GATE Solved Question Papers for Textile Engineering and Fibre Science [TF] by AglaSem.Com

SOLVED PAPERS

GATETEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE (TI)

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A comprehensive study guide for GATE

CONTENTS

• Introduction• Question Paper Pattern• Design of Questions• Marking Scheme• Syllabus• Previous Year Solved Papers

o Solved Question Paper 2014o Answer Key 2014o Solved Question Paper 2013o Answer Key 2013o Solved Question Paper 2012o Answer Key 2012

Introduction

The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination

conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology

(IITs).

A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE

papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam

pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.

While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a

simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to

test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if

he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you

could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and

accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas

where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.

Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the

basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.

To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

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Question Paper Pattern

In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10

questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).

In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and

XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General

Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the

total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.

In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude

section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is

devoted to the subject of the paper.

GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:

(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and

sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four

answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).

(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For

these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the

virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.


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Design of Questions

The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:

(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the

paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her

memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.

(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the

basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental

ideas.

(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her

knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.

(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,

diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis

question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.

Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated

assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.


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Marking Scheme

For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.

Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong

answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions

carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total

10 marks).

Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL

These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and

30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of

questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,

choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real

number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An

appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type

questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.

GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:

Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section

1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part

A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.

Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks

and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B

(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each

(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).

XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)


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In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section

contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-

total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions

may be of numerical answer type questions.

Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions

carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13

questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of

numerical answer type.

XL Paper (Life Sciences)

In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15

questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)

and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of


Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions

carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10

questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of


Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers

For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative

marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong

answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a

wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical

answer type questions.


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Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)

Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,

instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.

Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning

and data interpretation.

Syllabus for Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF)

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

Linear Algebra: Matrices and Determinants, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values and

eigen vectors.

Calculus: Limit, continuity and differentiability; Partial Derivatives; Maxima and minima;

Sequences and series; Test for convergence; Fourier series.

Vector Calculus: Gradient; Divergence and Curl; Line; surface and volume integrals;

Stokes, Gauss and Green’s theorems.

Diferential Equations: Linear and non-linear first order ODEs; Higher order linear ODEs

with constant coefficients; Cauchy’s and Euler’s equations; Laplace transforms; PDEs –

Laplace, heat and wave equations.

Probability and Statistics: Mean, median, mode and standard deviation; Random

variables; Poisson, normal and binomial distributions; Correlation and regression analysis.

Numerical Methods: Solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations; integration of

trapezoidal and Simpson’s rule; single and multi-step methods for differential equations.

TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE

Textile Fibres: Classification of textile fibres; Essential requirements of fibre forming

polymers; Gross and fine structure of natural fibres like cotton, wool and silk. Introduction

to important bastfibres; properties and uses of natural and man-made fibres; physical and

chemical methods of fibre and blend identification and blend analysis.


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Molecular architecture, amorphous and crystalline phases, glass transition, plasticization,

crystallization, melting, factors affecting Tg and Tm; Process of viscose and acetate

preparation. Polymerization of nylon-6, nylon-66, poly (ethylene terephthalate),

polyacrylonitrile and polypropylene; Melt Spinning processes, characteristic features of

PET, polyamide and polypropylene spinning; wet and dry spinning of viscose and acrylic

fibres; post spinning operations such as drawing, heat setting, tow-to-top conversion and

different texturing methods.

Methods of investigating fibre structure e.g., Density, X-ray diffraction, birefringence,

optical and electron microscopy, I.R. absorption, thermal methods (DSC, DMA/TMA, TGA);

structure and morphology ofman-made fibres, mechanical properties of fibres, moisture

sorption in fibres; fibre structure and property correlation.

Yarn manufacture and yarn structure & properties: Principles of opening, cleaning and

mixing/blending of fibrous materials, working principle of modern opening and cleaning

equipments; the technology of carding, carding of cotton and synthetic fibres; Drafting

operation, roller and apron drafting principle, causes of mass irregularity introduced by

drafting; roller arrangements in drafting systems; principles of cotton combing, combing

cycle, mechanism and function, combing efficiency, lap preparation; recent developments

in comber; Roving production, mechanism of bobbin building, roving twist; Principle of

ring spinning, forces acting on yarn and traveler; ring & traveler designs; mechanism of

cop formation, causes of end breakages; working principle of ring doubler and two for one

twister, single and folded yarn twist, properties of double yarns, production of core spun

yarn, compact spinning, principle of non conventional methods of yarn production such

as rotor spinning, air jet spinning, wrap spinning, twist less spinning and friction spinning.

Yarn contraction, yarn diameter, specific volume & packing coefficient; twist strength

relationship in spun yarns; fibre configuration and orientation in yarn; cause of fibre

migration and its estimation, irregularity index, properties of ring, rotor and air-jet yarns.

Fabric manufacture and Fabric Structure: Principles of cheese and cone winding

processes and machines; random and precision winding; package faults and their

remedies; yarn clearers and tensioners; different systems of yarn splicing; features of

modern cone winding machines; different types of warping creels; features of modern


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beam and sectional warping machines; different sizing systems, sizing of spun and

filament yarns, modern sizing machines; principles of pirn winding processes and

machines; primary and secondary motions of loom, effect of their settings and timings on

fabric formation, fabric appearance and weaving performance; dobby and jacquard

shedding; mechanics of weft insertion with shuttle; warp and weft stop motions, warp

protection, weft replenishment; functional principles of weft insertion systems of shuttle-

less weaving machines, principles of multiphase and circular looms.

Principles of weft and warp knitting; basic weft and warp knitted structures. Classification,

production and areas of application of nonwoven fabrics.Basic woven fabric constructions

and their derivatives; crepe, cord, terry, gauze, leno and double cloth constructions.

Peirce’s equations for fabric geometry; elastica model of plain woven fabrics; thickness,

cover and maximum sett of woven fabrics.

Textile Testing: Sampling techniques, sample size and sampling errors. Measurement of

fibre length, fineness, crimp, strength and reflectance; measurement of cotton fibre

maturity and trash content; HVI and AFIS for fibre testing. Measurement of yarn count,

twist and hairiness; tensile testing of fibres, yarns and fabrics; evenness testing of slivers,

rovings and yarns; testing equipment for measurement test methods of fabric properties

like thickness, compressibility, air permeability, drape, crease recovery, tear strength,

bursting strength and abrasion resistance. FAST and Kawabata instruments and systems

for objective fabric evaluation.Statistical data analysis of experimental results.Correlation

analysis, significance tests and analysis of variance; frequency distributions and control

charts.

