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GLEIM FAR/AIM 2016 UPDATES

May 24, 2016

Secs. 1.1, 1.2, and 135.91: Effective June 23, 2016

Sec. 135.144 and removal of SFAR No. 106: Effective August 22, 2016

PART 1—DEFINITIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS

Sec. 1.1 General definitions. On page 21, add the following definition:

* * * * *

Portable oxygen concentrator means a medical device that separates oxygen from other gasses in ambient air and dispenses this concentrated oxygen to the user.

* * * * *

Sec. 1.2 Abbreviations and symbols. On page 25, add the following abbreviation:

* * * * *

“POC” means portable oxygen concentrator.

* * * * *

PART 135—OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: COMMUTER AND ON DEMAND OPERATIONS AND RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD SUCH AIRCRAFT

On page 274, revise section title, paragraph (a) introductory text, and paragraphs (a)(1)(iii), (a)(3), and (b); redesignate old para-graph (a)(1)(iv) as (a)(1)(v); and add new paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (f) as follows:

Sec. 135.91 Oxygen and portable oxygen concentrators for medical use by passengers.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, no certificate holder may allow the carriage or operation of equip-ment for the storage, generation or dispensing of medical oxygen unless the conditions in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section are satisfied. Beginning August 22, 2016, a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen con-centrator when the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section are satisfied.

(1) * * *

* * * * *

(iii) Free of flammable contaminants on all exterior surfaces;

(iv) Constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from damage during carriage or operation; and

(v) Appropriately secured.

* * * * *

(3) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a compressed gas as defined in Title 49 CFR 173.115(b)--

* * * * *

(b) No person may smoke or create an open flame and no cer-tificate holder may allow any person to smoke or create an open flame within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried under paragraph (a) of this section or a portable oxygen concentrator carried and operated under paragraph (f) of this section.

* * * * *

(f) Portable oxygen concentrators--(1) Acceptance criteria. A passenger may carry or operate a

portable oxygen concentrator for personal use on board an aircraft and a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator on board an aircraft operated under this part during all phases of flight if the portable oxygen concentrator satisfies all of the requirements of this paragraph (f):

(i) Is legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements in title 21 of the CFR;

(ii) Does not radiate radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems;

(iii) Generates a maximum oxygen pressure of less than 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F);

(iv) Does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) except as provided in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power portable electronic devices and that do not require aircraft operator approval; and

(v) Bears a label on the exterior of the device applied in a manner that ensures the label will remain affixed for the life of the device and containing the following certification statement in red lettering: ‘‘The manufacturer of this POC has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA acceptance criteria for POC carriage and use on board aircraft.’’ The label requirements in this paragraph (f)(1)(v) do not apply to the following portable oxygen concentrators approved by the FAA for use on board aircraft prior to May 24, 2016:

(A) AirSep Focus;(B) AirSep FreeStyle;(C) AirSep FreeStyle 5;(D) AirSep LifeStyle;(E) Delphi RS–00400;(F) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo;(G) Inogen One;(H) Inogen One G2;(I) Inogen One G3;(J) Inova Labs LifeChoice;(K) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox;(L) International Biophysics LifeChoice;(M) Invacare Solo2;(N) Invacare XPO2;(O) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator;(P) Oxus RS–00400;(Q) Precision Medical EasyPulse;(R) Respironics EverGo;(S) Respironics SimplyGo;(T) SeQual Eclipse;(U) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000);(V) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000);(W) SeQual SAROS; and(X) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator.

(2) Operating requirements. Portable oxygen concentrators that satisfy the acceptance criteria identified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section may be carried on or operated by a passenger on board an aircraft provided the aircraft operator ensures that all of the conditions in this paragraph (f)(2) are satisfied:

(i) Exit seats. No person operating a portable oxygen concentrator is permitted to occupy an exit seat.

(ii) Stowage of device. During movement on the surface, takeoff and landing, the device must be stowed under the seat in front of the user, or in another approved stowage location so that it does not block the aisle way or the entryway to the row. If the device is to be operated by the user, it must be operated only at a seat location that does not restrict any passenger’s access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the aisle(s) in the passenger compartment.



Sec. 135.144 Portable electronic devices. On page 280, revise paragraphs (a), (b)(4), and (c); add new paragraph (b)(5); and redesignate old paragraph (b)(5) as (b)(6) as follows:

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no per-son may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any U.S.-registered civil aircraft operating under this part.

(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to--

* * * * *(4) Electric shavers;(5) Portable oxygen concentrators that comply with the re-

quirements in Sec. 135.91; or(6) Any other portable electronic device that the part 119

certificate holder has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

(c) The determination required by paragraph (b)(6) of this sec-tion shall be made by that part 119 certificate holder operating the aircraft on which the particular device is to be used.

On page 346, remove SFAR No. 106 – Rules for use of portable oxygen concentrator systems on board aircraft.



April 12, 2016

Effective May 12, 2016

PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS

Sec. 61.65 Instrument rating requirements. On pages 62-64, revise paragraphs (a)(5), (a)(8)(ii), (c) introductory text, and (h), by adding “full” before the words ‘‘flight simulator; revise paragraph (i); and add paragraph (j) as follows:

* * * * *

(a) General. * * *

* * * * *(5) Receive and log training on the areas of operation of

paragraph (c) of this section from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, or flight training device that repre-sents an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought;

* * * * *(8) * * *

* * * * *(ii) A full flight simulator or a flight training device appropri-

ate to the rating sought and approved for the specific maneuver or procedure performed. If a flight training device is used for the practical test, the instrument approach procedures conducted in that flight training device are limited to one precision and one nonprecision approach, provided the flight training device is approved for the procedure performed.

* * * * *(c) Flight proficiency. A person who applies for an instrument

rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, that includes the following areas of operation:

* * * * *(h) Use of full flight simulators or flight training devices. If the in-

strument time was provided by an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device--

(1) A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter; or

(2) A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was not completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter.

(i) Use of an aviation training device. A maximum of 10 hours of instrument time received in a basic aviation training device or a maximum of 20 hours of instrument time received in an advanced aviation training device may be credited for the instrument time requirements of this section if--

(1) The device is approved and authorized by the FAA;(2) An authorized instructor provides the instrument time in

the device; and(3) The FAA approved the instrument training and instru-

ment tasks performed in the device.(j) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, a per-

son may not credit more than 20 total hours of instrument time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, aviation training de-vice, or a combination towards the instrument time requirements of this section.

PART 141—PILOT SCHOOLS

Sec. 141.41. On page 362, revise section title and text as follows:

Sec. 141.41 Full flight simulators, flight training devices, aviation training devices, and training aids.

An applicant for a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must show that its full flight simulators, flight training devices, aviation training devices, training aids, and equipment meet the following requirements:

(a) Full flight simulators and flight training devices. Each full flight simulator and flight training device used to obtain flight training credit in an approved pilot training course curriculum must be:

(1) Qualified under part 60 of this chapter, or a previously qualified device, as permitted in accordance with Sec. 60.17 of this chapter; and

(2) Approved by the Administrator for the tasks and maneu-vers.

(b) Aviation training devices. Each basic or advanced aviation training device used to obtain flight training credit in an approved pilot training course curriculum must be evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Administrator.

(c) Training aids and equipment. Each training aid, including any audiovisual aid, projector, mockup, chart, or aircraft component listed in the approved training course outline, must be accurate and relevant to the course for which it is used.

Appendix B to Part 141--Private Pilot Certification Course. On page 370, revise section 4 paragraph (c) as follows:

* * * * *4. Flight training.

* * * * *(c) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training de-

vices:(1) The course may include training in a full flight simu-

lator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor.

(2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the re-quirements of Sec. 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 20 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(3) Training in a flight training device that meets the re-quirements of Sec. 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 15 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training de-vices described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 20 per-cent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in para-graph (c)(3) of this section.

* * * * *



Appendix C to Part 141--Instrument Rating Course. On page 372, revise section 4 paragraph (b) as follows:


* * * * *(b) For the use of full flight simulators, flight training devices,

or aviation training devices--(1) The course may include training in a full flight simu-

lator, flight training device, or aviation training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor.

(2) Credit for training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, whichever is less.

(3) Credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a), an advance aviation training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(b), or a combination of these devices cannot exceed 40 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, whichever is less. Credit for training in a basic aviation training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(b) cannot exceed 25 percent of the total training hour requirements permitted under this paragraph.

(4) Credit for training in full flight simulators, flight training devices, and aviation training devices if used in combination, cannot exceed 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device or aviation training device cannot exceed the limitation provided for in para-graph (b)(3) of this section.

* * * * *

Appendix D to Part 141--Commercial Pilot Certification Course. On page 375, revise section 4 paragraph (c) as follows:


* * * * *(c) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training de-


lator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and is given by an authorized instructor.



(4) Training in the flight training devices described in par-agraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 30 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot ex-ceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

* * * * *

Appendix E to Part 141--Airline Transport Pilot Certification Course. On page 377, revise section 4 paragraph (b) as follows:


* * * * *(b) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training de-

vices--(1) The course may include training in a full flight simu-




(4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training de-vices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 50 per-cent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in para-graph (b)(3) of this section.

* * * * *

Appendix F to Part 141--Flight Instructor Certification Course. On page 378, revise section 4 paragraph (b) as follows:


* * * * *(b) For the use of flight simulators or flight training devices:

(1) The course may include training in a full flight simu-lator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor.

