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A GLIMPSE ON MCQ OF PHARMACOLOGY
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TEST ON PHARMACOLOGY
Q1. Histamine is mainly involv ed in which type of allergic reactions?
a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4
Q2. Which of the following is antihistaminic, anticholinergic and 5HT a ntagonist?
a. Cinnarizine b. Cyprohetadine c. Mepyramine d. Both a & b
Q3. N-acetylcysteine is used in the poisoning of which NASID?
a. Aspirin b. Indomethcin c. Paracetamol d. Sulindac
Q4. Paracetamol is detoxified by
a. Glucuronide conjugation b. Glutathione conjugation c. Glycine conjugation d. Sulphate conjugation
Q5. Which of the following is prodrug & converted to sulfide active metabolite?
a. Phenacetin b. Sulindac c. Indomethacin d. Nabumetone
2. Indomethacin b. Ocular inflammation
3. Flurbiprofen c. Post-operative pain
Q6. Match the following
1. Ketorolac a. Angina 4. Aspirin d. Ductus arteriosus
Q7. Lefluomide an anti rheumatoid drug inhibits
a. Thymidylate synthtase b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
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c. Nuclear receptor activation d. Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
Q8. Which of the following is uricosuric agent?
a. Allopurinol b. Probenecid c. Colchicine d. Diclofenac
Q9. Identify the false statement about Allopurinol
a. Allopurinol is an analogue of hypoxanthine b. Allopurinol is converted to alloxanthine by xanthine oxidase c. Allopurinol increases uric acid excretion d. Used as prophylactic as the drug of choice in the long-term treatment of gout, but it is ineffective in the
treatment of an acute attack and may even exacerbate the inflammation.
Q10. Identify the drug choice for acute gout attack?
a. Allopurinol b. Probenecid c. Colchicine d. Diclofenac & Colchicine
Q11. Match the following
1. Allopurinol a. Increases uric acid excretion
2. Sulfinpyrazone b. Inhibits uric acid synthesis
3. Colchicine c. Prevents migration of neutrophils in to the joint, by binding to tubulin, resultin g in the depolymerisation of the microtubules and reduced cell motility.
Q12. All of the following are the roles of histamine except?
a. It increases appetite b. It produces sensation of itch c. Causes bronchoconstriction
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d. Increases gastric acid secretion
Q13. Antihistaminic used to increase appetite in underweight children is
a. Cetrizine b. Loratidine c. Loxatidine d. Buclizine
Q14. The active metabolite of Terfenadine is
a. Loratidine b. Fexofenadine c. Triprolidine d. Alfaprolidine
Q15. Cetrizine is a active metabolite of
a. Hydroxyzine b. Promethazine c. Cimetidine d. Cinnarizine
Q16. Eicosanoids includes
a. Prostaglandins b. Leukotrienes c. Thromboxane d. All
Q17. In LTB 4 the subscript ‘4’ indicates
a. No. of double bonds b. No. of conjugated doub les bonds c. No. of alkyl substitutions d. No. of halogens
Q18. Platelets primarily synthesize
a. TXA 2
b. PGI 2
c. LTB 4
d. Histamine
Q19. Endothelium mainly generates
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a. PGG 2
b. PGI 2
c. PAF d. PGF
2a
Q20. All NASIDS are reversible inhibitors of cyclo oxygenase except
a. Aspirin b. Indomethacin c. Celecoxib d. Paracetamol
Q21. N-acetyl-P-benzoquinoneimine is highly reactive heapatotoxic metabolite is of
a. Aspirin b. Indomethacin c. Paracetamol d. Ibuprofen
Q22. All of the following have arrhythmic potential by prolonging QTC interval except
a. Loratadine b. Astemizole c. Terfenadine d. Ebastine
Q23. Misoprostol is used to prevent
a. Peptic ulcer b. Post partum haemorrhage c. Glaucoma d. Threatened abortion
Q24. NASID used for ocular inflammation
a. Ibuprofen b. Piroxicam c. Nimesulide d. Flurbiprofen
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Q25. NASIDS can inhibit the production of all except
a. PGI 2
b. Cyclic Endoperoxides c. TX
2d. Leukotrienes
Q26. Histamine is biosynthesized from decarboxylation of
a. Tryptophan b. Tyrosine c. Histidine d. Phenylalanine
Q27. Serotonin is biosynthesized from
a. Tryptophan b. Tyrosine c. Histidine d. Phenylalanine
Q28. Match the following
1. PGI a. Chemostatic agent for Neutrophils & macrophages 2
2. TXA b. Platelet aggregation 2
3.PGG2&PGH2(Endoperoxides)c.Vasodilation 4.PGE d. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
25. LTB e. Proaggregatory
4 6. PGF f. Uterus contraction
Q29. Which of the following is not a vasodilator?
