FM Metadata Modeling Paper_harika

Cognos Customer Certification Program Cognos ReportNet Metadata Modeling Section: Framework Manager (35 Questions) 1. Which statement is incorrect? (B)(5) A. The Report author can use the default aggregation, or override it by using the reporting application to apply a different type of aggregation. B. Framework Manager uses the Usage value to determine the value of the Regular Aggregate property of each query item. C. An aggregation rule must be applied to a query item or calculation, as detail row information is not supported. D. Aggregate settings include sum, count, and average, as well as several others. 2. When a report or ad hoc query author creates a report from a relational data source in Query Studio or Report Studio, they are (5) A. directly accessing the development model from Framework Manager B. using a runtime version of Framework Manager Model C. dynamically creating a runtime model D. bypassing the data source connection and directly accessing the underlying data source 3. When creating a star schema grouping, it is a best practice to: (B)(6) A. move the actual objects to a new namespace B. create shortcuts in a new namespace C. suffix the new namespace with"(star schema)" D. none of the above 4. You can use third-party authentication providers to: 3 A. create users, groups, and roles that are specific to a ReportNet application B. leverage existing authentication information including users names, Ids, and passwords C. assign permissions to access Framework Manager objects D. none of the above 5. When you add a language to a project, Framework Manager (a or C) 3 A. generates a new property value for every multilingual property of each object in the project, and translates those values into the specified languages. B. automatically generates a translation file. C. generates a new property value for every multilingual property of each object in the project, and prefixes the original value with a code representing the language added. D. asks for the location of a translation file for import.

personal-Mohan personal-Mohan

6. The name [GO DataWarehouse].[PRODUCT_DIMENSION].[PRODUCT_NAME_EN] would identify which type of object? B 4 A. namespace B. query item C. query subject D. data source 7. Choose all that apply. With respect to filters, Framework Manager: (A,C B?)4 A. offers both embedded and stand alone filters. B. when an embedded filter is applied, by default it is mandatory. C. embedded filters can be converted to stand alone filters. D. if you make an embedded filter option, the end user will always be prompted to supply a value no matter what the filter expression is. 8. If a properly specified numeric primary or foreign key is imported into Framework Manager: 5 A. the Usage property is set to "Attribute". B. the Usage property is set to "Fact". C. the Usage property is set to "Identifier". D. the Usage property is set to "Unknown". 9. Once you have created a shortcut to resolve a recursive relationship, you: A. must specify 0..n as the cardinality for the shortcut end of the relationship B. should prefix the shortcut a name with "recursive" C. need to set the Usage property to "Recursive" D. none of the above 10. When creating packages: (5)(M) A. generally, the physical layer will be included in case the presentation layer is missing a query subject the report author requires. B. it is recommended to only include objects required to create a specific report. C. enable model versioning and include only one language per publish. D. typically only include the presentation layer specific to report author's requirements. 11. Model structure best practices include: 4 A. creating a single-tier model representing data source objects that can be easily navigated by report and ad hoc query authors B. creating a physical layer containing foundation objects C. creating one or more presentation layers that contain reporting objects


D. sharing and reusing project information 12. The four basic relationship scenarios are?? 5 A. "Parallel", "Finite", "Hierarchical", "Detailed" B. "Many to Many", "Cross-Sectional", "Ambiguous or Redundant", "Finite" C. "Ambiguous or Redundant", "Hierarchical", "Many to Many", "Parallel" D. "Many to Many", "Detailed", "Ambiguous or Redundant", "Parallel" 13. The function sets you specify for a package: 3 A. must also be specified in the project function list. B. does not need to be specified in the project function list. C. cannot be specified at the package level and is in fact determined in the project's function list. D. is restricted to the data sources in your project. 14. If you wish to change the Cognos 8 server to which you publish, you need to change the ________ setting in Cognos Configuration. A. Content Manager URI B. Internal Dispatcher URI C. Gateway URI D. SDK URI E. External Dispatcher URI 15. Which of the following Framework Manager security implementations can be used to create groups and roles in the Cognos namespace? A. specify security filters B. give visibility rights C. specify package access D. specify project access 16. After a model query subject has been created, you can always view the query item's target reference by: A. right-clicking the model query subject and selecting find query item targets B. double-clicking the query item in the Project Viewer C. opening the Query Subject Definition dialog box and looking at the Source column in the Query Items and Calculations pane D. selecting the query item in the Project Viewer and then viewing the Target property in the Properties pane 17. Where appropriate, create calculations, filters, and other modifications in the physical layer to:


A. make these items visible to end-users B. maximize reuse in the presentation layer C. avoid creating them in the presentation layer as it is not a best practice D. prevent end-users from seeing them 18. The 4 Runtime Limit governors are: A. Processing Capacity, Query Execution, Audit logging, Data Retrieval B. Report Table, Audit Logging, Processing Capacity, Batch Report Processes C. Data Retrieval, Large Text Items, Report Table, and Query Execution D. Batch Report Processes, Large Text Items, Report Table, Query Execution E. Large Text Items, Report Table, Audit Logging, Processing Capacity 19. Framework Manager supports the following source control systems: A. Microsoft Visual Source Safe B. Merant Version Manager C. StarTeam D. Concurrent Version System 20. When you publish a package you can choose to verify it before publishing. Which problem(s) does the verification check for? A. schema validation errors B. invalid references C. improper cardinality settings D. invalid association containership 21. With regards to creating a package, the term "Nesting" refers to: A. packages that can be referenced by other packages B. the use of model query subjects in the package, which reference items from other query subjects C. the inclusion of multiple function sets and languages D. the application of security where roles are used to specify multiple users at one time 22. To facilitate the import of Architect models and Impromptu catalogs into Framework Manager, you A. import them directly using Framework Manager's Import Metadata wizard. B. must use migration utilities to export the metadata from these sources to XML files, then import the XML files into Framework Manager using the Import Metadata wizard. C. create exports from the source products (Architect and Impromptu) in a Framework Manager format. D. do nothing, since these data sources are not supported.


23. Assume that a package with versioning has been successfully published and a report has been authored based upon that package. If the package is updated and re-published to overwrite the existing package, which of the following statements are true when the report is edited? A. Report authors are notified that the report will use the newest version of the model in the package. B. The report is updated to run against the most recent version C. The report author must save the report to complete the update. 24. With regards to Stitch Queries, which of the following is not true: A. Cognos 8 sends down separate queries to the data source level which will be later merged. B. Cognos 8 requests that multiple queries be merged at the data source level using the coalesce function. C. Cognos 8 uses efficient outer joins on the Report Server to merge result sets D. Cognos 8 allows for blank fields if a value exists for one query but not the other. 25. The repository type and path to the repository are defined in: A. Cognos Configuration B. Cognos Connection C. Framework Manager D. ReportNet content store 26. If you edit the SQL of a model query subject: A. all references to the query subject will be broken B. the query subject will be converted to a data source query subject C. you are actually editing the underlying data source query subject's SQL D. you cannot edit the SQL of a model query subject 27. Once you have created a shortcut to resolve a recursive relationship, you: A. must specify O..n as the cardinality for the shortcut end of the relationship B. must prefix the shortcut name with "recursive" C. need to set the Usage property to "recursive" D. none of the above 28. To indicate no limit for a Runtime Limit governor use the following character: A. / B. # C. 0 D. * E. > F. ?


29. Which of the following is correct? The data sources listed in the Framework Manager Import Wizard can be deleted from: A. the Data Sources folder in the Framework Manager Project Viewer B. the Framework Manager Import Wizard C. Cognos Configuration D. the Data Sources tab of the Cognos Connection Directory tool **30. Which of the following statements regarding Query Subjects are true? (?) A. A stored procedure query subject is generated when you import a user-defined function from a data source that contains identically named tables. B. The SQL in a data source query subject can specify to return all columns or only specific ones. C. Query subjects contain query items, which represent a projection list from tables in the data source. D. With data source query subjects you have the ability to change the SQL type. Your options are (ODBCDirect, Cognos SQL or JetSQL). 31. Why do you need to specify dimensional information when multiple levels of granularity exist for a conformed dimension? A. To prevent double counting B. To allow end-users to visually see the hierarchy of the query subjects they are reporting with C. To override hierarchy information specified in relational data sources D. To prevent improperly specified cardinality 32. By default, every object in a Framework Manager project A. is visible to everyone. B. has a technical name as well as a user friendly name. C. is restricted from all users and requires you to specify object access. D. none of the above 33. You can use the following third-party authentication providers to authenticate ReportNet users: A. Netegrity Siteminder B. Cognos namespace C. LDAP D. Cognos Series 7 namespace 34. With regard to the scope of model query subjects, they: A. can reference objects from multiple data sources. B. can combine relational and SAP BW metadata. C. are the only objects that should be used in the presentation layer. D. should always have relationships specified between them and other query subjects. ** 35. From within Framework Manager, you can implement security by:


A. specifying access to packages B. specifying access to projects C. creating security filters D. setting object visibility

36. Scenario: As a business rule, your organization has determined that report consumers in all departments cannot see sales data prior to the year 2000. To apply this business rule, you have been instructed to create and apply a filter in Framework Manager, ensuring that only sales data for year 2000 or greater can be retrieved in a query. In your model you have a physical layer that contains a data source query subject called Sales Orders. This query subject contains a query item called Order Date. You also have multiple presentation views, each of them containing a model query subject the references the Sales Orders data source query subject. As a best practice in meeting these requirements, you should:

A. apply the filter to the Sales Orders data source query subject in the physical layer B. apply the filter to the model query subjects in the presentation views C. create the filter as a stand-alone model filter and publish it with a package

37. Which of the following objects in the Framework Manager environment is used to define a subset of metadata and is published for use by report and ad hoc query authors? A. relationship B. package C. parameter map D. folder 38. An outer join:

A. applies the same SQL technique as a cross join. B. is used between tables that have no relationships defined. C. can only be specified in the SQL of a data source query subject. D. although sometimes may be necessary, can take longer to process

. 39. When you test a model object that references a prompt, Framework Manager asks you to enter the prompt value. Framework Manager continues to use this value: A. unless you specify an override value in the project's governors B. for the duration of the Framework Manager session


C. until you change or clear the prompt value D. unless the always prompt for values check box is enabled in the Prompt dialog box

40. Examples of built-in security entries that cannot be deleted from the Cognos namespace, include the: A. Authors role B. System Administrators role C. Consumers role D. Everyone group

41. Create embedded filters when you want to reuse the expression by doing any of the following: A. add it to one or more query subjects to limit the data that the query retrieves when the filtered query subject is used in a report B. include it in a package to make it available to your report authors C. move it, or a shortcut to it, into a folder to further organize your model objects D. none of the above

42. Choose all that apply: In Framework Manager, you implement security by: a cd A. defining access to objects for groups and roles, but not individual users B. defining access to objects for groups, roles, and individual users C. applying security filters D. defining access for packages for groups and roles, and individual users.

43. When you import a translation TXT or CSV file, Framework Manager: D A. imports only values that have changed since the export was conducted. B. prefixes all import error values with "(error)". C. automatically knows which locale is the source to translate from and which locale is the target to translate to. D. requires you to specify the locale to translate from and which locale is the target to translate to. 44.After you add a project to the repository: C? A. it is automatically checked out to the user who added it. B. You must add comments specific to the addition of the project to the repository. C. it must be checked out before the user can begin working on it. D. you cannot work on the project until you close and reopen the project and then check it out

45. With reference to relationship cardinality between query subjects: A. physical layer relationships always take precedence over presentation layer relationships. B. cardinality is only enforced if specified in the query subjects' properties.


C. the cardinality must match what is specified in the data source. D. presentation layer relationships take precedence over physical layer relationships.

46. You can use the log files from a Framework Manager project to: A. View actions you have performed B. Play back actions you have performed to ensure project integrity C. Create a script of individual actions D. Synchronize changes made in a metadata source to a project

47. To define a security filter, you can: A. create an embedded filter that uses a filter expression B. use an existing model filter C. use a query subject that has a filter embedded within it

48. Framework Manager is a: A. Web-based application that runs in a browser B. Java servlet application that runs in an application server C. Windows-based client application D. Perl application that runs on an Apache Web server

49. Which of the following is NOT a best practices for specifying dimensional information: A. Ensure that keys and other identifiers have their usage specified as identifier. This makes the model more intuitive. B. When a surrogate key is available for a level, use it as the level key and treat the business key as an attribute (which still should be set as an identifier). C. Create a uniquely indexed key query item for each level before specifying the dimensional information. D. For each level, associate any query items that are specific to that level. 50. Choose all that apply. Renaming a query subject or query item used by a report and republishing the package: A. will not break the report but may affect its results. B. will not immediately break the report if you have model versioning enabled. C .will immediately break the report if you do not have model versioning enabled. D. will affect any saved outputs of the report.

