

A. 16.5%

B. 18.04%

C. 18.55%

D. 21% 38. Consider a hedge fund with $400 million in assets, $60 million in debt, and 16 million shares at the start of

the year and with $500 million in assets, $40 million in debt, and 20 million shares at the end of the year. During the year, investors have received an income dividend of $.75 per share. Assuming that the total expense ratio is 2.75%, what is the rate of return on the fund?

A. 6.45%

B. 8.52%

C. 8.95%

D. 9.46% 39. Market-neutral hedge funds may experience considerable volatility. The source of volatile returns is the use

of _________.

A. pure play

B. leverage

C. directional bests

D. net short positions

40. A hedge fund has $150 million in assets at the beginning of the year and 10 million shares outstanding throughout the year. Throughout the year assets grow at 12%. The fund charges a 3% management fee on the assets. The fee is imposed on year-end asset values. What is the end-of-year NAV for the fund?

A. $15

B. $15.60

C. $16.30

D. $17.55 41. You pay $216,000 to the Capital Hedge Fund, which has a price of $18 per share at the beginning of the

year. The fund deducted a front-end commission of 4%. The securities in the fund increased in value by 15% during the year. The fund's expense ratio is 2% and is deducted from year-end asset values. What is your rate of return on the fund if you sell your shares at the end of the year?

A. 5.35%

B. 7.23%

C. 8.19%

D. 10% 42. A hedge fund owns a $15 million bond portfolio with a modified duration of 11 years and needs to hedge

risk, but T-bond futures are available only with a modified duration of the deliverable instrument of 10 years. The futures are priced at $105,000. The proper hedge ratio to use is ______.

A. 143

B. 157

C. 196

D. 218 43. Unlike market-neutral hedge funds, which have betas near ________, directional long funds exhibit highly

_______ betas.

A. zero; positive

B. positive; negative

C. positive; zero

D. negative; positive

44. Portfolio A has a beta of .2 and an expected return of 14%. Portfolio B has a beta of .5 and an expected return of 16%. The risk-free rate of return is 10%. If you manage a long-short equity fund and want to take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, you should take a short position in portfolio ______ and a long position in portfolio __________.

A. A; A

B. A; B

C. B; A

D. B; B 45. According to a model that was estimated using monthly excess returns from January 2005 through

November 2011, average returns of equity hedge funds are __________ the S&P 500 Index.

A. equal to

B. considerably higher than

C. slightly lower than

D. slightly higher than 46. Research by Aragon (2007) indicates that lock-up restrictions tend to hold ____________ portfolios.

A. less liquid

B. more liquid

C. event-driven

D. shorter-maturity 47. Higher returns of equity hedge funds as compared to the S&P 500 Index reflect positive compensation for

__________ risk.

A. market

B. liquidity

C. systematic

D. interest rate

48. Portfolio A has a beta of 1.3 and an expected return of 21%. Portfolio B has a beta of .7 and an expected return of 17%. The risk-free rate of return is 9%. If a hedge fund manager wants to take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, she should take a short position in portfolio __________ and a long position in portfolio __________.

A. A; A

B. A; B

C. B; A

D. B; B 49. In a 2011 study, Agarwal, Daniel, and Naik documented that hedge funds tend to report average returns in

____________ that are __________ than their average returns in other months.

A. September; lower

B. January; higher

C. January; lower

D. December; higher 50. To attract new clients, hedge funds often include past returns of funds only if they were successful. This is

called __________.

A. long-short bias

B. survivorship bias

C. backfill bias

D. incentive bias 51. Some argue that abnormally high returns of hedge funds are tainted by __________, which arises when

unsuccessful funds cease operations, leaving only successful ones.

A. reporting bias

B. survivorship bias

C. backfill bias

D. incentive bias

52. Malkiel and Saha (2005) estimate that the survivorship bias for hedge funds equals 4.4%, which is __________ the survivorship bias for mutual funds.

A. about the same as

B. much lower than

C. much higher than

D. only slightly lower than 53. Hedge fund managers receive incentive bonuses when they increase portfolio assets beyond a stipulated

benchmark but lose nothing when they fail to perform. This is equivalent to __________.

A. writing a call option

B. receiving a free call option

C. writing a put option

D. receiving a free put option 54. A typical hedge fund incentive bonus is usually equal to ________ of investment profits beyond a

predetermined benchmark index.

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 20%

D. 25% 55. The fastest-growing category of hedge funds is feeder funds. These funds invest in ________.

A. other hedge funds

B. convertible securities and preferred stock

C. equities and bonds

D. managed futures and options

56. A high water mark is a limiting factor of hedge fund manager compensation. This means that managers can't charge incentive fees ________.

A. when a fund stays flat

B. when a fund falls and does not recover to its previous high value

C. when a fund falls by 10% or more

D. none of these options. (Managers can always charge incentive fees.) 57. If the risk-free interest rate is rf and equals the fund's benchmark, the portfolio's net asset value is S0, and

the hedge fund manager incentive fee is 20% of profit beyond that, the incentive fee is equivalent to receiving ______ call(s) with exercise price ________.

A. .2; S0

B. 1; S0(1 + rf)

C. 1.2; S0

D. .2; S0(1 + rf) 58. Assume the risk-free interest rate is 10% and is equal to the fund's benchmark, the portfolio's net asset

value is $100, and the fund's standard deviation is 20%. Also assume a time horizon of 1 year.

What is the exercise price on the incentive fee?

