INTRODUCTION TO CRITICAL REASONING - CONSTRUCTION OF AN ARGUMENT

Structure of an Argument

A premise is a statement, fact or evidence, stated in the passage, which is presumed to be true in the context of the passage. Premises are explicitly stated.

When a premise is not stated, or the author has taken it for granted, it becomes an assumption.A conclusion is an opinion or an assertion that the author wants to prove, using premises and assumptions.

An inference is a logical certainty that can be derived from facts presented in the argument.

Divide the argument given below into its constituent premises and conclusion.

Premise 1: It is the teacher who is most crucial to the academic success of an average student.Premise 2: Administrators only provide external support to teachers and students.Conclusion: Teachers need to be paid at least as much as if not greater than administrators at all levels.

Identify the assumption in the argument given below.

Premise: The opposition candidate is the most experienced of all candidates contesting the election.Missing Premise/Assumption: Experience is the only pre-requisite for the job.Conclusion: The opposition candidate is the best person for the job

Draw possible inferences from the statements given below.Premise 1: Orion Inc. experienced a 25% increase in the sales following a major innovation inproduct design.Premise 2: Despite this increase, pro!ts though have by fallen by 10%.Inference: Orion Inc.‘s costs have risen by 60%.If sales increase by 25% and costs also increase by 25% then pro"ts should increase by 25%.If sales increase by 25% and costs remain the same then pro"ts should increase by 50%.So, if sales increases the 25% and pro"ts remain the same, costs should have increased by 50%.Since, sales increased by 25% and pro"ts decreased by 10% costs should have increased by 60%.CATapult!9 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-5PRACTICE EXERCISE1.Premise 1: Alcohol advertising plays a crucial role in in causing teenagers to start or continue alcoholconsumption.Premise 2 (Evidence) : In Malaysia , however, where there has been a ban on alcohol advertising since 1995,consumption of alcohol, is at least as prevalent among teenagers as it is in countries that do not ban suchadvertisingConclusion: Alcohol advertising cannot be the only factor that a#ects the prevalence of alcoholconsumption among teenagers.Option (1) is incorrect as it cannot be said that alcohol advertising plays no role. Also there is no informationabout the level of consumption of alcohol in Malaysia post the ban. It is only said that the level is the same asin countries without the ban. Options (3) and (4) do not follow from the premises. Hence, (2).2.Premise 1 (Evidence): Young adults these days heavily use social networking websites and instant messaging.Conclusion: Technology is threatening to make us less human.Assumption: Interactions made over websites and instant messaging aren’t as human as “real”, physical

interactions.The experts say that young adults have been using social networking websites and messaging to stay intouch. This they argue makes them less human. But if these means were as human as physical interactionstheir argument would fail. Hence, (1) is an important assumption made by the psychiatrists. (2) is wrong asthe passage only talks about speci!c websites and not the whole internet. (3) is wrong as the thoughts ofnon-American psychiatrists aren't mentioned. (4) doesn't matter as the past views of these experts aren'trelated to the current argument. Hence, (1).3.Premise 1 (Evidence): Sierra Inc., an automobile company , increased it’s turnover by 20% over the previous!nancial year.Premise 2 (Evidence) : During the same period its market share fell by 5 percentage points.Inference: The automobile market grew by more than 20%.Despite sales growing by 20%, market share fell by 5%. It means that the market grew at greater than 20%.(1)and (2) bring pro!ts into the picture which has nothing to do with market share. Option (4) is incorrectsince the exact rate at which the market grew can be determined only by knowing the precise !gures and Critical Reasoning - Question Types

OBJECTIVE• To familiarize test-takers with the di!erent Critical Reasoning Question Types, other thanAssumption, Inference & Conclusion Type.• To enable the test-takers to apply di!erent strategies to solve each of the Question Types.• To enable test-takers to identify fallacious reasoning that might appear as part of arguments.METHODOLOGY• Take up each Question Type for discussion one at a time - give the student 2 min. to read and solvethe question, discuss the Question Type and Strategy to solve it and demonstrate how to apply thestrategy to the particular question.• Take up each Concept Builder of Section II one at a time - ask the student to read the argument andidentify the fallacy in the argument, explain the fallacy and how it appears in the questions.• Section III, the Practice Exercise, can be solved as a single set or a few questions at a time , dependingon your discretion.

Critical Reasoning - Question TypesStrengthen QuestionsStrategyDi!erentiate between options that are related to the argument and those that clearly strengthen orweaken the argument.Reject options that are only related to the argument (neither strengthening nor weakening it) ingeneral.Reject options that do not speci"cally strengthen the conclusion in the argument with additional

evidence.Explanation: The argument is that social software can be used for business performance improvement. So tostrengthen it, the option must show how social software can add to business performance improvement.Option (1) does not strengthen the argument since it says how social software should be used not how it isuseful. Option(2) is incorrect since it talks about why its bene"ts are not known and not its bene"ts per se.Option (3) shows how employees can bene"t from using social software thus strengthening the argument.Option (4) indirectly casts doubts on social software instead of supporting it. Hence, (3).Weaken QuestionsStrategyClearly identify the line of reasoning used, X causes Y or X will improve Y etc.Choose options that invalidate this line of reasoning. For example, If X then Y, is weakened by X butno Y and not Y but no X.Identify reasoning fallacies committed in the argument (discussed in the next section)Explanation: The argument says only usage of mobile phones causes attention de"cit, or Only X is Y, where Xis mobile phone usage and Y is attention de"cit. Only X is Y does not mean All X is Y; (1) makes this mistakeand tries to weaken it by showing Some X is not Y. Only X is Y means that All Y is X; to weaken this it should beshown that Some Y is not X; (2) does this. (3) and (4) are only indirectly related to the argument and do notweaken them in anyway. Hence, (2).Parallel Reasoning QuestionsStrategyConvert the whole argument into a simple one-line statement. For example, it is ok to do X sinceeven if I do not do it someone else will do it.Try to "t each of the options into the one line statement that mirrors the logic of the paragraph.Reject options that do not "t into to the one-line statement.Explanation: The argument is of the following form: A cannot ask me not to do X in order to decrease Y, sinceA himself is responsible for causing Y. It can be seen that only (4) can "t into the form of reasoning theargument uses. Hence, (4).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8 2!Explain/Resolve QuestionsStrategyClearly de"ne the two premises that are contradictory. For example, X is supposed to cause anincrease in Y but it is causing a decrease in Y.Look for options that clearly o!er an explanation for the paradoxical relationship between the twopremises.More often the correct option is related to the way X and Y have been de"ned or generallyunderstood.Explanation: The paradox: CEOs (executives) say that talent is their top requirement; yet employees feel thatthe workplace environment is killing their talent. So the problem lies either in the CEO’s interpretation of

