GRAND TEST-8
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy, India A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR-HYD
Sec: Sr.IPLCO_IC_ISB_LIIT Date: 30-04-16 Time:2.00 pm to 5.00 pm Max. Marks: 198
Name of the Student: ___________________ H.T. NO:
PAPER-2 30-04-16_ Sr.IPLCO_IC_ISB_LIIT _GTA-8(P2)_Weekend Syllabus
Mathematics : Total Syllabus
Physics : Total Syllabus
Chemistry : Total Syllabus
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JEE-ADVANCED-2012-P2-Model Time: 2:00 P.M to 5:00 P.M IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 198
PHYSICS:
Section Question Type +Ve
Marks - Ve
Marks No.of Qs Total marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 8) Questions with Single Correct
Choice 3 -1 8 24
Sec – II(Q.N : 9– 14) Questions with Comprehension Type (3 Comprehensions : 2+2+2 = 6Q)
3 -1 6 18
Sec – III(Q.N : 15 – 20) Questions with Multiple Correct
Choice 4 0 6 24
Total 20 66
CHEMISTRY:
Section Question Type +Ve
Marks - Ve
Marks No.of Qs Total marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 21 – 28) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 8 24
Sec – II(Q.N : 29 – 34) Questions with Comprehension Type (3 Comprehensions : 2+2+2 = 6Q)
3 -1 6 18
Sec – III(Q.N : 35 – 40) Questions with Multiple Correct
Choice 4 0 6 24
Total 20 66
MATHEMATICS:
Section Question Type +Ve
Marks - Ve
Marks No.of Qs Total marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 41 – 48) Questions with Single Correct
Choice 3 -1 8 24
Sec – II(Q.N : 49 – 54) Questions with Comprehension Type (3 Comprehensions : 2+2+2 = 6Q)
3 -1 6 18
Sec – III(Q.N : 55 – 60) Questions with Multiple Correct
Choice 4 0 6 24
Total 20 66
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PHYSICS: Max.Marks : 66
SECTION I
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. Figure shows an isolated system of two smooth spheres ‘A’ and ‘B’ at rest. mA= mB =
m ; 2RA=RB=R. Now an impulse is imparted to sphere A. Find the maximum value of impulse such that spheres ‘A’ does not looses contact with ‘B’.
I
A B
A) 3
3Gm
R B)
323Gm
R C)
343Gm
R D) Zero
2. Consider a hypothetical hydrogen like atom in which electrostatic potential between
electron and nucleus is given by 3
kVr
where k is a constant. If n be the principle
quantum number of the orbit, v = speed of the electron, r = radius of the orbit of electron. Assuming Bohr’s theory valid for this atom
A) 1r n B) 3r n C) 2r n D) 0r n 3. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and separation d between the plates. The
space between plates is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant k and resistivity .
The capacitor is initially charged to Q0 using a battery. After removing battery at t = 0,
current density in the dielectric at any time t is
A) 00
0
tkQ e
k A
B) 00
0
tkQ e
k
C) 00
02
tkQ e
k A
D) 00
0
2t
kQ ek
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4. A rod of mass m and length is held vertically on a smooth horizontally floor. When it
is released from this position, find the speed of its centre of mass when it makes angle
53º with the vertical
A) 96365
g B) 48365
g C) 26027
g D) None of these
5. In the figure shown a uniform ring of mass m is placed on a rough horizontal platform.
The coefficient of friction between left half of ring and table is 1 whereas between
right half and table is 2 . The ring has angular velocity in clockwise sense. Find the
magnitude of instantaneous acceleration of centre C of ring. Given2
1 20.6 , 0.2 10 /and g m s .
A) 24 /m s B) 22 /m s C) 21 /m s D) Zero
6. Figure shows a cylindrical space with a cylindrical cavity. Distance between their axis
is d. In this space (except cavity) uniform time varying magnetic field ( ,dB cdt
constant)
parallel to z-axis is present. In cylindrical cavity a small uniform rod (mass = m, length = l, charge = Q) is held at rest in x-y plane. Now rod in released. Instantaneous acceleration of rod is.
