ITILF.exam · A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement B. Negotiating and agreeing...

https://www.gratisexam.com/

ITILF.exam.285q

Number: ITILFPassing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 min


ITILF

ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)


Exam A

QUESTION 1Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have replaced?

A. Availability managementB. Capacity managementC. Service portfolio managementD. Service catalogue management

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 2Consider the following list:

1. Change authority2. Change manager3. Change advisory board (CAB)


Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

A. Job descriptionsB. FunctionsC. TeamsD. Roles, people or groups

Correct Answer: D


Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incidentB. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skillC. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfactionD. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 4Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?

A. Technical managementB. Service deskC. Application managementD. Facilities management

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?


A. RACI modelB. Incident modelC. Continual service improvement (CSI) approachD. The Deming Cycle



QUESTION 6Which process will regularly anal0yse incident data to identify discernible trends?

A. Service level managementB. Problem managementC. Change managementD. Event management

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 7Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

A. One which directly supports the business processes of customersB. A service that cannot be allowed to failC. One which is not covered by a service level agreementD. A service not directly used by the business




QUESTION 8Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?

A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesB. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purposeC. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activitiesD. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities



QUESTION 9Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

A. To prevent problems and their resultant IncidentsB. To manage problems throughout their lifecycleC. To restore service to a userD. To eliminate recurring incidents



QUESTION 10Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?



A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreementB. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreementsC. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access itD. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available



QUESTION 11Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service designB. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service componentsC. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriateD. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service



QUESTION 12Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

A. Implementing service and process improvementsB. Reviewing measurements and metrics


C. Creating a baselineD. Defining measurable targets



QUESTION 13Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A. Definitive media library (DML)B. Configuration management system (CMS)C. Statement of requirements (SOR)D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)



QUESTION 14The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?

A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risksB. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to riskC. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capitalD. Training of all staff and investment of capital




QUESTION 15Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?

A. StandardsB. TechnologyC. Academic researchD. Internal experience



QUESTION 16Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is theadditional "P"?

A. ProfitB. PreparationC. ProductsD. Potential



QUESTION 17Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogueB. The design of new or changed servicesC. The design of market spacesD. The design of the technology architectures




QUESTION 18Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A. A service level agreement (SLA)B. A request for change (RFC)C. The service portfolioD. A service description



QUESTION 19Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?

1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customer's successful2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages


A. All of the aboveB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 2 only


D. 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 20What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normalB. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergencyC. Informational, warning, exceptionD. Warning, reactive, proactive



QUESTION 21A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

1. Defining the process strategy2. Assisting with process design3. Improving the process4. Performing all activities involved in a process

A. 2, 3 and 4 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 22Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

A. Capacity managementB. GovernanceC. Service designD. Service level management



QUESTION 23Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?

1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above




QUESTION 24Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unitB. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersC. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure componentsD. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs



QUESTION 25Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resourcesB. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitionsC. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processesD. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes



QUESTION 26What are underpinning contracts used to document?

A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service providerB. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliersC. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customerD. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams




QUESTION 27In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

A. Operational level agreement(OLA)B. Capacity planC. Service level agreement(SLA)D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)



QUESTION 28Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

A. The IT directorB. The process ownerC. The service ownerD. The customer



QUESTION 29Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?


A. Knowledge managementB. Release and deployment managementC. Service asset and configuration managementD. Service level management



QUESTION 30Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

A. Incidents can only be reported by usersB. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal serviceC. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidentsD. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems



QUESTION 31Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

A. Incident managementB. Access managementC. Change managementD. Request fulfillment

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 32What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

A. Business servicesB. Component servicesC. Supporting servicesD. Customer services



QUESTION 33Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow 2. Measurement and reporting 3. Release and deployment 4. Process design





QUESTION 34How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

A. As many as necessary to complete the activityB. Only one - the process ownerC. Two - the process owner and the process enactorD. Only one - the process architect



QUESTION 35The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

A. A changeB. A change modelC. A change requestD. A change advisory board



QUESTION 36Where should the following information be stored?

1. The experience of staff 2. Records of user behaviour 3. Supplier's abilities and requirements 4. User skill levels

A. The forward schedule of change


B. The service portfolioC. A configuration management database (CMDB)D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)



QUESTION 37Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?

1. The approach is pre-authorized 2. The risk is usually low and well understood 3. Details of the change will be recorded 4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process

A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 38Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access managementB. Event management, incident management, change management, and access managementC. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event managementD. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management




QUESTION 39With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

A. Incident managementB. Service asset and configuration managementC. Capacity managementD. IT service continuity management



QUESTION 40What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customersB. Reporting intervals should be set by the service providerC. Reports should be produced weeklyD. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services



QUESTION 41Which one of the following does service metrics measure?



A. FunctionsB. Maturity and costC. The end-to-end serviceD. Infrastructure availability



QUESTION 42Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

A. Demand managementB. Incident managementC. Release and deployment managementD. Request fulfillment



QUESTION 43Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

A. Technical managementB. IT operations management


C. Request fulfillmentD. Applications management



QUESTION 44Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?

1. Logging details of incidents and service requests 2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Implementing all standard changes

A. All of the aboveB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 3 and 4 only



QUESTION 45Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement resultsB. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processesC. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfactionD. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Correct Answer: D




QUESTION 46Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A. DoB. PerformC. ImplementD. Measure



QUESTION 47What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), qualityB. Strategic, tactical and operationalC. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activitiesD. Technology, process and service



QUESTION 48Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?