(2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the re-quirements of Sec. 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(3) Training in a flight training device that meets the re-quirements of Sec. 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 5 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training de-vices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 10 per-cent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in para-graph (b)(3) of this section.

* * * * *



Appendix G to Part 141--Flight Instructor Instrument (For an Airplane, Helicopter, or Powered-Lift Instrument Instructor Rating, as Appropriate) Certification Course. On page 380, revise section 4 paragraph (b) as follows:




lator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved for, meets the require-ments of this paragraph, and the training is given by an instructor.



(4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training de-vices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.

* * * * *

Appendix J to Part 141--Aircraft Type Rating Course, For Other Than an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. On page 387, revise section 4 paragraph (b) as follows:







(4) Training in the full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 50 per-cent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit trai-ning in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in para-graph (b)(3) of this section.

* * * * *

Appendix K to Part 141--Special Preparation Courses. On page 388, revise section 4 as follows:

* * * * *4. Use of full flight simulators or flight training devices.

(a) The approved special preparation course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor.

(b) Except for the airline transport pilot certification program in section 13 of this appendix, training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour require-ments of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(c) Except for the airline transport pilot certification program in section 13 of this appendix, training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 5 percent of the total flight training hour re-quirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(d) Training in the full flight simulators or flight training de-vices described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c) of this section.

* * * * *

Appendix M to Part 141--Combined Private Pilot Certification and Instrument Rating Course. On pages 390-391, revise section 4 paragraph (c) as follows:


* * * * *(c) For use of full flight simulators or flight training devices:

(1) The course may include training in a combination of full flight simulators, flight training devices, and aviation training devices, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this section, and the training is given by an authorized instructor.


(3) Training in a flight training device that meets the re-quirements of Sec. 141.41(a) or an aviation training device that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(b) may be credited for a maximum of 25 percent of the total flight training hour require-ments of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less.

(4) Training in a combination of flight simulators, flight training devices, or aviation training devices, described in para-graphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, may be credited for a max-imum of 35 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device and aviation training device, that meets the requirements of Sec. 141.41(b), cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

* * * * *



March 31, 2016

Effective March 31, 2016

PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS

Sec. 71.33 Class A airspace areas. On page 120, revise paragraph (a) as follows:

(a) That airspace of the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding the states of Alaska and Hawaii.

* * * * *



March 3, 2016

Effective May 2, 2016

TSA PART 1540—CIVIL AVIATION SECURITY: GENERAL RULES

Sec. 1540.107 Submission to screening and inspection. On page 407, add new paragraph (d) as follows:

* * * * *

(d) The screening and inspection described in paragraph (a) of this section may include the use of advanced imaging technology. Advanced imaging technology used for the screening of pas-sengers under this section must be equipped with and employ automatic target recognition software and any other requirement TSA deems necessary to address privacy considerations.

(1) For purposes of this section, advanced imaging tech-nology--

(i) Means a device used in the screening of passengers that creates a visual image of an individual showing the surface of the skin and revealing other objects on the body; and

(ii) May include devices using backscatter x-rays or milli-meter waves and devices referred to as whole body imaging technology or body scanning machines.

(2) For purposes of this section, automatic target recognition software means software installed on an advanced imaging tech-nology device that produces a generic image of the individual being screened that is the same as the images produced for all other screened individuals.



January 12, 2016

Effective April 1, 2016


Sec. 61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations. On page 41, revise paragraph (d)(2)(iv) by deleting “student pilot certificate and“ as follows:

* * * * *

(d) * * *

* * * * *

(2) * * *

* * * * *

(iv) Endorse a logbook for solo operating privileges.

Sec. 61.19. On page 45, revise section heading and paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) as follows:

Sec. 61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor certificates and privileges.

(a) General.(1) The holder of a certificate with an expiration date may

not, after that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate.(2) Except for a certificate issued with an expiration date, a

pilot certificate is valid unless it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

(b) Paper student pilot certificate. A student pilot certificate issued under this part prior to April 1, 2016 expires:

(1) For student pilots who have not reached their 40th birthday, 60 calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(2) For student pilots who have reached their 40th birthday, 24 calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(3) For student pilots seeking a glider rating, balloon rating, or a sport pilot certificate, 60 calendar months after the month of the date issued, regardless of the person’s age.

(c) Pilot certificates.(1) A pilot certificate (including a student pilot certificate

issued after April 1, 2016) issued under this part is issued without a specific expiration date.

(2) The holder of a pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while that person’s foreign pilot license is effective.

* * * * *

Sec. 61.85 Application. On page 69, revise as follows:

An applicant for a student pilot certificate:(a) Must make that application in a form acceptable to the

Administrator; and(b) Must submit the application to a Flight Standards District

Office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification repre-sentative associated with a pilot school, a flight instructor, or other person authorized by the Administrator.

Sec. 61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots. On page 72, revise paragraphs (n) and (p)(3), remove paragraph (p)(4), redesignate paragraph (p)(5) as (p)(4), and revise newly redesignated (p)(4) as follows:

* * * * *(n) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo

flight. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received an endorsement in the student’s logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown by an authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight.

* * * * *

(p) * * *

* * * * *

(3) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and

(4) Endorsed the student pilot’s logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown, and that endorsement remains current for solo flight privileges, provided an authorized instructor updates the student’s logbook every 90 days thereafter.

Sec. 61.93 Solo cross-country flight requirements. On page 73, revise paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) and add paragraph (c)(3) as follows:

* * * * *

(c) * * *

(1) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorse-ment from the authorized instructor who conducted the training that is placed in that person’s logbook for the specific category of aircraft to be flown.

(2) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorse-ment from an authorized instructor that is placed in that person’s logbook for the specific make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(3) For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorse-ment in the person’s logbook after reviewing that person’s cross-country planning, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The endorsement must--

(i) Specify the make and model of aircraft to be flown;(ii) State that the student’s preflight planning and prepa-

ration is correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely under the known conditions; and

(iii) State that any limitations required by the student’s authorized instructor are met.

* * * * *

Sec. 61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations. On page 88, revise paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(C) and (a)(2)(ii)(C) as follows:

(a) * * *

* * * * *

(2) * * *

* * * * *

(i) * * *

* * * * *

(C) Endorse a pilot’s logbook for solo operating privil-eges in an airship;

* * * * *

(ii) * * *

* * * * *

(C) Endorse a pilot’s logbook for solo operating privil-eges in a balloon; and



* * * * *Sec. 61.189 Flight instructor records. On page 96, revise paragraph (b)(1) as follows:

* * * * *

(b) * * *

(1) The name of each person whose logbook that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and

* * * * *

Sec. 61.193 Flight instructor privileges. On page 96, revise as follows:

(a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is author-ized within the limitations of that person’s flight instructor certificate and ratings to train and issue endorsements that are required for:

(1) A student pilot certificate;(2) A pilot certificate;(3) A flight instructor certificate;(4) A ground instructor certificate;(5) An aircraft rating;(6) An instrument rating;(7) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experi-

ence requirement of this part;(8) A practical test; and(9) A knowledge test.

(b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is author-ized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to:

(1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate;(2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and(3) Verify the applicant meets the eligibility requirements in

Sec. 61.83.

Sec. 61.195 Flight instructor limitations and qualifications. On page 96, revise paragraphs (d)(1) introductory text and (d)(2) as follows:

* * * * *

(d) * * *

(1) Student pilot’s logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that flight instructor has--

* * * * *

(2) Student pilot’s logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless that flight instructor has determined the student’s flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight;

* * * * *

Sec. 61.413 What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? On page 106, revise as follows:

(a) If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you are authorized, within the limits of your certificate and rating, to provide training and endorsements that are required for, and relate to--

(1) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate;(2) A sport pilot certificate;(3) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;(4) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft

rating;(5) Sport pilot privileges;(6) A flight review or operating privilege for a sport pilot;(7) A practical test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot

certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control air-craft rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;

(8) A knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; and

(9) A proficiency check for an additional category or class privilege for a sport pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.

(b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating is authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to:

(1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate;(2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and(3) Verify the applicant meets the eligibility requirements in

Sec. 61.83.

Sec. 61.415 What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? On page 106, revise paragraphs (d)(1) introductory text, (d)(2), and (d)(3) introductory text as follows:

* * * * *

(d) * * *

(1) Student pilot’s logbook for solo flight privileges, unless you have--

* * * * *

(2) Student pilot’s logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless you have determined the student’s flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the flight.

(3) Student pilot’s logbook for solo flight in Class B, C, and D airspace areas, at an airport within Class B, C, or D airspace and to from, through or on an airport having an operational control tower, unless you have--

* * * * *

Sec. 61.423 What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating? On page 107, revise paragraph (a)(2)(i) as follows:

(a) * * *

* * * * *

(2) * * *

(i) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed for solo flight privileges.

* * * * *



January 7, 2016

Effective January 7, 2016

PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES

On page 198, add new sections 91.1611 and 91.1613 as follows:

Sec. 91.1611 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 115--Prohibition Against Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Sanaa (OYSC) Flight Information Region (FIR).

(a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons:

(1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;(2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certifi-

cate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and

(3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.

(b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Sanaa (OYSC) Flight Information Region (FIR), excluding that airspace east and south-east of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), then direct from NODMA to PAKER (115500N 0463500E).