Z X
A) zero B) 2
Qcdm
C) Qcdm
D) 2Qcdm
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7. Figure shows two thin rectangular slabs of glass, cross section of one is rectangular and the other is triangular wedge shaped. A monochromatic light incident nearly normally on the slabs as shown in figure.
A) Fringes are obtain only in case (X)
B) Fringes are obtain only in case (Y)
C) In case (X) fringe pattern is uniform but in case (Y) fringe pattern is non uniform
D) In case (X) fringe pattern is non uniform but in case (Y) fringe pattern is uniform
8. An empty glass jar is submerged in tank of water with open mouth of the jar
downwards, so that air inside the jar is trapped and cannot get out. As the jar is pushed
down slowly, the buoyant force on the jar.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) Information is insufficient to draw any conclusion
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SECTION II Paragraph Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.11. Passage-1
In many nuclear probes a neutron or a proton is projected from a large distance towards the fixed target nucleus. The projectile need not be aimed directly towards the centre of the nucleus. Even if it is off by a certain distance called impact parameter b), the projectile may be captured by the nucleus. Crudely, we can say that it is captured if it reaches the edge of the nucleus. For this, maximum impact parameter b) for neutron is equal to the radius of the nucleus, for proton which is repelled by the nucleus, maximum impact parameter is less than the radius. But for a proton, the kinetic energy
of incident proton should be greater than 2
04Ze
R , (Z is atomic number and R is radius
of nucleus), otherwise proton (at a large distance from nucleus) will not reach the nucleus. If neutron or proton are used as a projectile, nuclear reaction may be triggered off.
R
b
9. In a certain situation, we have protons (at a large distance from nucleus) of energy2
0
0 06Z e
R . Here R0 is the radius of nucleus, being used and Z0 is its atomic number. It
will not be captured by this nucleus. We decide to choose a different nucleus as a target nuclei so that the proton with the same energy is captured by the nucleus?
A) nucleus with higher atomic number and same mass number B) nucleus with low atomic number and same mass number
C) nucleus with higher atomic number and low mass number
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D) nucleus with same atomic number and low mass number.
10. The impact parameter for protons with kinetic energy K (K is the KE when it is at a
large distance form nucleus) just to be captured
A) 2
0
14
zeRRK
B) 2
0
18
zeRRK
c) 2
0
14
zeRRK
D) 2
0
18
zeR
RK
Passage-2
A thin superconducting (zero resistance) ring is held above a, vertical long solenoid, The cylindrically symmetric magnetic field around the ring can be described approximately in terms of the vertical and radial component of the magnetic field vector as 0 1zB B z and 0rB B r , where 0 ,B and are constants, and z & r are vertical and radial position coordinates, respectively,
Initially, plane of the ring is horizontal, has no current flowing in it. When released, it starts to move downwards with its axis still vertical
Initial coordinates of the centre of the ring is z=0 and r=0. In the given diagram point O is on the axis and above the solenoid having vertical and
radial position coordinates as (0, 0). Ring has mass m radius 0r and self inductance L. Acceleration due to gravity is g.
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11. As ring moves some current will get induced in it. Find the magnitude of current in the ring at a vertical position z.
A) 20 0
1 B r ZL
B) 20 0
1 B r ZL
C) 20 0
12
B r ZL
D) 20 0
12
B r ZL
12. Due to current Lorentz force acting on ring at vertical position Z
A)2 2 4
0 0B r ZL
B)2 2 4
0 02 B r ZL
C)2 2 3
0 0B r ZrL
D)2 2 3
0 02 B r ZrL
Passage-3
A thin non conducting spherical shell of radius R has charge Q distributed uniformly on
its surface.