A. $100

B. $105

C. $110

D. $115

59. Assume the risk-free interest rate is 10% and is equal to the fund's benchmark, the portfolio's net asset value is $100, and the fund's standard deviation is 20%. Also assume a time horizon of 1 year.

What is the Black-Scholes value of the call option on the management incentive fee?

A. $6.67

B. $8.18

C. $9.74

D. $10.22 60. Assume the risk-free interest rate is 10% and is equal to the fund's benchmark, the portfolio's net asset

value is $100, and the fund's standard deviation is 20%. Also assume a time horizon of 1 year.

Assuming a 2% management fee and a 20% incentive bonus, what is the expected management compensation per share if the fund's net asset value exceeds the stated benchmark?

A. $4.24

B. $4

C. $3.84

D. $2.20

21

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Which one of the following is an example of "global" consumption smoothing?

A. Borrowing to buy a car

B. Borrowing to buy a home

C. Saving to send children to college

D. Saving during your working years for retirement 2. Inflation has an adverse effect on your savings because:

I. It erodes the purchasing power of the dollars you have saved.II. It increases the real rate of return on the dollars you save.III. Unless sheltered, it increases the taxes owed on investment income.

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 3. If you want to tilt your savings toward later years, you might be well advised to purchase which of the

following types of readily available insurance?

A. Career failure insurance

B. Disability insurance

C. Unemployment insurance

D. Moral hazard insurance

4. Which one of the following represents local consumption smoothing?

I. Saving during your working years for retirementII. Borrowing money to buy a carIII. Putting off a vacation for a year until you can afford it

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and II only

D. I, II, and III 5. In a private defined benefit pension plan the ___________ bears the investment risk, and in a private

defined contribution plan the ____________ bears the investment risk.

A. plan sponsor; employee

B. employee; plan sponsor

C. U.S. government; plan sponsor

D. plan sponsor; U.S. government 6. A decrease of 1% in both your tax exemption and your income tax rate would, on net, _______________.

A. make you better off

B. make you worse off

C. make you neither better off nor worse off

D. make you either better or worse off depending on your age 7. Tax shelters __________________.

A. postpone payment of tax liabilities

B. decrease investment risk

C. increase the pretax rate of return earned

D. benefit the government more than the investor

8. The tax effect of a traditional retirement plan is to _____ taxes.

A. evade

B. postpone

C. erase

D. avoid 9. The U.S. income tax code is generally _____.

A. regressive

B. progressive

C. flat

D. peaked 10. Contributions to a _____________ are not tax deductible.

A. traditional retirement plan

B. Roth retirement plan

C. 401k plan

D. 403b plan 11. No taxes are paid on withdrawals made during retirement from a _________.

A. traditional retirement plan


C. 401k

D. 403b plan

12. You earn 6% on your corporate bond portfolio this year, and you are in a 25% federal tax bracket and an 8% state tax bracket. Your after-tax return is _____. (Assume that federal taxes are not deductible against state taxes and vice versa).

A. 4.5%

B. 4.14%

C. 4.02%

D. 3.12% 13. You work for Fun-A-Rama Corporation and receive stock options as an incentive for your performance on

the job. You are counting on the stock options to provide the funds you'll need for your retirement. This is called _____________.

A. adverse selection

B. a 529 plan

C. a moral hazard

D. a Texas hedge 14. You can tax-shelter only one-half of your retirement savings. You want to invest one-half of your savings

in bonds and one-half in stocks. How much of the bonds and how much of the stocks should you allocate to the tax-sheltered investment?

A. Stock and bond investments should be equally invested in both tax-sheltered and nonsheltered accounts.

B. You should place all the stocks in tax-sheltered accounts and all the bonds in nonsheltered accounts.

C. You should place all the bonds in tax-sheltered accounts and all the stocks in nonsheltered accounts.

D. It makes no difference how you allocate your stock and bond investments among tax sheltered and nonsheltered accounts.

15. Social Security is ____________.

A. a pension plan only

B. an insurance plan only

C. a combination of a pension and insurance plan

D. an involuntary intergenerational transfer

16. The Social Security system _______________.

A. is financed in a regressive way

B. is regressive in the way it allocates benefits

C. is progressive in the way it is financed

D. is fully funded for the foreseeable future 17. Total annuity income is positively correlated with:

I. LongevityII. Durability of marriageIII. Expected length of your base (Social Security) annuity

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III 18. The solvency of Social Security is threatened by ______________.

A. increasing population longevity

B. above-replacement growth of the U.S. population

C. alternative tax shelters

D. the growth of competing defined contribution plans 19. A person in poor health trying to buy supplemental health insurance is an example of ________.

A. moral hazard

B. adverse selection

C. a Texas hedge

D. actuarial error

20. A person in excellent health with a long life expectancy chooses a lifetime annuity. This is an example of _________.

A. moral hazard


C. a Texas hedge

D. actuarial error 21. It would be costly to provide wage insurance because of the ___________ problem.

A. moral hazard


C. Texas hedge

D. actuarial error 22. You earned 8% on your corporate bond portfolio this year, and you are in a 15% federal tax bracket. If over

your holding period inflation was 3%, your real after-tax rate of return was _____.

A. 6.8%

B. 3.69%

C. 4.91%

D. 4.25% 23. As you get older, you decide to reduce the risk level of your retirement portfolio because your portfolio is

nearing your minimum acceptable level. As the portfolio does better, you reallocate funds into higher-risk categories. You are practicing a form of ____________.