(c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Sanaa (OYSC) FIR in that airspace west and northwest of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), then direct from NODMA to PAKER (115500N 0463500E), provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. govern-ment (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality, and the person sub-ject to paragraph (a)), with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will process requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: first, for those operations in support of U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations.

(d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires imme-diate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it.

(e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until January 7, 2018. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary.

Sec. 91.1613 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107--Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Somalia.

(a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons:

(1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;(2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certifi-

cate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and

(3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.

(b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the territory and airspace of Somalia at altitudes below Flight Level (FL) 260. Overflights of Somalia may be conducted at or above FL260 subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Somalia.

(c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the territory and airspace of Somalia at altitudes below FL260, provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a depart-ment, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality, and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will process requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations.

(d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires imme-diate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it.

(e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until January 7, 2018. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary.

SFAR No. 107 – Prohibition Against Certain Flights Within the Territory and Airspace of Somalia. On page 209, remove this SFAR.



January 4, 2016

Effective January 4, 2016


Sec. 61.155 Aeronautical knowledge. On page 89, revise paragraph (d) as follows:

* * * * *

(d) An applicant who successfully completes the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate prior to August 1, 2014, must successfully complete the practical test within 24 months from the month in which the knowledge test was successfully completed. An applicant who passes the knowledge test prior to August 1, 2014, but fails to successfully complete the airplane category with a multiengine class rating practical test within 24 months must complete the airline transport pilot certification train-ing program specified in Sec. 61.156 and retake the knowledge test prior to applying for the airplane category with a multiengine class rating practical test.

Sec. 61.165 Additional aircraft category and class ratings. On page 93, revise paragraph (f)(2) as follows:

* * * * *

(f) * * *

* * * * *

(2) After July 31, 2014, pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of Sec. 61.155(c), as appli-cable to multiengine airplanes; unless a pilot can present valid airline transport pilot knowledge test results from a test taken prior to August 1, 2014.

* * * * *

Sec. 61.167 Airline transport pilot privileges and limitations. On page 94, revise paragraph (a)(2) as follows:

(a) Privileges.

* * * * *

(2) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and has met the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.159 or Sec. 61.161, and the age requirements of Sec. 61.153(a)(1) of this part may instruct--

* * * * *

PART 135—OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: COMMUTER AND ON DEMAND OPERATIONS AND RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD SUCH AIRCRAFT

Sec. 135.3 Rules applicable to operations subject to this part. On page 268, revise paragraph (c) as follows:

* * * * *

(c) If authorized by the Administrator upon application, each cer-tificate holder that conducts operations under this part to which paragraph (b) of this section does not apply, may comply with the applicable sections of subparts N and O of part 121 instead of the requirements of subparts E, G, and H of this part, except that those authorized certificate holders may choose to comply with the operating experience requirements of Sec. 135.244, instead of the requirements of Sec. 121.434 of this chapter. Notwith-standing the requirements of this paragraph, a pilot serving under this part as second in command may meet the requirements of Sec. 135.245 instead of the requirements of Sec. 121.436.



December 16, 2015

Effective December 21, 2015


Sec. 1.1 General definitions. On pages 21 and 23-24, add the following definitions:

* * * * *

Model aircraft means an unmanned aircraft that is:(1) Capable of sustained flight in the atmosphere;(2) Flown within visual line of sight of the person operating

the aircraft; and(3) Flown for hobby or recreational purposes.

* * * * *

Small unmanned aircraft means an unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft.

Small unmanned aircraft system (small UAS) means a small unmanned aircraft and its associated elements (including communication links and the components that control the small unmanned aircraft) that are required for the safe and efficient operation of the small unmanned aircraft in the national airspace system.

* * * * *

Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft.

* * * * *


Sec. 91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required. On page 143, revise paragraph (a)(2) as follows:

(a) * * *

* * * * *

(2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second copy of the Aircraft Registration Application as provided for in Sec. 47.31(c), a Certificate of Aircraft registration as provided in part 48, or a registration certification issued under the laws of a foreign country.

* * * * *



December 15, 2015

Effective February 16, 2016

NTSB PART 830—NOTIFICATION AND REPORTING OF AIRCRAFT ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS AND OVERDUE AIRCRAFT, AND PRESERVATION OF AIRCRAFT WRECKAGE, MAIL, CARGO, AND RECORDS

Sec. 830.5 Immediate notification. On page 402, revise the introductory text and paragraphs (a) introductory text and (a)(10) as follows:

The operator of any civil aircraft, or any public aircraft not oper-ated by the Armed Forces or an intelligence agency of the United States, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Trans-portation Safety Board (NTSB) office,1 when:

(a) An aircraft accident or any of the following listed serious incidents occur:

* * * * *

(10) Airborne Collision and Avoidance System (ACAS) reso-lution advisories issued when an aircraft is being operated on an instrument flight rules flight plan and compliance with the advi-sory is necessary to avert a substantial risk of collision between two or more aircraft.

* * * * *

1 NTSB headquarters is located at 490 L’Enfant Plaza, SW., Washington, DC 20594. Contact information for the NTSB’s regional offices is available at http://www.ntsb.gov. To report an accident or incident, you may call the NTSB Response Opera-tions Center, at 844-373-9922 or 202-314-6290.



December 10, 2015

Aeronautical Information ManualBasic

Effective December 10, 2015

EXPLANATION OF CHANGES

1-1-17. GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM (GPS);5-1-16. RNAV AND RNP OPERATIONS –This change reflects the migration from raimprediction.net to the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT).

2-3-14. AIRCRAFT ARRESTING SYSTEMS – This change adds information describing how the Engineered Materials Arresting System (EMAS) is marked and clarifies guidance regarding taxiing across the runway.

3-2-4. CLASS C AIRSPACE;4-2-4. AIRCRAFT CALL SIGNS;4-3-10. INTERSECTION TAKEOFFS;4-4-14. VISUAL SEPARATION;5-5-11. VISUAL APPROACH;7-3-8. PILOT RESPONSIBILITY;7-3-9. AIR TRAFFIC WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATIONS – This change adds a new weight class designated as “Super” and updates the associated guidance as appropriate. It also includes changes to wake turbulence separation behind B757 aircraft.

4-1-20. TRANSPONDER OPERATION –This change updates transponder and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) operational procedures while on the airport surface and airborne.

4-3-19. TAXI DURING LOW VISIBILITY –This change updates the runway visual range (RVR) from 600 RVR to 500 RVR. It also changes Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) to Low Visibility Operations Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (LVOSMGCS).

4-5-7. AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE-BROADCAST (ADS-B) SERVICES;4-5-8. TRAFFIC INFORMATION SERVICE-BROADCAST (TIS-B);4-5-9. FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE-BROADCAST (FIS-B);4-5-10. AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE-REBROADCAST (ADS-R) –Safe Flight 21 is now part of the national Surveillance and Broadcast Services-Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (SBS/ADS-B) Program. Therefore, this change removes references to the Safe Flight 21 program and updates its contact information, including telephone numbers and website URL information. The guidance that pilots report all malfunctions to flight service stations remains unchanged.

5-1-17. COLD TEMPERATURE OPERATIONS;5-5-4. INSTRUMENT APPROACH;5-5-5. MISSED APPROACH –In response to aviation industry concerns over cold weather effects on indicated altitudes versus that of an aircraft’s true altitude, the FAA completed a safety study to determine if current 14 CFR Part 97 instrument approach procedures in the United States National Airspace System are at risk of compromised required obstacle clearances during time of extreme cold temperature. A safety risk management panel (SRMP) was conducted on the impact to ATC operations, and a condition of the SRMP was to add content to the Aeronautical Information Manual to assist in a pilot’s awareness of the need to apply cold temperature correction. This change adds guidance under preflight planning to account for Cold Temperature Correction. It also adds the provision under pilot responsibilities that, during instrument approaches, the pilot must advise ATC when there is a need to apply cold temperature correction and, if so, how much is being applied.

5-2-2. PRE-DEPARTURE CLEARANCE PROCEDURES – The Terminal Data Link System has been upgraded to include Controller Pilot Data Link Communication Clearance (CPDLC)-Departure Clearance (DCL) messaging. The content and title have been updated to reflect this automation.

5-2-8. INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (DP) - OBSTACLE DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (ODP) AND STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURES (SID);5-5-14. INSTRUMENT DEPARTURES –This change clarifies previous guidance regarding visual climb over airport (VCOA) and aligns it with the definition provided in the Pilot/Controller Glossary. It also adds the requirement that pilots advise ATC when they intend to fly the VCOA procedure as early as possible prior to departure.

5-4-5. INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE CHARTS – This change updates the description of minimum safe altitudes (MSA) based on conventional navigation systems and RNAV. It allows for the use of the airport reference point as the center of an MSA for conventional navigation systems. This change also updates the chart note and clarifies what is expected from the pilot when the procedures visual descent angle (VDA) is removed.

5-4-14. PARALLEL ILS APPROACHES (DEPENDENT) – This change introduces the use of 1 mile radar separation diagonally on simultaneous dependent approaches when runway centerlines are separated by at least 2,500 feet but no more than 3,600 feet. The existing paragraph is revised to account for the new 3,600 foot standard. There are no additional conditions or procedures required when utilizing the 1 NM minimum separation standard.

9-1-4. GENERAL DESCRIPTION OF EACH CHART SERIES;Appendix 3. ABBREVIATIONS/ACRONYMS –This change is updated to reflect that the last edition of the World Aeronautical Chart (WAC) will be published in March 2016. Current WAC editions will be effective through the previously published effective date(s). As such, all references to WAC have been deleted.

