HATGa/Ministry of Railways H ta. TTR AS/Central Railway, Solapur Division Divisional Railway Manager's Office, Personnel Department, Solapur Division Dated 16/04/2021 No. SUR/P/Engg/JE(Wks)Dept/Notification/01 Sr. DEN (Co) SUR, DEN (C), (N), (S), ADEN/KLBG, SUR (T) (W), KwV, LUR, PVR, ANG NOTIFICATION Sub: Filling up of vacancies of Junior Engineer (Works) Pay Band Rs.4200 GP Level 6 against 25% Departmental quota in Engineering Department. Ref: Rly. Bd's Lr. No. E (NG) 1-2007/PM5/5 dated 29.10.2014. and SPO/CSMT's L No. P/HQ/Ruling/O/803 dated 11/05/2018 *********** It is proposed to conduct the Selection for the post of JEWorks in Matrix Level-6 against 25% Deptt. Quota in Civil Engineering Department of Solapur Division. The assessment is as under, Total 06 GL SC ST 04 02 00 The Selection will be conducted by promotion amongst Sr. Technicians including Technicians Gr-I who may be senior to St. Technicians by virtue of operation of earlier scheme in which the post of Sr. Technician (erstwhile MCM) was treated as personal to incumbent. In the event of adequate number not being found from amongst these staff eligibility may be extended to cover Technicians Gr. I also. (RB's L. No. E(NG)I-2004/PM5/8 dated 28/06/2006 RBE No. 86/2006. On the basis by conducting written test The Question paper will be 100 Objective Type.10 optional questions pertaining to Raj- bhasha (Total 110 questions for 2 hours). All the questions will be multiple choice only. Examination may be conducted in CBT mode or pen and paper depending on availability. As per RBE No. 196/2018 dated 14/12/2018, cutting, overwriting, erasing or alteration of any type in the answer will not be accepted. Zero mark will be given for the answver having correction/overwriting and RBE No. 194/2019 dated 14/11/2019 & HQ letter no. PIHO/ Ruling/O/803 dtd. 19.12.2018, There Will be no negative marking in selection against departmental quota Ref. No. E(NG)U/2018/PM I14 dt. 14.11.2019. The list of employees eligible for written test is enclosed in Annexure 'A & B Contd...2
Sub: Filling up of vacancies of Junior Engineer (Works) Pay Band Rs.4200 GP
Level 6 against 25% Departmental quota in Engineering Department.
Ref: Rly. Bd's Lr. No. E (NG) 1-2007/PM5/5 dated 29.10.2014. and SPO/CSMT's
L No. P/HQ/Ruling/O/803 dated 11/05/2018 ***********
It is proposed to conduct the Selection for the post of JEWorks in Matrix Level-6 against
25% Deptt. Quota in Civil Engineering Department of Solapur Division.
The assessment is as under, Total
06 GL SC ST
04 02 00
The Selection will be conducted by promotion amongst Sr. Technicians including
Technicians Gr-I who may be senior to St. Technicians by virtue of operation of
earlier scheme in which the post of Sr. Technician (erstwhile MCM) was treated as
personal to incumbent. In the event of adequate number not being found from
amongst these staff eligibility may be extended to cover Technicians Gr. I also.
(RB's L. No. E(NG)I-2004/PM5/8 dated 28/06/2006 RBE No. 86/2006. On the basis
by conducting written test
The Question paper will be 100 Objective Type.10 optional questions pertaining to Raj- bhasha (Total 110 questions for 2 hours). All the questions will be multiple choice only.
Examination may be conducted in CBT mode or pen and paper depending on
availability.
As per RBE No. 196/2018 dated 14/12/2018, cutting, overwriting, erasing or alteration of
any type in the answer will not be accepted. Zero mark will be given for the answver
having correction/overwriting and RBE No. 194/2019 dated 14/11/2019 & HQ letter no.
PIHO/ Ruling/O/803 dtd. 19.12.2018, There Will be no negative marking in selection
against departmental quota Ref. No. E(NG)U/2018/PM I14 dt. 14.11.2019.