A. manipulating tax shelters

B. involuntary intergenerational transfers

C. excessive savings

D. dynamic hedging

24. Tilting your retirement savings plan toward your later years should only be done by investors _____________.

A. who are sufficiently risk averse

B. who are more tolerant of risk

C. who are unsure if their income growth will keep up with inflation

D. who want to retire early 25. Employers commonly match at least some portion of employee contributions to:

I. 401k plansII.403b plansIII. Self-directed retirement plans

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II only

D. I, II, and III 26. A saver who expects to have a higher tax rate after retirement would prefer a ______.

A. Roth retirement plan

B. traditional retirement plan

C. 401k plan

D. 403b plan 27. A retirement plan that offers a tax shelter will defer ______________ taxes on contributions and

investment earnings.

A. income

B. sales

C. property

D. estate

28. A study by Spivack and Kotlikoff (1981) showed that a marriage contract increases the dollar value of lifetime savings by as much as _____.

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 25%

D. 50% 29. Taxes are applied to the _______________________.

A. real value of sheltered investment income

B. nominal value of unsheltered investment income

C. nominal value of sheltered investment income

D. real value of unsheltered investment income 30. One feasible way to hedge labor income is to ____________________.

A. diversify your investment portfolio away from the industry in which you work

B. save for retirement only from investment income

C. change careers every 7 years

D. invest heavily in the stock options provided by your firm 31. Which one of the following is not likely to be subject to adverse selection?

A. Health insurance providers

B. Lifetime annuity providers

C. Life insurance providers

D. Social Security

32. Average Indexed Monthly Earnings are used to compute ___________.

A. the consumer price index

B. your Social Security retirement benefits

C. your maximum 401k contribution

D. your maximum retirement plan contribution 33. The Social Security Primary Insurance Amount formula favors ______.

A. older workers

B. high-income workers

C. younger workers

D. low-income workers 34. Contributions to a traditional retirement plan are __________, and contributions to a Roth retirement plan

are ____________.

A. not tax deductible; not tax deducible

B. tax deductible; tax deductible

C. tax deductible; not tax deductible

D. not tax deductible; tax deductible 35. How many years of Social Security contributions count for determination of benefits?

A. 25

B. 35

C. 45

D. All yearly contributions count.

36. Under current rules most workers will have ________ of their salary deducted to pay for Social Security retirement benefits and _______ toward Medicare.

A. 1.45%; 6.2%

B. 6.2%; 1.45%

C. 7.65%; 1.45%%

D. 15.3%; 4.9% 37. In 2012, the income cap on Social Security taxes was set at _____ with an exemption of _____.

A. $200,000; $10,000

B. $153,600; $7,600

C. $110,100; $0

D. $96,000; $10,000 38. If your marginal tax rate is 15%, your capital gains tax rate on a stock you have held for 10 years would be

___.

A. 5%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 27.5% 39. A tax shelter that allows for tax-exempt saving for higher education is called a _____.

A. Roth savings plan

B. 403b

C. 401k

D. 529 plan

40. Withdrawals from a traditional retirement plan prior to age ___ are taxable and must pay a ___ tax penalty.

A. 59½; 10%

B. 62; 5%

C. 65; 7½ %

D. 63½; 5% 41. In planning for retirement, an investor decides she will save $2,000 every year for 25 years. At a 7% return

on her investment, how much money will she have at the end of 25 years?

A. $119,015

B. $125,316

C. $126,498

D. $128,420 42. In planning for retirement, an investor decides she will save $11,000 every year for 40 years. At an 11%

return on her investment, how much money will she have at the end of 40 years (to the nearest hundred thousand dollars)?

A. $1,400,000

B. $2,800,000

C. $4,900,000

D. $6,400,000 43. An investor plans to retire at age 60 with total savings of $1,000,000. If she is currently 35 years old, has no

savings, and expects to earn 8% per year on her investments, how much money must she set aside every year?

A. $15,546

B. $13,679

C. $11,892

D. $10,324

44. An insurance company plans to sell annuities to investors. Based on actuarial calculations, an investor has a 15-year life span, and he wants a $30,000-per-year annuity, payable at the end of each year. If the insurance company uses a 4% assumed investment rate, how much should the annuity cost?

A. $296,928

B. $312,236

C. $333,552

D. $353.982 45. A safe driver who drives faster as a result of purchasing collision car insurance would be an example of the

___________ problem.

A. moral hazard


C. Texas hedge

D. actuarial error 46. A worker plans to retire in 20 years. He needs $20,000 per year in retirement income in today's dollars. If

inflation is forecast at 3.5% per year, what annual income should he plan to receive in the first year of retirement in order to maintain the purchasing power on $20,000?

A. $30,353

B. $34,159

C. $37,398

D. $39,796 47. An insurance company plans to sell annuities to investors. Based on actuarial calculations, an investor has a

20-year life span, and she wants a $50,000-per-year annuity, payable at the end of each year. If the insurance company uses a 3% assumed investment rate, how much should the annuity cost?

A. $696,928

B. $743,874

C. $833,552

D. $953.982

48. A worker plans to retire in 30 years. He hopes to receive $65,000 per year in retirement income. If inflation is forecast at 2.5% per year, what annual income should he plan to receive in the first year of retirement in order to maintain the purchasing power on $65,000?

A. $65,000

B. $76,159

C. $98,398

D. $136,342 49. An investor must decide between putting $2,000 into a regular retirement plan or putting $1,440 into a Roth

retirement plan. If the investor's tax rate is 28% now and in retirement, and she expects to earn 12% per year over the next 20 years, which will produce more cash in the end?