R
+Z
13. The sphere is set in rotation with constant angular velocity about z-axis. What is line integral of the magnetic field .B dl
along z-axis from to
A) 04Q
B) 02Q
C) 0
4Q
D) 0
2Q
14. Let sphere’s angular velocity increases linearly with time 0 kt Consider a very small circular coil placed at the centre of the sphere in xy-plane, assume that
coil spherer R and the normal to the plane containing the coil is along +z-axis. What is line
integral of electric field .E dl
along the closed coil.
A)2
0
6kr QR
B) 2
0
3kr QR
C) 2
03 kr QR
D) 2
06 kr QR
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SECTION III
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
15. Consider a travelling simple harmonic wave sin( )y A t kx on a string of mass per
unit length and tension T. Kinetic energy per unit length is given by 21
2kyut
and potential energy per .unit length is given by 21
2pyu Tx
Mark the correct options:
A) for a very small element ku and pu will change periodically with angular frequency
B)uk and up simultaneously attain their maximum and minimum values. C)total energy per unit length of a string is constant when a harmonic wave travels on it.
D)a very small element of string has zero potential energy when it is at its equilibrium position.
16. A series RLC circuit is activated by a ac source of variable frequency. ac source of
voltage VS volt as shown in the circuit. VRL and VC are the potential drops across RL
and C respectively. Select the incorrect statement(s)
A) At low frequency limit, both VRL and VC are proportional to VS
B) At high frequency limit VRL approaches VS.
C) At high frequency limit, both VRL and VC are proportional to VS
D) At low frequency limit VC approaches VS
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17. The angle of deviation vs angle of incidence (i) is plotted for a prism. Pick up the
correct statements.
A) The angle of prism is 60
0
B) The refractive index of the prism is 3n
C) For deviation to be 650 the angle of incidence 1 55i
D) The curve of ' ' vs ‘i’ is parabolic
18. X rays from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z shows strong K lines for target
A and weak K lines for impurities. The wavelength of K lines is z for target A and
1 and 2 for two impurities. 1
4z
and 2
14
z
. Screening constant of K lines to be
unity. Select the correct statement(s)
A) the atomic number of first impurity is 2z – 1 B) the atomic number of first impurity is 2z + 1
C) the atomic number of second impurity is 12
z
D) the atomic number of second impurity is 12z
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19. In one dimensional elastic collision between a given incoming body A of mass 1m and
another body B of mass 2m initially at rest
A) B will recoil with greatest speed if 2 1m m
B) B will recoil with greatest momentum if 2 1m m
C) B will recoil with greatest kinetic energy if 1 2m m
D) B will recoil with greatest kinetic energy if 2 12m m
20. A wave travels on a string. The equation of the wave in this string is
0sin 30Y A kx wt . At x=0 this string is connected to another uniform string which
is present for x>0. mass density of strings is different after that. Wave is reflected from
a joint. If 64 % of the incident energy is getting reflected. The equation of transmitted
wave (Yt) and reflected wave (Yr) may be. (K`=wave propagation constant for
transmitted wave, )
A) 00.6 sin ' 30tY A k x wt B) 1.8 sin ' 30tY A k x wt
C) 0.8 sin 150rY A kx wt D) 00.8 sin 30rY A kx wt
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CHEMISTRY: Max.Marks : 66
SECTION I
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. 21. If 2
2 HO HS S H O 0.86 H k Cal . Find H for ionization process of HS
A) +12.74 k Cal B) -12.74 k Cal C) -14.46 k Cal D) +14.46 k Cal
22. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?
20
|0.44 ; Fe Fe
E V 20
|0.25 ; Ni Ni
E V 30
|0.74 ; Cr Cr
E V 20
|2.37 ; Mg Mg
E V
P) Blocks of Mg are often strapped to the steel hulls of ships, since Mg prevents
corrosion by cathodic protection.
Q) Chrome plating on steel prevents corrosion by cathodic protection.
R) Nickel plating is suitable protective agent for corrosion of steel as long as no
scratch develops
A) P B) Q C) R D) PQR
23. Maximum KE of photo electrons is directly proportional to ____ of incident
radiations.
A) Intensity
B) wave length
C) wave number
D) number of photo electrons emitted per square cm.