1. Customers2. Users3. Suppliers

A. All of the aboveB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 49From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

A. UserB. CustomerC. SupplierD. Administrator



QUESTION 50Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

A. Request fulfilmentB. Service portfolio managementC. Service deskD. IT finance




QUESTION 51Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needsB. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesC. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersD. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers



QUESTION 52Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A. KnowledgeB. InformationC. WisdomD. Data



QUESTION 53Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?


A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT servicesB. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of servicesC. To create and populate a service catalogueD. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services



QUESTION 54Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be locatedB. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcomeC. Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will beD. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application



QUESTION 55What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysisB. Recording configuration itemsC. Monitoring servicesD. Defining roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 56The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

A. Before the change is approvedB. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed outC. After implementation but before the post implementation reviewD. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change



QUESTION 57Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

A. Service asset and configuration managementB. Event managementC. Service catalogue managementD. Problem management



QUESTION 58Which one of the following do major incidents require?

A. Separate procedures


B. Less urgencyC. Longer timescalesD. Less documentation



QUESTION 59What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycleB. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers



QUESTION 60In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution?

A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated B. Measures for optimization are identified C. Service value is modeledD. Service value is visible to customers


Explanation/Reference:


Explanation:

QUESTION 61Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)B. Customer and user satisfaction C. Service requirements and warranty D. Resources and capabilities



QUESTION 62Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?


A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are heldB. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protectedC. A database that contains definitions of all media CIsD. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected



QUESTION 63


Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

A. Service level agreements (SLAs)B. Third-party contracts C. The service portfolioD. Operational level agreements (OLAs)



QUESTION 64Which of the following are managed by facilities management?

1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room2. Applications3. Power and cooling equipment4. Recovery sites

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1 and 3 only



QUESTION 65Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service designB. Service transition


C. Continual service improvementD. Service operation



QUESTION 66Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?

1. Design and modeling2. Reporting3. Pattern recognition and analysis4. Detection and monitoring




QUESTION 67Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

A. The availability of a service or componentB. The level of risk that affects a service or process C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failingD. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 68Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?

A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurateB. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintainedC. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolioD. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue



QUESTION 69Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changesB. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimizedD. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders



QUESTION 70Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?


A. The configuration management system is part of the known error databaseB. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management systemC. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management systemD. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database



QUESTION 71Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performance B. Performance, process, products, problems C. People, process, products, partners D. People, products, perspective, partners



QUESTION 72Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?

1. Design of the service metrics2. Business continuity strategy3. Business impact analysis (BIA)4. Risk assessment

A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only




QUESTION 73What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organizationC. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basisD. A document that describes business services to operational staff



QUESTION 74Which one of the following generates demand for services?

A. Infrastructure trendsB. Patterns of business activity (PBA) C. Cost of providing supportD. Service level agreements (SLA)



QUESTION 75


Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?

A. To negotiate service levels for new servicesB. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue



QUESTION 76Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT serviceB. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT serviceC. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT serviceD. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem



QUESTION 77Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycleB. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Correct Answer: D




QUESTION 78Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?

A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be foundB. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An incident logged by a senior managerD. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business



QUESTION 79Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

1. Monitoring system availability2. Designing availability into a proposed solution

A. None of the above B. Both of the aboveC. 1 only D. 2 only




QUESTION 80Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

A. Intrusion detectionB. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centreC. Recording service desk staff absenceD. Monitoring the status of configuration items



QUESTION 81The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

A. Customer levelB. Service levelC. Corporate levelD. Configuration level



QUESTION 82Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?

A. Supplier management and service level management B. Supplier management and change managementC. Availability management and service level management D. Supplier management and availability management




QUESTION 83Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?

A. Service level managementB. Change managementC. Incident managementD. Service asset and configuration management



QUESTION 84Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

A. Act B. Plan C. DoD. Co-ordinate



QUESTION 85Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?


A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplierD. An agreement between the service provider and their customer



QUESTION 86Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?

1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider3. Defining how value is created

A. 1 onlyB. 2 only C. 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 87In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models



A. Both of the aboveB. Neither of the above C. Option 1 only D. Option 2 only



QUESTION 88Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service



QUESTION 89Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildingsB. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations


C. Managing access to the service deskD. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services



QUESTION 90Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?

1. Logging details of incidents and service requests2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis3. Restoring service4. Implementing all standard changes

A. All of the aboveB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 3 and 4 only



QUESTION 91Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

A. The change management process ownerB. The change advisory board (CAB) C. The service owner D. The continual service improvement manager

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 92Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management?

1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)2. Recording relationships between CIs3. Recording and control of virtual CIs4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 3 and 4 only



QUESTION 93Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service operationB. Service transitionC. Continual service improvementD. Service strategy




QUESTION 94Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement basedon a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

A. Where are we now?B. Where do we want to be?C. How do we get there?D. Did we get there?



QUESTION 95Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?

A. Service level managementB. Financial managementC. Demand managementD. Risk management



QUESTION 96Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that serviceB. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they useC. An SLA that covers all customers for all servicesD. An SLA for a service with no customers




QUESTION 97Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

A. StandardsB. TechnologyC. Academic researchD. Internal experience



QUESTION 98What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

A. Strategic serviceB. Delivered serviceC. Internal serviceD. External service



QUESTION 99


What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?

A. Service managementB. Incident managementC. Resource managementD. Service support



QUESTION 100From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

A. The userB. The customerC. The supplierD. The administrator



QUESTION 101Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they requireB. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorizedC. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and trackedD. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 102Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?

A. Change managementB. Capacity managementC. Service transition planning and supportD. Release management



QUESTION 103Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?

A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycleB. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into themC. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycleD. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment



QUESTION 104Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?