Entire Publication:

Editorial/format changes were made where necessary.



On page 443, revise the dates for the Publication Schedule as follows:

Publication Schedule

Basic or ChangeCutoff Date

for SubmissionEffective Date of Publication

Basic Manual 6/25/15 12/10/15

Change 1 12/10/15 5/26/16

Change 2 5/26/16 11/10/16

Change 3 11/10/16 4/27/17

Basic Manual 4/27/17 10/12/17

On page 444, update the External References EXAMPLE as follows:

* * * * *

EXAMPLE−FAA Order 7110.65W, Air Traffic Control, is referenced as FAA Order 7110.65.

Chapter 1. AIR NAVIGATION

1-1-17. GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM (GPS): On page 471, update the information regarding prediction tools in subparagraph b.5.(g)(3) as follows:

* * * * *

(3) Civilian pilots may obtain GPS RAIM availability in-formation for non-precision approach procedures by using a manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool, or using the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) on the FAA en route and terminal RAIM prediction website. Pilots can also request GPS RAIM aeronautical information from a flight service station during preflight briefings. GPS RAIM aeronautical information can be obtained for a period of 3 hours (for example, if you are sched-uled to arrive at 1215 hours, then the GPS RAIM information is available from 1100 to 1400 hours) or a 24-hour timeframe at a particular airport. FAA briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA hour, unless a specific timeframe is requested by the pilot. If flying a published GPS departure, a RAIM prediction should also be requested for the departure airport.

* * * * *

1-2-1. PERFORMANCE-BASED NAVIGATION (PBN) AND AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV): On page 478, revise paragraph title as follows:

1-2-1. GENERAL

* * * * *

Chapter 2. AIRPORT MARKING AIDS AND SIGNS

2-3-14. AIRCRAFT ARRESTING SYSTEMS: On page 500, revise subparagraph c. and NOTE as follows:

* * * * *

c. Engineered materials arresting systems (EMAS). EMAS, which is constructed of high energy-absorbing materials of se-lected strength, is located in the safety area beyond the end of the runway. EMAS will be marked with Yellow Chevrons. EMAS is designed to crush under the weight of commercial aircraft and will exert deceleration forces on the landing gear. These systems do not affect the normal landing and takeoff of airplanes. More information concerning EMAS is in FAA Advisory Circular AC 150/5220-22, Engineered Materials Arresting Systems (EMAS) for Aircraft Overruns.

NOTE–EMAS may be located as close as 35 feet beyond the end of the runway. Aircraft and ground vehicles should never taxi or drive across the EMAS or beyond the end of the runway if EMAS is present.

* * * * *

Chapter 3. AIRSPACE

3-2-4. CLASS C AIRSPACE: On page 505, delete the word “participating” from subparagraph d., revise subparagraph e.2., and add new subparagraph e.4. as follows:

* * * * *

d. Air Traffic Services. When two-way radio communications and radar contact are established, all VFR aircraft are:

* * * * *

e. Aircraft Separation. * * *

1. Visual separation.

2. 500 feet vertical separation.

3. Target resolution.

4. Wake turbulence separation will be provided to all aircraft operating:

(a) Behind and less than 1,000 feet below super or heavy aircraft,

(b) To small aircraft operating behind and less than 500 feet below B757 aircraft, and

(c) To small aircraft following a large aircraft on final ap-proach.

* * * * *



Chapter 4. AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL

4-1-20. TRANSPONDER OPERATION: On page 524, in subparagraph a., revise and add information as follows:

* * * * *

a. General

1. Pilots should be aware that proper application of transpon-der operating procedures will provide both VFR and IFR aircraft with a higher degree of safety while operating on the ground and airborne. Transponders with altitude reporting mode turned ON (Mode C or S) substantially increase the capability of surveillance systems to see an aircraft, thus providing the Air Traffic Controller increased situational awareness and the ability to identify poten-tial traffic conflicts. Even VFR pilots who are not in contact with ATC will be afforded greater protection from IFR aircraft and VFR aircraft which are receiving traffic advisories. Nevertheless, pilots should never relax their visual scanning for other aircraft.

* * * * *

3. Transponder and ADS-B operations on the ground. Civil and military aircraft should operate with the transponder in the altitude reporting mode (consult the aircraft’s flight manual to determine the specific transponder position to enable altitude reporting) and ADS-B Out transmissions enabled (if equipped) at all airports, any time the aircraft is positioned on any portion of an airport movement area. This includes all defined taxiways and runways. Pilots must pay particular attention to ATIS and airport diagram notations, General Notes (included on airport charts), and comply with directions pertaining to transponder and ADS-B usage. Generally, these directions are:

(a) Departures. Select the transponder mode which allows altitude reporting and enable ADS-B (if equipped) during pushback or taxi-out from parking spot. Select TA or TA/RA (if equipped with TCAS) when taking the active runway.

(b) Arrivals. Maintain transponder to the altitude reporting mode or if TCAS-equipped (TA or TA/RA), select the transponder to altitude reporting mode. Maintain ADS-B Out transmissions (if equipped) after clearing the active runway. Select STBY or OFF for transponder and ADS-B (if equipped) upon arriving at the aircraft’s parking spot or gate.

4. Transponder and ADS-B Operations in the Air. EACH PILOT OPERATING AN AIRCRAFT EQUIPPED WITH AN OPER-ABLE ATC TRANSPONDER, MAINTAINED IN ACCORDANCE WITH 14 CFR SECTION 91.413 OR ADS-B TRANSMITTER, MUST OPERATE THE TRANSPONDER/TRANSMITTER, IN-CLUDING MODE C/S IF INSTALLED, ON THE APPROPRIATE MODE 3/A CODE OR AS ASSIGNED BY ATC. EACH PERSON OPERATING AN AIRCRAFT EQUIPPED WITH ADS-B OUT MUST OPERATE THIS EQUIPMENT IN THE TRANSMIT MODE AT ALL TIMES WHILE AIRBORNE UNLESS OTHERWISE RE-QUESTED BY ATC.

5. A pilot on an IFR flight who elects to cancel * * *

6. If entering a U.S. OFFSHORE AIRSPACE AREA * * *

7. It should be noted by all users of ATC transponders and ADS-B Out systems that the surveillance coverage they can ex-pect is limited to “line of sight” with ground radar and ADS-B radio sites. Low altitude or aircraft antenna shielding by the aircraft itself may result in reduced range or loss of aircraft contact. Surveillance coverage can be improved by climbing to a higher altitude.

* * * * *

4-1-22. AIRPORT RESERVATION OPERATIONS AND SPECIAL TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT PROGRAMS: On page 529, revise format of subparagraph d.3. as follows:

* * * * *

3. For additional helpful key entries, see TBL 4-1-5.

* * * * *

4-2-4. AIRCRAFT CALL SIGNS: On page 531, revise subparagraph a.5. by adding the phrase ‘“super” or’ as follows:

* * * * *

5. Air carriers and commuter air carriers having FAA author-ized call signs should identify themselves by stating the complete call sign (using group form for the numbers) and the word “super” or “heavy” if appropriate.

* * * * *

4-3-10. INTERSECTION TAKEOFFS: On page 540, revise subparagraphs f. and h. as follows:

* * * * *

f. Controllers are required to separate small aircraft that are departing from an intersection on the same runway (same or op-posite direction) behind a large nonheavy aircraft (except B757), by ensuring that at least a 3-minute interval exists between the time the preceding large aircraft has taken off and the succeed-ing small aircraft begins takeoff roll. The 3-minute separation requirement will also be applied to small aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 12,500 pounds or less departing behind a small aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 12,500 pounds. To inform the pilot of the required 3-minute hold, the controller will state, “Hold for wake turbulence.” If after considering wake turbulence hazards, the pilot feels that a lesser time interval is appropriate, the pilot may request a waiver to the 3-minute interval. To initiate such a request, simply say “Request waiver to 3-minute interval,” or a similar statement. Controllers may then issue a takeoff clearance if other traffic permits, since the pilot has accepted the responsibility for wake turbulence separation.

* * * * *

h. A 4-minute interval is mandatory for small, large, and heavy aircraft behind a super aircraft. The 3-minute interval is manda-tory behind a heavy aircraft in all cases, and for small aircraft behind a B757.

4-3-19. TAXI DURING LOW VISIBILITY: On page 546, revise subparagraph c. as follows:

* * * * *

c. Advisory Circular 120-57, Low Visibility Operations Surface Movement Guidance and Control System, commonly known as LVOSMGCS (pronounced “LVO SMIGS”) describes an adequate example of a low visibility taxi plan for any airport which has take-off or landing operations in less than 1,200 feet runway visual range (RVR) visibility conditions. These plans, which affect air-crew and vehicle operators, may incorporate additional lighting, markings, and procedures to control airport surface traffic. They will be addressed at two levels; operations less than 1,200 feet RVR to 500 feet RVR and operations less than 500 feet RVR.

* * * * *



4-4-14. VISUAL SEPARATION: On page 556, add information to subparagraph b. as follows:

* * * * *

b. A pilot’s acceptance of instructions to follow another aircraft or provide visual separation from it is an acknowledgment that the pilot will maneuver the aircraft as necessary to avoid the other aircraft or to maintain in-trail separation. In operations con-ducted behind heavy aircraft, or a small aircraft behind a B757 or other large aircraft, it is also an acknowledgment that the pilot accepts the responsibility for wake turbulence separation. Visual separation is prohibited behind super aircraft.