A. The investment in the regular retirement plan.

B. The investment in the Roth retirement plan.

C. Both investments will have the same future value after taxes.

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 50. A regular retirement plan requires that taxes be paid at the time the money is removed from the plan. What

is the after-tax value of a $5,000 deposit into a retirement plan today that generates an 8% return for 20 years if the investor is taxed at the 28% level?

A. $16,779

B. $20,135

C. $21,685

D. $23,305 51. What is the value of a $2,500 deposit into a retirement plan if the investment earns 12% per year for 15

years?

A. $12,174

B. $13,684

C. $14,652

D. $15,523

52. The employees of a firm complain that they cannot afford to contribute $8,000 per year to a 401k because of the loss of $8,000 of take-home pay. In fact, how much will the take-home pay be reduced if all taxes combined total 33%?

A. $5,360

B. $6,340

C. $7,637

D. $8,000 53. An employee uses her firm's 401k plan. If she decides to contribute $11,000 per year and pays an effective

tax rate for all items of 28%, what is the reduction in her take-home pay each year?

A. $3,080

B. $4,210

C. $7,920

D. $11,000 54. An investor has an effective tax rate on all items of 30%, and he decides to put $8,000 into a 401k. The

future value of the investment that results from the deferral of taxes over 30 years at an 8% return equals _____________.

A. $2,400

B. $8,000

C. $10,400

D. $24,150 55. Withdrawals after retirement from a traditional retirement plan are __________, and withdrawals after

retirement from a Roth retirement plan are ____________.

A. taxable; not taxable

B. not taxable; taxable

C. tax deductible; not tax deductible

D. not tax deductible; tax deductible

56. If you start saving for retirement only in your later years and your income growth from that point is rapid, then ________________________.

A. a traditional retirement plan is probably a better choice than a Roth retirement plan

B. a Roth retirement plan is probably a better choice than a traditional retirement plan

C. a SEP is probably a better choice than Medicare

D. a 401k is probably a better choice than a 403b 57. Which one of the following statements about 401k plans is not correct?

A. The employer will typically match some portion of an employee's contributions to a 401k.

B. A 401k plan is a defined contribution plan.

C. Allowable contributions to 401k plans are limited.

D. Withdrawals from 401k plans are not taxed upon retirement. 58. Suppose you have maxed out your allowable contributions to your tax-sheltered retirement plans and you

still want to shelter income. The best choice of investment for you to minimize the tax bill is to invest in _________.

A. a bond portfolio

B. stocks with high dividend yields

C. a blended stock and bond portfolio containing zero-coupon bonds

D. stocks with low or zero dividend yields 59. A bond portfolio and a stock portfolio both provided an unrealized pretax return of 8% to a taxable

investor. If the stocks paid no dividends, we know that the ________.

A. after-tax return of the stock portfolio was higher than the after-tax return of the bond portfolio

B. after-tax return of the bond portfolio was higher than the after-tax return of the stock portfolio

C. after-tax income of the stock portfolio was equal to the after-tax income of the bond portfolio

D. after-tax income of the stock portfolio could have been higher or lower than the after-tax income of the bond portfolio, depending on the marginal tax rate of the investor

60. Statistics show that life expectancy at age 66 for males is about _____ additional years and for females is about _____ additional years.

A. 15; 20

B. 16; 19

C. 18; 22

D. 19; 24 61. Currently, the maximum combined taxable income of a retired household that avoids having to pay any

taxes on a portion of their Social Security benefit is ______.

A. $15,000

B. $32,000

C. $45,000

D. $75,000 62. An investor can earn a 6% nominal rate of return, but inflation is expected to be 3%. If the individual

invests $2,000 per year for 20 years, the real future value of this investment is ________. (All investments occur at year-end).

A. $73,571

B. $66,334

C. $53,251

D. $48,732 63. An individual wants to have $95,000 per year to live on when she retires in 30 years. The individual is

planning on living for 20 years after retirement. If the investor can earn 6% during her retirement years and 10% during her working years, how much should she be saving during her working life? (Hint: Treat all calculations as annuities.)

A. $9,872

B. $8,234

C. $7,908

D. $6,624

64. If you plan for a bequest for your children, your grandchildren, their children, and so on, your planning horizon becomes _____.

A. equal to the life span of your children

B. 100 years, or your lifetime, whichever ends first

C. infinite

D. double what it would have been without the bequest 65. You want to minimize your current tax bill by maximizing your contributions to your _____________.

A. taxable bond portfolio


C. 401k or 403b plan

D. taxable savings account 66. Sharon decides to put $5,000 into her retirement plan at the age of 25. She will continue to invest the same

amount for a total of 6 years and then stop contributing. Assume 10% annual return.

How much money will Sharon have in her retirement plan after 6 years?

A. $30,000

B. $35,575

C. $38,578

D. $41,451 67. Sharon decides to put $5,000 into her retirement plan at the age of 25. She will continue to invest the same

amount for a total of 6 years and then stop contributing. Assume 10% annual return.

How much money will Sharon have in her retirement plan when she is ready to retire at age 62?

A. $554,856

B. $623,245

C. $740,480

D. $1,311,805

68. A nonprofit organization offers a 5% salary contribution to John's 403b plan regardless of his own contributions, plus a matching 5% when John contributes 5% of his salary. John makes $56,000 a year.

What is the amount of the total contribution to his 403b if John contributes 5% of his own money?