talent or the employees’ evaluation of the workplace environment. (1) best explains the paradox, CEO’s focuson hiring talent but not on talent development, which is why employees feel that their talent is being killed.(2) diverts the issue by talking about pay and does address the talent paradox . (3) states that the Dilbert andThe O!ce are exaggerations but that does not mean that the paradox does not exist. (4) makes ageneralization about most employees; also the paradox is not that their superiors do not recognize theirsubordinates’ talent but that the workplace environment does not foster or harness it, which it is supposedto do if talent was a top priority. Hence, (1).Flawed ReasoningStrategyLook for the reasoning fallacies listed in the next section.Explanation: The argument makes the mistake of assuming that the people who purchase the product arethe same people who use the product. Adults might be the main purchasers of ice-creams but theconsumers can be their children at home; similarly men can be the main purchasers of diamonds but womenwill be the main users. (3) identi"es this #aw. The rest of the options do not precisely capture this #aw ofreasoning. Hence, (3).CATapult!3 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8Critical Reasoning - FallaciesA majority of Critical Reasoning questions fall into the “Weaken” category. All of these question types willinvolve arguments that are logically unsound because of their use of fallacious reasoning. The following arethe common fallacies that will be part of faulty arguments or incorrect answer options.Correlation-CausationStudies have shown that women who were taking combined Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) also had alower-than-average incidence of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD). Leading doctors now propose that HRT isprotective against CHD.An argument which concludes based on the simultaneous occurrence of two events X and Y, that X causes Ycommits the fallacy of Correlation-Causation. Such line of reasoning ignores the fact that• another factor Z could have caused X or• the reverse causation can be true, Y causes X or• there can be a common cause for both X and YIn other words, correlation does not imply causation.A typical question to such an argument would be:Which of the following would most seriously weaken the claim made above?• Studies showed that women undertaking HRT were more likely to be from higher social class withbetter than average diet and exercise regimes.The use of HRT and decreased incidence of coronary heart disease were coincident e!ects of a commoncause (i.e. the bene"ts associated with a higher socioeconomic status), rather than cause and e!ect as hadbeen supposed.Post Ergo Propter Hoc

The stock markets in the country crashed immediately after the results of the election were declared. It is evidentthat the markets are not in favour of the new government that the people have elected.This is the fallacy of after this therefore because of this. An argument which concludes, based on theconsecutive occurrence of two events X and Y, that X causes Y commits the fallacy of Post Ergo Propter Hoc.The fallacy lies in concluding that since Y happened after X, X has caused Y. Such line of reasoning ignoresthe fact that• another factor Z could have caused XA typical question to such an argument would be:Which of the following would most seriously weaken the claim made above?• Stock markets across the world crashed because of the o$cial announcement by the world’s largesteconomy that it had gone into a recession.CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8 4!Hasty GeneralizationMy uncle smoked all his life and never su"ered from a single stroke or lung disease ; he died at ninety when he gothit by a truck, so smoking is not as injurious as it is made out to be.Such arguments conclude things based on evidence that is not representative of the whole group. They areusually arguments that are tested on the Flawed Reasoning question type.Circular ReasoningDemocracy, government elected by a majority vote, is the best form of government since a majority of peopleacross the world have voted for democracy as their favoured form of governance.This is a fallacy where the argument uses the conclusion to prove itself. It usually appears as arguments thatare tested on the Flawed Reasoning question type.Incorrect ComparisonIt is safer to #y a plane than to drive a motorbike since there are fewer airplane accidents than motorbikeaccidents.Not comparing two similar things or using the wrong metric for measurement is another logical fallacy. Inthe given example, the correct metric to use is the percentage of airplane accidents vis-a-vis motorbikeaccidents.In the Flawed Reasoning question type discussed earlier, the argument equates purchasers with users.Ad HominemHis demands for raising the taxes do not make any economic sense; anyways he himself lives in a luxury house.This is a form of argument in which an argument tries to refute another argument by attacking the arguerrather than the argument itself.CATapult!5 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8PRACTICE EXERCISE1. RSM claims that it has a higher average salary than FBS. FBS says that more students of FBS(whencompared to RSM) "nd jobs that cover their cost of tuition, which is equal to its average salary. The

tuition cost is the same at both institutes. The argument says that one of the claims must be false. Sinceboth colleges have the same cost tuition say X, and RSM has a higher average salary, say Y, then it cannotbe that more FBS students get jobs that cover their cost of tuition.The #aw in the argument is that it ignores the fact that the higher average salary of RSM can be due to afew students getting disproportionately high salary and many students getting salaries well below theaverage. The average number of centuries in the Indian team will be very high because of SachinTendulkar, but it does not mean that most players’ number of centuries is close to the average.At the same time, many students of FBS may have gotten salaries that are close to the average salary,hence covering their cost of tuition.Only option (4) captures this. Option (3) brings in cost of living, which is not related to the argument.Option (2) brings in number of students, which does not resolve the paradox. Option (1) o!ers ageneralization and does not make a speci"c point. Hence, (4).2. The lower costs of organic farming are o!set by lower yields, the amount of produce per acre. Option (3)supports the claim that organic farming will be pro"table by providing evidence that many consumersare willing to pay a higher price for it. Option (1) does not support the pro"tability claim but only saysthat many countries are taking it up. Option (4) is irrelevant since organic farming does not usepesticides. Option (2) is irrelevant to the pro"tability of organic farming. Hence, (3).3. The question poses the following anomaly (a situation that violates a general rule or principle) : Unlikeregular goods, for Veblen goods a price increase results in an increase in demand, even though the productremains the same.The option, which o!ers the best explanation for the anomaly outlined here is (2); it states that the mainindicator of quality for consumers of Veblen goods is price: the higher the price, the better the quality.The rest of the options are related to Veblen goods but do not speci"cally o!er an explanation for theanomalous relationship between price and demand.4. The plan of a certain municipality is to ban the sale of plastic goods for which paper substitutes existsince the latter are biodegradable and hence environmentally friendly. The key element is that the ban isonly on the sale of plastic goods and not on the purchase and use of plastic goods. Option (3) states thatsince townspeople prefer plastic goods to paper goods, they are likely to buy them from neighbouringtowns where they are available, which will defeat the entire purpose of the ban. Option (2) only says thatthe environmental bene"t of not using plastic goods was only visible after many years; this does not castdoubts on the e!ectiveness of the plan since it is environment friendly. Option (1) supports the plan.Option (4) does not relate to the e!ectiveness of the plan. Hence, (3).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8 6

!5. The argument is that starting "tness programs will reduce absentee rate since studies have shown thatemployees who exercise take fewer sick leaves. Option (2) weakens the argument since it shows that theemployees who are frequently absent are the ones who are least likely to join a corporate "tnessprogram ; if this is true then the introduction of "tness programs will not reduce absentee rate since onlythe employees who are already regular are likely to use the program. Options (1), (3) and (4) do notweaken the argument since they are not related to the absentee rate. The argument is solely about theabsentee rate and not about productivity, duration of lunch hours or sleeping for short durations.Hence, (2).6. The argument has the following structure: There is nothing called non-X; even acts which have nothingto do directly with X are indirectly related to it.There is nothing that is unsel"sh (sel"sh being something from which one derives some bene"t); evenacts of philanthropy, where one helps others, give the donor mental satisfaction. So while the bene"tmight not be tangible, it still exists, making even philanthropy an unsel"sh act.The argument that most mirrors this is option (2): There is no apolitical act; even not having anything towith politics or abstaining from voting is a political act of expressing one’s preference, since politics isabout making a certain choice with respect to collective decision-making.All the rest of the options are not in the non-X format. Option (3) is close but incorrect since possessing"rearms is directly related to using or not using "rearms, unlike philanthropy or abstaining from thepolitical process. Hence, (2).7. The argument takes the correlation between two events, not socializing and depression and concludesthat the former causes the latter, committing the error of correlation-causation, which is generallyweakened by showing a di!erent cause, common cause or reverse causation.Option (1) is incorrect since the fact that some extroverts also su!er from depression does not weakenthe evidence that introverts are more likely to be depressed; the argument does not say that onlyintroverts are depressed. It only says that they are more likely to be depressed. Option (2) indirectlysupports the argument. Option (3) just says that anti-depressants increase energy levels thus stimulatingoutdoor activity; it does not say that lack of extraversion causes depression. Option (4) shows reversecausation, thus directly weakening the argument; it is depression which triggers introverted behaviourand not the other way round. Hence, (4).8. The discrepancy in the argument is with respect to a particular company’s stock price not falling with afall in pro"ts, which is usually the case. The correct option should provide the reason for this discrepancy.Since there is no information about the stock price of its competitors, option (1) does not shed light on