* * * * *

4-5-7. AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE-BROADCAST (ADS-B) SERVICES: On pages 567 and 568, in subparagraph a.1., delete the word “being” in the first sentence and add a reference to new figures as the last sentence; add new FIG 4-5-8 and FIG 4-5-9; and expand subparagraph f. as follows:

a. Introduction

1. Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) is a surveillance technology deployed throughout the NAS (see color FIG 4-5-7 on page 441). The ADS-B system is composed of aircraft avionics and a ground infrastructure. Onboard avionics determine the position of the aircraft by using the GNSS and transmit its position along with additional information about the aircraft to ground stations for use by ATC and other ADS-B serv-ices. This information is transmitted at a rate of approximately once per second. (See FIG 4-5-8 and FIG 4-5-9.)

En Route − ADS-B/ADS-R/TIS-B/FIS-B Service Ceilings/Floors

Terminal − ADS-B/ADS-R/TIS-B/FIS-B Service Ceilings/Floors


FIG 4-5-8

FIG 4-5-9


f. Reports of ADS-B Malfunctions

Users of ADS-B can provide valuable assistance in the correction of malfunctions by reporting instances of undesirable system performance. Since ADS-B performance is monitored by main-tenance personnel rather than ATC, report malfunctions to the nearest Flight Service Station (FSS) facility by radio or telephone. Reporters should identify:

1. Condition observed.2. Date and time of observation.3. Altitude and location of observation.4. Type and call sign of the aircraft.5. Type and software version of avionics system.

4-5-8. TRAFFIC INFORMATION SERVICE-BROADCAST (TIS-B): On pages 568 and 569, add new subparagraph a. and revise subsequent text to remove the word “radar” twice and add a reference to new figures as the last sentence, reletter previous subparagraphs a.-d. as b.-e., and expand relettered subparagraph e. as follows:

a. Introduction

TIS-B is the broadcast of ATC derived traffic information to ADS-B equipped (1090ES or UAT) aircraft from ground radio stations. The source of this traffic information is derived from ground-based air traffic surveillance sensors. TIS-B service will be available throughout the NAS where there are both adequate surveillance coverage from ground sensors and adequate broadcast cover-age from ADS-B ground radio stations. The quality level of traffic information provided by TIS-B is dependent upon the number and type of ground sensors available as TIS-B sources and the timeliness of the reported data. (See FIG 4-5-8 and FIG 4-5-9.)

b. TIS-B Requirements

* * * * *

c. TIS-B Capabilities

* * * * *

d. TIS-B Limitations

* * * * *

e. Reports of TIS-B Malfunctions

Users of TIS-B can provide valuable assistance in the correction of malfunctions by reporting instances of undesirable system performance. Since TIS-B performance is monitored by main-tenance personnel rather than ATC, report malfunctions to the nearest Flight Service Station (FSS) facility by radio or telephone. Reporters should identify:


4-5-9. FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE-BROADCAST (FIS-B): On pages 569 and 570, revise subparagraph a., reword subparagraph b. and remove 1.-12. and the associated REFERENCEs, add new REFERENCE under subparagraph b., and add new subparagraph c. as follows:

a. Introduction

FIS-B is a ground broadcast service provided through the ADS-B Services network over the 978 MHz UAT data link. The FAA FIS-B system provides pilots and flight crews of properly equipped aircraft with a cockpit display of certain aviation weather and aeronautical information. FIS-B reception is line-of-sight within the service volume of the ground infrastructure. (See FIG 4-5-8 and FIG 4-5-9.)

b. Weather Products

FIS-B does not replace a preflight weather briefing from a source listed in Paragraph 7-1-2, FAA Weather Services, or inflight up-dates from an FSS or ATC. FIS-B information may be used by the pilot for the safe conduct of flight and aircraft movement; how-ever, the information should not be the only source of weather or aeronautical information. A pilot should be particularly alert and understand the limitations and quality assurance issues associated with individual products. This includes graphical representation of next generation weather radar (NEXRAD) imagery and Notices to Airmen (NOTAM)/temporary flight restrictions (TFR).

REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 7-1-11 , Flight Information ServicesAdvisory Circular AC 00-63, “Use of Cockpit Displays of Digital Weather and Aeronautical Information”

c. Reports of FIS-B Malfunctions

Users of FIS-B can provide valuable assistance in the correction of malfunctions by reporting instances of undesirable system performance. Since FIS-B performance is monitored by main-tenance personnel rather than ATC, report malfunctions to the nearest Flight Service Station (FSS) facility by radio or telephone. Reporters should identify:


4-5-10. AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE-REBROADCAST (ADS-R): On page 570, add new subparagraph a. and revise subsequent text to add a reference to new figures as the last sentence, and add new subparagraph c. as follows:

a. Introduction

ADS-R is a datalink translation function of the ADS-B * * * (See FIG 4-5-8 and FIG 4-5-9.)

b. Reports of ADS-R Malfunctions

Users of ADS-R can provide valuable assistance in the correction of malfunctions by reporting instances of undesirable system performance. Since ADS-R performance is monitored by main-tenance personnel rather than ATC, report malfunctions to the nearest Flight Service Station (FSS) facility by radio or telephone. Reporters should identify:




Chapter 5. AIR TRAFFIC PROCEDURES

5-1-16. RNAV AND RNP OPERATIONS: On page 603, revise subparagraph f.2. as follows:

* * * * *

f. During the pre-flight planning phase RAIM * * *

* * * * *

2. Operators may use the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) on the FAA en route and terminal RAIM prediction web-site;

* * * * *

On page 603, add new paragraph as follows:

5-1-17. COLD TEMPERATURE OPERATIONS

Pilots should begin planning for operating into airports with cold temperatures during the preflight planning phase. Instrument ap-proach charts will contain a snowflake symbol and a temperature when cold temperature correction must be applied. Pilots oper-ating into airports requiring cold temperature corrections should request the lowest forecast temperature at the airport for depar-ture and arrival times. If the temperature is forecast to be at or below any published cold temperature restriction, calculate an altitude correction for the appropriate segment(s) and/or review procedures for operating automatic cold temperature compensat-ing systems, as applicable. The pilot is responsible to calculate and apply the corrections to the affected segment(s) when the actual reported temperature is at or below any published cold temperature restriction, or pilots with automatic cold temperature compensating systems must ensure the system is on and operat-ing on each designated segment. Advise ATC when intending to apply cold temperature correction and of the amount of correction required on initial contact (or as soon as possible) for the inter-mediate segment and/or the published missed approach. This information is required for ATC to provide aircraft appropriate vertical separation between known traffic.

REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 7-2-3 , Altimeter ErrorsAIM TBL 7-2-3, ICAO Cold Temperature Error

On page 604, revise the paragraph 5-2-2 title by adding the word “Automated” and the subsequent subparagraphs as follows:

5-2-2. AUTOMATED PRE-DEPARTURE CLEARANCE PROCEDURES

a. Many airports in the National Airspace System are equipped with the Tower Data Link System (TDLS) that includes the Pre-departure Clearance (PDC) and Controller Pilot Data Link Communication-Departure Clearance (CPDLC-DCL) functions. Both the PDC and CPDLC-DCL functions automate the Clear-ance Delivery operations in the ATCT for participating users. Both functions display IFR clearances from the ARTCC to the ATCT. The Clearance Delivery controller in the ATCT can append local departure information and transmit the clearance via data link to participating airline/service provider computers for PDC. The air-line/service provider will then deliver the clearance via the Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS) or a similar data link system or, for non-data link equipped aircraft, via a printer located at the departure gate. For CPDLC-DCL, the departure clearance is uplinked from the ATCT via the Future Air Navigation System (FANS) to the aircraft avionics and requires a response from the flight crew. Both PDC and CPDLC-DCL re-duce frequency congestion, controller workload, and are intended to mitigate delivery/read back errors.

b. Both services are available only to participating aircraft that have subscribed to the service through an approved service provider.

c. In all situations, the pilot is encouraged to contact clearance delivery if a question or concern exists regarding an automated clearance. Due to technical reasons, the following limitations/ differences exist between the two services:

1. PDC

(a) Aircraft filing multiple flight plans are limited to one PDC clearance per departure airport within an 18-hour period. Addi-tional clearances will be delivered verbally.

(b) If the clearance is revised or modified prior to delivery, it will be rejected from PDC and the clearance will need to be delivered verbally.

(c) No acknowledgment of receipt or read back is required for a PDC.

2. CPDLC-DCL

(a) No limitation to the number of clearances received.

(b) Allows delivery of revised flight data, including revised dearture clearances.

(c) A response from the flight crew is required.

(d) Requires a logon using the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) airport facility identification (for example, KSLC utilizing the ATC FANS application).

(e) To be eligible, operators must have received CPDLC/FANS authorization from the responsible civil aviation authority, and file appropriate equipment information in ICAO field 10a and in the ICAO field 18 DAT (Other Data Applications) of the flight plan.



5-2-8. INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (DP) - OBSTACLE DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (ODP) AND STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURES (SID): On page 608, replace subparagraph b.7. as follows:

* * * * *

b. What criteria is used to provide obstruction clearance * * *

* * * * *

7. A Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) procedure is a depar-ture option for an IFR aircraft, operating in visual meteorological conditions equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to the published “climb-to” altitude from which to proceed with the instrument portion of the departure. VCOA procedures are devel-oped to avoid obstacles greater than 3 statute miles from the departure end of the runway as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than 200 feet per nautical mile. Pilots are responsible to advise ATC as early as possible of the intent to fly the VCOA option prior to departure. These textual procedures are published in the Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section of the Terminal Procedures Publications and/or appear as an option on a Graphic ODP.