The list of employees eligible for written test is enclosed in Annexure 'A & B Contd...2
The program for selection is as under
Tentative programn Tentative Date
Description Date of issue of notification
Date by which applications to be submitted to 05/05/2021 Depot In charges/Officer in charge of Depot.
16/04/2021
Date of submission of applications received at 13/05/2021
Depot to be forwarded by the Depot In charge/
Officer in charge to this Office in one lot.
Pre-promotional Training to SCIST employees 25/05/2021 Tol6/06/2021
Date of Main Written Test
Date of Supplementary Written Test if required 23/06/2021 at DRM Office SUR
It will be fixed if necessary
The main Written Examination for the above suitability will be held on 23/06/2021 at
10:00 hrs in DRM's Office P/Branch Solapur. The staff concerned may be advised regarding the above suitability accordingly, the
employee should report at 09:30 hrs on the date without fail with the proper bearer letter along with photograph duly attested by the Controlling Officer. Depot in charge leave of any kind be granted to the employees on the date of Written test. If any employee is on leave sick list he should be specifically informed regarding the above test at his address by deputing a special messenger and acknowledgement obtained in writing.
Reporting time for examination Time of last entry of candidates for exam Examination Time
The scheduled time of the above examination is as under;
10: 00 hrs | 10: 55 hrs 11:00 to 13:00 hrs
"After last entry time no candidates will be allowed in the examination hall."
The employee who remained absent on main written test will be allowed in
Supplementary Writen Test with valid reasons ( if under Sick of Railway Doctor). The concerned Officer/incharge should ensure that all the eligible employees are directed for written test on date an in time and with proper bearer letter as per Annexure 'C& D'
The syllabus & Question Bank for written examination for the above suitability is
enclosed as Annexure 'D' for ready reference. Instructions to the candidates to be strictly followed during the written test
1. Candidates should not keep bags, books, notes, calculators, mobile phones, electronic watches, etc. with them. Mobile phones should be switched off and handed over to the Invigilator before entering the examination hall. Cell phone, any electronic gadget if found in possession of candidate he will be debarred.
Contd...3
2. Candidates can use blue/black ball point pen only. Gel Pen /Pencil or ball point
pen with other colors such as red, pink green etc. o highlighters and sketch pens are not allowed. Do not put stray marks anywhere on the OMR Sheets.
3. Candidates should check the page numbers on the Question Booklets
immediately after opening of the Booklet if any short coming are noted same to be reported t Invigilator.
4. Candidates should write their Name, Roll No. in the OMR sheet, in the space provided for them. If it is found that the Name Roll No. or any sign marking of any kind what-s0-ever appears on the OMR sheet in another space than
prescribed the candidate will stand disqualified. 5. Candidates should carefully fill up all the necessary particulars in OMR sheet.
Change of OMR sheet is not permissible. 6. Candidates should not write their name, initial, designation, signature, address or
any other identification anywhere else on the OMR sheet, as this will disqualify them. They should not draw any symbol or sign as SHRI GANESHAYA NAMAHA, HARI OM, OM, SHRI SWAMI SAMARTH, etc. on their answer sheet. They should use same colored ink, i.e. blue or black, for writing the answers. (any one color)
7. No. candidate should converse with the other candidates during the examination. 8. Candidates should collect their relieving letter after handling over their answer
sheets. 9. OMR, sheets of candidates found indulging in malpractices like cheating, using
unauthorized materials, tampering the sheets will be confiscated immediately and will not be evaluated. Such candidates will be taken up under DAR and the penalty imposed would generally be not less than for 3 years.
10.If any ambiguity in Hindi version, English version is to be considered authentic.
This letter should be got noted by the concerned individual employee immediately and the acknowledgement be sent to this Office for record.
Note Railway Board vide letter date 10/09/2014 have instructed that wherever the vacancies remain unfilled in promotion quota the same will be carried forward to LDCE/GDCE quota if any and the unfilled vacancies of LDCE/GDCE will be carried forward to direct recruitment quota to next year selection. In case there is no LDCE/GDCE for the post the unfilled vacancies may be diverted to direct recruitment quota of the upcoming year.
04435035 Dharamligam A Sr. Tech. Blacksmith |LUR UR 0801/1963 0101 1987 14 122020
Annexure 'C' Photo with
To, Attestation of DRM(P)Engg, SUR Controlling Officer
Sub: Application for the post of JEWorks in Engg Dept., Level-6 against 25% Dept.