the reason for the discrepancy. By the general principle, the company’s stock price should have fallenthe least with respect to its competitors. Options (3) and (4) are related to the general state of theautomobile industry as such and do not provide the reason for the discrepancy.Option (2) states that the company’s long-term prospects are good and the decrease in pro"ts is not dueto a fall in sales but due to additional investment. Thus, stock prices in this particular case do not re#ectthe state of the company based on its pro"ts but on its long-term pro"ts. Hence, (2).9. The argument is that to achieve X , Y is the best method. The #aw should point out that Y may not be thebest method. Options (3) and (4) weaken the argument that X is necessary, which is not the argument inthe "rst place. Option (1) does not weaken the argument that a meritocracy with monetary rewards willensure those who are not contributing to contribute.The argument is based on the premise that only a meritocracy, where the best and most hardworkingminds are rewarded, will ensure that each person contributes his/her best to society. The #aw is that itassumes that the only reward or motivation that the best and most hardworking minds seek ismonetary. Option (2) best states this. Hence, (2).10. The argument is about corporations o!ering non-traditional schedules to their employees. It citesreasons why managers have traditionally been reluctant to embrace a #exible work hour policy: worryabout a fall in productivity and a lack of trust. Option (2) best supports the idea by proving the concernsto be misplaced; it shows that productivity and morale go up. Option (3) is incorrect since the argumentis not that all employees should be given #exible timing. Options (1) and (4) make a statement relevantto how to o!er #exible schedules and not whether it is a good option. Hence, (2).11. Option (1) is incorrect since the argument does not use the two terms interchangeably. Options (2) and(4) are incorrect since the argument is only about the skills that the GD tests with respect to a career inmanagement and not about how long they last or whether they can be developed later. Option (3)identi"es the #aw by pointing out the assumption that the format of a GD brings out the exactinterpersonal and communication skills required for a career in management. Hence, (3).12. The argument predicts the overall sales for the year based on the sales of the "rst half of the year; itassumes that the sales are uniformly distributed across the year. Option (4) weakens the argument byshowing that sales are skewed towards the last quarter of the year and thus the sales of the "rst halfcannot be used as an indicator of the sales of the second half of the year. Options (1) and (2) do notweaken the conclusion since they give no indication about the sales for the rest of the year. Option (3)strengthens the conclusion. Hence, (4)13. Option (1) best supports the argument that the higher grades are due to lax grading and not betteracademic ability because the students at private schools did not outscore students at public schools on

the SAT. Options (2) and (4) do not support the claim that grading was lax. Option (3), while suggestingthat foreign-born graduate students are considered better than local students, does not still support theclaim that grading at private schools is lax; foreign students can be better than local students despitethe latter’s deservedly high grades. Hence, (1).14. The argument is that by getting fast-food restaurants to divulge nutritional information people will startmaking healthier choices since they will have information about the food they are eating. Option (2)best weakens the plan since it shows that people will not change their eating patterns for the better,once they know the nutritional content of the food. Option (1) does not weaken the plan since it doesnot mention anything about people’s eating choices with respect to the nutrimental value of the food; itonly talks about taste and convenience. Option (3) is related to the context but not to the argument anddoes not weaken it. Option (4) makes a general observation relevant to the context but does notweaken the claim that providing nutritional information will make people make healthier choices.Hence, (2).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8 8!15. The argument commits the fallacy of Incorrect Comparison. Based on the number of calls received at thehelp-line, the argument is that Xenon’s service is inferior to Kelvin’s. The reliability is best indicated bythe failure rate, failures as a percentage of total number of consumers, and not the number of failures.Option (2) shows that Xenon’s failure rate is lower: if Kelvin’s customers are x, then Xenon has 3xcustomers; if Kelvin has y people calling the help-line then Xenon has 2y. The failure rate of Xenon is 2y/3x, which is less than the failure rate of Kelvin, y/x.Option (1) does not weaken the argument since the fact that the calls are twice as long at Kelvin doesnot weaken the argument that Xenon’s service is less reliable. Option (4) is incorrect since Xenon’s helplinebeing more publicized does not mean that more people call Xenon since customers of Kelvin wouldhave its help-line numbers. Option (3), just provides information about the number of calls but does notcounter the argument. Hence, (2).CATapult!9 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-8VA 9 IN GRAMMAR, VOCABULARY & USAGE 4Errors of TensesSECTION TITLE DURATIONI Vocabulary & Usage - 1 20 min.II Errors of Tenses 70 min.III Vocabulary & Usage - 2 30 min.ObjectiveTo reinforce concepts pertaining to basics of Verb- Tense learnt in school.

To improve the comfort level of the students with respect to the application of these concepts.To improve vocabulary through vocabulary-based questions types.MethodologyTwo sections on Vocabulary & Usage (one at the beginning of the class and the other at the end)have been introduced to make vocab-building a parallel exercise while learning grammaticalconcepts.The vocabulary exercises use the same format of questions that appear in the CAT and othercompetitive tests, thereby making the exercise more relevant during the preparatory stage.Therefore, all the questions given in Section I and Section IV should be discussed in class.The !ow of the class is not one of a concept explanation followed by questions on the concepts.Rather, the concepts are discussed through exercises in the Concept Builders.The Practice Exercise reinforces the concepts in the format of the question types used in varioustests.The instructor should give some time to the students to "rst solve the questions and then discussthe explanatory answers where the relevant concepts have been elaborated.CATapult!1 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9SECTION I: VOCABULARY & USAGE - 11.Ceremonial is to do with a literal ceremony. Ceremonious describes formal behaviour, which has nothing todo with an actual ceremony. Here, we should use ceremonial.Childish and child-like are sometimes similar but child-like is used to describe a#able qualities while childishis used in a negative way. Here we should use childish.A quiet, reserved person is demure. To demur is to refuse. Hence, we should use demur.Classic describes things that are outstanding examples of their kind. Classical refers to ancient art. Here weshould use classic.The correct sequence is AABA. Hence, (2).2.To bate is to moderate. To bait is to lure. Hence we should use baited.To depreciate something is to actually make it worse, whereas to deprecate something is simply to speak orthink of it in a manner that demonstrates one’s low opinion of it. When actual value is considered, we shoulduse depreciate.When something is alluded to it is referred to. When something is hard to "nd, it is elusive. Here, we shoulduse eluded.Here the connotation is that of every other and this can only be replaced by alternate and not alternative,which means a choice between two or more things.The correct sequence is ABAA. Hence, (4).3.Apposite means appropriate to the situation; opposite means on the other side. In this case, correct word isapposite.Enormity and enormousness are at times interchangeable but enormity is usually used to describe negative