* * * * *

On pages 621, 623, 631, and 632 revise the paragraph 5-4-5 title by adding “(IAP),” revise subparagraphs c. and h.-l., and add new FIG 5-4-13 as follows:

5-4-5. INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE (IAP) CHARTS

* * * * *

c. Minimum Safe Altitudes (MSA) are published for emer-gency use on IAP charts. MSAs provide 1,000 feet of clearance over all obstacles, but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage. The MSA depiction on the plan view of an approach chart contains the identifier of the center point of the MSA, the applicable radius of the MSA, a depiction of the sector(s), and the minimum altitudes above mean sea level which provide obstacle clearance. For conventional navigation systems, the MSA is normally based on the primary omnidirectional facility on which the IAP is predicated, but may be based on the airport reference point (ARP) if no suitable facility is available. For RNAV approaches, the MSA is based on an RNAV waypoint. MSAs nor-mally have a 25 NM radius; however, for conventional navigation systems, this radius may be expanded to 30 NM if necessary to encompass the airport landing surfaces. A single sector altitude is normally established, however when the MSA is based on a facility and it is necessary to obtain relief from obstacles, an MSA with up to four sectors may be established.

* * * * *

h. The Visual Descent Point (VDP), identified by the symbol (V), is a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a stabilized visual descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced. The pilot should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP. The VDP will be identified by DME or RNAV along-track distance to the MAP. The VDP distance is based on the lowest MDA published on the IAP and harmonized with the angle of the visual glide slope indicator (VGSI) (if installed) or the procedure VDA (if no VGSI is installed). A VDP may not be published under certain circumstances which may result in a destabilized descent between the MDA and the runway touchdown point. Such circumstances include an obstacle penetrating the visual surface between the MDA and runway threshold, lack of distance measuring capability, or the procedure design prevents a VDP to be identified.

1. VGSI systems may be used as a visual aid to the pilot to determine if the aircraft is in a position to make a stabilized de-scent from the MDA. When the visibility is close to minimums, the VGSI may not be visible at the VDP due to its location beyond the MAP.

2. Pilots not equipped to receive the VDP should fly the ap-proach procedure as though no VDP had been provided.

3. On a straight-in nonprecision IAP, descent below the MDA between the VDP and the MAP may be inadvisable or impos-sible. Aircraft speed, height above the runway, descent rate, amount of turn, and runway length are some of the factors which must be considered by the pilot to determine if a safe descent and landing can be accomplished.

i. A visual segment obstruction evaluation is accomplished during procedure design on all IAPs. Obstacles (both lighted and unlighted) are allowed to penetrate the visual segment obstacle identification surfaces. Identified obstacle penetrations may cause restrictions to instrument approach operations which may include an increased approach visibility requirement, not publishing a VDP, and/or prohibiting night instrument operations to the run-way. There is no implicit obstacle protection from the MDA/DA to the touchdown point. Accordingly, it is the responsibility of the pilot to visually acquire and avoid obstacles below the MDA/DA during transition to landing.

1. Unlighted obstacle penetrations may result in prohibiting night instrument operations to the runway. A chart note will be published in the pilot briefing strip “Procedure NA at Night.”

2. Use of a VGSI may be approved in lieu of obstruction lighting to restore night instrument operations to the runway. A chart note will be published in the pilot briefing strip “Straight-in Rwy XX at Night, operational VGSI required, remain on or above VGSI glidepath until threshold.”

j. The highest obstacle (man-made, terrain, or vegetation) will be charted on the planview of an IAP. Other obstacles may be charted in either the planview or the airport sketch based on dis-tance from the runway and available chart space. The elevation of the charted obstacle will be shown to the nearest foot above mean sea level. Obstacles without a verified accuracy are indi-cated by a ± symbol following the elevation value.

k. Vertical Descent Angle (VDA). FAA policy is to publish VDAs on all nonprecision approaches except those published in conjunction with vertically guided minimums or no-FAF procedures without step-down fixes. A VDA does not guarantee obstacle pro-tection below the MDA in the visual segment. The presence of a VDA does not change any nonprecision approach requirements.



1. Obstacles may penetrate the visual segment of an IAP that has a published VDA. When the VDA is not authorized due to an obstacle penetration that would require a pilot to deviate from the VDA between MDA and touchdown, the VDA/TCH will be re-placed with the note “Visual Segment-Obstacles” in the profile view of the IAP (See FIG 5-4-13). Accordingly, pilots are advised to carefully review approach procedures to identify where the optimum stabilized descent to landing can be initiated. Pilots that follow the previously published descent angle below the MDA on procedures with this note may encounter obstacles in the visual segment.

2. The threshold crossing height (TCH) used to compute the descent angle is published with the VDA. The VDA and TCH information are charted on the profile view of the IAP following the fix (FAF/stepdown) used to compute the VDA. If no PA/APV IAP is established to the same runway, the VDA will be equal to or higher than the glide path angle of the VGSI installed on the same runway provided it is within instrument procedure criteria. A chart note will indicate if the VGSI is not coincident with the VDA. Pilots must be aware that the published VDA is for advisory infor-mation only and not to be considered instrument procedure de-rived vertical guidance. The VDA solely offers an aid to help pilots establish a continuous, stabilized descent during final approach.

3. Pilots may use the published angle and estimated/actual groundspeed to find a target rate of descent from the rate of de-scent table published in the back of the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication. This rate of descent can be flown with the Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI) in order to use the VDA as an aid to flying a stabilized descent. No special equipment is required.

4. A straight-in aligned procedure may be restricted to circling only minimums when an excessive descent gradient necessi-tates. The descent angle between the FAF/stepdown fix and the Circling MDA must not exceed the maximum descent angle allowed by TERPS criteria. A published VDA on these procedures does not imply that landing straight ahead is recommended or even possible. The descent rate based on the VDA may exceed the capabilities of the aircraft and the pilot must determine how to best maneuver the aircraft within the circling area in order to land safely.

l. In isolated cases, an IAP may contain a published visual flight path. These procedures are annotated “Fly Visual to Airport” or “Fly Visual.” A dashed arrow indicating the visual flight path will be included in the profile and plan views with an approximate heading and distance to the end of the runway.

1. The depicted ground track associated with the “Fly Visual to Airport” segment should be flown as a “Dead Reckoning” course. When executing the “Fly Visual to Airport” segment, the flight visibility must not be less than that prescribed in the IAP; the pilot must remain clear of clouds and proceed to the airport main-taining visual contact with the ground. Altitude on the visual flight path is at the discretion of the pilot, and it is the responsibility of the pilot to visually acquire and avoid obstacles in the “Fly Visual to Airport” segment.

2. Missed approach obstacle clearance is assured only if the missed approach is commenced at the published MAP. Before initiating an IAP that contains a “Fly Visual to Airport” segment, the pilot should have preplanned climb out options based on air-craft performance and terrain features. Obstacle clearance is the responsibility of the pilot when the approach is continued beyond the MAP.

NOTE−The FAA Administrator retains the authority to approve instru-ment approach procedures where the pilot may not necessarily have one of the visual references specified in 14 CFR Sec. 91.175 and related rules. It is not a function of procedure design to ensure compliance with Sec. 91.175. The annotation “Fly Visual to Airport” provides relief from Sec. 91.175 requirements that the pilot have distinctly visible and identifiable visual refer-ences prior to descent below MDA/DA.

* * * * *

On pages 636-658, change FIGs 5-4-13 through 5-4-31 to FIGs 5-4-14 through 5-4-32.

Example of a Chart Note


FIG 5-4-13


5-4-14. PARALLEL ILS APPROACHES (DEPENDENT): On page 643, revise subparagraph c. as follows:

* * * * *

c. A minimum of 1.0 NM radar separation (diagonal) is required between successive aircraft on the adjacent final approach course when runway centerlines are at least 2,500 feet but no more than 3,600 feet apart. A minimum of 1.5 NM radar separa-tion (diagonal) is required between successive aircraft on the adjacent final approach course when runway centerlines are more than 3,600 feet but no more than 4,300 feet apart. * * *

* * * * *

5-5-4. INSTRUMENT APPROACH: On page 659, add new subparagraph a.4. and REFERENCE as follows:

* * * * *

4. When applicable, apply cold temperature correction to instrument approach segments. Advise ATC when intending to apply cold temperature correction and of the amount of correction required for each affected segment on initial contact (or as soon as possible). This information is required for ATC to provide air-craft appropriate vertical separation between known traffic.

REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 7-2-3, Altimeter ErrorsAIM, TBL 7-2-3, ICAO Cold Temperature Error

* * * * *

5-5-5. MISSED APPROACH: On page 659, add new subparagraph a.5. and REFERENCE and renumber old subparagraph a.5. as a.6. as follows:

* * * * *

5. When applicable, apply cold temperature correction to the published missed approach segment. Advise ATC when intending to apply cold temperature correction and of the amount of correc-tion required on initial contact (or as soon as possible). This information is required for ATC to provide aircraft appropriate ver-tical separation between known traffic. The pilot must not apply an altitude correction to an assigned altitude when provided an initial heading to fly or radar vector in lieu of published missed approach procedures, unless approved by ATC.