a. PGE 2
b. PGI 2
c. PGD 2
d. PGF 2a
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Q30. Match the following
1. Misoprostol a. Induce labour
2. Latanoprost b. Ulcer protective
3. Dinoprostone c. Glaucoma 4. Carboprost d. Control postpartum hemorrhage
5. Epoprostenol e. Inhibit platelet aggregation
Q31. Match the following H1 antagonist for their clinical uses
1. Cyprohetadine a. Motion sickness 2. Hydroxyzine b. Mild hypnotic
3. Diphenhydramine c. Treat anxiety
4. Promethazine d. Used in migraine 5. Buclizine e. Appetite stimulating
Q32. Which of the following drug have local anesthetic effect also?
a. Promethazine To receive free Pharma GPAT,NIPER, Preparation Sms/Guidance & ADMISSION NOTIFICATIONS on Mobile. Send ON BPHARMSTUFF to 09870807070
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b. Mepyramine c. Diphenhydramine d. Loratidine
Q33. Which of the following anti gout drug also inhibits platelet aggregation?
a. Colchicine b. Sulfinpyrazone c. Diclofenac d. Allopurinol
Q34. Match the following
1. Sumatriptan a. 5HT agonist (used in migraine) 1 2. Ketanserin b. 5HT antagonist (anticancer induced vomiting) 3
3. Ondansteron c. 5HT agon ist (prokinetic drug) 4
4. Cisapride d. 5HT antagonist (prevent platelet aggregation) 2
Q35. An antidiabetic drug Piogliazone used in Type 2 diabetes acts by a. Decrease of glucose uptake in muscles b. Increasing insulin sensitivity c. Inhibiting intestinal a-glucosidase d. Stimulating insulin secretion
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Q36. An angiotensin-II receptor blocker useful in treating hypertension is
a. Enalaprilat b. Valsartan c. Atenolol d. Amiodipine
Q37. Co-administration of NSAIDs with Warfarin may often lead to a. Antag on istic interaction b. Interaction to change in drug transpo rt c. Interaction due to disturbances in electrolyte b alance d. Additive o r synergistic interaction
Q38. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is a. Demecolcine b. Paclitaxel c. Vinblastin d. Brevifolicin
Q39. A patient with rheumato id arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However, recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance. She ha s occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those mentioned below:
a. Paracetamol b. Celecoxib c. Piroxicam d. Naproxen
Q40. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by
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a. Plasmin b. Renin c. Urokinase d. Ptylin
Q41. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin
a. Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly. b. Has methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than erythromycin. c. Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastro intestinal tract. d. Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.
Q42. Effects of fibrates on blood lipids are mediated by a. Inhibiting both synthesis and esterification of fatty acids b. Their interaction with peroxisome proliferators-activated receptors (PPARs) c. Reducing the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate d. Sequestering bile acids
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Q43. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?
a. Levo-dopa is preferred over do pamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier. b. Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy p henylalanine. c. Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine. d. Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine receptors.