A. Service transition planning and supportB. Design coordinationC. Service level managementD. Change management



QUESTION 105Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance 2. Identifying improvement opportunities 3. Appointing people to required roles




QUESTION 106Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?

A. Process practitionerB. Process managerC. Service managerD. Change manager




QUESTION 107Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. Both of the aboveB. 1 onlyC. Neither of the aboveD. 2 only



QUESTION 108Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?

1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary 2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome

A. 1 onlyB. Both of the aboveC. 2 onlyD. Neither of the above




QUESTION 109Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request themB. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service deskC. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesD. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested



QUESTION 110Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?

A. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they ownB. Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they ownC. Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they ownD. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization



QUESTION 111Which Functions are included in IT operations management?

A. Network management and application managementB. Technical management and change managementC. IT operations control and facilities management


D. Facilities management and release management



QUESTION 112Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?

A. Availability managementB. Capacity managementC. Business relationship managementD. Service catalogue management



QUESTION 113The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

A. Facilities managementB. Access managementC. Request fulfillmentD. Service asset and configuration management




QUESTION 114What are the three service provider business models?

A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore partyB. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unitC. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd partyD. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit



QUESTION 115Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

A. Only changes that introduce new services are includedB. All changes are mandated to be includedC. Only changes to business critical systems are includedD. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included



QUESTION 116Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?

1. Details of failed changes2. Updates to the change schedule3. Reviews of completed changes

A. All of the aboveB. 1 and 2only


C. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1 and 3 only



QUESTION 117Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?

1. Core2. Enabling3. Special


A. 1 and 3onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 118What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?

A. Serviceability


B. AvailabilityC. CapacityD. Continuity



QUESTION 119Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?

1. Incident model2. Known error record

A. 1 onlyB. 2onlyC. Both of the aboveD. Neither of the above



QUESTION 120Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?

1. Communication between data centre shifts2. Communication related to changes3. Performance reporting4. Routine operational communication

A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 only


C. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 121Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

A. CSI registerB. Known error databaseC. Capacity management information systemD. Configuration management database



QUESTION 122Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each otherB. Urgency should be based on impact and priorityC. Impact should be based on urgency and priority D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency




QUESTION 123Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Service strategyB. Service transition C. Service operationD. Continual service improvement



QUESTION 124Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributedB. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quicklyC. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robustD. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language



QUESTION 125Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. They are units of organizationsB. They are measurableC. They deliver specific resultsD. They respond to specific events




QUESTION 126Which process has the following objective “Establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, time and resourceestimates”?

A. Service strategyB. Service transition planning and supportC. Service level managementD. Change management



QUESTION 127What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract known as?

A. Strategic customersB. External customersC. Valued customersD. Internal customers



QUESTION 128


What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?

A. It keeps the communication going within the businessB. It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiativesC. It helps the stakeholders understand their customersD. It dictates the way the business interacts with external suppliers


Explanation/Reference:References: https://www.cherwell.com/blog/7-steps-to-continual-service-improvement-csi-success

QUESTION 129Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?

A. It contains targets that underpin those within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be breached by failure of the supporting activity.B. It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services.C. It is a written agreement between a supplier and the IT customer(s), defining the key service targets and responsibilities of both parties.D. It is a legally binding contract outlining services delivered to an IT service provider that underpin a service that provider delivers to its customers.


Explanation/Reference:References: http://wiki.en.it-processmaps.com/index.php/Service_Level_Management

QUESTION 130Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?

A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT operations failures that occurB. Delivering operational improvements to achieve reduced costsC. Management of the definitive media library (DML)D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

Correct Answer: C



Explanation/Reference:References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Definitive_Media_Library

QUESTION 131What is the BEST description of an external customer?

A. Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service providerB. Anyone who gets charged for the delivered servicesC. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service providerD. Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver


Explanation/Reference:References: http://smallbusiness.chron.com/internal-customer-external-customer-11698.html

QUESTION 132How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?

A. Internal serviceB. External serviceC. Mission critical serviceD. Organizational service



QUESTION 133What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?


A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of servicesB. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service qualityC. It provides quick and effective access to standard servicesD. It results in higher volumes of successful change



QUESTION 134Which is an objective of access management?

A. To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to servicesB. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT serviceC. To assist with general information, complaints or commentsD. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented


Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=GuVgAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA147&lpg=PA147&dq=access+management+efficiently+respond+to+requests+for+granting+access+to+services&source=bl&ots=re4-bPLfZs&sig=DSxe6nTYMiYpr3k8Lxzgq05k-nE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7vrvrzIXOAhXHMo8KHXo0BSMQ6AEIJzAD#v=onepage&q=access%20management%20efficiently%20respond%20to%20requests%20for%20granting%20access%20to%20services&f=false

QUESTION 135What should be documented as part of every process?

A. The process owner, process policy and set of process activitiesB. The service owner, service level agreement and set of process proceduresC. The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process stepsD. The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions

Correct Answer: A




QUESTION 136What BEST defines serviceability?

A. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working orderB. How long a service or component can perform its agreed function without failureC. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of its contractD. The part of the business process that is critical to providing the service


Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=XioNx7Gqn0IC&pg=PA120&lpg=PA120&dq=serviceability+How+long+a+service+or+component+can+perform+its+agreed+function+without+failure&source=bl&ots=TWQMJV2sz9&sig=LD_rCuSE6B3lWZb82rW-_vv1MJE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj1gsXxzYXOAhXFRo8KHc5MAp8Q6AEIJzAC#v=onepage&q=serviceability%20How%20long%20a%20service%20or%20component%20can%20perform%20its%20agreed%20function%20without%20failure&f=false

QUESTION 137In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?