situations. Since marvel is mentioned here, we have to use enormousness.Complacent means satis"ed, whereas complaisant means obliging. Here we should use complaisant.An altar is that platform at the front of a church or in a temple; to alter something is to change it. So, weshould use alter here.Hence the correct sequence is ABBA . Hence, (3).4.Archaic means old or ancient, while arcane means mysterious. Here, we should use archaic.Rout means comprehensive defeat; route means way to reach one point from another. In this situation, routis the correct word.Practice is the noun form and practise is the verb form; so in this case the latter should be used.Farther refers to physical distance, while further means in addition to. Hence we should use further.Hence, the correct sequence is AABB. Hence, (1).5.Liable and likely can be used interchangeably but liable has negative connotations. Here, we should useliable.To be fearful is to be afraid. To be fearsome is to cause fear in others. Here, we should use fearsome.Pour is transferring a liquid and pore is be absorbed in the reading or study of something. In this case poredis appropriate.When we take over a post, we assume it.Hence, the correct sequence is ABBA. Hence, (4).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 2!6. Sentence (4) should read, 'Di$cult situations brought out the best in him’, meaning, he thrives in di$cultsituations and they suit him. Hence, (4).7. Sentence (4) should read, 'I don't want our private problems to carry over into our professional life'. Hence,(4).8. The correct idiomatic expression is ‘turn in for the night’, which means to going to bed. Hence, (2).9. In (1), there is an incorrect expression. The correct phrase is ‘do well by’ which means treat generously.Hence, (1).10. In (4), the correct word would be ‘shout’. One cries out in pain or when one is frightened. Hence, (4).SECTION II: ERRORS OF TENSESQs. 1 to 8:All the sentences show di#erent use of the Present Tense.Sentence1 describes a regular activity or a habitual action; so the appropriate tense form to be used here isthe Simple Present Tense.Sentence 2 is a recollection of the speaker’s perception in his/her youth, i.e., a past event, but the blankshould be "lled with the present form of the verb because general truths and proverbs are expressed in thepresent tense because of their applicability even in the current scenario.Sentence 3 introduces a quotation and in such cases the Simple Present Tense is used most widely.

When a future event is part of a "xed programme or a schedule, we use the Simple Present Tense in place ofthe Future Tense. So, sentences 4 and 5 should have the Simple Present Tense.Exclamatory sentences that begin with ‘here’ and ‘there’ express what is actually taking place in the present.Therefore, in case of such expressions, the Simple Present Tense is used, as in sentence 6.In clauses expressing a condition, the Simple Present Tense is used in place of the Simple Future Tense. So, insentence 7, ‘are’ would be appropriate.In sentences describing events happening right now, the Simple Present Tense is the correct option; hence‘needs’ is correct in sentence 8.Qs. 9 to 17:There are certain verbs, which are not used, in the continuous form.Verbs of perception like hear, see, smell, etc are not used in the continuous form. So, in sentence 9, ‘heard’would be the correct word.Verbs of appearing, such as appear, seem, look, etc, are not used in the continuous form. Hence, sentence 10requires the simple present form, i.e., ‘looks’.Verbs of emotion, such as like, love, hate, prefer, want, etc. are not used in the continuous form. Thus,sentence 11 should read ‘Nowadays, I hate…’ and sentence 12 should read ‘Though I wanted….’Verbs of thinking, such as, think, suppose, understand, imagine, mean, etc are not used in the continuousform. So, sentence 13 would require ‘often imagine’ in the blank and in sentence 14 ‘does not understand’would be correct.Verbs indicative of possession, such as, have, possess, own, belong to, etc are not used in the continuousform. So, ‘possess’ would be correct for the blank in sentence 15.CATapult!3 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9In sentence 16, the correct expression would be ‘thinking of’. ‘Think’, when used in the sense of ‘consideringthe idea of doing something’, is used in the continuous form.The continuous tense form is not used to denote universal truth. Therefore, the appropriate word for theblank in sentence 17 is ‘causes’.Qs. 18 to 22:In all these sentences, the Present Continuous Tense should be used.When we refer to an action that is going on at the time of speaking (as in sentence 18), the appropriate tenseform is the present continuous tense.Sentence 19 states a temporary action that may not be actually be happening at this point of time but that isgoing to continue in the present. So, ‘am reading’ should be used in this sentence.We use the Present Continuous Tense in case of an action that is arranged and is going to take place in thenear future. Sentence 20 is an example of such a context.For habitual action we normally use the Simple Present Tense; but when we need to refer to a regular action,which is like an obstinate habit, an incorrigible action, we use the Present Continuous Tense with an adverblike ‘constantly, ‘always’, etc.

When ‘to have’ is used in the sense of ‘to eat’, the continuous form ‘having’ is valid. In sentence 22 ‘having’should be used.Qs. 23 to 29:The Present Perfect Tense should be used in all these sentences.In order to refer to completed activities in the immediate past, the Present Perfect Tense is preferred, as insentence 23.Sentences 24 and 25 indicate a past action whose time frame is not de"ned; it might have some e#ect onthe present too. In such cases, the Present Perfect Tense is used.The Present Perfect tense is also used to denote an action that began at some time in the past and iscontinuing up to the present moment. Sentences 26 and 27 are such examples.Sentence 28 indicates that she has "nally achieved the unattainable; hence she can now be satis"ed. In suchcases where a past event is described but its e#ect in the present is more important than the action itself, thePresent Perfect tense is used.The Present Perfect Tense is not used with words denoting the past time. So, in sentence 29, ‘updated’ shouldbe used.Qs. 30 and 31:The Present Perfect Continuous Tense is used for an action, which began at some time in the past and is stillcontinuing. In sentence 30, the stealing of money, which started in the past, is still continuing. The same isthe case with the project work that is still going on.Qs. 32 to 34:The Simple Past Tense is used to indicate an action that occurred in the past as in sentences 32 and 33.The Simple Past Tense is also used to refer to past habits as in sentence 34.Qs. 35 to 37:In these sentences the Past Continuous Tense should be used. This tense form is used to denote an actiongoing on at some time in the past, as in sentences 35 and 36. Sometimes, in the same sentence, the PastCATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 4!Continuous and the Simple Past Tense can be used when the reference is to a new action that happened inthe middle of a longer action. The Simple Past tense is used for the shorter or the new action. In sentence 37,our meeting him is the new action and his shooting is the longer action. So, the blank should be "lled with‘was still shooting’.Qs. 38 and 39:In these sentences, the Past Perfect Tense should be used. The Past Perfect Tense is used in cases where twoactions, both in the past, need to be mentioned. For the "rst completed action, the Past perfect Tense, i.e.,had + past participle. In sentence 38, his committing suicide happened before being saved from the deathsentence. So, the correct sentence should read: ‘He was saved from the death sentence but he had alreadycommitted suicide’. In sentence 39, ‘had done’ would be appropriate because the rest of the sentence is inpast tense.