REFERENCE−AIM, Paragraph 7-2-3 , Altimeter ErrorsAIM, TBL 7-2-3, ICAO Cold Temperature Error

6. Following a missed approach, requests clearance for speci-fic action; i.e., another approach, hold for improved conditions, proceed to an alternate airport, etc.

* * * * *

5-5-11. VISUAL APPROACH: On page 661, revise subparagraph b.5. as follows:

* * * * *

5. For all aircraft, inform the pilot when the preceding aircraft is a heavy. Inform the pilot of a small aircraft when the preceding aircraft is a B757. Visual separation is prohibited behind super aircraft.

* * * * *

5-5-14. INSTRUMENT DEPARTURES: On page 662, revise subparagraph a.3. as follows:

* * * * *

3. Determines whether an obstacle departure procedure (ODP) and/or DP is available for obstruction avoidance. One option may be a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA). Pilots must advise ATC as early as possible of the intent to fly the VCOA prior to departure.

* * * * *

Chapter 7. SAFETY OF FLIGHT

7-3-8. PILOT RESPONSIBILITY: On page 736, revise subparagraphs d.-e. to add “super” as follows:

* * * * *

d. For operations conducted behind super or heavy aircraft, ATC will specify the word “super” or “heavy” as appropriate, when this information is known. Pilots of super or heavy aircraft should always use the word “super” or “heavy” in radio commu-nications.

e. Super, heavy, and large jet aircraft operators * * *

* * * * *

7-3-9. AIR TRAFFIC WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATIONS: On pages 736-737, revise subparagraphs a.-b., divide and revise old subparagraph c. into new subparagraphs c.-d., and revise newly redesignated subparagraphs e.-f. as follows:

a. Because of the possible effects of wake turbulence, controllers are required to apply no less than specified minimum separation to all IFR aircraft, to all VFR aircraft receiving Class B or Class C airspace services when operating behind super or heavy aircraft, and to small aircraft operating behind a B757.

1. Separation is applied to aircraft operating directly behind a super or heavy at the same altitude or less than 1,000 feet below, and to small aircraft operating directly behind a B757 at the same altitude or less than 500 feet below:

(a) Heavy behind super − 6 miles.(b) Large behind super − 7 miles.(c) Small behind super − 8 miles.(d) Heavy behind heavy – 4 miles.(e) Small/large behind heavy – 5 miles.(f) Small behind B757 – 4 miles.

2. Also, separation, measured at the time the preceding air-craft is over the landing threshold, is provided to small aircraft:

(a) Small landing behind heavy – 6 miles.(b) Small landing behind large, non-B757 – 4 miles.

REFERENCE–Pilot/Controller Glossary Term–Aircraft Classes.



3. Additionally, appropriate time or distance intervals are pro-vided to departing aircraft when the departure will be from the same threshold, a parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 feet with less than 500 feet threshold stagger, or on a crossing runway and projected flight paths will cross:

(a) Three minutes or the appropriate radar separation when takeoff will be behind a super aircraft;

(b) Two minutes or the appropriate radar separation when takeoff will be behind a heavy aircraft.

(c) Two minutes or the appropriate radar separation when a small aircraft will takeoff behind a B757.

NOTE–Controllers may not reduce or waive these intervals.

b. A 3-minute interval will be provided when a small aircraft will takeoff:

1. From an intersection on the same runway (same or oppo-site direction) behind a departing large aircraft (except B757), or

2. In the opposite direction on the same runway behind a large aircraft (except B757) takeoff or low/missed approach.

NOTE–This 3-minute interval may be waived upon specific pilot request.

c. A 3-minute interval will be provided when a small aircraft will takeoff:

1. From an intersection on the same runway (same or oppo-site direction) behind a departing B757, or

2. In the opposite direction on the same runway behind a B757 takeoff or low/missed approach.

NOTE−This 3-minute interval may not be waived.

d. A 4-minute interval will be provided for all aircraft taking off behind a super aircraft, and a 3-minute interval will be provided for all aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft when the opera-tions are as described in subparagraphs b1 and b2 above, and are conducted on either the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet. Controllers may not reduce or waive this interval.

e. Pilots may request additional separation (i.e., 2 minutes in-stead of 4 or 5 miles) for wake turbulence avoidance. This request should be made as soon as practical on ground control and at least before taxiing onto the runway.

NOTE–14 CFR Section 91.3(a) states: “The pilot-in-command of an air-craft is directly responsible for and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft.”

f. Controllers may anticipate separation and need not withhold a takeoff clearance for an aircraft departing behind a large, heavy, or super aircraft if there is reasonable assurance the required separation will exist when the departing aircraft starts takeoff roll.

Chapter 9. AERONAUTICAL CHARTS ANDRELATED PUBLICATIONS

9-1-4. GENERAL DESCRIPTION OF EACH CHART SERIES: On pages 754, 758, and 761, delete old subparagraph a.3. and redesignate old subparagraphs a.4.-a.6 as subparagraphs a.3.-a.5., switch the order of subparagraphs d.4. and d.5, and remove “WAC” from subparagraph e.3. as follows:

a. VFR Navigation Charts.

* * * * *

3. U.S. Gulf Coast VFR Aeronautical Chart. The Gulf Coast Chart is designed primarily for helicopter operation in the Gulf of Mexico area. Information depicted includes offshore mineral leasing areas and blocks, oil drilling platforms, and high density helicopter activity areas. Scale 1 inch = 13.7nm/1:1,000,000. 55 27 inches folded to 5 10 inches. Revised annually.

4. Grand Canyon VFR Aeronautical Chart. Covers the Grand Canyon National Park area and is designed to promote aviation safety, flight free zones, and facilitate VFR navigation in this popular area. The chart contains aeronautical information for general aviation VFR pilots on one side and commercial VFR air tour operators on the other side.

5. Helicopter Route Charts. A three-color chart series which shows current aeronautical information useful to helicopter pilots navigating in areas with high concentrations of helicopter activity. Information depicted includes helicopter routes, four classes of heliports with associated frequency and lighting capabilities, NAVAIDs, and obstructions. In addition, pictorial symbols, roads, and easily identified geographical features are portrayed. Helicop-ter charts have a longer life span than other chart products and may be current for several years. Helicopter Route Charts are up-dated as requested by the FAA. Scale 1 inch = 1.71nm/1:125,000. 34 30 inches folded to 5 10 inches. (See FIG 9-1-3.)

* * * * *

d. Supplementary Charts and Publications.

* * * * *

4. North Atlantic Route Chart. Designed for FAA controllers to monitor transatlantic flights, this 5-color chart shows oceanic control areas, coastal navigation aids, oceanic reporting points, and NAVAID geographic coordinates. Full Size Chart: Scale 1 inch = 113.1nm/1:8,250,000. Chart is shipped flat only. Half Size Chart: Scale 1 inch = 150.8nm/1:11,000,000. Chart is 29-3/4 20-1/2 inches, shipped folded to 5 10 inches only. Chart revised every 56 weeks. (See FIG 9-1-10.)

5. North Pacific Route Charts. These charts are designed for FAA controllers to monitor transoceanic flights. They show es-tablished intercontinental air routes, including reporting points with geographic positions. Composite Chart: Scale 1 inch = 164nm/1:12,000,000. 48 41-1/2 inches. Area Charts: Scale 1 inch = 95.9nm/1:7,000,000. 52 40-1/2 inches. All charts shipped un-folded. Charts revised every 56 days. (See FIG 9-1-11.)

* * * * *

e. Digital Products.

* * * * *

3. digital-Visual Charts (d-VC). These digital VFR charts are geo-referenced images of FAA Sectional Aeronautical, TAC, and Helicopter Route charts. * * *

On pages 754-760, change old FIG 9-1-13 to be FIG 9-1-2 and renumber old FIG 9-1-2 through FIG 9-1-13 accordingly, and delete FIG 9-1-14 and FIG 9-1-15.



Appendix 3. ABBREVIATIONS/ACRONYMS

On page 783, delete “WAC.”

PILOT/CONTROLLER GLOSSARY

On pages 786, 788, 792-793, 799-800, 804, 809-810, 812, 816-817, 822, 825, 830-834, add, revise, and delete the following:

* * * * *

AERONAUTICAL CHART - A map used in air navigation contain-ing all or part of the following: Topographic features, hazards and obstructions, navigation aids, navigation routes, designated air-space, and airports. Commonly used aeronautical charts are:a. Sectional Aeronautical Charts (1:500,000). * * *b. VFR Terminal Area Charts (1:250,000). * * *[c. World Aeronautical Charts (WAC) (1:1,000,000). - deleted]c. En Route Low Altitude Charts. * * *d. En Route High Altitude Charts. * * *e. Instrument Approach Procedures (IAP) Charts. * * *f. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts. * * *g. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts. * * *h. Airport Taxi Charts. * * *(See ICAO term AERONAUTICAL CHART.)

* * * * *

AIRCRAFT CLASSES - For the purposes of Wake Turbulence Separation Minima, ATC classifies aircraft as Super, Heavy, Large, and Small as follows:a. Super - The Airbus A-380-800 (A388) and the Antonov An-

225 (A225) are classified as super.b. Heavy - Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 pounds

or more whether or not they are operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight.

c. Large - Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum cer-tificated takeoff weight, up to but not including 300,000 pounds.

d. Small - Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certifi-cated takeoff weight.