Preparatory Processes: Chemistry and practice of preparatory processes for cotton, wool

and silk. Mercerization of cotton.Preparatory processes for nylon, polyester and acrylic and

polyester/cotton blends.

Dyeing: Classification of dyes. Dyeing of cotton, wool, silk, polyester, nylon and acrylic

with appropriate dye classes. Dyeing polyester/cotton and polyester/wool blends.

Batchwise and continuous dyeing machines. Dyeing of cotton knitted fabrics and

machines used. Dye fibre interaction. Introduction to thermodynamics and kinetics of


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dyeing.Methods for determination of wash, light and rubbing fastness.Evaluation of

fastness properties with the help of grey scale.

Printing: Styles of printing. Printing thickeners including synthetic thickeners. Printing

auxiliaries. Printing of cotton with reactive dyes. Printing of wool, silk, nylon with acid and

metal complex dyes. Printing of polyester with disperse dyes. Methods of dye fixation after

printing. Resist and discharge printing of cotton, silk and polyester. Printing of

polyester/cotton blends with disperse/reactive combination. Transfer printing of

polyester. Developments in inkjet printing.

Finishing: Mechanical finishing of cotton. Stiff. Soft, wrinkle resistant, water repellent,

flame retardant and enzyme (bio-polishing) finishing of cotton.Milling, decatizing and

shrink resistant finishing of wool.Antistat finishing of synthetic fibre fabrics. Heat setting of

polyester.

Energy Conservation: Minimum application techniques.

Pollution: Environment pollution during chemical processing of textiles. Treatment of

textile effluents.


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GATEPrevious Year Solved Papers

Textile Engineering and Fibre Science – TF

2012 - 14


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Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various

symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.

2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question

paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.

3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject

specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.

The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question

numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.

The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to

25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.

4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for

answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the

Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one

answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for

the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.

6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the

examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.

7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.

8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer

type.

9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the

correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed

before the choice.

10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be

any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that

appears on the monitor and the mouse.

11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple

choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong

answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.

12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT

allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination

centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the

instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to

violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of

the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.

TF: Textile Engineering & Fibre Science

GATE 2014 Solved Paper


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Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following

sentence.

A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease short-term memory loss.

(A) experienced (B) has experienced

(C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following

sentence.

____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.

(A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?

“As a woman, I have no country.”

(A) Women have no country.

(B) Women are not citizens of any country.

(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries.

(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4 In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the

Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes

is ____ years.

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would

it take to double at this growth rate?

(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the

group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?

Statements 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.

2. Shiv is elder to Som.

(A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child.

(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child.

(C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child.

(D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.

GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA


Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of

exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of

the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with

exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data

point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.

From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier

The main point of the paragraph is:

(A) The twenty-first century is a digital world

(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness

(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data

(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.

The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of

exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through

export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total

revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1

per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1

Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is

1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?

(A) 1 (B) √2 (C) √3 (D) 2

Q.10 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this

kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV

− individuals 89% of the time. A

particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the

individual is actually positive is _______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Item 1

11%

Item 2

20%

Item 3

19%Item 4

22%

Item 5

12%

Item 6

16%

Exports

Item 1

12%

Item 2

20%

Item 3

23%

Item 4

6%

Item 5

20%

Item 6

19%

Revenues

GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA



Q.1 The range of values of x satisfying the inequality 0232 <+− xx is

(A) x < 0 (B) 0 < x < 1 (C) 1 < x < 2 (D) cannot be determined

Q.2 A very large tank contains 10 liters of pure water. Salt solution (20 g/l) is pumped into the tank at 2

liter per minute. The salt concentration in g/l in the tank after a very long time will be

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 40

Q.3 The inverse Laplace transform of

442

222 ++

++ ss

s

ss is

(A) t

te221 −− (B)

tttee

22 21 −− +−

(C) tt

tee22 221 −− +− (D)

tttee

22 2 −− +

Q.4 The probability of obtaining a total of 5 in two throws of a dice is

(A) 6

1 (B) 9

1 (C) 12

1 (D) 18

1

Q.5 Medulla is associated with

(A) Cotton (B) Silk (C) Wool (D) Nylon

Q.6 A good fibre forming polymer should NOT have

(A) Linear polymeric chain

(B) Branched polymeric chain

(C) High DP

(D) High inter-molecular interaction

Q.7 The DP of viscose fibre is approximately

(A) 25000 (B) 2500 (C) 250 (D) 25

Q.8 A synthetic yarn is stretched by 5% and kept in the extended condition. With time, the registered

stress will

(A) Increase linearly

(B) Decrease linearly

(C) Increase exponentially

(D) Decrease exponentially

Q.9 In a cotton card, the wire point density on

(A) Cylinder is lesser than that on flat

(B) Doffer is greater than that on cylinder

(C) Cylinder is greater than that on flat

(D) Flat is greater than that on doffer

Q.10 In a drawframe with 3 over 3 drafting system, the roller most prone to slip is

(A) Middle top roller

(B) Front top roller

(C) Back top roller

(D) Front bottom roller

GATE 2014 Textile Engg. & Fibre Science - TF


Q.11 Fibre parallelization in drawn sliver improves with

(A) Increase in draft

(B) Increase in doubling

(C) Decrease in roller setting

(D) Increase in roller pressure

Q.12 The combing force increases with

(A) Decrease in mass/unit length of lap

(B) Decrease in pre-combing draft

(C) Decrease in needles/cm on half lap

(D) Decrease in nips per minute

Q.13 Pirn winding is an essential preparatory process for weaving on

(A) Air-jet loom

(B) Water-jet loom

(C) Rapier loom

(D) Drop-box loom

Q.14 Double acting dobby is driven from

(A) Bottom shaft

(B) Crank shaft

(C) Tappet shaft

(D) Rocking shaft

Q.15 In air-jet loom

(A) All the relay nozzles start jetting at the same time

(B) Each relay nozzle has separate jetting time

(C) Relay nozzles of a group start jetting at the same time

(D) Main and relay nozzles have same jetting time

Q.16 If the diameter of a torsion rod used in projectile loom is doubled then the torque required to twist it

would increase by

(A) 2 times (B) 4 times (C) 8 times (D) 16 times

Q.17 In a sizing process, if add-on is 12.8% and paste concentration is 16%, the value of wet pick-up (%)

would be

(A) 16 (B) 50 (C) 80 (D) 200

Q.18 The fibre parameter that CANNOT be obtained from Baer sorter diagram is

(A) Mean length (B) Effective length

(C) Span length (D) Modal length

Q.19 A 25 tex cotton yarn has a twist factor of 30. The yarn twist, in turns per cm, is