A. PeopleB. PartnersC. ProductsD. Processes


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Many designs, plans and projects fail through a lack of preparation and management. The implementation of ITIL service management as a practice is about


preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of the four Ps: the People, the Processes, the Products (services, technology and tools) and the Partners(suppliers, manufacturers and vendors).Reference: https://www.ucisa.ac.uk/~/media/Files/members/activities/ITIL/servicedesign/ITIL_Introducing%20Service%20Design%20pdf.ashx

QUESTION 138What should a release policy include?

A. Roles and responsibilities across all the service transition processesB. Roles and responsibilities for updating the configuration management database (CMDB)C. Criteria and authorization to exit early life support and handover to the service operation functionD. How request for changes (RFCs) are approved for software releases in the IT production environment


Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=fZK3CwAAQBAJ&pg=PA498&lpg=PA498&dq=itil+release+policy+include+Criteria+and+authorization+to+exit+early+life+support+and+handover+to+the+service+operation+function&source=bl&ots=XdTvivI5-X&sig=h0-HkYLlOfCoGPpGTm8_QUE_oRc&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjmkeLezoXOAhVCrY8KHQ61B9sQ6AEIIDAB#v=onepage&q=itil%20release%20policy%20include%20Criteria%20and%20authorization%20to%20exit%20early%20life%20support%20and%20handover%20to%20the%20service%20operation%20function&f=false

QUESTION 139Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been transitioned to the liveenvironment?

A. Service portfolio managementB. Service level managementC. Service catalogue managementD. Service capacity management



QUESTION 140What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?


A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT servicesB. It has an intended purpose or a resultant actionC. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and productsD. It has responsibility for creating policies



QUESTION 141What is an objective of event management?

A. To maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT servicesB. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT serviceC. To provide a channel for users to receive standard services that they are expectingD. To minimize the impact of incidents due to service failures that cannot be prevented



QUESTION 142Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?

A. The definitive media libraryB. The configuration management systemC. The service portfolioD. The service catalogue

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 143Which is used to assess business demand for services?

A. Premium business assetsB. Patterns of business activityC. Provider business assetsD. Predicted business architecture



QUESTION 144What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?

A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified servicesB. It ensures IT services are continuously aligned to business requirementsC. It defines the control of service assets and configurationsD. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages



QUESTION 145Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?

A. Change management


B. Service portfolio managementC. Service level managementD. Business relationship management


Explanation/Reference:Reference: http://www.list.lu/fileadmin/files/projects/TIPA_T10_ITIL_PAM_r2_v4.1.pdf

QUESTION 146What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?

A. Human resource modelB. Configuration baselineC. Service modelD. RACI matrix


Explanation/Reference:Reference: http://www.thecqi.org/Documents/community/South%20Western/Wessex%20Branch/CQI%20Wessex%20-%20RACI%20approach%207Sep10.pdf(page 9)

QUESTION 147Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle?


A. Testing the tool and training process managers on using the processB. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the toolsC. Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational environment


D. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 148Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?

A. Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metricsB. Process metrics, software metrics and financial metricsC. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metricsD. Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics


Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=h8q-ceduUGsC&pg=PA61&lpg=PA61&dq=types+of+metric+support+Continual+Service+Improvement&source=bl&ots=0hdWRAC4Fn&sig=Zc2JAODvh3osWZUTBaAFM-b1fck&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjf_N3E0oXOAhXKq48KHYlcCGoQ6AEIJjAC#v=onepage&q=types%20of%20metric%20support%20Continual%20Service%20Improvement&f=false

QUESTION 149Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?

1. Service Solutions for new or changed services2. Management policies and guidelines3. Business requirements technology and management architectures4. Process requirements technology and management architectures

A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 3 and 4D. 1 and 4



Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://www.ucisa.ac.uk/~/media/Files/members/activities/ITIL/servicedesign/ITIL_Introducing%20Service%20Design%20pdf.ashx

QUESTION 150Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between service providers?

A. Service transitionB. Service level managementC. Service operationD. Service design


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:ITIL Service Transition provides guidance for the development and improvement of capabilities for transitioning new and changed services to supportedenvironments, which includes release planning, building, testing, evaluation and deployment. The publication will consider service retirement and transfer ofservices between service providers. This Service Transition provides access to prove best practices based on the skill and knowledge of experienced industrypractitioners in adopting a standardized and controlled approach to service management.Reference: https://www.greycampus.com/opencampus/itil-foundation/two-strategies-in-itil

QUESTION 151What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?

A. It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected.B. It is a structured document with definitive information regarding all live IT services, including those available for deployment.C. It is a secure library in which all definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items are stored and protected.D. It is a set of tools and databases that is used to manage knowledge, information and data.



Explanation/Reference:Explanation:A Definitive Media Library is a secure Information Technology repository in which an organization’s definitive, authorized versions of software media are stored andprotected. Before an organization releases any new or changed application software into its operational environment, any such software should be fully tested andquality assured.Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Definitive_Media_Library

QUESTION 152What is the type of notification that should be sent when a threshold has been reached, something has changes or a failure has occurred?

A. an emergency changeB. an alertC. an emergency eventD. a request for change


Explanation/Reference:Reference: http://www.itskeptic.org/does-itil-explain-difference-between-alert-and-eve#comment-8564

QUESTION 153Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?

A. Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to raise an incidentB. Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which revels that an underlying problem exists, or is likely to existC. Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service deskD. Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes


Explanation/Reference:Reference: http://www.greycampus.com/opencampus/itil-foundation/problem-management

QUESTION 154Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management?