A. $5,600

B. $8,400

C. $11,200

D. $12,500 69. A nonprofit organization offers a 5% salary contribution to John's 403b plan regardless of his own

contributions, plus a matching 5% when John contributes 5% of his salary. John makes $56,000 a year.

What is John's effective salary reduction if he is in the 25% tax bracket?

A. $2,100

B. $2,800

C. $5,600

D. $8,400 70. A nonprofit organization offers a 5% salary contribution to John's 403b plan regardless of his own

contributions, plus a matching 5% when John contributes 5% of his salary. John makes $56,000 a year.

What is John's total cost of his 5% contribution?

A. $2,100 cost

B. $2,800 cost

C. $700 benefit

D. $3.500 benefit

71. The fact that the U.S. government provides deposit insurance to banks creates a form of ___________, which is at least partially offset by requiring banks to hold more capital if they are riskier.

A. moral hazard


C. risk aversion

D. interest rate risk 72. An investor in the 34% tax bracket would be indifferent between a corporate bond with a before-tax yield

of 8% and a municipal bond with a yield of _________.

A. 3.91%

B. 6.15%

C. 5.28%

D. 10.72% 73. An investor who is in the 35% federal tax bracket and the 5% state bracket buys a 6.5% yield corporate

bond. What is his after-tax yield? (Assume that federal taxes are not deductible against state taxes and vice versa).

A. 3.9%

B. 4.75%

C. 6.5%

D. 9.9%

22

Student: _____________________________________________________________________

______

1. To _____ means to mitigate a financial risk.

A. invest

B. speculate

C. hedge

D. renege 2. In a defined benefit pension plan, the _____ bears all of the fund's investment

performance risk.

A. employer

B. employee

C. fund manager

D. government 3. In a defined contribution pension plan, the _____ bears all of the fund's investment

performance risk.

A. employer

B. employee

C. fund manager

D. government

4. My pension plan will pay me a yearly retirement amount equal to 2% of my highest annual salary for each year of service. I must have ___________.

A. a defined benefit plan

B. a defined contribution plan

C. an endowment fund

D. a variable annuity 5. A ______ insurance policy provides death benefits, with no buildup of cash value.

A. whole-life

B. universal life

C. variable life

D. term life 6. If the maturity of a bank's assets is much longer than the maturity of its liabilities

and it wants to limit its interest rate risk, the bank may _________.

A. prefer to invest in long-term bonds in its asset portfolio

B. prefer to invest in equities in its asset portfolio

C. prefer to invest in variable-rate assets

D. decide to increase its fixed-rate mortgage holdings 7. You are thinking of investing in one of two assets. Asset A has higher systematic

risk than asset B. You can be sure that asset A's _______ return will be higher than asset B's, but you can't be sure if asset A's _______ return will be higher than asset B's.

A. realized; expected

B. real; nominal

C. expected; realized

D. nominal; expected

8. A mutual fund may not hold more than ______ of the shares of any publicly traded company.

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 25%

D. 50% 9. Which one of the following would be considered a "cash equivalent" investment?

A. Treasury bills

B. Common stock

C. Corporate bonds

D. Real estate 10. For a bank, the difference between the interest rate charged to borrowers and the

interest rate paid on liabilities is called the __________.

A. insurance premium

B. interest rate spread

C. risk premium

D. term premium 11. Price volatility is greatest on which one of the following investments?

A. Commercial paper

B. 20-year zero-coupon bonds

C. Treasury notes

D. Treasury bills

12. A portfolio manager indexes part of a portfolio and actively manages the rest of the portfolio. This is called a _________ strategy.

A. passive-aggressive

B. passive core

C. passively active

D. balanced fund 13. The major asset most people have during their early working years is their

________.

A. home

B. stock portfolio

C. earning power derived from their skills

D. bond portfolio 14. At the early stage of an individual's working career, his or her retirement portfolio

should probably consist mostly of _______.

A. annuities

B. stocks

C. bonds

D. commodities 15. If an investor wants to invest 100% of her portfolio in safe assets but does not

want to manage her portfolio, she should invest in __________.

A. a money market fund

B. a growth stock fund

C. several different money market instruments

D. several different stocks

16. Just 2 months after you put money into an investment, its price falls 25%. Assuming that none of the investment fundamentals have changed, which of the following actions would evidence the greatest risk tolerance?

A. You sell to avoid further worry and buy something else.

B. You do nothing and wait for the investment to come back.

C. You buy more, thinking that if it was a good investment before, now it's not only good but cheap too.

D. You sue your financial adviser. 17. To become a CFA, you must do all of the following except which one?

A. Pass three exams designed to ensure that you have sufficient knowledge of investments.

B. Obtain 3 years of work experience in money management.

C. Become a member of a local Society of the Financial Analysts Federation.

D. Divest all your own stock holdings to eliminate any potential conflicts of interest with client recommendations.

18. Which of the following is not one of the main areas covered in the examinations

that must be taken in order to achieve the designation of Chartered Financial Analyst?

A. Investment management ethics

B. Securities analysis

C. Securities marketing techniques

D. Portfolio management

19. As the typical investor ages, the composition of his wealth usually switches from primarily _______ to primarily _______.

A. human capital; financial capital

B. financial capital; human capital

C. intellectual capital; physical capital

D. investable capital; noninvestable capital 20. The two most important factors in describing an individual's or organization's

investment objectives are ________________.

A. income level and age

B. income level and risk tolerance

C. age and risk tolerance

D. return requirement and risk tolerance 21. The term hedge refers to an investment that is used ________________.

A. primarily for tax-loss selling purposes

B. to mitigate specific financial risks

C. to conceal one's true investment strategy from other market participants

D. primarily to defer capital losses 22. The price of your investment increases 20% one month after you buy it. You do

not believe that the stock's prospects have changed. Which one of the following actions would indicate the lowest amount of risk aversion?