Q44. A Cardioselective beta blocker with vasodilating properties is
a. Pindolol b. Atenolol c. Bisoprolol d. Nebivolol
Q45. A Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminate is useful in cancer chemotherapy. The camptothecin present in the plant and useful in treating ovarian cancer is
a. Etoposide b. Vincristine c. Paclitaxel d. Topotecan
Q46. The drug selected above acts by a. Inhibiting topoisomerase I a. Inhibiting topoiso merase II b. Inhibiting thymidylate synthase c. Forming hydrogen peroxide which generates free radicals
Q47. Acute migraine is treated with a. Prazosin b. Formeterol c. Sumatriptan d. Dopamine
Q48. The drug chosen above is an agonist of a. a adrenoceptor
1b. a adrenoceptor
2c. M receptor
3d. 5 HT receptor
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Q50. Increased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with decreased serum levels of
a. LDL b. HDL
c. Triglycerides d. VLDL
Q51. An inorganic ion which is used prophylactically in bipolar depression is a. Valproate b. Lithium c. Chromiu m d. Valium
Q52. Autoimmunity refers to a. an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen. b. failure to distinguish between self and non-self c. an automatic segregation of T and B cells. d. failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.
Q53. Antihypoprothrombinemic effect of one stereochemical form is two to five times more than others
a. (S)-(+)- Warfarin b. R-(+)- Warfarin c. (S)-(-)- Warfarin d. (RS)- Warfarin
Q54. Intermediates in the biosynthesis of cholesterol are a. Mevalonic acid and isopentenyl pyrophosphate b. Mevalonic acid and aldosterone c. Isoprenaline and aldosterone d. Isoprenaline and isopentenyl phosphate
Q55. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is a. Sulfinpyrazone b. Aspirin c. Ticlopidine d. Acetaminophen
Q56. Metoclopramide is generally used for a. Prophylaxis of vomiting b. Preventing motion sickness c. Treating irritable bowel syndrome d. Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency
Q57. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with
a. Oral anticoagulants b. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents
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c. Hydantoin anticonvulsants d. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
Q58. Simvastatin belongs to a. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of an tilipidemic agents b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents c. Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents d. Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents
Q59. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with a. Cytarabine b. Acyclovir c. Zidovudine d. Amantadine
Q60. The drug which increases the plasma concentration of digoxin by a pharmacokinetic mechanism is
a. Lidocaine b. Captopril c. Quinidine d. Hydrochlorthiazide
Q61. An NMDA antagonist introduced for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is a. Dopamine b. Nor-epinephrine c. Serotonin d. Memantine
Q62. Interleukins are a. Polypeptide cytokines important in the inflammatory cascade b. Prostaglandins that account for gastrointestinal disorders c. Enkephalins which are specific for asthma d. Dipeptides which have antimicrobial properties
Q63. Drug Mechanism of action is by inhibition of P. Levofloxacin 1. DNA dependent RNA polymerase Q. Caspofungin 2. Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) the enzyme R. Aztreonam 3. The synthesis of b(1-2) glycan S. Rifabutin 4. Cell wall synthesis preferentially binding to a specific penicillin binding protein A) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (C) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 (D) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
Q64. Drug Receptor agonist/antagonist P. Granisetron 1. ß adrenergic receptor antagonist
1Q. Pirenzepine 2. GABA agonist
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R. Acebutalol 3. 5HT antagonist 3
S. Baclofen 4. M antagonist 1
(A) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (C) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (D) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 Q65. Mechanism of action (P) Digitoxin 1. Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking calcium channels (Q) Dobutamine 2. Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx through beta receptor blockade (R) Sotalol 3. Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimu lation of adenylate cyclase. (S) Nicardipine 4. Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase pump.
a. P-4Q-3R-2S-1 b. P-3Q-4R-1S-2 c. P-4Q-2R-3S-1 d. P-4Q-3R-1S-2
Q66. The alkaloid which inhibits the cholinesterase undergoes hydrolysis in solution to give methyl carbamic acid and eseroline is:
a. Scopolamine b. Pyridostigmine c. Neostigmine d. Physostigmine
Q67. A natural product derivative developed as an antimalarial is a. Artemether b. Paludrine c. Pyrimethamine d. Halofantrine
Q68. An anticholinesterase which is useful in Alzheimer’s disease is a. Arecoline b. Donepezil c. Isoproterenol d. Clioquinol
Q69. A drug used as an ophthalmic solution in Herpes kera titis is a. Zalcitabine b. Trifluridine c. Ritonavir d. Stavudine
Q70. A macrolide antibiotic used as a powerful immunosuppressive agent is: a. Erythromycinb. Azithromycin c. Tacrolimus d. Clarithromycin
Q71. Cytosine arabinoside acts on this phase of the cell cycle a. G1
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b. G2 c. M d. S
Q72. Trimethoprim has an advantage over Methotrexate in its therapeutic category because a. Trimethoprim binds to bacterial DHFR about 50,000 times more strongly as compared to the host DHFR. b. Trimethoprim can be administered orally. c. Trimethoprim exhibits no significant adv erse effects. d. Trimethoprim has additional anti-inflammatory properties.