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7



Q.20 With an increase in gauge length, the tenacity of a spun yarn would

(A) Increase (B) Decrease

(C) Remain the same (D) First increase and then decrease

Q.21 Sodium chlorite bleaching of cotton is carried out in the temperature range of

(A) 95-110 oC (B) 80-85

oC (C) 50-60

oC (D) 30-40

oC

Q.22 K/S ratio is related to reflectance (R) as

(A) K/S = (1-R2) / 2R (B) K/S = (1+R

2) / 2R

(C) K/S = (1-R) / 2R (D) K/S = (1-R)2/ 2R

Q.23 A print paste CANNOT be prepared without

(A) Colourant (B) Thickener

(C) Dispersing agent (D) Carrier

Q.24 In the Limiting Oxygen Index (LOI) test, the sample is kept in

(A) Horizontal position and burnt from the left side

(B) Inclined position and burnt from the bottom

(C) Vertical position and burnt from the top

(D) Vertical position and burnt from the bottom

Q.25 A fabric was dyed in acidic medium. If the dye could be stripped out in strong aqueous alkaline

solution at room temperature, the dye-fibre combination is

(A) Direct dye - Cotton (B) Acid dye - Wool

(C) Vat dye - Cotton (D) Disperse dye - Polyester

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Of the two eigen values of the matrix ⎥

⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡34

21

(A) One is positive, one is negative (B) Both are positive

(C) Both are negative (D) Both form a complex conjugate

Q.27 The 51st common term of the two arithmetic sequences 15, 19, 23 ...... and 14, 19, 24 ......, is ......

Q.28 The integrating factor for solving the differential equation )(cos2)sin()cos( 3

xxyxdx

dy=+ is

(A) sin(x) (B) cos(x) (C) tan(x) (D) sec(x)

Q.29 X is a continuous random variable whose probability density function is given by

( ) ( )⎩⎨⎧ <<−

=otherwise

xforxxKxf

0

2024 2

The value of the constant K, accurate to three decimal places, is......

Q.30 ∫

2

0dxe

x is evaluated both by Trapezoidal rule and Simpson's

31 rule by taking two subintervals.

The difference between the results, accurate to the second decimal place, is ......



Q.31 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer.

[a] The apparent blend ratio of polyester / viscose fabric would increase as a result of drying

[r] The moisture content of viscose is significantly higher than that of polyester

(A) [a] is right [r] is wrong

(B) [a] is right [r] is right

(C) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong

(D) [a] is wrong [r] is right


[a] In the case of condensation polymerization of PET, diethylene glycol terephthalate (DGT) is

prepared first

[r] In condensation polymerization, it is important to have a correct stoichiometric balance of

comonomers





Q.33 A polypropylene yarn, melt spun at a throughput rate of W (g/s) and winding speed of S (m/min),

was drawn to a draw ratio of D. The denier of this yarn is a function of W, S, D and a constant K.

The value of K, accurate to the nearest integer, is............


[a] Cut and crush method for tow to top conversion uses cutting roller with embedded helical blade

[r] This helps to impart crimp in the cut fibres






[a] Before SEM analysis of carbon fibre, it is sputter coated with gold or silver

[r] This is done because the carbon fibre is electrically insulating





Q.36 A cleaning unit in a blowroom is processing cotton at 600 kg/h. The waste generated is 2%. The lint

to trash ratio is 60:40. The lint (in kg) accumulated in 8 hours, accurate to one decimal place, will

be ......

Q.37 The twist contraction factor of a filament yarn is 1.06. For producing 5 ton twisted yarn of 50 tex,

the untwisted yarn length required, in km, accurate to the nearest integer, is ......

Q.38 For producing a coarse count yarn from short staple trashy cotton sliver, the most suitable rotor is

(A) Large diameter rotor with narrow groove

(B) Large diameter rotor with wide groove

(C) Small diameter rotor with narrow groove

(D) Small diameter rotor with wide groove



Yarn strength CV %

En

d b

reak

s/ 1

00

spin

dle

hou

r

Traveller running time (h)

En

d b

reak

s/ 1

00

spin

dle

hou

r

Spindle speed (rpm)

En

d b

reak

s/ 1

00

spin

dle

hou

r

Yarn strength CV %

En

d b

reak

s/ 1

00

spin

dle

hou

r

Q.39 Consider the following figures. Choose the alternative that represents the correct relation

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.40 The surface helix angle of a fibre in a yarn of 0.3 mm diameter is 30°. Assuming ideal helix

geometry, the helix angle (in degrees), of a fibre situated at 0.1 mm from the yarn axis, accurate to

one decimal place, will be ......

Q.41 Higher value of stitch cam setting in a weft knitting machine would

(A) Increase the loop length and decrease the fabric areal density

(B) Increase the loop length and increase the fabric areal density

(C) Decrease the loop length and decrease the fabric areal density

(D) Decrease the loop length and increase the fabric areal density

Q.42 A shuttle loom producing 3 up 1 down twill fabric is running at 180 picks per minute. The angular

velocity of the tappet (cam) shaft in radian per second, accurate to two decimal places,

would be ......

Q.43 A yarn is passing over a multiplicative tensioner with an angle of wrap of 90°. If the input yarn

tension is 100 cN and coefficient of friction between yarn and tensioner is 0.2, then the output yarn

tension in N, accurate to two decimal place, would be ......

Q.44 During beat-up, possibility of bumping increases if

(A) Warp tension is low and cloth fell displacement is low

(B) Warp tension is low and cloth fell displacement is high

(C) Warp tension is high and cloth fell displacement is low

(D) Warp tension is high and cloth fell displacement is high

Q.45 A needle-punched nonwoven fabric has 2 mm thickness and 400 g/m2 areal density. If the fibre

density is 0.9 g/cm3, the volume porosity (%) of the fabric, accurate to the nearest integer,

will be ......



Q.46 For a square plain fabric, crimp in one set of yarns would be completely removed without jamming,

if the ratio of modular length (l) to the sum of the yarn diameters (D) is

(A) Between π/8 and π/6

(B) Between π/6 and π/4

(C) Between π/4 and π/2

(D) Greater than π/2

Q.47 The breaking load of a 300 mtex fibre is 110 mN. If the density of the fibre is 1.24 g/cm3, breaking

stress in kN/cm2, accurate to one decimal place, will be ......

Q.48 A 60.5 tex yarn with an unevenness CV of 10% is produced from 0.5 tex polyester fibre. The index

of irregularity of the yarn, accurate to one decimal place, will be ......