Qs. 40 and 41:In these sentences we are referring to actions that began before a certain point in the past and continued upto that time (which is also in the past). So, in sentence 40, the correct phrase would be ‘had been trying’ andin sentence 41 ‘had already been teaching’.Qs. 42 and 43:The sentences indicate events that are yet to take place. Therefore, we should use the Simple Future Tense. Insentence 42, ‘will meet’ is appropriate. In sentence 43 also a future event is being referred to. Sometimes thePresent Continuous Tense (am going) can be used to describe a future event.Qs. 44 and 45:The Future Tense itself represents an action that is yet to take place. The Future Continuous Tense is used torepresent an action that is expected to go on at some time in the future. So, in sentence 44, the correctphrase would be ‘will be doing’. Sentence 45 represents an action that would be in progress over a period totime in future and will end at some point of time in future. So, in sentence 45, the Future Perfect ContinuousTense should be used, i.e., ‘shall have been working’.Q.46:This sentence is an example of Future Perfect tense which indicates the completion of an action by a certaintime in the future. So, ‘will have left’ would be correct here.Qs. 47 and 48:If the main clause is in the past tense, the subordinate clause is also denoted by the past or past perfecttense. So, in sentence 47, ‘was’ would be correct.If there is a distinct di#erence in the time frame of two actions in a sentence, they can be denoted by adi#erent tense. So, in sentence 48, ‘is’ would be appropriate.Qs. 49 and 50:Sentence 49 describes two events that are going to take place in the future, one preceding the other.Normally in such scenarios the future perfect tense is used. But the future perfect tense is not used in clausesbeginning with time expressions such as ‘when’, ‘before’, ‘unless’, etc.CATapult!5 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9We require the future perfect tense in sentence 50 because it states two events that will take place in thefuture – she will learn French before moving to Paris. Therefore, the former action that will be completed infuture should be stated using the future perfect tense, i.e., ‘Will she have learnt’.PRACTICE EXERCISE1. In B, the verb ‘associate’ should be in the past tense in keeping with the rest of the sentence. Similarly inC, ‘seem’ should also be in the past. In E, the noun ‘e#ort’ is missing an article. Therefore only A and D arecorrect. Hence, (5).2. The excerpt talks of an incident in the past, so various forms of the past tense should be usedconsistently. Jim’s behaviour with his employers happened in the past; but the excerpt states a futureaction in the past. So, in part B too we should have the future perfect tense form, i.e., ‘he would throw

up’. In part C, the present continuous tense is not correct as the rest of the passage uses the simple pasttense. So, ‘The reasons he gave to his employers’ would be correct. In E, the present tense is inconsistentwith the rest of the excerpt and should be changed to the past form. Parts A and D are correct. Hence,(4).3. There is a tense error in part C. ‘Ever since’ implies the action was completed in the recent past but itse#ect is continuing in the present moment. Therefore, the e#ect of the action should be stated in thepresent perfect tense. C should read: ‘scientists have wondered whether the process still’. The pastperfect tense in part D is uncalled for because here we are not dealing with two past actions, onecompleted before the other. In fact, the context implies that the action has completed only in theimmediate past. Thus, ‘There has been no biological change’ would be correct. Parts A, B and E arecorrect. Hence, (3).4. Part A does not state any regular a#air with respect to the city of Chernobyl, therefore, the simplepresent tense is incorrect. Here an action that was completed before a certain moment in the past isbeing referred to. So, ‘had been’ should be used in place of ‘is’. The prepositions ‘since’ implies from apoint of time in the past till present and the appropriate tense to go with it is the present perfect tense,hence, ‘have thinned’ would be correct here. Part E states an occurrence that happens every year, so theappropriate tense form would be simple present tense and not the simple past tense (prayed). Parts Band C are correct. Hence, (2).5. In part B, the past perfect tense is incorrect because the sentence talks of an event happening in thepresent day. So, ‘had been ‘ should be replaced by ‘are’. In part C the present continuous tense form isincorrect as the entire sentence is in simple present form. So, ‘are told’ would be correct here. Verbs ofemotion like love, hate, prefer, etc are not used in the continuous form. So, ‘Many appear to prefer…’would be correct. Parts A and E are correct. Hence, (3).6. The sentence states a scenario in the present. Therefore, all the verbs should be in the simple presenttense. So, the simple past tense ‘relapsed’ in B is incorrect. All the other parts are correct. Hence, (1).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 6!7. The event described in parts A and B is not restricted to a particular time frame. It states a generaloccurrence, hence ‘had not been’ should be replaced by ‘are not’ in part B. In part D there is a tensemismatch while stating two events both of which occurred in the same time frame. So, D should read‘ever arose, animals were engaged…’. Parts A, C and E are correct. Hence, (4).8. The past perfect tense in part B is incorrect because the earlier part of the sentence is in future perfect

tense. A past perfect tense is used when two events, both of which occurred in the past, are to bereferred to. So, B should read ‘what other people said’. C should be in the past continuous tense as theincident happened in the past (what they said); so,’ was shocking’ would be correct. The correct futureperfect tense format is: will/would have + past participle. In part E, ‘have’ is missing before ‘dared’. Only Aand D are correct. Hence, (3).9. Verbs of thinking like ‘suppose’, ‘think’, ‘believe’ etc are not used in the continuous form. So, ‘supposing’ isincorrect in part A. We need the continuous form (making) in part B to make it parallel to ‘arediminishing’. The present continuous tense is preferred in this context because the action referred tohere has not stopped at any point of time. The future perfect tense in E is incorrect because thesentence mentions an occurrence in the past. So, ‘came along’ should be used in place of ‘would havecome along’. Hence, (3).10. Since the sentence talks of how copyright laws were originally perceived, the context is one of pastevent. So, part A should be in the past tense and not in the present perfect tense. Since the change inperception as e#ected by the recent corporate culture started at sometime in the past and is stillcontinuing, the appropriate tense form in part D would be present perfect tense and not simple pasttense. Parts B, C and E are correct. Hence, (1).SECTION III: VOCABULARY & USAGE - 21. ‘Torch’ means to set on "re and ‘douse’ means to put out or extinguish. Thus, they form an antonymouspair (A-C). ‘Append’ means to add to the end of something; ‘conclude’ means to bring to an end and‘devise’ means to plan or design. Hence, (4).2. ‘Hyperbole’ means an obvious or intentional exaggeration. Its opposite is ‘understatement’, which meansintentionally representing something as less that it is, thus B-E. ‘Arson’ is a criminal o#ence; ‘explanation’is to make something intelligible and ‘hibernation’ means to spend winter in a dormant condition.Hence, (2).3. ‘Complacent’ means self-satis"ed; so ‘contented’, which means pleased, is its synonym (A-D). ‘Alternating’means occurring by turns; ‘portentous’ means of great signi"cance and ‘taciturn’ means inclined tosilence. Hence, (1).4. ‘Apposite’ means appropriate or relevant. ‘Pertinent’ also means relevant; so the B-C pair. ‘Novel’ meansnew and unusual; ‘obstinate’ means refusing to yield or obey and ‘dexterous’ means skillful in physicalmovements. Hence, (2).5. ‘Trenchant’ means distinct or clear, whereas ‘ambiguous’ means lacking clarity. Hence, these two words(A-E) share an antonymous relation. ‘Austere’ means very simple; ‘acrid’ means harsh in smell or taste and‘veridical’ means truthful. Hence, (1).CATapult!