51. Which of the following will correctly complete this statement? From an existing project, you can create a direct link to a ____________ in another project. A. folder B. parameter map C. namespace D. segment52. A recursive relationship is not illustrated in the Object Diagram unless: A. it is defined in the query subject's model properties


B. it is declared at the data source level C. each related query item's self-join property is set to point to the recursive query item it relates to D. create a shortcut of the query subject and then create a relationship back to the original query subject using the recursive feature E. you do nothing since recursive relationships cannot be displayed in the Object Diagram. 53. Which statement(s) regarding calculations are true? A. The Usage property for a calculation can only be set during the creation and cannot be modified once created. B. The two types of calculations are Embedded and Stand-alone C. The functions that appear when creating the calculation are dependent upon the Usage property of the calculation D. Calculations can use Query Items, Parameters, and Functions E. An embedded calculation can be later converted into a Stand-alone expression that can be applied to other Query Subjects

54. The Usage property for a query item can be set to: A. Attribute, Trigger, View, Unknown B. Identifier, Unknown, Fact, Attribute C. Unknown, Fact, View, Identifier D. Trigger, Identifier, Unknown, Function E. Attribute, Function, View, Unknown55. When you publish a package you can choose to verify it before publishing. Which problem(s) does the verification check for? A. schema validation errors B. invalid references C. improper cardinality settings D. invalid association containership

Section: Framework Manager- Advanced (25 Questions) 36. In which of the following views of the user interface can you examine relationships between query subjects? A. Object Diagram B. Content view C. Project Info view


D. Summary pane E. Project Viewer 37. Which of the following is NOT a cardinality option in Framework Manager. A. 1..n B. 1..1 C. 0..1 D. n..n <38. Modeling your metadata dimensionally can help ensure that you will have: A. predictable query results B. proper relationships between relational data sources and SAP BW data sources C. proper OLAP hierarchies D. more secure data at the row level 39. Choose all that apply. Fact tables generally contain: A. a collection of measurements B. descriptive fields C. a primary key D. foreign keys 40. Choose all that apply. You would create a dimension between two joined facts to: A. ensure that your model appears like a dimensional model B. ensure that minimized SQL is generated on multi-fact queries C. ensure that a stitch query is generated to prevent the possible loss of data D. prevent the possibility of double counting 41. Model session parameters are created in Framework Manager and: B? A. are only valid in the Framework Manager environment B. are published with every package for that model C. can only use static values in the Value field D. can only be referenced in model and data source query subjects 42. For multi-fact/multi-grain queries, correct aggregation is only possible if: A. the correct cardinality is specified B. dimension information is specified to indicate the levels of granularity on the conformed dimension used in the query C. the Regular Aggregate query item property is set to Sum for the fact query items D. keys are hidden in the fact query subjects 43. The basic components of a dimensional data structure include: A. fact tables and lookup tables B. fact tables and dimension tables C. dimension tables that contain associated fact values D. fact tables with degenerate dimensions


44. During a Framework Manager data source import, key and index information from your database is stored in the: A. content store B. model.xml file C. runtime model cache file D. model's cpf file 45. When you see Cognos SQL syntax such as RSUM(1 order by PRODUCT_FORECAST.PRODUCT_NUMBER asc local) as sc, it means: A. ReportNet is trying to sort an integer value in the absence of an attribute B. ReportNet is trying to sum a query item marked as an identifier C. ReportNet is trying to create a conformed key in the absence of a conformed dimension D. nothing, because this syntax never occurs in Cognos SQL 46. With regards to reporting traps, unwanted query splits (full outer joins) occur when: (M) A. query subjects are incorrectly identified as facts B. conformed and non-conformed dimensions are mixed C. a model allows you to author queries that contain blind spots D. a model does not use the star schema grouping wizard to populate the business view 47. Choose all that apply. The main goals of modeling in Framework Manager are to: (ABD) ? A. provide an intuitive end-user reporting/query experience B. leverage existing metadata and add value to this metadata C. physically modify the database schema D. create predictable queries and results 48. When using star schema groupings in the business view, conformed dimensions can be identified by: A. a change in the query subject icons B. viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager C. viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio D. using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping 49. Running aggregates are used by default for summary footers in reports that are run in: A. interactive mode (HTML) B. PDF format C. batch mode D. Excel format 50. Dimensional databases are designed and optimized for: A. writing data, as well as reading data