Q73. Methotrexate is thought to exert its action by a. Interfering with purine synthetase. b. Intracellular formation of an amine adducts. c. Forming a conjugate with nucleic acids. d. Inhibiting the synthesis of folic acid.
Q74. A person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can cause severe hypotension
a. Aspirin b. Cholestyramine c. Warfarin d. Sildenafil
Q75. To avoid lithium toxicity, a patient using lithium carbonate for mood disorders should not be prescribed
a. Acetazolamide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Mannitol d. Propranolol
Q76. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is a. Venlafaxine b. Selegilin e c. Phenelzine d. Amoxapine
Q77. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which hypolipidemic agent should not be prescribed?
a. Clofibrate b. Cholestyramine
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c. Lovastatin d. Niacin
Q78. Famotidine acts as a. H — h istamine antagonist
1b. H — h istamine antagonist
2c. Proton pump inhibitor d. H agon ist
1
Q79. Two of the following attributes are true for describing the mechanism of action of Thiabendazole. P. Neuromuscular blocking causing spastic paralysis Q. Blocks the response of the Ascaris muscle to ACH, causing flaccid paralysis in the worms R. Inhibits the Helminthes specific enzyme fumarate reductase S. Arrest nematode cell divisions in metaphase by interfering with microtubule assembly
(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, S (D)Q, R Q80. Insulin when released from the pancreatic ß cells P. Can sequester blood glucose by forming a complex with it. Q. Gets fully conjugated with glucuronic acid immediately, to be released upon suitable stimuli in normal health. R. Acts on the transporter molecules to facilitate glucose movement across the cell membranes. S. Increases storage of glucose to glycogen in the liver. (A) P, R (B) R, S (C) P. S (D) Q, S Q81. Zafirlukast acts as
a. adrenoceptor agonist b. Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagonist c. muscarinic receptor antagonist d. Antihistamine
Q82. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time a. Budesonide b. Zafirlukast c. Salmeterol d. Bambuterol
Q83. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the pathway, catalyzes
a. Side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones b. The reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosynthesis. c. The reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D. d. Steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.
Q84. T he inhibition of HMG-C0A Reductase is a strategy used in the treatment of a. Familia hypercholesterolemia b. Vitamin K deficiency c. Inflammation in the join ts d. Hepatic parenchymal disease
LINKED QUESTIONS
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Q85. The attributes of cycloserine are (P) No tautomerism shown. (Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form. (R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH. (S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH. (A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D) P, R Q86. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological properties. (P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation. (Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened. (R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound. (S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound. (A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D) Q, R Q87. The drug disulfiram is P. k nown to inhibit dopamine ß-hydroxylase and cause noradrenaline depletion Q. a substance that produces aversive reaction to alcohol R. known to stimulate dopamine ß-hydroxylase S. used in barbiturate poisoning (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D) P, Q Q88. Two important attributes associated with L- asparaginase P: an enzyme obtained from E.Coli and is administered paranterally Q: an enzyme obtained from Streptococcus caespitosus and is administered orally R: used in acute lymphocytic leukemia S: used as fibrinolytic (A) P, S (B) P, R (C) Q, R (D) Q, S
Q89. Amikacin is P a semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of kanamycin Q a semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of tobramycin R it is administered parenterally and does not cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity S it is administered parenterally and is both nephrotoxic and ototoxicity (A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P, S (D) Q, S Q90. Tenoposide is a natural product used for the management of certain diseases. It is derived form