A. To ensure that problem records are circulated to all customersB. To ensure that the status of faulty configuration items (CI) is recordedC. To ensure that incident resolution times are aligned with business needsD. To ensure that incident workarounds are acceptable to the customers



QUESTION 155What is a characteristic of a process?

A. It requires a specific toolB. It is performance driven and measurableC. It provides generic technical skills and resourcesD. It does not react to a specific trigger


Explanation/Reference:Reference: http://itilexampreparation2011.blogspot.com/2012/10/01-10-explain-process-model-and.html

QUESTION 156Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?

A. Customers, users and suppliers are examples of stakeholders, who may be external to the service provider organizationB. External customers are those who work for the same organization as the IT service providerC. Internal customers are always charged for the IT services they receive from the IT service provider organizationD. Internal customers purchase services from third-party suppliers by means of a legally binding contract or agreement

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Reference: http://itilexampreparation2011.blogspot.com/2012/10/01-8-define-and-explain-concept-of.html

QUESTION 157Which capacity management sub-process focuses on the management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance?

A. Business capacity managementB. Supplier capacity managementC. Service capacity managementD. Component capacity management


Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://advisera.com/20000academy/knowledgebase/three-faces-capacity-management/

QUESTION 158Which is NOT an example of a pattern of business activity (PBA)?

A. The seasonal variation in customer purchases from a supermarketB. The peak period usage of counter services in a retail bankC. The capacity usage of the network supporting serviceD. The tendency for a government agency to submit its regulatory reports just before the deadline



QUESTION 159Access management is responsible for executing the policies that are defined in which process?

A. Service portfolio management


B. Information security managementC. Change managementD. Problem management



QUESTION 160Which term describes if a service is fit for use?

A. ServiceabilityB. UtilityC. WarrantyD. Availability



QUESTION 161Which stage of the service lifecycle has the purpose of looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness?

A. Service operationB. Service transitionC. Continual service improvementD. Service strategy




QUESTION 162Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service?

A. Customers, providers and documentsB. Information technology, people and processesC. Information technology, networks and peopleD. People, processes and customers



QUESTION 163What processes represent the scope of financial management for IT services?

A. Budgeting, costing and chargingB. Budgeting, accounting and chargingC. Cost models and invoicingD. Charging, accounting and billing



QUESTION 164Which process analyzes services that are no longer viable and determines when they should be retired?

A. Change managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Service level managementD. Business relationship management




QUESTION 165Which statement about Business Cases is TRUE?

A. Business cases should focus on both the financial and non-financial impacts of the proposed project or serviceB. Business cases should only focus on the financial impacts of the proposed project to secure support and fundingC. Business cases should only focus on the non-financial business impacts of the proposed project to secure proper high-level management supportD. Business cases should only focus on how the proposed project can lower costs and improve customer satisfaction, listing measures and targets



QUESTION 166Which statement BEST describes the stakeholders in service management?

A. A stakeholder can only be the customer of a serviceB. A stakeholder is any individual or group that has invested their money and time in the servicesC. A stakeholder can only be the provider of a serviceD. A stakeholder is any individual or group who has an interest in the management of the services



QUESTION 167


Which statement BEST describes the purpose of release and deployment management?

A. To deliver the functionality required by the business while protecting the integrity of existing servicesB. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service componentsC. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate.D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service



QUESTION 168The value created by a service is defined in terms of business outcomes, customer preferences, and which other element?

A. Customer assetsB. Customer perceptionsC. Business activityD. Business vision



QUESTION 169Which is NOT within the scope of service transition?

A. Managing major changes or new services into the operational environment.B. Defining how the service provider will meet the customer's required business outcomes.C. Ensuring that emergency changes are assessed for impact before implementation.D. Creating a logical model between the individual components and the overall service.

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 170What are the two MAIN types of activity in problem management?

A. Technical and serviceB. Resource and proactiveC. Reactive and technicalD. Proactive and reactive



QUESTION 171Which service transition process provides guidance about converting data into information?

A. Change evaluationB. Knowledge managementC. Service validation and testingD. Service asset and configuration management



QUESTION 172Which of the following form part of the five major aspects of service design?


1. Service solutions for new or changed services2. Management policies and guidelines3. Business and governance requirements4. Technology architectures and management architectures




QUESTION 173Which is NOT an objective of the change management process?

A. To ensure that all changes to configuration items are recorded in the configuration management systemB. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluatedC. To respond to the business and IT requests for change that will align the services with the business needsD. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users



QUESTION 174What is NOT within the scope of service catalogue management?

A. Contribution to the definition of servicesB. Interfaces between all services and supporting servicesC. Interfaces between the service catalogue and service portfolioD. Fulfillment of business service requests




QUESTION 175Which statement about internal customers is CORRECT?

A. Services are provided to internal customers under contractual agreementsB. Internal customers have different organizational objectives from their service providerC. Agreed levels of service are not as important to internal customersD. Internal customers are part of the same organization as the service provider



QUESTION 176What should a service design package (SDP) be produced for?

1. A standard change2. A minor change to a service3. Removal of a service4. A major change to a service





QUESTION 177Which stage of the service lifecycle includes catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

A. Service strategyB. Service designC. Service transitionD. Service operation



QUESTION 178A known IT service stops performing during normal business hours, then the user of the IT service calls the service desk.

What should the service desk open?

A. A problem recordB. A service requestC. An incident recordD. An emergency request



QUESTION 179Which CSI step would defining metrics be appropriate for?