B. reading data C. writing data D. none of the above 51. Star schema groupings allow modelers to easily organize business segments by: A. placing facts in one namespace and conformed dimensions in another B. placing facts and related dimensions in one namespace with the exception of conformed dimensions C. placing facts and related dimensions in one namespace D. none of the above 52. The basic structure of a dimensional data structure includes a central fact table and several satellite tables known as ________. A. descriptor tables B. lookup tables C. dimension tables D. key tables 53. For 0..n cardinality, the 0 means: (M) A. the cardinality is optional and an outer join will be performed B. the cardinality is optional and an inner join will be performed C. the cardinality is optional only if the cardinality at the other end of the relationship is also optional D. the cardinality is unknown 54. Which one of the following is NOT an option for a data source's Rollup Processing property in Framework Manager? A. Database B. Extended C. Auto Detect D. Local 55. Which of the following objects in the Framework Manager environment acts as a container and provides a unique name for objects? A. model query subject B. data source query subject C. namespace D. query item 56. Select all that are true with respect to transactional and dimensional databases. A. Dimensional databases generally contain tables that have multiple cardinality relationships, such as 1...1 and 1...n. B. Transactional databases can contain tables that have multiple cardinality relationships, such as 1..1 and 1..n.


C. Dimensional database typically outperform transactional databases with respect to reporting. D. None of the above is true. 57. Conflicting join relationships occur when you have two tables in a one-to-many relationship with a multi-part key. You may see: A. a relationship highlighted in red in the Object Diagram B. an error message when you test each query subject individually C. a full outer join in the SQL when not all parts of the multi-part key are used in the relationship D. a message indicating you must fix the conflicting join before publishing a package

58. In order to perform a multi-fact query, a _________ dimension must be included in the query to get predictable results. A. linked B. conformed C. disambiguated D. segmented 59. You can use model query subjects to disambiguate data source query subjects by: A. conforming facts B. merging facts with dimensions C. separating dimensions by facts and facts by dimensions D. none of the above 60. Query subject A has a relationship to query subject B with a cardinality of 1..1 to 1..n respectively. To make query subject A optional in the relationship, use the following cardinality settings: A. 1..1 to 0..n B. 1..n to 0..n C. 1..0 to 1..n D. none of the above

61. Role-playing dimension query subjects are used to resolve the following reporting trap: A. one query subject with several relationships B. multiple ambiguous joins between two query subjects C. unwanted query splits (full outer joins) D. queries that reference two facts with no conformed dimension

62. Choose all that apply. Cognos generates native SQL that: A. is designed to use the database's optimizers B. is optimized to work with the specific database vendor and version C. writes back to the database D. leverages features of databases wherever possible


63. With regards to reporting traps, blind spots occur when: A. you do not import all the tables from a data source B. a query subject has no relationships attached C. a required relationship path is missing due to the omission of a query subject in a query D. a query subject has more than one relationship attached

64. You are writing a query involving two query subjects (query subject A and query subject B) that contain fact query items. These two query subjects have no direct relationship to each other. Which of the following scenarios will cause a cross join to occur? A. selecting fact query items from query subjects A and B and one textual query item (such as "Product Name") from a conformed dimension B. selecting a textual query item (such as "Product Name") from fact query subject A and a fact query item from fact query subject B C. selecting fact query items from query subjects A and B, one textual query item from a conformed dimension and one textual query item from a non-conformed dimension D. selecting one fact query item from query subject A, two fact query items from query subject B, and textual query items from two or more conformed dimensions

65. Which of the following statements is true regarding the scope of objects in Framework Manager. A. A namespace uniquely qualifies the name of an object. B. A model query subject references query items from data source or model query subjects. C. A model query subject that references multiple query subjects will also refer to any relationships between them. D. A shortcut query subject points to the model or data source query subject it is created from and cannot be modified, only renamed. E. All the above statements are true.