A. You hang on to the stock, anticipating that it will go higher.

B. You buy more stock, anticipating that it will go higher.

C. You sell all of your stock holdings immediately.

D. You sell half of your stock holdings and invest the proceeds in other areas of your portfolio.

23. An individual is on the game show Squeal or No Squeal, and she has a choice between receiving a certain gain of $100,000 and receiving a 50% chance of winning $200,000 or zero. If she takes the gamble instead of the certain $100,000, she is acting ____________________.

A. like a person who is risk-neutral

B. like a person who is risk averse

C. like a person who is a risk lover

D. irrationally 24. Which of the following typically strives to earn a return on their investments that

exceeds the actuarially determined rate of return?

A. Banks

B. Thrifts

C. Mutual funds

D. Pension funds 25. If an individual confers legal title to property to another person or institution to

manage the property on their behalf, the individual has created ___________.

A. a personal trust

B. a charitable trust

C. an endowment fund

D. a mutual fund

26. Personal trusts are typically allowed to engage in which of the following investment activities?

I. Buying and selling futures contracts.II. Short-selling securities.III. Purchasing and writing options.IV. Buying stock on margin.

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. II and IV only

D. None of the given activities are allowed. 27. If a defined benefit pension fund's actual rate of return is _____ than the actuarial

assumed rate, then the ___________.

A. greater; employees will benefit

B. greater; firm's shareholders will benefit

C. lower; employees will benefit

D. lower; firm's shareholders will benefit 28. An employee has an average wage of $60,000 and has worked for the firm for 25

years. The defined benefit pension plan pays retirees 2.5% of the average wage times the years of service. The employee can expect to receive _______ per year upon retirement.

A. $18,000

B. $37,500

C. $45,325

D. $55,250

29. Life insurance companies try to hedge the risks inherent in whole-life insurance policies by investing in __________.

A. long-term bonds

B. money market mutual funds

C. savings accounts

D. short-term commercial paper 30. A pension fund will owe $10 million to retirees in 6 years. An actuary assumes an

8% rate of return on the funds invested in the pension plan. If the pension plan receives annual contributions from the company sponsor, how much must the company pay each year to fully fund the pension liability?

A. $1,212,587

B. $1,363,154

C. $1,533,333

D. $1,666,667 31. The risk that a downturn in the market may substantially reduce your investment

principal is called _______.

A. purchasing power risk

B. interest rate risk

C. market risk

D. liquidity risk 32. The possibility that you are too conservative and your money doesn't grow fast

enough to keep pace with inflation is called ________.

A. purchasing power risk

B. liquidity risk

C. timing risk

D. market risk

33. A pension fund will owe $15 million to retirees in 20 years. An actuary assumes a 6% rate of return on the funds invested in the pension plan, but the fund actually earns 8%. The pension plan receives annual contributions from the company sponsor. If the 8% rate of return is expected to continue, by how much can the company reduce its pension payments per year?

A. $65,437

B. $79,985

C. $89,462

D. $95,320 34. Many defined benefit pension plans have a target rate of return on investment that

is equal to the ____________.

A. firm's return on equity

B. plan's assumed actuarial rate of return

C. economic inflation rate because wages often increase with inflation

D. estimated stock market return 35. _______ is a life insurance policy that provides a death benefit and a fixed-rate

tax-deferred savings plan.

A. Term life

B. Whole life

C. Variable life

D. Universal life

36. Empirical evidence confirms that investors become __________ as they approach retirement.

A. greedier

B. less interested in investments

C. more risk averse

D. more risk tolerant 37. _______ is a life insurance policy that will provide a death benefit only and has no

savings plan.

A. Term life

B. Whole life

C. Variable life

D. Universal life 38. Of the following, the investment time horizon is typically the shortest for

__________.

A. banks

B. endowment funds

C. life insurance companies

D. pension funds 39. A passive asset allocation strategy involves _________.

A. investing in the stock of companies that are price takers

B. maintaining approximately the same proportions of a portfolio in each asset class over time

C. varying the proportions of a portfolio in each asset class in response to changing market conditions

D. selecting individual securities in different sectors that are believed to be undervalued

40. An active asset allocation strategy involves _________.

A. investing in the stock of companies that are price takers

B. maintaining approximately the same proportions of a portfolio in each asset class over time

C. varying the proportions of a portfolio in each asset class in response to changing market conditions

D. selecting individual securities in different sectors that are believed to be undervalued

41. Endowment funds are held by __________.

A. financial intermediaries

B. individuals

C. profit-oriented firms

D. nonprofit institutions 42. Which one of the following is a life insurance policy that will provide a fixed

death benefit and allows the policyholder to choose where to invest the policy's cash value?

A. Term life

B. Whole life

C. Variable life

D. Industrial life 43. Under a "passive core" portfolio management strategy, a manager would

___________.

A. index the entire portfolio

B. index part of the portfolio and actively manage the rest

C. delegate the management of core segments of the portfolio to other managers

D. actively manage the entire portfolio

44. Of the following, the most flexible type of life insurance policy from the policyholder's perspective is probably a ___________ policy.

A. term life

B. whole life

C. variable life

D. universal life 45. The amount of risk an individual should take depends on his or her:

I. Return requirementsII. Risk toleranceIII. Time horizon

A. I only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III 46. Earnings on variable life and universal life insurance policies are ___________.