A. Where do we want to be?B. Did we get there?C. How do we keep the momentum going?D. Where are we now?



QUESTION 180What is the ITIL guidance relating to the closure of resolved incidents?

A. Anyone can close an incident once it has been resolvedB. Only the technician that resolved the incident should close the incidentC. Only the service desk should close resolved incidentsD. Only the person who raised the incident should close it once it is resolved



QUESTION 181What term describes actions taken to recover after a failed change or release?

A. RemediationB. Restoration


C. ReactivationD. Reassurance



QUESTION 182Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

A. Service Catalogue ManagementB. Service Level ManagementC. IT Service Continuity ManagementD. Capacity Management



QUESTION 183Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages

1. Monitor, Measure and Review2. Continual Improvement3. Implement Initiatives4. Plan for Improvement

A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 ActB. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 ActC. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 ActD. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 184Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?

1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the aboveD. None of the above



QUESTION 185What is IT Governance concerned with?

A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of IT processesB. Ensuring that IT processes support the organization's strategies and objectivesC. Reducing the total cost of providing services to the businessD. Ensuring that targets documented in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met




QUESTION 186Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?

A. They must contain legal wording because of their importanceB. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customerC. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguityD. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer



QUESTION 187Which of the following are objectives of Supplier Management?

1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. None of the above



QUESTION 188Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?

A. Processes and functions


B. Maturity and costC. The end to end serviceD. Infrastructure availability



QUESTION 189Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes?

A. PlanB. DoC. CheckD. Act



QUESTION 190Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?

A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business actionB. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documentsC. A complaint by the business about a missed service level.D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract.




QUESTION 191Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action"?

A. A Problem modelB. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)C. A Request for Change (RFC)D. A Business Case



QUESTION 192The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?

A. The design and development of new servicesB. The design and development of service improvementsC. The design and development of services and service management processesD. The day-to-day operation and support of services



QUESTION 193Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A. Access managementB. Request FulfillmentC. Release and Deployment ManagementD. Incident Management




QUESTION 194To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

A. Validate; Direct; Justify; ImproveB. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; InterveneC. Validate; Direct; Justify; InterveneD. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve



QUESTION 195Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are bothways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service TransitionB. Risk ManagementC. IT Service Continuity ManagementD. Availability Management




QUESTION 196Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?

A. The IT ExecutiveB. The ISO27001 StandardC. The BusinessD. The Service Level Manager



QUESTION 197Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?

A. A change to a contract with a supplierB. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposesC. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incidentD. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services



QUESTION 198There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?

(1) Progress(2) Effectiveness(3) Efficiency(4) ?

A. Cost


B. ConformanceC. ComplianceD. Capacity



QUESTION 199What is the objective of Access Management?

A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildingsB. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locationsC. To manage access to the Service DeskD. To manage the right to use a service or group of services



QUESTION 200Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

(1) Known Error Data(2) Change Schedules(3) Service Knowledge Management System(4) The output from monitoring tools

A. 1,2 and 3 onlyB. 1,2 and 4 onlyC. 2,3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above




QUESTION 201"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service OperationB. Service StrategyC. Service TransitionD. Continual Service Improvement



QUESTION 202Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?

A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information aboutservices which are being considered for future development

B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for futuredevelopment

C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared fordeployment

D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing




QUESTION 203Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreedlevels to business users and customers?

A. Continual Service ImprovementB. Service TransitionC. Service DesignD. Service Operation



QUESTION 204Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?

A. Access ManagementB. Facilities ManagementC. Event ManagementD. Demand Management



QUESTION 205Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?



A. Something that won't happenB. Something that will happenC. Something that has happenedD. Something that might happen



QUESTION 206What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?

A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition booksB. The ITIL Complementary GuidanceC. The Service Support and Service Delivery booksD. Pocket Guides



QUESTION 207Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

(1) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business(2) The successful release of services into the live environment

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the aboveD. Neither of the above




QUESTION 208Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (Cis)?

(1) Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems(2) Assessing the impact of proposed Changes(3) Planning and designing a Change to an existing service(4) Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only



QUESTION 209Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?

A. The Service Level ManagerB. The Business Relationship ManagerC. The Service OwnerD. The Service Continuity Manager




QUESTION 210Which of the following is commonly found in a contract underpinning an IT service?Financial arrangements related to the contract Description of the goods orservice provided Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 211Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supportedB. To provide training and certification in project managementC. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment ManagementD. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release



QUESTION 212Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur


B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costsC. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by usersD. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities



QUESTION 213IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:

(1) Design of the service technology(2) Business continuity strategy(3) Business Impact Analysis(4) Risk assessment

A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only



QUESTION 214When should tests for a new service be designed?

A. At the same time as the service is designedB. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service TransitionC. As part of Service TransitionD. Before the service is designed




QUESTION 215Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:

A. Service Design: Design the processesB. Service Strategy: Develop the offeringsC. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deploymentD. Service Operation: IT Operations Management



QUESTION 216What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?

A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the serviceB. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service Level Agreements(SLAs)C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measuredD. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements



QUESTION 217As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?


(1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit(2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services(3) An external service provider




QUESTION 218What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A. Rapid, one-off improvementB. Return on investment within 12 monthsC. Quick winsD. Steady, ongoing improvement



QUESTION 219Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?

A. Service Level ManagementB. Change ManagementC. Incident ManagementD. Service Asset and Configuration Management




QUESTION 220What is the Service Pipeline?