Q.49 The vibroscope method for determination of fibre fineness does NOT take into account

(A) Length of specimen (B) Natural frequency of specimen

(C) Tension in specimen (D) Tensile strength of specimen

Q.50 In the context of Kawabata Evaluation System, match the fabric properties from Group I with the

units from Group II.

Group I Group II

P Tensile energy 1 gf . cm2 / cm

Q Linearity of load-elongation curve 2 percentage

R Bending rigidity 3 gf . cm / cm2

S Compressional resilience 4 dimensionless

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Q.51 The Barium Activity Number (BAN) was determined using the standard procedure. For this, 30 ml

of 0.25N Ba(OH)2 solution was used, in each of the three titrations, i.e. (a) blank titration, (b) back

titration where mercerized fabric sample was immersed and (c) back titration where unmercerized

fabric sample was immersed in Ba(OH)2 solution. If the volume (ml) of 0.1N HCl consumed was

10, 1 and 4.5 respectively, the BAN of the mercerized sample, accurate to one decimal place, is

.......

Q.52 Scoured and bleached cotton fabric was dyed with reactive dye under the following conditions:

Temperature of dyeing: 40 oC

Shade: 3%

Fixation efficiency: 65%

If the rate of hydrolysis of dye is known to be 5% more for every 10 oC rise in dyeing temperature,

the amount of dye fixed on cotton (g of dye / kg of fibre), if dyed at 50 oC, accurate to one decimal

place, would be......


[a] In a roller printing machine, the doctor blade is closely set over the printing roller

[r] This is to remove the lint collected on the roller

(A) [a] is right, [r] is wrong

(B) [a] is right, [r] is right

(C) [a] is wrong, [r] is wrong

(D) [a] is wrong, [r] is right



Q.54 A cotton fabric is finished with DMDHEU. As a result, its

(A) Tensile strength decreases, abrasion resistance increases, stiffness decreases

(B) Tensile strength decreases, abrasion resistance decreases, stiffness decreases

(C) Tensile strength decreases, abrasion resistance decreases, stiffness increases

(D) Tensile strength increases, abrasion resistance increases, stiffness decreases

Q.55 During burning, a flame retardant does NOT

(A) Increase heat absorption (B) Reduce supply of oxygen

(C) Increase char content (D) Lower glass transition temperature (Tg)




GATE 2014 - Answer KeysGeneral Aptitude – GA

Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 D 5 A 9 C2 A 6 A 10 0.48 to 0.493 C 7 C4 25 to 25 8 D

Textile Engineering and Fibre Science – TF

Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 C 20 B 39 A2 C 21 B 40 10.7 to 11.13 A 22 D 41 A4 B 23 B 42 4.67 to 4.745 C 24 D 43 1.35 to 1.396 B 25 C 44 B7 C 26 B 45 78 to 788 D 27 A 46 D9 C 28 1019 to 1019 47 45 to 4610 A 29 D 48 1.1 to 1.111

A30 0.374 to

0.37649

D12 B 31 0.47 to 0.51 50 A13 D 32 B 51 163 to 16414 A 33 B 52 18.4 to 18.615

C34 540000 to

54000053

A16 D 35 A 54 C17 C 36 C 55 D18 C 37 57.5 to 57.719

C38 106000 to

106000


_________________________________________

Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or

numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with

only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices

will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks

questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The

answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first

question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,

then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.

Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions

will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong

answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the

case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the

first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative

marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

TF: TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100


GATE 2013 Solved Paper


Q.1 The fibre that contains nitrogen and sulfur is

(A) Polyester (B) Wool (C) Nylon 6 (D) Kevlar

Q.2 Condensation polymerization is not used to produce

(A) Polyester (B) Nylon 6 (C) Nylon 66 (D) Polypropylene

Q.3 Wet spinning technique is commercially used to produce filament yarn of

(A) Polypropylene

(B) Polyester

(C) Nylon 66

(D) Acrylic

Q.4 The fibre that dissolves in 59% (w/w) sulfuric acid solution is

(A) Wool

(B) Polypropylene

(C) Cotton

(D) Viscose

Q.5 Surface features of a fibre can be obtained by

(A) Transmission electron microscope

(B) Scanning electron microscope

(C) Small angle X-ray diffractometer

(D) Sonic modulus tester

Q.6 Birefringence of filament yarn is related to its

(A) Crystallinity

(B) Orientation

(C) Individual filament denier

(D) Density

Q.7 A machine that does not improve the mass evenness is

(A) Drawframe (B) Ring doubler

(C) Speedframe (D) Ribbon lap

Q.8 Fibre individualization in a card will increase by increasing

(A) Licker-in to cylinder setting (B) Doffer speed

(C) Licker-in speed (D) Cylinder speed

Q.9 Softer cots on drafting rollers result in

(A) An increase in drafting wave (B) Less fibre slippage at roller nip

(C) Change in draft (D) Reduced roller lapping

Q.10 Compared to the spinning of finer cotton yarns, the preferred rotor diameter for the production of

very coarse cotton yarns would

(A) Be higher

(B) Be lower

(C) Remain the same

(D) Change depending on fibre strength



Q.11 Amongst the following, the suitable technology for producing core spun yarn is

(A) Air vortex spinning (B) Rotor spinning

(C) Friction spinning (D) Air-jet spinning

Q.12 Increase in taper angle on sectional warping drum will normally require

(A) Higher warping speed

(B) Lower warping speed

(C) Increase in traverse speed

(D) Decease in traverse speed

Q.13 Increase in the ratio of the length of crank to the length of connecting rod leads to

(A) Increase in sley eccentricity

(B) Decrease in sley eccentricity

(C) No change in sley eccentricity

(D) Initial increase and then decrease in sley eccentricity

Q.14 Shuttle remains on the race board during its flight in the shed because of

(A) Forward positive acceleration of the sley

(B) Backward positive acceleration of the sley

(C) Constant forward velocity

(D) Constant backward velocity

Q.15 In weft knitted fabrics of the same mass per unit area produced from the same yarns, the structure

which will give the highest thickness is

(A) Plain

(B) Rib

(C) Purl

(D) Interlock

Q.16 The nonwoven process which has the highest production rate is

(A) Needle punching (B) Hydroentangling

(C) Melt blowing (D) Spunbonding

Q.17 During bleaching of cotton with H2O2, the stabilizer used is

(A) Sodium hydroxide (B) Sodium silicate

(C) Acetic acid (D) Sodium carbonate

Q.18 The highest washing fastness in a dyed cotton fabric would be obtained if the dye-fibre bond is