a. Flavonolignans form Silybum marianum
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b. Lignans from Podophyllum peltatum c. Lignans from Schizandra chinensis d. Neolignans from Piper futokadsura
Q91. Tenoposide is used in the management of a. Candidiasis b. Trypanosomiasis c. Cardiac arrhythmia d. Acute leukemia in children
Q92. The selective COX-2 inhibitor is a. Ketorolac b. Rofecoxib c. Indomethacin d. Naproxen
Q93.The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking a. Antiallergic drugs b. Anxiolytic drugs c. Antihypertensiv e drugs d. Oral antidiabetic agents
Q94. Opioids have all actions excluded
a. Analgesic b. Antitussive c. Antidiarrhoeal d. Anti-inflammatory
Q95. The metabolite of spironolactone is a. Aldosterone b. Canrenone
c. Corticosterone d. Pregnenolone
Q96. The drug which cause pink to brownish skin pigmentation within a few weeks of the intiation of therapy is
a. Itraconazole b. Clofazimine c. Lomefloxacin d. Neomycin
Q97. The risk of digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of
a. Triamterene b. Lidocaine c. Captopril d. Hydrochlorothiazide
Q98. A agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases coronary blood
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flow
a. Nitroglycerine b. Nifedipine c. Timolol d. Isosorbide mononitrate
Q99. Isoniazid is primary antitubercular agent that
a. Requires pyridoxine supplementation b. Causes ocular complications c. Is ototoxic and nephrotoxic d. Should never be used due to heapatotoxic potential
Q100. Decreased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with increase in
a. VLDL b. LDL c. HDL d. IDL
Q101. Mechanism of paclitexel is
a. Inhibits microtubule formation b. Prolongs microtubule formation c. Inhibits DNA topoisomerase II d. Produce superoxide radicals which results in scission of DNA
Q102. Which of the following drug is having weak disulfiram like action? a. Dacarbazine b. Procarbazine c. Methotrexate d. Hydroxy urea
Q103. Which of the following is pyrimidine antagonist? a. 6-mercapto purine b. Methotrexate c. 5-Flurouracil d. 6-Thioguanine
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Q104. Which of the drug is having immunomodulatory action? a. Thiabendazole b. Levimisole c. Pyrantel d. Ivermectin
Q105. Which drug act on GABA-mediated receptors and cause hyper polarization? a. Praziqu antel b. Mebendazole c. Ivermectin d. Albendazole
Q106. Carbidopa is used because
a. It crosses BBB b. It inhibits MAO-A c. It inhibits MAO-B d. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
Q107. The unwanted effect of L-DOPA is
a. Dementia b. Hypertension c. Dyskinesia
d. Heapatotoxic
Q108. The thrombolytic agent used is
a. Heparin b. Warfarin c. Anistreplase d. Vitamin K
Q109. Mechanism f action of aspirin is
a. Inhibits vitamin K metabolism b. Antithrombin activity c. Inhibits heparin metabolism d. Inhibits platelet aggregation
Q110. Mechanism of anti thrombotic agent is
a. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin b. Inhibits plate function c. Activation of clotting factors
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d. Vitamin K agonist
Q111. Match each drug with the statement that best describes its mode of action:
1. Niacin a. Binds bile acid s in the intestine, thus preventing their return to the liver via the enterohepatic circulation. 2. Clofibrate b. Causes a decrease in plasma triacylglycerol levels by increasing the activity of
lipoprotein lipase via PPAR-a stimulation
3. Cholestyramine c. Causes a decrease in liver triacylglycerol synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids
needed as building blocks for this pathway.
4. Probucol d. Inhibits 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA reductase, the rate-limiting step in
cholesterol synthesis.
5. Lovastatin e. Antioxidant and prevent the formation of foam cell due to engulf of oxidised lipids by macrophages
Q112. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance except:
a. hydralazine b. ß-blockers c. ACE inhibitors d. Clonidine
Q113. Which one of the following drugs acts at central presynaptic a receptors? 2
a. Minoxidil b. Verapamil c. Clonidine d. Enalapril
Q114. Which one of the following antihypertensives is most likely to cause reflex tachycardia?