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24. One of the products formed when 2 2 7K Cr O reacts with concentrated 2 4H SO in cold is.
A) 2 4 3Cr SO B) 2 3Cr O C) 3CrO D) 2 2CrO Cl
25. Reactivity of borazole is greater than benzene because.
A)Borazole is non-polar compound B)B-N bonds in borazole are polar
C)Bolazole is electron difficient compound D)Complete aromatic character.
26.
OOH
OH OH
OH
and
OOH
OH OH
OH
are
A)Epimers B)Enantiomers C)Diastereomers D)Homomers
27. o-Aminobenzoic acid is treated with NaNO2 and dil. H2SO4 in cold condition and the
resulting solution is then reacted with N, N-dimethylaniline to give a red coloured dye
called methyl red. The structure of methyl red is,
A) N N
COOH NMe2
B) N N
COOH Me2N
C) N N NMe2
COOH
D) N NHOOC NMe2
28. 25 mL of household bleach solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and
10 mL of 4N acetic acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48 mL of 0.25 N
2 2 3Na S O was used to reach the end point. The molarity of the household bleach
solution is
A) 0.48 M B) 0.96 M C) 0.25 M D) 0.24 M
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SECTION II Paragraph Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.11. Passage-1
Lead acid storage battery may be recharged after its usage. It consists of Pb anode
with coating of spongy lead, Pb with a coating of 2PbO , serves as cathode. 2 4H SO is
used as an electrolytic solution. 24 4 2 Pb SO PbSO e 0 0.31E V
22 4 4 24 2 2 PbO H SO e PbSO H O 0 1.70E V
29. During discharge of battery, which of the following statements are TRUE?
P) At anode and cathode respectively 2,Pb PbO are involved in the redox reaction
Q) Density and concentration of 2 4H SO decreases during discharging process
R) It needs no salt bridge since the oxidizing and reducing agents in both discharge
and recharge processes are solids.
S) Equivalent weight of 2 4H SO is 49 and that of 2H O is 18.
A) PQ B) PS C) PQR D) PQS
30. Find approximate energy obtained from lead storage battery in which 0.1 mole of lead
is consumed. Assume constant concentration of 2 4H SO to be 10m.
2.303 0.06; log 4 0.6 RT
F
A) 300 kJ B) 35 kJ C) 500 kJ D) 0.35 kJ
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Passage-2
A yellow ppt of the compound ‘A’ is formed on passing 2H S through neutral solution
of the salt ‘B’. The compound ‘A’ is soluble in hot dil. 3HNO but in soluble in yellow
ammonium sulphide. The solution ‘B’ on treatment with small quantity of 3NH gives
white precipitate soluble in excess of the reagent forming. Compound ‘C’ . The
solution of ‘B’ gives white precipitate with small amount of KCN solution. The
precipitate is soluble in excess of reagent forming compound ‘D’, which on passing
2H S gives ‘A’. The solution of B in dil. HCl gives a white precipitate ‘E’ with 2BaCl
which is insoluble in conc. 3HNO .
31. Which of the following cation is present in ‘B’ ?
A) 3As B) 3Sb C) 2Zn D) 2Cd
32. The anion present in ‘B’ is
A) 24SO B) 2
3CO C) 23SO D) 2S
Passage-3
CH3CH3
3
2 2
1.2. /
OMe S H O 11 12 2C H O
3
1.2.NaOHH O
11 14 3C H O 3
3
1. ( )2.
CH Li excessH O 13 20 2C H O
HBr
13 19C H OBrO
CH3 CH3CH3
CH3
Compound Q Compound R
Compound P
Compound S
Compound T
Compound U
NaH
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33. Which reaction is not found in the above scheme ?
A) Electrophilic addition B) Electrophilic substitution
C) Nucleophilic addition D) Nucleophilic substitution
34. Compound R is:
A)
O
OH
CH3
OHCH3
B)
OH
CH3
CH3
O
OH
C)
O
OH
OH
CH3
CH3
D)
OH
CH3
CH3
O
OH
SECTION III
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
35. Which of the following is/are TRUE ?
A) In NaCl crystal, each Na ion is touching 6 Cl ions but these Cl ions do not
touch each other.