A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stageB. All services except those that have been retiredC. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)D. All complex multi-user services



QUESTION 221Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been establishedB. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity ManagementC. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same timeD. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider



QUESTION 222


Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

A. The Asset RegisterB. The Service Knowledge Management SystemC. The Known Error DatabaseD. The Information Management System



QUESTION 223What are Request Models used for?

A. Capacity ManagementB. Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requestsC. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remoteD. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled



QUESTION 224A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

A. The RACI ModelB. A Release PackageC. A Request ModelD. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

Correct Answer: B




QUESTION 225Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

A. The Service Level ManagerB. The IT Service Continuity ManagerC. The Service Catalogue ManagerD. The Supplier Manager



QUESTION 226Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?

A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disasterB. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customersC. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or lossD. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation



QUESTION 227Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?


A. A measurement of costB. A function described within Service TransitionC. The team of people responsible for implementing a releaseD. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together



QUESTION 228Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

A. Demand ManagementB. Supplier ManagementC. Service DeskD. Request Fulfillment



QUESTION 229Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. Process owners are more important to service management than service ownersB. Service owners are more important to service management than process ownersC. Service owners are as important to service management as process ownersD. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization




QUESTION 230The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

A. The utility of a serviceB. The warranty of a serviceC. The economic value of a serviceD. Return on investment



QUESTION 231Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

A. The Change Advisory BoardB. A person that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change.C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change.D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorization for each change



QUESTION 232Which is a definition of a risk cause?

A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project toleranceB. The source of a risk


C. The overall effect of a risk on the Business CaseD. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation



QUESTION 233Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models?

(1) Roles and responsibilities(2) Template release and deployment(3) Supporting systems, tools and procedures.(4) Handover activities and responsibilities

A. 1, 2 and 3 only.B. 2, 3 and 4 only.C. All of the aboveD. 1 and 4 only.



QUESTION 234Which of the following are objectives of Service Design?

(1) Design Services to satisfy business objectives.(2) Identify and manage risk.(3) Design effective and efficient processes(4) Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure.

A. 1 OnlyB. 2 and 3 only.


C. 1, 2 and 4 only.D. All of the above



QUESTION 235Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.

(1) Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives.(2) Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved.(3) Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI.(4) Decision on implementation of further enhancement.

A. 3-1-2-4B. 3-4-2-1C. 1-3-2-4D. 2-3-4-1



QUESTION 236Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing Service Transition?

(1) Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements(2) Reduced cost to design new services(3) Improved success in implementing changes

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 only


C. 1 and 3 onlyD. None of the above



QUESTION 237What are the processes within Service Operation?

A. Event Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Request Fulfillment and Access ManagementB. Event Management, Incident Management. Change Management and Access ManagementC. Incident Management, Problem Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfillment and ManagementD. Incident Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfillment, Access Management and Event Management



QUESTION 238Which process or function is responsible for the Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares?


A. Facilities ManagementB. Access ManagementC. Request FulfillmentD. Service Asset and Configuration Management




QUESTION 239Which is the CORRECT description of an outcome?

A. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT serviceB. The inputs that trigger an action for an activity, process or IT serviceC. The prediction of the future demand requirements for an activity, process or IT serviceD. The design and development of the activities that make up a process or IT service



QUESTION 240A configuration model can be used to help

(1) Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems(2) Assess the impact of proposed changes(3) Plan and design new or changed services(4) Plan technology refresh and software upgrades

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 3 and 4 only




QUESTION 241Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?

A. RolesB. Inputs and outputsC. FunctionsD. Metrics



QUESTION 242Customer perceptions and business outcomes help lo define what?

A. The value off a serviceB. GovernanceC. Total cost of ownership (TCO)D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)



QUESTION 243Which of the following questions does the guidance in service strategy help to answer?

(1) What services should we offer and to whom?(2) How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?(3) How do we create value for our customers?


A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 244Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?

(1) Marketing information(2) Contract description and scope(3) Responsibilities and dependencies

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. None of the above



QUESTION 245Which of the following provides the PRIMARY source of guidance on what needs to be protected by information security management?

A. IT managementB. Service desk managerC. Business managementD. The change manager




QUESTION 246When tan a known error record tie raised?

(1) At any time when it would be useful to do so(2) After a workaround has been found

A. 2 onlyB. 1 onlyC. Neither of the aboveD. Both of the above



QUESTION 247Which of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

A. Any detectable or discernible occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructureB. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT serviceC. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT serviceD. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem




QUESTION 248Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

A. Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has been disruptedB. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staffC. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activityD. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manages infrastructure devices not services



QUESTION 249Which of the following is an example of self-help capabilities?

A. Menu-driven range of facilities used to access service requestsB. Calls to the service desk to register standard changesC. A software update downloaded automatically to all laptops in an organizationD. Software to allow programmers to debug code



QUESTION 250The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is availablethroughout the lifecycle"?

A. Knowledge ManagementB. Availability ManagementC. Service Asset and Configuration ManagementD. Change Management




QUESTION 251Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requestsB. Menu-driven range of self help and service requestsC. Web front-endD. A direct interface into the back end process handling software



QUESTION 252Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organizationC. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)D. The SKMS can include user skill levels



QUESTION 253


The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)



QUESTION 254In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT ServiceContinuity Management?

A. Service TransitionB. Service DesignC. Service StrategyD. Service Operation



QUESTION 255Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize the cost of training themB. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory rolesC. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimize salariesD. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained

Correct Answer: B




QUESTION 256Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

A. Services and InfrastructureB. Applications and InfrastructureC. Resources and CapabilitiesD. Utility and Warranty



QUESTION 257Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-DB. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-BC. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-DD. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 258A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?