A. never taxed

B. taxed only at the capital gains tax rate

C. not taxed until the money is withdrawn

D. not taxed at the federal level but are taxed at the state level

47. When a company sets up a defined contribution pension plan, the __________ bears all the risk and the __________ receives all the return from the plan's assets.

A. employee; employee

B. employee; employer

C. employer; employee

D. employer; employer 48. Suppose that the pretax holding-period returns on two stocks are the same. Stock

A has a high dividend payout policy and stock B has a low dividend payout policy. If you are a high-tax rate individual and do not intend to sell the stocks during the holding period, __________.

A. stock A will have a higher after-tax holding-period return than stock B

B. the after-tax holding period returns on stocks A and B will be the same

C. stock B will have a higher after-tax holding-period return than stock A

D. The answer cannot be determined from the information given. 49. The objectives of personal trusts normally are __________ in scope than those of

individual investors, and personal trust managers typically are __________ than individual investors.

A. broader; more risk averse

B. broader; less risk averse

C. more limited; more risk averse

D. more limited; less risk averse

50. The prudent investor rule requires __________.

A. executives of companies to avoid investing in options of companies they work for

B. executives of companies to disclose their transactions in stocks of companies they work for

C. professional investors who manage money for others to avoid all risky investments

D. professional investors who manage money for others to constrain their investments to those that would be approved by a prudent investor

51. The prudent investor rule is an example of a regulation designed to ensure

appropriate _____________ by money managers.

A. fiduciary responsibility

B. fiscal responsibility

C. monetary responsibility

D. marketing procedures 52. An investor has a long time horizon and desires to earn the market rate of return.

However, the investor will need to withdraw funds each year from her investment portfolio. The biggest constraint a planner would face with this client is a ___________ constraint.

A. tax

B. risk-tolerance

C. liquidity

D. social

53. When used in the context of investment decision making, the term liquidity refers to _____________.

A. the ease and speed with which an asset can be sold at any value possible

B. the ease and speed with which an asset can be sold without having to discount the value

C. an aspect of monetary policy

D. the proportion of short-term to long-term investments held in an investor's portfolio

54. The term investment horizon refers to __________.

A. the proportion of short-term to long-term investments held in an investor's portfolio

B. the planned liquidation date of an investment

C. the average maturity date of investments held in a portfolio

D. the maturity date of the longest investment in the portfolio 55. The choice of an active portfolio management strategy rather than a passive

strategy assumes ___________.

A. the ability to continuously adjust the portfolio to provide superior returns

B. asset allocation involving only domestic securities

C. stable economic conditions over the short term

D. the ability to minimize trading costs 56. Conservative investors are likely to want to invest in __________ mutual funds,

while risk-tolerant investors are likely to want to invest in __________.

A. income; high growth

B. income; moderate growth

C. moderate-growth; high growth

D. high-growth; moderate growth

57. The first step any investor should take before beginning to invest is to __________.

A. establish investment objectives

B. develop a list of investment managers with superior records to interview

C. establish asset allocation guidelines

D. decide between active management and passive management 58. Which of the following is the least likely to be included in the portfolio

management process?

A. Monitoring market conditions and relative values

B. Monitoring investor circumstances

C. Identifying investor constraints and preferences

D. Organizing the investment management process itself 59. A clearly understood investment policy statement is not critical for which one of

the following?

I. Mutual fundsII. IndividualsIII. Defined benefit pension funds

A. II only

B. III only

C. I only

D. None of these options (A policy statement is necessary for all three.)

60. An investor refuses to invest in any firm that produces alcohol or tobacco. This is an example of a ___________ constraint.

A. return requirement

B. risk-tolerance

C. liquidity

D. social 61. Under the provisions of a typical defined benefit pension plan, the employer is

responsible for _____________.

A. investing in conservative fixed-income assets

B. paying benefits to retired employees

C. counseling employees in the selection of asset classes

D. paying employees the market rate of return on employee contributions 62. A life insurance firm wants to minimize its interest rate risk, and it is planning on

paying out $250,000 in 5 years. Which one of the following investments best matches its goal?

A. High-yield utility stocks

B. 5-year zero-coupon bonds

C. 10-year coupon bonds

D. Money market investments rolled over as needed

63. An institutional investor will have to pay off a maturing bond issue in 3 years. The institution has 10,000 bonds outstanding, each with a $1,000 par value. The institutional money manager is reevaluating the fund's total portfolio of $100 million at this time. She is bullish on stocks and wants to put the most she can into the stock market, but she cannot risk being unable to pay off the bonds. Three-year zero-coupon bonds are available paying 6% interest. What percentage of the total $100 million portfolio can she put in stocks and still ensure meeting the bond payments?

A. 87.4%

B. 88.5%

C. 90%

D. 91.6% 64. An investor with high risk aversion will likely prefer which of the following risk

and return combinations?

A. Expected return = 12%, historical standard deviation = 17%

B. Expected return = 14%, historical standard deviation = 19%

C. Expected return = 16%, historical standard deviation = 21%

D. Expected return = 18%, historical standard deviation = 23% 65. An investor with low risk aversion will likely prefer which of the following risk

and return combinations?

A. Expected return = 11%, historical standard deviation = 12%

B. Expected return = 12%, historical standard deviation = 14%

C. Expected return = 14%, historical standard deviation = 18%

D. Expected return = 17%, historical standard deviation = 21%

66. Medfield College's $10 million endowment fund is not allowed to spend any contributed capital or any capital gains. The fund may spend only investment earnings. The fund is expected to need between $500,000 and $1,000,000 to pay for new lab equipment for the science building. Which of the following is (are) true?