7 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-96. ‘Adjure’ means to ‘command’ earnestly, thus A-C. ‘Retract’ means to draw back; ‘incriminate’ means toaccuse somebody of a crime or fault and ‘derive’ means to obtain or deduce. Hence, (3).7. ‘Prudence’ means being careful or judicious. So, ‘caution’ is its synonym (B-E). ‘Vitality’ means physical ormental strength; ‘extent’ means the range of something and ‘modesty’ means decency. Hence, (2).8. ‘Uncouth’ means crude or unre"ned. Its antonym is ‘suave’, which means courteous (A-C). ‘Agile’ meansmoving with ease and ‘arrogant’ means vain and rude. Hence, (1).9. ‘’Sedentary’ means abiding in one place. ‘Mobile’ is opposite to it, so C-D pair. ‘Voracious’ means veryhungry; ‘deviant’ means di#ering from norms of society and ‘terse’ means brief or short. Hence, (2).10. ‘Melancholic’ means causing gloom or sadness and its opposite is ‘exhilarating’, which meansstimulating. So, the A-D pair. ‘Speculative’ means contemplative; ‘meditative’ means deeply thoughtfuland ‘symbolic’ means pertaining to something. Hence, (1).11. ‘Courteous’, ‘considerate’ and ‘civil’ are all positive words and convey something polite and decent. Such aquestion would not make one feel nervous. But a ‘brusque’ or a blunt and rude question wouldobviously make one uncomfortable. One can react to such a question by squinting ‘horribly’. Hence, (2).12. ‘Virulence’ has a negative connotation and means violent hostility. So, neither ‘melodious’ nor‘harmonious’ can be used with it. ‘E#ortless’ does not "t the "rst blank because the sentence implies thatit was di$cult to avoid the bell. So, ‘di$cult’ would be an appropriate word for the "rst blanks.‘Impudent’ meaning arrogant or bold goes well with the word ‘virulent’. Hence, (3).13. The connector ‘though’ indicates that the word for the "rst blank should be opposite in idea to the word‘di#erent’. So, ‘di#erently’ is negated. ‘Carelessly’ would also be a mis"t as indicated by the secondsentence: the interchange of the words is not a casual a#air. Between ‘evaluation’ and ‘opinion’ the latter"ts the second blank better because ‘evaluation’ implies assessment, whereas the sentence speaks ofhow one regards oneself or thinks of oneself. So, ‘synonymously and opinion’ are the correct words.Hence, (3).14. The sentence implies that the Leader rejected all the claims of the opponents in a smart and clever way.So, ‘ingeniously’ is appropriate for the "rst blank. ‘Ingenuously’ means artlessly or in an innocent mannerand is a mis"t contextually. ‘Incredible’ means unbelievable whereas ‘incredulous’ means unbelieving orskeptical. So, ‘incredible’ can "t the second blank. Hence, (1).15. A ‘culture of stamina’ does not make any sense; so (2) is negated. A culture of ‘sympathy’ may notnecessarily allow scope for ‘diversity’ to spread or prosper. ‘Resilience’ refers to !exibility or elasticity andmay not promote ‘diversity’. Moreover, ‘brandish’ is mainly used in the context of weapons. So, ‘tolerance’and ‘!ourish’ are the appropriate words. A culture of ‘tolerance’, which means being open-minded or

liberal, can give a lot of scope to diversity to ‘!ourish’. Hence, (4).16. ‘Spurious’ means not genuine, hence it cannot be used in the context. An ‘objective’ person may notnecessarily be one who can be trusted. Moreover, ‘o$ciate’, which means to perform the duties of ano$ce does not "t the context. Between ‘honest’ and ‘adorable’, the former is a better option as it goeswith the subsequent idea of trusting someone. ‘Validate’ also "ts the second blank perfectly as it meanssubstantiate or con"rm. Hence, (2).17. Neither ‘discrediting’ nor ‘discouraging’ "t in the context. If companies give rewards to improve theperformance of employees, they would expect the latter to do the work well and not that the employeeshave to look for, as conveyed by ‘seeking’, a genuine interest in doing the work well. In fact, the sentenceCATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9 8!does not make any sense. If we use the words given in option (4), the sentence becomes coherent.Companies that withhold rewards thinking the employees would work better actually a#ect theperformance of the employees instead of encouraging or promoting (as conveyed by ‘fostering’) agenuine motivation for the work. Hence, (4).18. ‘Treatment’ and ‘prevention’ are far fetched and do not go with the context. ‘Facilitated’ cannot "t thesecond blank because the latter part of the sentence implies that signs of maladjustment are easilydiscernible. So, ‘identi"cation’ and ‘complicated’ are the correct words. Hence, (3).19. ‘Garrulous’ and ‘digni"ed’ do not make any sense in the context of language; they are mainly used todescribe personal traits. So, options (2) and (4) are ruled out. Between (1) and (3), the set of words in theformer "ts better because the expression ‘habitual land’ does not make any sense. Moreover, the excerptimplies that half of the world’s languages are dying along with the cultures. In this sense, ‘moribund’ "tsbetter. ‘Decadence’ means to fall into a state of moral degradation. Hence, (1).20. From the excerpt it can be gathered that Whitehead used vodka to drive away his night terrors.Therefore, ‘trigger’ is incorrect here. If one’s body becomes ‘vulnerable’ to something, one would avoidthat instead of consuming it more. So, (4) can be eliminated. Both ‘sedative’ and ‘sopori"c’ are almostsimilar in meaning, but in the given context ‘immune’ is more apt that ‘accustomed’. Hence, (2).CATapult!9 IMS-34-CT-CU-IN-O-BA-VA-9VA AT1 IN VERBAL ASSESSMENT TEST 1Questions: 1-71.Premise (Evidence): Compared with youngsters of non-smoking parents, preschoolers exposed tosecondhand smoke had a 21% greater chance of hypertension, de!ned as blood-pressure values in the top

15% of their group.Premise: High-blood pressure in childhood can carry over into adulthood.Conclusion: Protecting youngsters from passive smoke exposure may, therefore, have long-term healthbene!ts.All options except (2) do not follow from the premises. Hence, (2).2.Premise: “Art” does not exist as a separate entity creating works for public consumption. Instead it is part ofevery society and is nurtured, created and appreciated by that society as a whole.Premise: If the art created by a particular society is, say, not of a high standard, it is not because of theincompetence of artists but because the people of that society.Conclusion: do not strongly wish for a higher standard in their arts.The argument is predicated on the premise that it is society as a whole that is responsible for art. So if art isnot a high standard then it is society as a whole that is responsible. Options (1) and (2) are not supported bythe information in the premises. Option (3) runs counter to the information in the premises. Hence, (4).3.Premise (Fact): New investment laws protect the interests of the small investor and insure his investments arepaid out even if they have been made in a company involved in scam.Missing Premise (Assumption): Small investors are able to distinguish the clean companies from the dirty onesand can identify which companies are likely to go bankrupt.Premise: Earlier people used to think twice about a company and its functioning policies before investing.Conclusion: This law will change all that and give rise to a new breed of indi"erent investor and make it easierfor dirty as well as ine#cient companies to raise money. This will encourage blind investing in companiesliable to go bankrupt.An assumption is that which if untrue invalidates the conclusion. If small investors are incapable ofidentifying which companies are likely to go bankrupt, then even if they spend time analysing a companyand its functioning policies, they will not be able to choose the right company. So unless option (3) is truethe conclusion will not hold. Even if the rest of the options are untrue the conclusion will still hold. Hence, (3).CATapult!1 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-ATI4.Premise: In a 2007 study of Fijians girls, those with TVs who were exposed to Western images of beauty were60% more likely to have disordered eating habits.Premise: Even those without TVs admitted to dieting to change their body shape; they were responding toin$uences !ltered to them through their TV-watching friends.Inference: The Western images shown on TV are of a body type that is thinner than the body type of Fijiangirls.The e"ect of being exposed to Western images of beauty were eating disorders and dieting. From this it canbe inferred that the images were of a body type that were thinner than Fijian girls, resulting in the latter