Per Bearer 1 Name
2 Designation
3 P.F No.
4 Station
5 Grade Rs
6 Date of Birth
7 Date of Appointment as regular
8 Caste/Zerox copy must be attached
9 Education qualification/Zerox Copy must be attached
10 Willingness to the post
I hereby declare that the above information is correct.
Signature of employee
The information given by the employee is verified and found correct. The application of above named employee ls forwarded herewith for further necessary action please.
Placel Controlling ADEN's Office stamp
Date
Annexure 'D To, DRM(P)Engg, SUR
Sub:- Willing/Unwilling for JE/Works 25% Deptt. Quota in Civil Engineering Department.
*****
I Designation/Stn hereby stating that I am willing/ Unwilling for appearing for the selection of 25% Departmental quota of JE/Works against Notification dated 16/04/2021
Signature P.F. No
Date
The information given by the employee is verified and found correct. The Willing/Unwilling of the above named employee is forwarded herewith for further necessary action Please.
Place Office stamp Date
Controlling ADEN's Sign.
SYLABUS FOR SELECTTON FOR THE POST OF JE(WORKS), (LEVEL-6) GP-4200
. The procedure followed in ADEN's workshop for estimating the previous jot undertaken and the various forms used for the purpose of arriving at the cost the job including the staff and stores CE's Circular No.120.
2. Entering measurement of work done by Contractors and preparatian Contractors bills.
3. a) Procedure to be followed for keeping account of stores received for sanctione vworks.
) Precautions to be taken for storage of bullding materials. 4. Knowledge of Way & Works manual and CE's Circulars in regard to executionc
works incduding specification. S ecaraion of simple plans & estimates for small proposals which are developed
a the divisional level on request being made by another department such as
Construction of sub-statilon or extension to an office building etc. 6 a) Frecautions to be observed in supervising a building Work, bcge work and earth works entrusted to the Contractors induding setting ou
c works 6)ecautions while carrying out the works under traffic.
7. Sne general knowledge of the various labour laws such as payment of wrages a orkmen's compensation act/minimum wages act and incustrial drsputes at
apicee to the tabour that normally work under JE (Works). & Decicn of powers in respect of disciplinary action and the procedure invokve Fcing punishment to the staff.
S. Sese Cvi Engineering Works, execution practices, BIS Code specification.
Question Bank for JE (Works)
1. The horizontal tunnels constructed at shallow depths along the banks of a river
to intercept the ground water table are called a) Canals b) Infilteration galleries c) springs d)Lakes
2. A pipe sunk into the ground to top the underground water is called
a) Open well b) tube well c) artisian well d) infilteration well.
3. The water bearing strata i.e. layers of sand gravel etc is called
a) An acqulfer b)an aquiclude c) an acquifuge d) zone of saturation
4. Runoff is the water which flows a) In infilteration galleries b) In sever pipes c) Due to leakage of pipes d) In rivers
5. The yield of a underground source may be obtained by a) Pumping test b) Recupating test c) Both a and b d) None of these
6. The amount of water collected in a reservoir is divided into three portions and
their order of existence from bottom to the top is a) Useful storage, surcharge storage, dead storage
b) Useful storage, dead storage, surcharge storagec) Dead storage, useful storage, surcharge storage
d) None of the above.
7. In India as per lIndian standards, water consumption per capita per day for
domestic purpose is
a) 85 lit b) 100 lit c) 115 lit d) 135 lit
8. Which of the following formula is used for computing the quantity of water for
fire demand a) Freeman's formula b) Kuichling formula c) Buston's formula d) All of these.
9. The design period for a water supply project is taken as a) 5 to 10 years b) 10 to 15 years c)15 to 20 years d) 20 to 30 years
10. For large cites, the suitable method for forecasting population is
a) Arithmetical increase method b) Graplurd method
c) Geometrical increase method
d) Comparative method.
11.The presence of bacteria in water causes
a) Hardness b) Alkalinity c) Diseases d) Bad taste.