(Refer to AIM.)AIRCRAFT CONFLICT - Predicted conflict, within EDST of two

aircraft, or between aircraft and airspace. A Red alert is used for conflicts when the predicted minimum separation is 5 nauti-cal miles or less. A Yellow alert is used when the predicted minimum separation is between 5 and approximately 12 nauti-cal miles. A Blue alert is used for conflicts between an aircraft and predefined airspace.(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

AIRCRAFT LIST (ACL) - A view available with EDST that lists aircraft currently in or predicted to be in a particular sector’s airspace. The view contains textual flight data information in line format and may be sorted into various orders based on the specific needs of the sector team.

(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

ATC PREFERRED ROUTE NOTIFICATION - EDST notification to the appropriate controller of the need to determine if an ATC preferred route needs to be applied, based on destination air-port.(See ROUTE ACTION NOTIFICATION.)(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION BOUNDARY (APB) - The adapted distance beyond a facilities boundary defining the air-space within which EDST performs conflict detection.(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

AUTOMATED RADAR TERMINAL SYSTEMS (ARTS) - A generic term for several tracking systems included in the Terminal Automation Systems (TAS). ARTS plus a suffix roman numeral denotes a major modification to that system.a. ARTS IIIA. * * *b. Common ARTS. * * *[c. Programmable Indicator Data Processor (PIDP). - deleted]

* * * * *

AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE-REBROADCAST (ADS-R) is a datalink translation function of the ADS-B ground system required to accommodate the two separate operating frequencies (978 MHz and 1090 ES). The ADS-B system re-ceives the ADS-B messages transmitted on one frequency and ADS-R translates and reformats the information for rebroadcast and use on the other frequency. This allows ADS-B In equipped aircraft to see nearby ADS-B Out traffic regardless of the oper-ating link of the other aircraft. Aircraft operating on the same ADS-B frequency exchange information directly and do not require the ADS-R translation function.

* * * * *

DIRECT ALTITUDE AND IDENTITY READOUT - [deleted]

* * * * *

DROP ZONE - Any pre-determined area upon which parachutists or objects land after making an intentional parachute jump or drop.(Refer to 14 CFR Sec. 105.3, Definitions.)

* * * * *

EDST - (See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL - An automated tool provided at each Radar Associate position in selected En Route facilities. This tool utilizes flight and radar data to determine pres-ent and future trajectories for all active and proposal aircraft and provides enhanced automated flight data management.

* * * * *

GRAPHIC PLAN DISPLAY (GPD) - A view available with EDST that provides a graphic display of aircraft, traffic, and notifi-cation of predicted conflicts. Graphic routes for Current Plans and Trial Plans are displayed upon controller request.(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

JUMP ZONE - The airspace directly associated with a Drop Zone. Vertical and horizontal limits may be locally defined.

* * * * *

LOW ALTITUDE ALERT SYSTEM - [deleted]

* * * * *



MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE -a. The minimum altitude specified in 14 CFR Part 91 for vari-

ous aircraft operations.b. Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least

1,000 feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use. These altitudes will be identified as Minimum Safe Altitudes or Emergency Safe Altitudes and are established as follows:1. Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA). Altitudes depicted on

approach charts which provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius of the navi-gation facility, waypoint, or airport reference point upon which the MSA is predicated. MSAs are for emergency use only and do not necessarily assure acceptable navigational signal coverage.(See ICAO term MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE.)

2. Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA). Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance in nonmountainous areas and 2,000 feet of obstacle clearance in designated moun-tainous areas within a 100-mile radius of the navigation facility or waypoint used as the ESA center. These altitudes are normally used only in military procedures and are identified on published procedures as “Emer-gency Safe Altitudes.”

* * * * *

OCEANIC ERROR REPORT - A report filed when ATC observes an Oceanic Error as defined by FAAO 7110.82, Reporting Oceanic Errors.

* * * * *

OUTER AREA (associated with Class C airspace) - Nonregula-tory airspace surrounding designated Class C airspace airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring and sequencing on a full-time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. The service provided in the outer area is called Class C service which includes: IFR/IFR-IFR separation; IFR/VFR-traffic advisories and conflict resolution; and VFR/VFR-traffic advisories and, as appropriate, safety alerts. The normal radius will be 20 nautical miles with some variations based on site-specific requirements. The outer area extends outward from the primary Class C airspace airport and extends from the lower limits of radar/radio coverage up to the ceiling of the approach control’s delegated airspace excluding the Class C charted area and other airspace as appropriate.(See CONFLICT RESOLUTION.)(See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)

* * * * *

PLANS DISPLAY - A display available in EDST that provides de-tailed flight plan and predicted conflict information in textual format for requested Current Plans and all Trial Plans.(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

ROUTE ACTION NOTIFICATION - EDST notification that a PAR/ PDR/PDAR has been applied to the flight plan.(See ATC PREFERRED ROUTE NOTIFICATION.)(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

SPECIAL ACTIVITY AIRSPACE (SAA) - Any airspace with de-fined dimensions within the National Airspace System wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations. This airspace may be restricted areas, prohibited areas, military operations areas, air ATC assigned airspace, and any other designated airspace areas. The dimensions of this airspace are programmed into EDST and can be designated as either active or inactive by screen entry. Aircraft trajectories are constantly tested against the dimensions of active areas and alerts issued to the applicable sectors when violations are predicted.(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

TPX-42 - [deleted]

* * * * *

TRAJECTORY - A EDST representation of the path an aircraft is predicted to fly based upon a Current Plan or Trial Plan.(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)

* * * * *

UNMANNED AIRCRAFT (UA) - A device used or intended to be used for flight that has no onboard pilot. This device can be any type of airplane, helicopter, airship, or powered-lift aircraft. Unmanned free balloons, moored balloons, tethered aircraft, gliders, and unmanned rockets are not considered to be a UA.

UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM - An unmanned aircraft and its associated elements related to safe operations, which may in-clude control stations (ground, ship, or air based), control links, support equipment, payloads, flight termination systems, and launch/recovery equipment. It consists of three elements: un-manned aircraft, control station, and data link.

* * * * *

URET - [deleted]

* * * * *

USER REQUEST EVALUATION TOOL (URET) - [deleted]

* * * * *

VISUAL CLIMB OVER AIRPORT (VCOA) - A departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in visual meteorological conditions equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to the published “climb-to” altitude from which to proceed with the instrument portion of the departure. VCOA procedures are developed to avoid obstacles greater than 3 statute miles from the departure end of the runway as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than 200 feet per nautical mile. Pilots are responsible to advise ATC as early as possible of the intent to fly the VCOA option prior to departure. These textual proce-dures are published in the ‘Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures’ section of the Terminal Procedures Pub-lications and/or appear as an option on a Graphic ODP.(See AIM.)

* * * * *

VORTICES - Circular patterns of air created by the movement of an airfoil through the air when generating lift. As an airfoil moves through the atmosphere in sustained flight, an area of low pres-sure is created above it. The air flowing from the high pressure area to the low pressure area around and about the tips of the airfoil tends to roll up into two rapidly rotating vortices, cylindri-cal in shape. These vortices are the most predominant parts of aircraft wake turbulence and their rotational force is dependent upon the wing loading, gross weight, and speed of the generat-ing aircraft. The vortices from medium to super aircraft can be of extremely high velocity and hazardous to smaller aircraft.(See AIRCRAFT CLASSES.)(See WAKE TURBULENCE.)(Refer to AIM.)

* * * * *

WORLD AERONAUTICAL CHARTS - [deleted]

* * * * *



October 27, 2015

Effective October 22, 2015


Sec. 91.1607 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 113--Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Simferopol (UKFV) and Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) Flight Information Regions (FIRs). On page 197, revise paragraphs (a)(2), (c), and (e) as follows:

(a) * * *

* * * * *

(2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certifi-cate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and

* * * * *

(c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in either or both of the Simferopol (UKFV) or Dnipropetrovsk (UKDV) FIRs, provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. govern-ment (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will process requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: first, for those operations in support of U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those opera-tions in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations.

* * * * *

(e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until October 27, 2016. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary.



August 27, 2015

Effective September 15, 2015, through September 15, 2016

PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS

Sec. 71.1 Applicability. On page 119, revise date and policy references as follows:

A listing for Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points can be found in FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The approval to incorporate by reference FAA Order 7400.9Z is effective September 15, 2015, through September 15, 2016. During the incorporation by reference period, proposed changes to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and re-porting points will be published in full text as proposed rule documents in the Federal Register. Amendments to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points will be published in full text as final rules in the Federal Register. Periodically, the final rule amend-ments will be integrated into a revised edition of the Order and submitted to the Director of the Federal Register for approval for incorporation by reference in this section. Copies of FAA Order 7400.9Z may be obtained from Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, (202) 267-8783. An elec-tronic version of the Order is available on the FAA Web site at http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications. Copies of FAA Order 7400.9Z may be inspected in Docket No. FAA-2015-3375; Amendment No. 71-47 on http://www.regulations.gov. A copy of FAA Order 7400.9Z may be inspected at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.

Secs. 71.5, 71.15, 71.31, 71.33, 71.41, 71.51, 71.61, 71.71, and 71.901. On pages 119 and 120, replace the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.9Y’’ with ‘‘FAA Order 7400.9Z.”



August 14, 2015

Effective August 14, 2015


Sec. 1.1 General definitions. On page 21, remove the definitions beginning with VA and ending with VS.


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