resorting to dieting. Option (1) is incorrect since there is no information about a typical Western diet vis-a-vistypical Fijian diet, the only information available is of Western images on TV and not Western diet as a whole.Options (2) and (3) similarly cannot be deduced from the information given. Hence, (4).5.Premise: Any combination of overwork and stress inevitably leads to insomnia.Premise: Managers at AlphaCorp, Inc., all su"er from stress; a majority of the managers work well over 65hours per week.Premise: AlphaCorp gives regular bonuses only to employees who work more than 45 hours per week.Conclusion: Most of the managers at AlphaCorp who receive regular bonuses have insomnia.Option (1) is incorrect as there is no information about other companies’ work conditions. Option (2) isincorrect since there is no information about other workers vis-a-vis managers. Option (3) re-states thede!nition of overwork and is not a deduction. Option (4) is a logical deduction from the conditionsexpressed in the premises, stress and overwork lead to insomnia. All managers are under stress and all thosewho get a bonuses work more than 45 hours. Hence, (4).6.Premise: A man-eating tiger that is not hungry has no reason to attack human beings. Missing Premise(Assumption): Man-eating tigers do not attack human beings without a reason.Conclusion: Selected settlements threatened by man-eating tigers can be protected by leaving food in theforest for for the tigersThe missing premise is the fact that man-eating tigers attack human beings only for food and and notwithout a reason. If this is false then the plan is bound to fail. Hence, (1).7.Premise: Although Combi$am has been proven to eliminate moderate fever associated with some illnesses,many doctors no longer routinely recommend its use for this purpose.Premise: A moderate fever stimulates the activity of the body's disease-!ghting white blood cells and alsoinhibits the growth of many strains of disease-causing bacteria.Conclusion: Combi$am can prolong a patient's illness by eliminating moderate fever helpful in !ghting somediseases.Option (3) is incorrect since Combi$am controls fever and not the growth of the white blood cells, so if theillness is not accompanied by fever then Combi$am will not cause any harm. Option (1) is irrelevant to thepremises. Option (4) makes a generalization between illnesses and white blood cells which cannot besupported by the passage. Option (2) concludes the argument by establishing a relationship between thetwo premises. Hence, (2).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-AT1 2!8. (Source: CAT 2007) In part A, there is a missing article: ‘in a recession’ is the correct expression. In C, thecorrect idiomatic expression is ‘out of a slump’. In D, ‘a temporary stimuli’ is incorrect because ‘stimuli’ is a

plural noun and the inde!nite article cannot precede a plural noun. In E, there is an incorrect word form:‘a"ect’ is the verb form, whereas in the given sentence we require a noun. Thus, the correct word in Ewould be ‘e"ect’. Only part B is correct. Hence, (5).9. (Source: CAT 2008) Sentences A and D are correct. Sentence E uses a wrong article: it should be ‘anindustry’, not ‘a industry’. The comma at the end of sentence C is incorrect, as it separates the subjectfrom the main verb. B uses the incorrect pronoun ‘their’ instead of ‘its’. Hence, (4).10. In part B, there is an incorrect conjunction. The sentence implies that his discussion cannot proceedunless he provides some other explanations. So, instead of ‘since’ the conjunction ‘until, which means upto the time, should be used to connect the clauses. There is an article error in part D. Here the conceptsof ‘socialism’ and ‘capitalism’ are referred to in a very generic sense. So, the article before ‘capitalism’ is notrequired. Parts A, C and E are correct. Hence, (3).11. In part A, the de!nite article before ‘culture’ is not required because ‘culture’ is an abstract concept and isan uncountable noun. Moreover, here the reference is not to any speci!c culture. In C, there is anincorrect conjunction - ‘and also’. ‘Not only … but also’ is the correct conjunction pair, also calledcorrelative conjunction. There is a preposition error in part D: the word ‘nature’ used in the sense of maincharacteristic of something is followed by the preposition ‘of’ and not ‘for’. Thus, only parts B and E arecorrect. Hence, (4).12. There is a missing article in part C. Here the adjective ‘elites’ represents the whole class; there fore it isused as a noun and should be preceded by the de!nite article ‘the’. In D there is a missing pronoun. Herewe require a re$exive pronoun because the subject who does the action and the object who receivesthe action is same. Thus, D should read: ‘that Marxism should !nd itself’. Parts A, B and E are correct.Hence, (2).13. There is an incorrect preposition in part B. The correct expression is ‘to shed light on’, which means toprovide an explanation for or to make things easier for understanding. In D, there is an incorrect wordform: ‘pure’ is an adjective and here it is supposed to qualify the adjective ‘local. But an adjective cannotqualify another adjective; we require the adverb form ‘purely’ to qualify ‘local’. Parts A, C and E aregrammatically correct. Hence, (3).14. There is an article error in part B. The sentence denotes a very general scenario and talks of any publisherwho can face this problem. Therefore, the inde!nite article ‘a’ should precede ‘publisher’. In part C, thereis an incorrect pronoun. Here the pronoun should be in the objective case and not the nominative case;so, ‘most of whom’ should be the correct expression. There is an incorrect word form in E – the adjective‘attentive’ should be replaced by the noun ‘attention’ to make the sentence correct. So, only parts A andD are grammatically correct. Hence, (4).