12. The finely divided dispersion of solid particles which are not visible to the naked
eye and cannot be removed by ordinary filters are known as
a) Suspended impurities b) Dissolved impurities c) Collidal impurities d) None of these.
13. The presence of sodium chloride in water
a) Causes bad taste
b) Softens the water c)Increase hardness of water d) Stops epidemic
14.Turbidity of water is expressed in terms of a) Silica scale
b) Platinum cobalt scale c) Ph value d) None of these
15. The maximum permissible chloride content in water for domestic supplies
should not exceed
a) 250 ppm b) 350 ppm c) 450 ppm d) 550 ppm
16. The maximum permissible chloride content for public supplies should be
between a) 0.1 to 0.2 ppm
b) 0.3 to 0.4 ppm c) 1.2 to 4 ppm
d) 6.5 to 8 ppm
17. The bacteria which require oxygen for their survival is known as
a) Anaerobic bacteria b) Pathogenic bacteria c)Aerobic bacteria d Non pathogenic bacteria
18.Bio chemical oxygen demand (BOD) of safe dinking water must be a) 0b) 10 c) 50 d) 100
19. In plain sedimentation tank, under normal conditions, impurities are removed
upto a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d0 80%
20. The most common coagulant is
a) Magnesium sulphate b) alum c) chlorine d) bleaching powder
2
a) A sewer drop from a height b) A branch sewer discharges into a main sewer at a higher level c) Both a and b d) None of these
34.A pipe used to cary discharge from sanitary fitings like bathrooms, kitchens etc
is called a) waste pipe b) soil pipe c) vent pipe d) Anti siphonage pipe
35. For large sewers, the maximum distance between manholes should be a) 75m b) 150m c) 200m d) 300m
36.The fundamental principle of surveying is to work from the a) Whole to the part b) Part to the whole c) Lower level to higher level d) Higher level to lower level
37.The representative fraction 1/2500 means that the scale is a) 1 cm= 0.25 m b) 1 cm = 2.5 m
c) 1 cm = 25 m
d) 1 cm= 250 m 38. The instrument attached to the wheel of a vehicle in order to measure the
distance travelled is called a) Passometer b) Pedometer c) Odometer
d) speedometer 39. The error in measured length due to sag in chain or tape is known as
a) Positive error b) Negative error
c)Compensating error d) Instrumental error
40.A line joining the apex of a triangle to some fixed point on the opposite side is called a a) Check line b) Tie line c) Base line d) None of these
41.The optical square is used to measure angles by a) Refractior b) Reflection c) Double refraction d) Double reflection
4
21. Slow sand filter is efficient to remove the bacteria from the raw water to an extent of
22.The yield of a rapid sand filter is
10 times
a) 50% b) 70% c) 85% -- to that of slow sand fiter
d) 99%
a) b) 15 timees c) 20 times d) 30 times
23.The apparatus used for feeding chlorine into water is called
a) Chlorine tank b) Aeration foundation
c) Chlorinator
d) None of these.
24. When the chlorine is added beyond the break point, the process of treating the
water is known as
a) Plain chlorination
b) Post chlorination
c) Dechlorination
d) Super chlorination
25.The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is
a) 20 to 25% b) 25 to 30% c) 30 to 35% d) 35 to 40%
26.The minimum size of a fire hydrant is a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15cm d) 20 cm
27. The valve which allows the water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in
the reverse direction is known as
a) Sluice valve b) Reflux valve
c)Air relief valve d) Pressure relief valve
28. For the sewers of diameter less than 600 m the type of joint prepared is
a) spigot and socket joint b) collar joint c) bandage joint d) mechanical joint
29. The minimum dia of a manhole cover should be
a) 25cm b) 50cm c) 75cm d) 100cm
30.The minimum dissolved oxygen required in water to save the acquatic life is a)
c) 4 ppm d)8 ppm 1 ppm b) 2 ppm
31.In preliminary treatment of sewage, the operation which takes place, is
a) Removal of fine suspended paricles
b) Removal of fine dissolved organic matter
c) Removal of lighter floating material
d) Removal of harmful bacterias and other organisms
32. The sewage is treated by aerobic bacteria action in
a) seting tank b) trickling filter c)oxidation pond d) all of these