B) In crystal lattices radius of tetrahedral void is smaller than octahedral void.
C) In NaCl crystal, / Na Clr r is greater than 0.414 required for exact fitting
D) No compound has both Schottky and Frankel defect
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36. Which of the following is/are TRUE ? A) When a sample of 2 4H SO is treated with an equal number of moles of strong base
such as NaOH , the sample of acid is half neutralized. B) When a sample of 2
Ba OH is treated with an equal number of moles of strong acid such as ,HCl half of the sample of base is completely neutralized.
C) n n ionisation of WBSA SB SA WBH H H
D) n nNaOH HF NaOH strong acid
H H
37. 2XeF on reaction with 2H gives
A) Xe B) HF C) 2XeH D) 4XeF
38. Which charge /s on the 2N molecule would give a bond order of 2.5.
A)+1 B)+2 C)-1 D)-2
39. Quinine is the most important alkaloid obtained from cinchona bark which is used to treat Malaria. The molecular formula of the compound is C20H24N2O2. It may contain
A) 5 double bonds and 3 rings B) 6 double bonds and 4 rings C) 6 double bonds and 2 rings D) 7 double bonds and 3 rings 40. How many of the following compound(s) doesn’t exhibit tautomerism ?
A)
O
CH3 CH3
B)
CH3 CH3
NO
C)
O
O
D)
NO
NO
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MATHS: Max.Marks : 66
SECTION I
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. 41. For r = 0, 1, ....., 10, let Ar, Br and Cr denote, respectively, the coefficient of xr in the
expansion of (1 + x)10, (1 + x)20 and (1 + x)30, then 10
rr 1
A (B10 Br – C10 Ar) is equal to
A) C10 – B10 B) 0 C) A10 (B102 – C10 A10) D) B10 – C10
42. M is the mid point of side AB of an equilateral triangle ABC. P is a point on BC such
that AP + PM is minimum. If AB = 20 then AP + PM is
A) 10 7 B) 10 3 C) 10 5 D) 10
43. If 9x + 1 + (a2 – 4a – 2)3x + 1 > 0 x R, then
A) a R B) a R+ C) a [1, ) D) a R {2}
44. sin2
__________2 20
2 52 3 4cos
dx IIf and I thenx
A)0 B)1 C)4 D)5
45. If the lengths of two perpendicular tangents from a point to a parabola are of 3 and 4
units and the length of latusrectum is K units, then [K]=---------
([.] represent greatest integer function)
A)2 B)4 C)8 D)10
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46. a , b, c are three real and distinct numbers and ‘a ’ is H.M of b and c. then one of the
solutions of 2 2 2 2ax bxy cy bx cxy ay d is
A)
2 2 2 2
,2 2
dc b c db b cx y
b b bc c c b bc c
B)
2 2 2 2
,2 2
da b c dc a cx y
c b bc c a b bc c
C)
2 2 2 2
,2 2
db b c db a cx y
c b bc c a b bc c
D)
2 2 2 2
,2 2
db b c dc a cx y
c b bc c a b bc c
47. If 1Cos SinCos Sin
then
3 3Cos SinCos Sin
_______
A) 1 B) 0 C) 4 D) ½
48. A person wishes to lay a straight fence across a triangular field ABC, with A B C
so as to divide it into two equal areas. The length of the fence with minimum expense,
is (where ‘ ’ represents, area of triangle ABC)
A) B2 cot2
B) C2 tan3
C) A B Ctan tan tan2 2 2
D) A2 tan2
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SECTION II
Paragraph Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.11. Passage-1
Consider a hyperbola 4xy and a line 2 4y x . O is centre of hyperbola. Tangent at
any point P of hyperbola intersect the co-ordinate axis at A and B.