I. The fund should have a target rate of return of at least 10%.II. The limitations on spending require that the fund limit its considerations to growth stocks.III. The requirement to spend money out of the fund this year provides a liquidity constraint that may reduce the fund's rate of return.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III 67. An investor is looking at different retirement investment choices, and he is willing

to accept one with upside potential even if that means sacrificing certainty. Which of the following will he most likely select?

A. Fixed annuity

B. Defined benefit plan

C. Defined contribution plan

D. Bonds invested in a retirement plan

68. Both a wife and her husband work in the airline industry. They are in their 40s, and they have a high tax bracket and are concerned about their after-tax rate of return. A meeting with their financial planner reveals that they are primarily focused on long-term capital gains and will need at least a 9% to 11% average rate of return to meet their retirement goals. They desire a diversified portfolio, and liquidity is not currently a major concern. Which of the following asset allocations seems to best fit their situation?

A. 10% money market; 40% long-term bonds; 10% commodities; 40% high-dividend-paying stocks

B. 0% money market; 60% long-term bonds; 40% stocks

C. 10% money market; 30% long-term bonds; 10% commodities; 50% high-dividend-paying stocks

D. 5% money market; 30% long-term bonds; 5% commodities; 60% stocks, most with low dividends and high growth prospects

69. A family will retire in a few years. They have a high tax bracket and are concerned

about their after-tax rate of return. A meeting with their financial planner reveals that they are primarily focused on safety of principal and will need a 6% to 8% average rate of return on their portfolio. They desire a diversified portfolio, and liquidity is likely to be a concern due to health reasons. Which of the following asset allocations seems to best fit this family's situation?

A. 10% money market; 50% intermediate-term bonds; 40% blue chip stocks, many with high dividend yields

B. 0% money market; 60% intermediate-term bonds; 40% stocks

C. 10% money market; 30% intermediate-term bonds; 60% high-dividend-paying stocks

D. 5% money market; 35% intermediate-term bonds; 60% stocks, most with low dividends

70. Your sister, an avid outdoors person, works in the airline industry, and she has come to you (the financial guru) for investment advice. She is looking into purchasing stocks she knows something about. She is considering purchasing stock in Boeing, Lockheed Martin, United Technologies (maker of aircraft engines), and Cabela's Sporting Goods. Based only on the information given, which stock should you recommend for her?

A. Boeing

B. Lockheed Martin

C. United Technologies

D. Cabela's 71. In 1937 the Eli Lilly family donated millions of dollars in stock to fund a not-for-

profit charitable organization. Such organizations are typically called _________________.

A. annuities

B. endowments

C. mutual funds

D. personal trusts 72. Which one of the following institutions typically has the longest investment

horizon?

A. Mutual funds

B. Pension funds

C. Property and casualty insurers

D. Banks

73. For which one of the following institutions is liquidity usually the most important?

A. Mutual funds

B. Pension funds

C. Life insurers

D. Banks 74. One of the major functions of the investment committee is to ________________.

A. determine security selection of each portfolio operated by the investment company

B. translate the objectives and constraints of the investment company into an asset universe

C. determine the percentages of each security in the total investment company portfolio

D. calculate and report the overall rate of return to investment company constituents

75. For an investor concerned with maximizing liquidity, which of the following

investments should be avoided?

A. Real estate

B. Bonds

C. Domestic stocks

D. International stocks

76. The asset universe is the _____________________.

A. set of investments in which an investment company can legally invest

B. existing set of assets the investment company currently owns in one or more of its portfolios

C. list of assets approved by the investment committee that may be placed into the investment company's portfolio

D. market portfolio of all available risky assets 77. Go Global Investment Management has an asset allocation strategy of 60% U.S.

investments and 40% global investments. Within the United States, Go Global has allocated 70% of its portfolio to equities and 30% to bonds. Go Global now holds 3% of its U.S. equity portfolio in the stock of Wally World. Internationally, Go Global has allocated 55% to equities and 45% to bonds. About what percentage of Go Global's total portfolio is invested in Wally World?

A. 1%

B. 1.26%

C. 1.5%

D. 1.77% 78. Major functions of the investment committee include all but which one of the

following?

A. Engage in security selection for each portfolio managed

B. Broadly determine the overall asset allocation of the investment company

C. Determine the asset-class weights for each portfolio

D. Determine the asset universe

79. A portfolio consists of three index funds: an equity index, a bond index, and an international index. The portfolio manager changes the weights periodically according to forecasts for each sector. This is an example of __________.

A. a passively managed core with an actively managed component

B. a totally passively managed fund

C. passive asset allocation with active security selection

D. active asset allocation with passive security selection 80. A portfolio consists of three index funds: an equity index accounting for 40% of

the total portfolio, a bond index accounting for 30% of the total portfolio, and an international index accounting for 30% of the total portfolio. After each quarter the portfolio manager buys and sells some of each sector to preserve the original weights for each sector. This is an example of ____________.

A. a passively managed core with an actively managed component

B. a totally passively managed fund

C. passive asset allocation with active security selection

D. active asset allocation with passive security selection 81. One way that life insurance firms can hedge the risk created by offering whole-life

insurance policies is by ________________.

A. holding long-term bonds

B. holding equities

C. holding short-term bonds

D. exercising its right to terminate the policy

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FIN 320 Week 11 Final Exam

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