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a. Propranolol b. Prazosin c. Hydralazine d. Captopril
Q115. From the list of antihypertensive drugs below select the one most likely to lower blood sugar.
a. Prazosin b. Propranolol c. Captopril d. Hydrochlorthiazide
Q116. Which one of the following drugs should not be given to a pregnant, hypertensive woman?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide b. Propranolol c. a-Methyldopa d. Lisinopril
Q117. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with nitroglycerin?
a. Throbbing headache b. Bradycardia c. Sexual dysfunction d. Anemia
Q118. All of the following mechanisms of action correctly match a drug EXCEPT:
a. Quinidine: Blocks Na+ channels b. Bretylium: Blocks K+ channels c. Verapamih Blocks Ca ++ channels d. Procainamide: Blocks K + channels
Q119. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. Lidocaine must be given parenterally. b. Lidocaine is used mainly for atrial arrhythmias. c. Procainamide is associated with a reversible lupus phenomenon. d. Quinidine is active orally.
Q120. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis?
a. Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase b. Decreases intraceliular sodium concentration c. Stimulates production of cAMP d. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Q121. Which one of the following drugs would be the most appropriate single drug therapy for mild congestive heaet failure?
a. A cardiac glycoside such as digoxin b. A a-adrenergic agonist such as norepinephrine c. A diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide d. An ACE inhibitor, such as captopril
Q122. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive head failure is correct?
a. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter half-life b. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine c. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency d. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile
Q123. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis-induced arrhythmia?
a. Decreased serum calcium b. Decreasing head rate with propranolol
c. Decreased serum sodium d. Decreased serum potassium e. Decreased serum angiotensin I1
Q124. Which of the following is selective MAO A inhibitor?
e. Tranylcypromine f. Meclobemide g. Selegilin e h. Entacapone
Q125. Which of the statement is false about phenytoin?
f. Can cause gingival hyperplasia may cause the gums to grow over teeth, particularly in children. g. Can cause Megaloblastic anemia occur because the drug interferes with vitamin B metabolism
12 h. It can cause osteomalaceia and hirsuitism i. Can cause hyperglycemia and glycosuria caused by inhibition of insulin secretion j. Can cause severe memory impairments
Q126.Matchthefollowing
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i. Carbamazepine a. Inhibits GABA transaminase j. Lamotrigine b. Weakly inhibit carbonic anhydrase
k. Topiramate c. Antidiuretic effect l. Gabapentin d. Inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors m. Vigabatrin e. Inhibits GABA reuptake n. Tiagabne f. Can cause severe skin rashes o. Felbamate g. Binds to amino acid transporter in brain p. Trimethdone h. Inhibits T - type Ca channels q. Tramadol i. GABA receptor agonist
Q127. The drug choice for opioid withdrawal
e. Meperidine f. Methadone g. Naltrexone h. Naloxone
Q128. Match the drug combinations used to prevent some adverse effects of anticancer drugs and the MOA
6. Cisplatin a. Folinic acid 7. Methotrexate b. Ondansetron
8. 6-Mercaptopurine c. Dexamethasone
9. Cyclophosphamide d. Mensa
10. Paclitaxel e. Allopurinol
11. Tetracyclines f. Peptidyl transferase inhibitor
12. Macrolides g. Inhibits translocation
13. Amino glycosides h. Aminoacyl t-RNA analogue
14. Chlo ramphenicol i. Transpeptidase inhibitor
15. Vancomycin j. Dihydroptreoate synthtase inhibitor 16. Cycloserine k. Misreading in mRNA
17. Penicillins l. D-Ala Recemase and synthase 18. Sulfonamides m. inhibits formation of Formylmethionine 19. Linezolid n. Prevents release of terminal D-Ala-D-Ala from