(A) Ionic (B) Hydrogen

(C) Covalent (D) Van der Waal's force

Q.19 Disperse dye cannot generally be fixed on polyester by

(A) Superheated steam at180oC (B) Saturated steam at 130oC

(C) Dry heat at 200oC (D) Saturated steam at 100oC

Q.20 Crease resist finishing of cotton fabric does not lead to

(A) Reduction in tensile strength (B) Increase in dimensional stability

(C) Increase in moisture regain (D) Increase in bending length



Q.21 Two yarn samples have standard deviation of strength σ1 and σ 2. If σ1 < σ2, the 'F' ratio would be

(A) σ1 / σ2 (B) σ2 / σ1 (C) σ12

/ σ22 (D) σ2

2 / σ1

2

Q.22 Nep count in a cotton fibre sample is measured by

(A) AFIS (B) HVI (C) Uster tester (D) Stelometer

Q.23 In a given woven fabric the extension at break in weft direction is higher than that in warp

direction. During bursting strength test, the threads that will always break first are

(A) Warp

(B) Weft

(C) Both warp and weft simultaneously

(D) Those with lower strength

Q.24 CSP of yarn is equal to the product of

(A) Yarn tex and lea strength (N)

(B) Yarn count (Ne) and lea strength (lbf)

(C) Yarn tex and lea strength (lbf)

(D) Yarn count (Ne) and lea strength (kgf)

Questions Q.25 to Q.32 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is

either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A market survey by a garment manufacturing company revealed that the chest width of their target

customers had normal distribution with a mean of 54 cm. If 18% of customers surveyed have chest

width greater than 58 cm and 75% of customers surveyed have chest width greater than 52 cm, the

percentage of customers having chest width between 56 cm and 58 cm is ________.

Q.27 The relationship between load (y) in N and elongation (x) in mm of a cotton fabric is y √ .

If the breaking elongation of the fabric is 9 mm, the work of rupture, in N.mm, is________.

Q.28 On twisting, the denier of a multifilament yarn consisting of 300 filaments of 3 denier each

becomes 1100. If 11 km of untwisted filament yarn is twisted, its length in km will be __________.

Q.29 A loom is producing 2 m wide grey fabric with 8% weft crimp. Assuming that the loom is running

at 570 rpm with 90% efficiency, the weft consumption in kg/hr of 30 tex yarn will be _______.

Q.30 The strength of 100 g/m

2 fabric obtained by testing 4 cm wide strip is 0.4 kN. The tenacity (cN/tex)

of the fabric is ______.

Q.31 Out of 100 textile companies, 10 companies are involved in spinning, weaving and chemical

processing, 25 companies are involved in spinning and chemical processing, and 30 companies are

involved in weaving and chemical processing. If 65 companies are involved in chemical

processing, the number of companies involved ONLY in chemical processing is_______.

Q.25 If the moisture regain of a fibre is 10%, its moisture content (%) is _______ .



Q.32 In a card the probability of fibre transfer from cylinder to doffer in one revolution of cylinder is

0.2. The probability that a particular fibre will be transferred to the doffer within the first three

revolutions of cylinder is _______.

Questions Q.33 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Q.33 The particular integral of

2

2

dx

yd+

dx

dy is

(A) (B) (C)

(D)

Q.34 The inverse of the matrix is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.35 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer

[a] Nylon 6 is polymerized using only single monomer caprolactum

[r] Synthesis of Nylon 6 is basically an addition polymerization






[a] Sodium cellulose xanthate formation is an essential unit operation in the production of viscose

rayon

[r] It helps to reduce the degree of polymerization of cellulose






[a] In false-twist friction texturing, the ratio of input to output tension is kept close to one

[r] Broken filaments and tight spots are within the acceptable limits at this condition








[a] Heat setting increases the dimensional stability of synthetic fabrics

[r] The free energy reduces as a result of heating





Q.39 The advantage of flyer leading over bobbin leading speed-frame is

(A) Lower roving stretch

(B) Lesser chance of unwinding after breakage

(C) Lower power requirement

(D) Power requirement remains fairly constant during the bobbin build up

Q.40 The daily production of a mill is 1200 kg of 30 tex and 1200 kg of 20 tex yarns. The average yarn

tex produced by this mill is

(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26

Q.41 A square plain jammed woven fabric of 0.5 mm thickness is to be produced from polyester yarns.

Assuming circular yarn cross-section, the number of picks per cm in the fabric on the loom is

approximately

(A) 13 (B) 18 (C) 23 (D) 28

Q.42 On a winding machine, if the winding speed is increased from 1000 m/min to 1200 m/min, the

percentage increase in the yarn tension will be approximately

(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 44

Q.43 Choose the correct alternative from amongst A, B, C and D

Mercerization of cotton results in

P Increase in tensile strength

Q Increase in dye uptake

R Modification of crystal structure

S Decrease in moisture regain

(A) P,Q,R (B) Q,R,S

(C) P,S,R (D) P,Q,S

Q.44 In the case of reactive dyeing of cotton, the exhaustion is 70% and reaction efficiency is 80%.

Assuming that the initial dye concentration is 2% on the weight of fabric, the amount of unreacted

dye on the fabric expressed as a percentage of fabric weight would be

(A) 0.14 (B) 0.28 (C) 0.35 (D) 0.42


[a] Controlled reduction treatments are commercially used for shrink resist finishing of wool

[r] Reduction disrupts the disulphide bonds, which are responsible for wool shrinkage







Q.46 The principle which cannot be used to measure hairiness of yarn is

(A) Light scattering

(B) Image analysis

(C) Photoelectric

(D) Capacitance

Q.47 The abrasion cycles on a flat abrasion tester increase with an increase in

(A) Pressure applied during abrasion

(B) Speed of abrasion

(C) Area of abraded surface

(D) Specimen tension during abrasion

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A winding machine without anti-patterning device has the following particulars:

Cylindrical winding drum diameter : 75 mm

Number of crossing on drum : 212

Rotational speed of the drum : 2860 rev/min

Traverse length : 150 mm

A 3.5 degree constant taper cone is built on the above cone winder with no movement of the point of drive

during the package build up. At mean cone diameter of 150 mm the package rev/min is 1375.

Q.48 The number of times major patterning will occur in producing 200 mm mean diameter package on

40 mm mean diameter core is

(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11

Q.49 Distance in mm of point of drive from the base of the cone along the traverse is approximately

(A) 26 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 40


Consider the following particulars for a spinning line producing 30 tex yarn from 150 militex polyester

fibre.