49. Locus of circum centre of OAB is
A)an ellipse with eccentricity 12
B)an ellipse with eccentricity 13
C)a hyperbola with eccentricity 2 D) a circle
50. Let the given line intersect the x-axis at R. If a line through R intersect the hyperbola
at S and T, then the minimum value of RS RT is
A)2 B)4 C)6 D)8
Passage-2
The real valued functions 1 2 3, ,f x f x f x and 4f x are defined as
22 1
1 3 2
4 3
, 0 11 , 10 ,
x x f x f xf x x and f x f x
other wise f x f x
Answer the following questions
51. How many of the following products are necessarily zero for all x?
1 2 2 3 3 4. , . , .f x f x f x f x f x f x A)0 B)1 C)2 D)3
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52. The value of 10
1 2 3 40
f x f x f x f x dx is
A) 543
B) 553
C) 563
D) 573
Passage-3 All the 52 cards of a well shuffled pack of playing cards are distributed equally or
unequally among 4 players named P1, P2, P3 & P4 .
For i = 1, 2, 3, 4, let
i = number of ace(s) given to Pi
i = number of black card(s) given to Pi
i = number of red card(s) given to Pi
i = number of diamond(s) given to Pi
53. The probability that i 1 i = 1, 2, 3, 4, is
A) 13C4 × 13
4!4
B) [224 + 3 × 212 – 313 – 1]/224
C) [134 – 4C1 124 + 4C2 114 – 4C3 104 + 4C4 94]/134
D) 1 – 4(3/4)13 – 6 (1/2)13 – (1/4)12
54. If i + i = 13 i = 1, 2, 3, 4 then the probability that i = 1 i = 1, 2, 3, 4, is
A) 54 72 /134 B) 3
2 2
1317 7 5
C) 34 132 /174 27 D) 3 2
4
7 313
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SECTION III Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
55. Let f(x).g(x) be differentiable at x = a and g(x) is also differentiable at x = a then
A) f(x) must be diff. at x = a
B) if f(x) is non diff. then g(a) = 0
C) if g(a) 0 then f(x) must be differentiable
D) if f(x) is discontinuous then g(a) = 0
56. 2 2
1 tA t ,t 1 t 1
. If A (a), A (b) and A(c) are the vertices of equilateral triangle then
(where a,b,c > 0)
A) minimum value of a2 + b2 + c2 is 3.
B) area of the triangle is 2 2 2
a b b c c a12 a 1 b 1 c 1
C) area of the triangle is 3 316
D) centroid of the triangle lies on a line parallel to y-axis
57. The value of the determinant cos( ) sin( ) cos 2
sin cos sincos sin cos
is
A) independent of for all R B) independent of and when = 1 C) independent of and when = 1 D) independent of for all
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58. In a triangle ABC, perpendiculars drawn from vertices A, B, C meet the opposite sides
BC, CA, AB at D, E, F respectively, triangle DEF is completed. The perimeter of
triangle DEF is greater than or equal to 3 3 r, where r is in-radius of triangle ABC.
Also r 3 and perimeter of triangle ABC is 18. Then
(A) triangle ABC is right angled
B) triangle ABC is equilateral
C) area of triangle ABC is 9 3
D) ratio of area of triangle ABC to triangle DEF is 4 : 1 59. Let z1 and z2 be two distinct complex numbers and let w = (1 – t)z1 + tz2 for some real
numbers t with 0 < t < 1. If Arg (z) denotes the principal argument of a non–zero complex number z, then
A) |w – z1| + |w – z2| = |z1 – z2| B) Arg (w – z1) = Arg (w – z2)
C) 1 1
2 1 2 1
w z w z0
z z z z
D) Arg (w – z1) = Arg (z2 – z1)
60. Let :f R R such that '2 2 4 , 0 0.f x y f x f y xy x y R and f If
1 0 2
1 2 30 1 1/2
, ,I f x dx I f x dx and I f x dx then
A) 1 2 3I I I B) 1 2 3I I I C) 1 2 3I I I D) 1 2 3I I I