building block of peptidogycan
129. Match the following adverse effects of antibiotics 7. Chloramphenicol a. Platelet dysfunction 8. Tetracyclin e b. Hemolytic anemia
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9.Aminoglycosides c. Bone marrow depression 10. Sulfonamides d. Discoloration of bones and teeth
11. Methicillin e.Ototoxic and Nephrotoxic 12. Carbenicillin f. Nephritis
Q130. Match the following immunosuppressant drug mechanism of action 7. Tacrolimus a. Inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH) 8. Methotrexate b. Purine synthesis inhibitor 9. Cyclophosphamide c. Inhibits MHC expression & IL-2 production
10. Azathioprine D. Calcineurin inhibitor
11. Mycophenolate e. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
12. Glucocorticoids f. Alkylation of guanine in DNA molecule
Q131. An anti-neoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having pteridine ring
a. Trimethoprim b. Mercaptopurine c. Methotrexate d. Folic acid
Q132. One of the following drugs has 1,4-dihydropyridine structure, act as calcium channel antagonist
a. Captopril b. Verapamil c. Diltiazam d. Nifedipine
Q133. Opioids does not exerts the following action
a. Anti-inflammatory b. Analgesic c. Antitussive d. Anti-diarrheal
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Q134. Macrolide exerts their action by
a. Inhibiting tran scription b. Altering the genetic code c. Terminating protein synthesis prematurely d. Post-translational modification
Q135. One of the following is selective ß stimulant 2
a. Caffeine b. Salbutamol c. Propranolol d. Atenolol
Q136. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to propranolol because
a. It has both a and ß adrenergic blockade b. It has bo th vasodilatory properties c. It is selective ß antagonist
2 d. It has selective ß selective antagonist and does not enter in brain
1
Q137. Ultra-short acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to
a. High degree of binding to plasma proteins b. Low lipid solubility resulting in minimal concentration in the brain c. Metabolism is slow in liver d. Rapid rate of redistribution from brain due to its high liposolubility
Q138. One of the following actions of opioids is mediated via kappa receptors
a. Euphoria b. Physical dependence c. Spinal analgesia d. Cerebral vascular dilation
Q139. One of the following drugs against herpes simplex virus type 1 and is used topically systemic administration of same results in bone marrow depression, hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity
a. Acyclovir b. Amantidine c. Vidarabine d. Idoxuridine
Q140. A woman has treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found hypersensitive to penicillin V. the cultures strain of streptococcus pneumonia that is sensitive
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to all of the following drugs. Which one would be best choice for patient?
a. Amoxicillin b. Erythromycin c. Cefaclor d. Cyclacillin
Q141. One of the following co-administered with Terfenadine may lead to life threatening cardiac dysrhythmia.
a. Lomefloxacin b. Clofazimine c. Itraconazole d. Neomycin
Q142. Adverse effects of one of the drug of that drug include amenorrhea, bone marrow depression, gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic
a. Cyclizine b. Piroxicam c. Cyclophosphamide d. Cimetidine
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Q143. Sulfasalazine is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme responsible is
a. Azoreductase b. Choline esterase c. Glucuronyl transferase d. Amylase
Q144. Which of the following is po lyene antibiotic with seven conjugated double bonds an internal ester, free carboxy grp and a glycoside side chain with primary amino grp
a. Streptomycin b. Ketoconazole c. Griseofulvin d. Amphotericin B
Q145 . Chose the correct class IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
a. Mexiletine b. Diltiazam c. Nifedipine d. Propranolol
Q146. One of the following antiviral agents exhibits the greatest selective toxicity for the invading virus.