Mass CV of card sliver : 3%

Mass CV added at draw-frame : 2%

Mass CV added at speed-frame : 3%

Mass CV added at ring-frame : 7%

Number of doubling at draw-frame : 6

Number of draw-frame passage : 1

Q.50 The mass CV% of roving is approximately

(A) 3.4 (B) 3.8 (C) 4.2 (D) 4.6

Q.51 Index of irregularity of yarn is approximately

(A) 0.88 (B) 1.13 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.53



Linked Answer Questions

Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

The angle subtended by the half-lap on the cylinder comb is 90o. The time taken by the half-lap to comb a

fringe is 0.04 s.

Q.52 The speed of the comber in nips/min is

(A) 325 (B) 350 (C) 375 (D) 400

Q.53 From the following data, calculate approximate production rate in kg/hr

Length of lap fed per nip : 6 mm

Lap linear density : 60 ktex

Noil : 20%

Efficiency : 80%

Number of heads : 6

(A) 21 (B) 26 (C) 31 (D) 36


Viscose fabric is to be resin finished with DMDHEU by pad-dry-cure method. Assume that

Mass of fabric per unit area : 200 g/m2

Width of fabric : 100 cm

Speed of the machine : 50 m/min

Concentration of pad liquor : 100 g/l

Wet pick up : 100%

Specific gravity of padding liquor : 1.0

Molecular weight of anhydroglucose unit : 162

Q.54 The resin add-on after padding in kg per kg of fabric will be

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4

Q.55 Assuming that the reaction takes place in amorphous region only and that the fabric crystallinity is

33%, the number of cross links formed per anhydroglucose unit after curing would be

approximately

(A) 0.07 (B) 0.14 (C) 0.28 (D) 0.35





Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:

(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96

Q.57 The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.

I II III IV

Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:

Primeval

(A) Modern (B) Historic

(C) Primitive (D) Antique

Q.59 Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.

(A) cordial

(B) intimate

(C) secret

(D) pleasant

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:

Medicine: Health

(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace

(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness


Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that and . For which of the

following values of , the function , will give maximum value?

(A) (4/3, 10/3)

(B) (8/3, 20/3)

(C) (8/3, 10/3)

(D) (4/3, 20/3)

Q.62 If | | then the values of | | | | is:

(A) 2, 1/3 (B) 1/2, 3 (C) 3/2, 9 (D) 2/3, 9



Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010

and 2011.

Category 2010 2011

Raw material 5200 6240

Power & fuel 7000 9450

Salary & wages 9000 12600

Plant & machinery 20000 25000

Advertising 15000 19500

Research & Development 22000 26400

In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?

(A) Raw material and Salary & wages

(B) Salary & wages and Advertising

(C) Power & fuel and Advertising

(D) Raw material and Research & Development

Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is

earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price

should be increased to maintained the same profit level.

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30

Q.65 Abhishek is elder to Savar.

Savar is younger to Anshul.

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above

statements?

(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul

(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek

(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age

(D) No conclusion follows




GATE 2013 - Answer KeysTextile Engineering and Fibre Science – TF

Q. No Key / Range Q. No Key / Range Q. No Key / Range1 B 23 B 45 C2 D 24 9.08 to 9.1 46 D3 D 25 7 47 C4 D 26 18 48 B5 B 27 9 49 A6 B 28 1.99 to 2 50 B7 C 29 10 51 B8 D 30 20 52 C9 B 31 0.48 to 0.49 53 C10 A 32 A 54 A11 C 33 B 55 B12 D 34 A 56 D13 A 35 B 57 B14 A 36 A 58 C15 D 37 B 59 B16 D 38 B 60 C17 B 39 C 61 A18 C 40 B 62 B19 D 41 C 63 D20 C 42 D 64 A21 D 43 A 65 D22 A 44 B


__________________________________________

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only

one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated

and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.

2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the

symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view

all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the

examination.

3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the

correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on

another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button

next to the selected option.

4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other

questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a

numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks

questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The

answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first

question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then

the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.

Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.

There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For all 1

mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark

will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair,

there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for

wrong answer to the second question.

9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the

rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.

________________________________________________________________________________________

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.

Registration Number TF

Name

Signature

Verified that the above entries are correct. Invigilator’s signature:

GATE 2012 Solved Paper TF : TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE



Q.1 The fibre which has a mineral origin is

(A) Asbestos (B) Silk (C) Flax (D) Acrylic

Q.2 The chemical that is used to convert soda cellulose to sodium cellulose xanthate in the manufacture

of viscose rayon is

(A) Carbon disulphide (B) Sodium xanthate

(C) Sodium sulphide (D) Sodium hydroxide

Q.3 The fibre that will float on water is

(A) Nylon (B) Polyester (C) Acrylic (D) Polypropylene

Q.4 The range of spinning speed (m/min) used in the manufacture of partially oriented polyester yarn is

(A) 1000 − 1200 (B) 2000 − 2500

(C) 2800 − 3500 (D) 4000 − 6000

Q.5 Drawing of synthetic filament does not lead to an increase in

(A) Crystallinity (B) Tenacity

(C) Tensile modulus (D) Elongation at break

Q.6 In a card, the wire point density is maximum on

(A) Cylinder (B) Flat (C) Doffer (D) Licker-in

Q.7 The spinning system that does not generate false twist during spinning is

(A) Ring spinning (B) DREF 3 (C) Rotor spinning (D) Air jet spinning

Q.8 Most of the seed coat particles are removed in

(A) Blow room (B) Card (C) Comber (D) Draw frame

Q.9 An eccentric top roller in a drafting system leads to

(A) Change in draft with oscillation of nip line

(B) Change in draft without oscillation of nip line

(C) Neither change in draft nor oscillation of nip line

(D) Oscillation of nip line only

Q.10 The increase in traveller weight leads to an increase in

(A) Yarn twist

(B) Traveller lag

(C) Balloon diameter

(D) Yarn tension

Q.11 Dog knot is preferred to weaver's knot during creeling because it is

(A) Easier to make

(B) Stronger

(C) Smaller in size

(D) Less prone to slippage



Q.12 Size add-on does not depend on

(A) Roller hardness

(B) Drying cylinder temperature

(C) Size paste concentration

(D) Machine speed

Q.13 Ball warping is mainly used in the manufacture of

(A) Terry towel

(B) Narrow fabric

(C) Denim

(D) 3D fabric

Q.14 The factor that does not influence the propelling force for moving the weft yarn on air jet loom is

(A) Coefficient of friction between air and yarn

(B) Air velocity

(C) Yarn strength

(D) Yarn diameter

Q.15 In the context of thermal bonding of nonwoven web, the statement which is not true is