15. (Source : CAT 2005) There is an article error in sentence B. Here a particular project is being referred to so,‘the’ should precede ‘project’. In C again, there is an article error. The correct phrase should be ‘with asingle-minded focus’ because when an abstract noun is preceded by an adjective, it requires an article.Sentences A and D are correct. Hence, (2).16. (Source : CAT 2005) There are two article errors in the given excerpt. In sentence B, ‘the’ should precede‘Enlightenment’ because here a particular philosophical movement is being referred to. In sentence C,the de!nite article should be used before ‘1820s’. Sentences A and D are correct. Hence, (1).CATapult!3 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-ATI17. In sentence A, ‘to’ is a preposition; hence it cannot be followed by the base form of the verb. Here thegerund form ‘facing’ should be used. In B, there is a dangling modi!er error. The sentence does not havea de!nite subject, so it is not clear whom the modifying phrase ‘Having lived through it’ quali!es. Thesubject should be placed as close as possible to the modi!er to make the sentence unambiguous. Thecorrect sentence should read: ‘Having lived through it, I can now say this to you…purely intellectualconcept’. In sentence C, ‘the’ before ‘Heaven’ is incorrect. An article is not used before abstract nounsused in a general sense. Thus, only sentence D is correct. Hence, (4).18. Sentence B has a missing article. When an abstract noun is quali!ed by an adjective or adjectival phrase,the article is used. Therefore, the phrase ‘primary goal’ should be preceded by the article ‘a’; an inde!nitearticle has to be used because it is one of the many goals. In C, there is a misplaced modi!er due towhich the sentence is completely ambiguous. The clause ‘that are seeking to increase per capitaconsumption rates at home’ quali!es the ‘developing countries’ and not only ‘China’, so it should beplaced immediately after the introductory phrase. The correct sentence should read: ‘Among thedeveloping countries that are seeking to increase per capita consumption rates at home, China standsout’. Sentence A and D are correct. Hence, (1).19. In A, there is an incorrect word form. ‘Downrightly’ is incorrect; the correct adverb form is ‘downright’and it quali!es the adjective ‘suspect’. ‘Downright’ means thoroughly. In sentence B there is a danglingmodi!er error. It is not clear whom the phrase ‘rising at odd hours’ quali!es. The correct sentence shouldread: ‘Rising at odd hours, these people leave polite society behind to spend long stretches staring notat dazzling vistas or strange beasts but at birds’. There is a preposition error in sentence C. When theword ‘front’ is used in the sense of a cover or disguise for some other activity, the correct phrase is ‘frontfor something’ and not ‘front of something’. Hence, (2).20. According to the rule of modi!er, a modifying phrase and the subject it modi!es should be placed as

close to each other as possible. If there is no clearly de!ned subject in the sentence, then the subject hasto be introduced. In the given sentence, Moura is the subject and ‘unmoved by Wells’s challenge’ is themodifying phrase. Only options (2) and (4) show the proximity of the subject and the modi!er. The othertwo options give rise to ambiguity due to their arrangement. In (4), the use of the conjunction ‘when’ isunnecessary. Only (2) gives us a grammatically correct sentence. Hence, (2).21. From the given options we understand that the modifying clause is ‘Believing that Lenin's cube-shapedmausoleum represented a "fourth dimension" where death did not exist’ and it modi!es the subject ‘he’.(3) gives the impression that the follower’s homes hold the belief, which is incorrect. In (2) there is nosubject who does the action; therefore, it is a case of dangling modi!er error. (1) is completelyambiguous. Only (4) has the proper arrangement and gives us a grammatically and structurally correctsentence. Hence, (4).22. In sentence (4), there is an error of dangling modi!er. The subject is missing from the sentence,therefore, we do not know who faced the challenge of modernity and where the split occurred. In (3),there is an incorrect word – ‘modernism’ is incorrectly used in place of ‘modernity’. They have twodi"erent connotations. Moreover, in (3) too the modifying clause is placed far away from the subject,‘Shiism’. In (2), the order of the modi!er and the subject is reversed due to which there is an error ofmisplaced modi!er. Only sentence (1) gives us a grammatically correct sentence. Hence, (1).23. A!ected means fake. The meanings of the rest of the words can be found in VA 3-4. The correct answer isoption (3).CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-AT1 4!24. The meanings of the rest of the words can be found in VA 3-4. The correct answer is option (1).25. The meanings of the words can be found in VA 3. The correct answer is option (2).26. Bear in is a non-existent form of usage. Hence, (4).27. Break through is incorrect as it is a single word. Hence, (3).Questions 28-30THOUGHT FLOWPARA PRIMARY PURPOSE CENTRAL IDEA1To outline the birth of psychoanalysis as alegitimate scienti!c !eldPsychoanalysis was !rst recognised as ascience in 1909 and its achievements hingedon the discovery of the workings of theunconscious.2 To describe the signi!cance of the discoveryof psychoanalysis - the unconscious.According to Freud, it was a major discoverysince it implied that we were strangers even toourselves.3 To outline the spread of psychoanalysis into

everyday vocabularyVery soon psychoanalysis and becamewidespread and formed the basis of any talkabout human behavior.4To outline the current attitude towardspsychoanalysis being considered as ascienti!c disciplineBut now it is no longer considered a scienceand is routinely denounced.28. From the above thought $ow it can be seen that the primary purpose of the passage is to outline therise and fall of psychoanalysis as a legitimate scienti!c !eld. Option (2) is incorrect since the author neverexpresses his own views about psychoanalysis but only presents the general view. The author starts thefourth paragraph by saying that psychoanalysis !nds itself routinely denounced. Also, he goes on to addthe phrase, they say in third line of the last paragraph just to distance himself from the general opinionabout psychoanalysis. Option (3) only refers to the third paragraph. Option (4) is incorrect since thepassage does not discuss the role of psychoanalysis in popular culture. Hence, (1).29. Based on the thought $ow and the answer to the primary purpose question it can be seen that option(3) best expresses the central idea of the passage. Options (1) and (4) are incorrect since the central ideais not that psychoanalysis is unscienti!c but that after its widespread use it is now consideredunscienti!c. Option (2) is incorrect as per the content of the passage, since it is currently not consideredrelevant. Hence, (3).30. Based on the thought $ow and the primary purpose, it can be seen that the best option is (3). Hence, (3).CATapult!5 IMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-ATIQuestions 30-40: The highlighted options are valid deductions.31.(1) Some schizophrenics need medication.(2) All schizophrenics need medication.(3) Negative conclusion requires negativepremise.(4) All those who need medication is notdistributed in the premises.32.(1) No game are prey.(2) No prey are game.(3) Some prey are not game.(4) Some game are not prey.33.(1) Knights is not distributed in the premises.(2) Freemasons is not distributed in the premises.(3) Negative conclusion requires negativepremise.(4) Some freemasons are knights.34.(1) Denims is not distributed in the premises.(2) Some denims are not garments.

(3) Negative premise requires negativeconclusion.(4) Negative premise requires negativeconclusion.35.(1) Clairvoyants is not distributed in the premises.(2) Clairvoyants is not distributed in the premises(3) Some clairvoyants are not soothsayers.(4) Clairvoyants is not distributed in the premises.36.(1) Negative premise requires negativeconclusion.(2) Negative premise requires negativeconclusion.(3) Some sceptics are not conservatives.(4) Sceptics is not distributed in the premises.37.(1) Sincere people is not distributed in thepremises.(2) NGOs is not distributed in the premises.(3) Negative conclusion requires negativepremise.(4) Some sincere people work for NGOs.38.(1) Some football stars who play for the love ofthe game are over-paid.(2) Some football stars who are overpaid play forthe love of the game.(3) Negative conclusion requires negativepremise.(4) Negative conclusion requires negativepremise.39.(1) Planes is not distributed in the premises..(2) Negative premise requires negativeconclusion.(3) Birds is not distributed in the premises.(4) None of the above.40.(1) Some respectable people are notrastafarians.(2) Respectable is not distributed in the premises.(3) Negative premise requires negativeconclusion.(4) Respectable is not distributed in the premises.CATapultIMS-34-CT-CU-SC-O-BA-VA-AT1 6!