a. Amantidine b. Zidovudine c. Idoxuridine d. Acyclovir
Q147. Choose the drug that often causes tachycardia when given in regular doses
a. Verapamil b. Guanethidine c. Propranolol d. Isosorbide dinitrate
Q148. Choose the appropriate therapeutic use of imipramine
a. Insomnia b. Epilepsy c. Bed wetting in children d. Mania
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Q149. Purpose of combined drug regimen in tuberculosis is to
a. Delay the emergence of drug resistance b. Reduce the duration of active therapy c. Schedule the onset therapy d. Promote a placebo effect on patient
Q150. One of the following statements for adenyl cyclase is wrong
a. Is a membrane bound enzyme b. Inactivated by phosphodiesterase c. Catalyzes the formatio n of AMP d. Active only when associated with G protein
Q151 Budesonide is
a. NASID
b. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma
c. Diuretic
d. Anticholinergic
Q152 The choline ester drug resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase
a. Methacholin e
b. Bethanechol
c. Butyrylcholine
d. Benzoylcholine
Q153 Cardiac muscles have receptors are
a. M and ß 1 1
b. M and ß 2 2
c. M and ß
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3 1d. M and ß
2 1
Q154 Barbiturates have all action except
a. Anticonvulsant
b. Respiratory depressant
c. Antianxiety
d. Analgesics
Q155 Actions of pilocarpine includes all except
a. Sweating
b. Salivation
c. Miosis
d. Cycloplegia
Q156 The drug that is specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and useful in treatment of methanol poisoning
a. Disulfiram
b. Leucovorin
c. Flumazenil
d. Fomepizole
Q157 Edrophonium is more suitable as diagnostic agent because
a. direct action on muscle end plate
b. longer duration of action
c. selective inhibition of true cholinesterase d. shorter duration of action
Q158 Drug choice for Alzheimer’s diseases
a. Pyridostigmine b. Corticosteroids
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c. Bethanechol
d. Donepezil
Q159 a adrenergic agonist used to lower the intraocular tension 2
a. Brinzolamide
b. Latanoprost
c. Bambuterol
d. Bromonidine
Q160 Ethanol is used to treat methanol because
a. Antagonizes the actions of methanol
b. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol
c. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methanol
d. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and toxic metabolite
Q161 Drug that antagonize diazepam action is
a. Fomepizole
b. Bicuculline
c. Saclofen
d. Flumazenil
Q162 drug used in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
a. Atropine
b. Diazepam
c. Neostigmine
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d. Pralidoxime
Q163 Atropine produce all except
a. Tachycardia
b. Mydriasis
c. Dryness of mouth
d. Urinary incontinence
Q164 which of the following Mydriatic has fastest and briefest action
a. Atropine
b. Homatropine
c. Tropicamide
d. Cyclopentolate
Q165 The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning
a. Neostigmine
b. Physostigmine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Methacholine
Q166 Atropine is contraindicated in
a. Bronchospasm
b. Digitalis toxicity
c. Raised in traocu lar tension
d. Urinary incontinence
Q167 which of the following is noncatecholamines sympathomimetic a. Isoprenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Ephedrine
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d. Adrenaline
Q168 which of the following is selective a antagonist 2
a. Clonidine
b. Prazocin
c. Phenetolamine
d. Yohimbine
Q169 A sympathomimetic amine that act almost exclusively by releasing NA from nerve endings
a. Ephedrine
b. Dopamine
c. Tyramine
d. Isoprenaline
Q170 The metabolic actions of adrenaline includes all except
a. Glycogenolysis in liver and mu scle
b. Lipolysis in adipose tissu es
c. Inhibition of gluconeo genesis in liver
d. Inhibition of Glycolysis
Q171 Dobutamine differs from dopamine as
a. It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors
b. It causes tachycardia
c. It has tendency to cross blood-brain barrier
d. It does not activate adnergic ß receptors on heart
Q172 Adrenaline injected with local anaesthetic because
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a. Reduces local toxicity of local anesthetic
b. Reduces systemic toxicity of local anesthetic
c. Shortens the duration of local anesthetic
d. Makes the injection more painful
Q173 Ultra short acting ß blocker is
a. Timolol
b. Sotalol
c. Esmolol
d. Bisoprolol
Q174 ß blocker that have additional a1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant activity
a. Carvedilol
b. Celiprolol
c. Acebutolol
d. Sotalol
Q175 Drug used for prophylaxis of migraine
a. Ergotamine
b. Sumatriptan
c. Propranolol
d. Methysergide
Q176 The analgesic lacks anti-inflammatory action
a. Paracetamol
b. Ibuprofen
c. Piroxicam
d. Diclofenac
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Q177 Distinctive feature of Nimesulide is
a. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
b. It does not cause g astric irritation c. It is tolerated well by aspirin intolerant asthma patients
Q178 Bromohexine acts by
a. Suppress cough center
b. Depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides present in sputum
c. Rising the threshold of cough center
d. Desensitizing stretch receptors in the lungs
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