(A) A thermoplastic component has to be present in the web

(B) Heat is applied until the thermoplastic component melts

(C) The polymer flows by surface tension and capillary action to fibre cross over points

(D) Chemical reaction takes place

Q.16 A 51 mm long fibre has 6 % crimp. The crimped length of the fibre in mm is approximately

(A) 44 (B) 46 (C) 48 (D) 50

Q.17 On a mass based evenness tester, thin place in a yarn at −40 % setting is counted if mass per unit

length is

(A) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length

(B) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length

(C) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length or less

(D) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length or less

Q.18 Ratio of grab strength to strip strength is the highest when fabric extension (%) is

(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 15

Q.19 Bursting strength of a woven fabric with the same warp and weft yarns is the highest when the ratio

of ends/cm and picks/cm is

(A) 1.1 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.8

Q.20 Fabric abrasion resistance cannot be assessed by the loss in

(A) Strength (B) Thickness (C) Weight (D) Air permeability

Q.21 Bleached cotton fabric was sent to a laboratory for determination of Copper Number, which is an

estimate of the presence of

(A) Hydroxyl groups (B) Carboxyl groups

(C) Reducing groups (D) Oxidizing groups



Q.22 Malachite Green is an important dyestuff. The typical green colour is obtained when the dye

molecule is

(A) Nonionic

(B) Cationic

(C) Anionic

(D) Made up of phenyl groups

Q.23 A typical curve between equilibrium dye uptake and dyeing temperature goes through a maximum.

After the maximum, the dye uptake decreases because

(A) Kinetic energy increases rapidly

(B) Pressure in the dye bath increases

(C) Saturation value is reached

(D) Dyeing is an exothermic process

Q.24 The efficacy of the wash-n-wear treatment can be estimated by measuring its

(A) Bending length

(B) Tensile strength

(C) Dye uptake

(D) Crease recovery

Q.25 Softener reduces the bending rigidity of fabrics by decreasing

(A) Inter-fibre and inter-yarn friction

(B) Modulus of the fibres

(C) Glass transition temperature of the fibres

(D) Packing coefficient of yarns


Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is

either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Q.26 The density of a given polyester filament sample is 1.38 g/cm3. Consider the density of fully

crystalline polyester as 1.455 g/cm3 and that of fully amorphous polyester as 1.335 g/cm3. The

percent crystallinity of the sample is ________.

Q.27 Cleaning efficiency of the opening roller in a rotor spinning machine, having 56 mm diameter rotor,

is 80 %. The yarn breaks when the trash deposition within the rotor groove crosses the threshold of

1 mg/mm. If a sliver with 0.4 % trash is fed at 7.5 g/min, the number of end breaks in 1 hr (to the

nearest whole number) is ________.

Q.28 In a projectile weaving machine the projectile travels a total distance of 250 cm at an average

velocity of 25 m/s. If the time period during which it is in motion occupies half of the loom cycle,

the maximum loom speed in picks per minute is ________.

Q.29 A 225 denier viscose yarn has a breaking strength of 7.5 N. The yarn tenacity in cN/dtex is

________.



Q.30 In an experiment, 1 g each of the mercerized and unmercerized fabric samples are separately treated

in 30 ml of 0.25N barium hydroxide solution for the required time. 10 ml of these solutions are

drawn and titrated against 0.1N HCl solution. The volumes of HCl consumed at the end of these

titrations are m for mercerized and u for unmercerized cases. If

Barium Activity Number (BAN) = [(b-m)/(b-u)]×100,

where m=18 ml, u=20 ml and b is the volume of HCl consumed in the blank titration, then the BAN

value for the above mercerized sample is ________.

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Q.31 Consider the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]

[a] M is an orthogonal matrix, but not a skew-symmetric matrix.

⎥⎥⎥

⎦

⎤

⎢⎢⎢

⎣

⎡

θθθ−θ=

cossin0

sincos0

001

M

[r] Because MT = M−1 and MT ≠ −M.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the above Assertion [a] and Reason [r]



(C) [a] is wrong [r] is right

(D) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong

Q.32 A beaker contains 50 cc of an aqueous dye solution of concentration c (w/v). 25 cc of this solution

is removed and replaced by 25 cc of distilled water. This process is repeated five more times. The

final concentration of the solution is

(A) c (B)

5

2

1⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛

c (C)

6

2

1⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛

c (D)

7

2

1⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛

c

Q.33 Assume that the rate of evaporation of moisture from a wet fabric during drying process is

proportional to the amount of moisture present in the fabric. If 50 % of the moisture is evaporated

in the first 5 minutes then the time (min) taken to evaporate 90 % of the moisture is approximately

(A) 9 (B) 17 (C) 22 (D) 33

Q.34 The number of neps in a carded web follows Poisson distribution with a mean of 100 per m2. The

probability that there is no nep in an area of 645 cm2 is

(A) e−6.45 (B) e6.45 (C) e−645 (D) e645

Q.35 A yarn of 24 mm length has a varying cross-section. The values of the cross-sectional area of yarn

(mm2), measured at equal intervals of 4 mm from one end are

0.09, 0.12, 0.14, 0.15, 0.16, 0.13, 0.11

The volume of yarn (mm3) estimated by using Simpson's 1/3 rule of numerical integration is

(A) 2.40 (B) 2.80 (C) 3.20 (D) 3.36



Q.36 Match the property from Group I with the characterization technique from Group II.

Group I Group II

P Spherulite size 1 Optical microscopy

Q Degradation temperature 2 X-ray diffraction

R Crystalline orientation 3 Differential scanning calorimetry

S Melting temperature 4 Thermogravimetric analysis

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4


[a] In the case of manufactured fibre spinning, a circular spinneret orifice always results in circular

cross-section of filaments in melt spinning, but the same is not true in dry spinning.

[r] Melt spinning involves only heat transfer, whereas dry spinning involves heat as well as mass

transfer.






Q.38 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] in the context of the load-elongation curves of

fibres F1, F2, and F3

[a] Fibre F3 is the most suitable fibre for making a rope for mountaineering.

[r] Mountaineering rope should have high tenacity, high modulus and high work of rupture.