66. A query subject with multiple valid relationships to another query subject is a good candidate for: A. role-playing dimensions B. a recursive dimension C. slowly changing dimensions D. conformed dimensions

67. Which of the following is incorrect? Data source query subjects: A. use an SQL query that retrieves data from the underlying data source B. use select * from <table name> as the SQL syntax for retrieving data from a table in a data source C. by default do not have relationships defined between them during import

68. Choose all that apply. You should specify dimension information to:


A. ensure correct rollups for multi-grain queries B. prevent double counting C. specify that the dimension is conformed D. minimize SQL

69. The recommended approach to dealing with multiple hierarchies for a query subject is to: A. create shortcuts to the original query subject and change the cardinality of the relationships as required B. specify multiple hierarchies for the query subject and allow the authors to select which hierarchy they want to use through the user interface C. specify only one hierarchy (because you cannot specify more than one) D. create a model query subject for each version of the hierarchy and specify the appropriate dimension information

70. What does the X and R in XSUM and RSUM stand for?

A. X stands for extract and R stands for resume B. X stands for extended and R stands for running C. X stands for extract and R stands for running D. X stands for extended and R stands for resume

71. After a filter has been applied to a query subject, the relationships between it and other query subjects should be examined to determine if: A. any records will be returned B. the nature of the cardinality has changed C. an unnecessary full outer join is generated D. SQL is being minimized 72. For a query subject to be recognized as a fact by ReportNet's query engine in all query scenarios: A. the query subject requires one instance of 1..n cardinality and one instance of 1..1 cardinality to be attached to it B. the query subject requires all instances of attached cardinality to be either 1..n or 0..n C. the query subject must only have 1..1 or 0..1 cardinalities attached D. none of the above 73. Choose all that apply. Conformed dimensions allow for: A. multi-fact queries B. stitch queries C. multi-grain queries D. full outer joins 74. A relationship with a cardinality of 1..n to 1..n indicates: A. a many to many relationship B. completely optional cardinality


C. that dimension information needs to be specified D. a filter is required to focus the record set 75. Choose the ideal cardinality between a fact query subject and a dimension query subject when modeling in Framework Manager A. 1..n to 1..n B. 1..1 to 1..1 C. 1..1 to 1..n D. n..1 to 1..1 76. The CSVIdentityNameList macro function is used: A. in conjunction with a parameter map to implement row-level security based on values stored in a data source. B. to return the pieces of the user's identity (account name, group names, role names) as a list of strings C. to dynamically assign users to groups and roles D. to specify package access

77. ReportNet will identify a query subject as a "fact" or a "dimension" based on its: A. dimension information B. hierarchy C. cardinality D. query item usage properties 78. Which of the following statements regarding the creation of a package are false? A. Objects can be hidden so as not to be visible to the end-user B. Once the package has been defined, it can no longer be edited C. A best practice when creating a package is to exclude the physical layer as it is usually not modeled for presentation purposes D. Languages must be added to a project before they can be added to a package E. The package function list is used to specify which data source functions are available to report authors F. By default, a verification of the package will automatically take place prior to publishing a package 79. If the Regular Aggregate property for a query item is set to Calculated, the default behavior in Query Studio and Report Studio will be to: A. calculate first and then summarize B. summarize first and then calculate C. calculate but not summarize D. cache the calculated values for use in subsequent queries


80. The recommended approach to dealing with multiple hierarchies for a query subject is to: A. create shortcuts to the original query subject and change the cardinality of the relationships as required B. specify multiple hierarchies for the query subject and allow the authors to select which hierarchy they want to use through the user interface C. specify only one hierarchy (because you cannot specify more than one) D. create a model query subject for each version of the hierarchy and specify the appropriate dimension information

81. For relational data sources, by default, Framework Manager determines cardinality by using: A. matching query item names B. matching query item names that are uniquely indexed C. primary and foreign keys

D. only primary keys82. Choose all that apply. Cognos generates native SQL that: A. is designed to use the database's optimizers B. is optimized to work with the specific database vendor and version C. writes back to the database D. leverages features of databases wherever possible


Date post:	17-Nov-2014
Category:	Documents
Upload:	api-3733985
View:	738 times
Download:	0 times

FM Metadata Modeling Paper_harika

Documents