A. The contract is being negotiatedB. The contract is about to be endedC. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soonD. The contract has been agreed



QUESTION 259Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelinesB. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedureC. A change that is made as the result of an auditD. A change that correctly follows the required change process



QUESTION 260How does Problem Management work with Change Management?

A. By installing changes to fix problems


B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolutionC. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutionsD. By working with users to change their IT configurations



QUESTION 261An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed to restore the service.

What has taken place?

A. A functional escalationB. A service level escalationC. An incident resolutionD. A hierarchic escalation



QUESTION 262Which function is responsible for the closure of an incident record?

A. Event managementB. The service deskC. Either the service desk or an appropriate third party engineerD. Any appropriate function




QUESTION 263What is the primary focus of component capacity management?

A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technologyB. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier managementC. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT servicesD. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion



QUESTION 264Which describes a proactive trigger for problem management?

A. Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to raise an incidentB. Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which reveals that an underlying problem exists, or is likely to existC. Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service deskD. Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes



QUESTION 265What should the IT service continuity process primarily support?

A. Critical IT processesB. All the services in the service portfolio


C. Business continuity strategyD. Mission critical services at peak business periods



QUESTION 266What BEST describes the customers and users of an IT service provider?

A. Customers buy IT services; users use IT servicesB. Customers design IT services; users test IT servicesC. Customers sell IT services; users improve IT servicesD. Customers agree the service levels; users buy IT services



QUESTION 267Which is the BEST definition of a supplier?

A. It is a third party responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT servicesB. It is a shared services unit that is responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT servicesC. It is a third party with responsibility for supplying goods or services that is agreed through an operational level agreementD. It is a mixture of internal and external parties that are responsible for providing goods and services to its customer group




QUESTION 268What is the pre-authorized change known as?

A. A normal changeB. A retrospective changeC. A standard changeD. An ordinary change



QUESTION 269What is a change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) called?

A. An eventB. A baselineC. A change to a service level agreementD. A request for change (RFC)



QUESTION 270Which is responsible for the production of the service design package (SDP)?

A. Service portfolio managementB. Service catalogue managementC. Design coordinationD. Service design




QUESTION 271What is the CORRECT definition of service management?

A. A set of specialized assets for transitioning services into the live operational environmentB. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for delivering value to customers in the form of servicesC. A group of events that meet the demand from customers for services that they receiveD. A group of people that manages services to fulfill the needs of users and customers



QUESTION 272How are groups, teams, departments and divisions classified?

A. ProcessesB. FunctionsC. RolesD. Technicians



QUESTION 273Can service operation improve efficiency in the business operation by automating common routines?


A. No, automating common routines improves effectiveness but not efficiencyB. Yes, through automating common routines and introducing the service knowledge management System (SKMS)C. Yes, through automating common routines, more productive work can be carried outD. No, automating common routines only results in preventing common problems



QUESTION 274What is the BEST definition of an internal service?


A. It is a supporting service delivered between functions of the IT service providerB. It is any customer-facing service delivered by an outsourced providerC. It is a service delivered to the terms of a contract which enables a customer to achieve business outcomesD. It is a service delivered between departments or business units in the same organization



QUESTION 275Which statements about best practice is MOST correct?

A. Customers are a source of best practice and will advise service providers how it should be implementedB. Internal experience is the only source of best practice because it is developed within the service provider


C. ITIL is a source of best practice and is validated across a wide set of environments and situationsD. Suppliers are a source of best practice and they will improve the services delivered by a service Provider



QUESTION 276Which statement about services is CORRECT?

A. External services are provided to business units in the same organizationB. Internal services are provided by suppliers to the internal IT departmentC. External services are delivered to external customersD. Internal services are delivered to external customers



QUESTION 277Which one of the following is a correct definition of a supplier category?

A. Strategic-for suppliers of operational products or servicesB. Tactical-for relationships involving significant commercial activity and business interactionC. Operational-for suppliers providing low value and/or readily available products and servicesD. Commodity-for significant partnering relationships that involve senior managers




QUESTION 278Which groups of people would work according to an operational level agreement?

A. Business unitsB. All stakeholdersC. External IT teamsD. Internal IT teams



QUESTION 279Which process monitors and improves the performance of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Transition planning and supportB. Design co-ordinationC. Change managementD. Service transition management



QUESTION 280Which processes ensure the targets in the underpinning contracts are appropriate?

A. Design coordination and service level managementB. Supplier management and service level managementC. Service level management and availability managementD. Configuration management and service portfolio management




QUESTION 281What is used to control a process?

A. InputsB. FunctionsC. ObjectivesD. Stakeholders



QUESTION 282Which describes an interface of incident management with service level management?

A. Incident workaroundsB. Creating a problem recordC. Incident response timesD. The status of faulty Cis



QUESTION 283What is the BEST description of the CSI register?


A. It is a record of all authorized changes and their planned implementation datesB. It is a record of proposed improvement opportunities and the benefits that will be achievedC. It is a record of new services to be approved by a customer, including proposed implementation datesD. It is a record of completed improvements and the relevant customer satisfaction metric



QUESTION 284Which is an outcome of service design?

A. User training and awareness for the service is maximizedB. Services and operational quality are enhancedC. Standard Services are provided quickly and efficiently across the businessD. Expectations setting of all stakeholders for the services improved



QUESTION 285Which stage of the service lifecycle identifies, defines and aligns the IT solution with the business requirements?

A. Service transitionB. Service designC. Service operationD. Service configuration

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)


Explanation



Date post:	05-Jun-2020
Category:	Documents
Upload:	others
View:	8 times
Download:	0 times