Q.39 The winding speed (difference between bobbin speed and traveller speed) of yarn in a ring frame is

200 rev/min when bobbin diameter is 28 mm. If the bobbin diameter is increased to 35 mm, the

winding speed (rev/min) would be

(A) 140 (B) 160 (C) 180 (D) 200

Load

Elongation

F1

F2

F3



Q.40 The weight of material on a roving bobbin is 2.4 kg. The roving hank is 600 tex. If delivery rate is

20 m/min, the time (min) required to build the bobbin is

(A) 180 (B) 190 (C) 200 (D) 210

Q.41 The terry towel fabric is a

(A) Warp pile structure with two series of warp and one series of weft yarn

(B) Weft pile structure with two series of warp and one series of weft yarn

(C) Warp pile structure with two series of weft and one series of warp yarn

(D) Weft pile structure with two series of weft and one series of warp yarn

Q.42 Sizing of single cotton yarn leads to an increase in

(A) Strength and extensibility but decrease in bending rigidity and hairiness

(B) Strength and bending rigidity but decrease in extensibility and hairiness

(C) Strength and hairiness but decrease in extensibility and bending rigidity

(D) Bending rigidity and extensibility but decrease in strength and hairiness

Q.43 The strength utilization of yarn in a woven fabric is

(A) Always more than 1.0 (B) Always less than 1.0

(C) Always equal to 1.0 (D) Either more or less than 1.0

Q.44 Yarns Y1 and Y2 have the same strength when tested at 200 mm gauge length. If mass unevenness

CV (%) of yarns Y1 and Y2 are 10 and 20 respectively, the ratio of the strength of yarns Y1 and Y2

when tested at 500 mm gauge length is

(A) More than 1.0 (B) Less than 1.0

(C) Equal to 1.0 (D) Either more or less than 1.0


[a] In the case of dyeing of cotton with reactive dyes, formation of hydrolyzed dye is a major

problem.

[r] In an alkaline medium, the reactive dye reacts with the hydroxyl groups irrespective of whether

these are from cellulose or water.







[a] In the case of durable press finishing of cotton fabrics, while the citric acid can be used as a

crosslinking agent, oxalic acid cannot be.

[r] The mechanism of crosslinking requires formation of anhydride in the intermediate step.









[a] In the case of minimum application technique, compared to the conventional rolls of a typical

padding mangle, Roberto rolls substantially reduce the wet pick up.

[r] The Roberto rolls are connected to vacuum pump to facilitate removal of liquor from the fabric.






Common Data Questions


Four polyester and four cotton carded slivers of the same count and mass CV of 4.16 % are drawn together

keeping a draft of 8 on a breaker drawframe. Two slivers from breaker drawframe are further drawn along

with the four cotton carded slivers keeping a draft of 6 on a finisher drawframe.

Q.48 The polyester (%) in the final sliver is approximately

(A) 8 (B) 17 (C) 25 (D) 33

Q.49 The mass CV (%) of the final sliver is approximately

(A) 0.6 (B) 1.24 (C) 1.86 (D) 2.33


A fabric is woven from 38 tex yarns of 0.65 packing coefficient and 1.54 g/cm3 fibre density. The fabric

has 30 ends per cm and 25 picks per cm. Assume that warp is jammed.

Q.50 The weft crimp (%) is approximately

(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 15

Q.51 The thickness of the above fabric (mm) is approximately

(A) 0.05 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.75

Linked Answer Questions


The thermal conductivity of a nonwoven fabric is given by

ρ+ρ+=λ

15.000005.003.0

where λ is the thermal conductivity of the fabric in W/(m⋅K), ρ is the bulk density of the fabric in kg/m3,

and [ ]200,10∈ρ .

Q.52 Thermal conductivity is minimum when the bulk density is approximately

(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 55 (D) 200



Q.53 The minimum value of thermal conductivity, in mW/(m⋅K), is approximately

(A) 36 (B) 39 (C) 41 (D) 46


A cotton fibre of 180 millitex has a density of 1.5 g/cm3 and an average perimeter of 40 µm.

Q.54 The average area of the cell wall (µm2) is

(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 120 (D) 140

Q.55 The average degree of thickening of cell wall is approximately

(A) 0.84 (B) 0.89 (C) 0.94 (D) 0.99






Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Pacify

Q.56

(A) Excite (B) Soothe (C) Deplete (D) Tire

Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following

sentence:

The high level of ___ of the questions in the test was ___ by an increase in the period of time

allotted for answering them.

(A) difficulty, compensated (B) exactitude, magnified

Q.57

(C) aptitude, decreased (D) attitude, mitigated

Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:

(A) He laid in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

(B) He layed in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

(C) He lain in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

Q.58

(D) He lay in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

Which one of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence contains an ERROR?

No sooner had the doctor seen the results of the blood test, than he suggested the patient to

see the specialist.

(A) no sooner had

(B) results of the blood test

(C) suggested the patient

Q.59

(D) see the specialist

Ten teams participate in a tournament. Every team plays each of the other teams twice. The total

number of matches to be played is

Q.60

(A) 20 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

A value of x that satisfies the equation log x + log (x – 7) = log (x + 11) + log 2 is Q.61

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) 11

Let f(x) = x – [x], where x ≥ 0 and [x] is the greatest integer not larger than x. Then f(x) is a

(A) monotonically increasing function

(B) monotonically decreasing function

(C) linearly increasing function between two integers

Q.62

(D) linearly decreasing function between two integers

Ravi is taller than Arun but shorter than Iqbal. Sam is shorter than Ravi. Mohan is shorter than

Arun. Balu is taller than Mohan and Sam. The tallest person can be

Q.63

(A) Mohan (B) Ravi (C) Balu (D) Arun



A smuggler has 10 capsules in which five are filled with narcotic drugs and the rest contain the

original medicine. All the 10 capsules are mixed in a single box, from which the customs officials

picked two capsules at random and tested for the presence of narcotic drugs. The probability that

the smuggler will be caught is

Q.64

(A) 0.50 (B) 0.67 (C) 0.78 (D) 0.82

The documents expose the cynicism of the government officials – and yet as the media website

reflects, not a single newspaper has reported on their existence.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above

passage?

(A) Nobody other than the government officials knew about the existence of the documents.

(B) Newspapers did report about the documents but nobody cared.

(C) Media reports did not show the existence of the documents.

Q.65

(D) The documents reveal the attitude of the government officials.




GATE 2012 - Answer KeysTextile Engineering and Fibre Science – TF

Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 A 23 D 45 B2 A 24 D 46 B3 D 25 A 47 A4 C 26 39 to 40 48 B5 D 27 2 49 D6 A 28 300 50 D7 A 29 3 51 C8 B 30 140 52 C9 D 31 B 53 A10 D 32 C 54 C11 A 33 B 55 C12 B 34 A 56 B13 C 35 C 57 A14 C 36 C 58 D15 D 37 B 59 C16 C 38 C 60 D17 D 39 B 61 D18 D 40 C 62 C19 B 41 A 63 C20 D 42 B 64 C21 C 43 D 65 D22 B 44 A


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