Karnataka 2004 PG entrance Exam with answerswww.aippg.net/forum 1-All of the following are chromosomal breakage syndrome except: a-Fanconi’s anaemia b-Ehlers-Danlos syndrome c-Bloom syndrome d-Ataxia telengiectasia Ans-B

2- All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except: a-Cell shrinkage b-Chromatin condensation c-Inflammation d-Apoptotic bodies Ans-C

3-“Macropolycyte “ in peripheral smear is a feature of: a-Hereditary spherocytosis b-Iron deficiency anaemia c-Sickle ceel anaemia d-Megaloblastic anaemia Ans-D

4-Most common second malignancy in patients with FAMILIAL Retinoblastoma is: a-Teretoma b-Medullary carcinoma c-Osteosarcoma d-Malignant melanoma Ans-C

5-Polyp in Peutz Jeghers syndrome are: a-Adenomatous polyps b-Hyperplastic polyps c-Hamartomous polyps d-Pseudopolyps Ans-C

6-Histologic hallmark of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is: a-Crescent in most of the glomeruli b-Loss of foot process of epithelial cells c-Subendothelial dence deposites d-Diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary wall Ans-A

7-All of the following are true for complete mole except: a-Diffuse circumferential trophoblastic proliferation b-Hydropic swelling of villi c-No fetal parts seen d-Triploid karyotype Ans-D

8-Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is: a-Comedo necrosis b-Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells c-Atypical lobular hyperplasia d-Desmoplasia Ans-B

9-In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to: a-Mucosa b-Mucosa and submucosa c-Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis d-Gastric glands Ans-B

10-Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing a chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis? a-Hepatitis C virus b-Hepatitis B virus c-Hepatitis E virus d-Cytomegalo virus

Ans-A

11-Example of type IV hypersensitivity: a-Coagulase test b-Mantoux test c-Schick test d-Elek’s test Ans-B

12-Recommended vaccines for rabies: a-DPT b-MMR c-BCG d-HDCV Ans-D 13-Pigment producing colonies are seen in: a-Pseudomonas b-Atypical mycobacteria c-Serratia marcescens d-All of the above Ans-D

14-Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose: a-Mycobacterium tubeculosis b-Staphylococcus aureus c-Streptococcus capsulatum d-Klebsilla aerogenes Ans-A

15-Germ tube test is diagnosis for: a-Candida albicans b-Cryptococcus neoformans c-Histoplasma capsulatum d-Coccidiodomycosis Ans-A

16-pH of sabouraud’s dextrose agar is adjusted to: a-4-6 b-1-2 c-6-8 d-8-10 Ans-A

17-Painless hematuria is seen in: a-Schistostoma hematobium b-Schistostoma mansoni c-Schistostoma japonicum d-Paragonium westermani Ans-A

18-Babesoisis is transmitted by: a-Tick b-Mites c-flea d-Mosquito Ans-A

19-Dengue fever is transmitted by: a-Tiger mosquito b-Jackal mosquito c-Wolf mosquito d-Lion mosquito Ans-A

20-Complication in Malaria are commonly seen with: a-Plasmodium ovale b-Plasmodium vivax c-Plasmodium falciparum d-Plasmodium malariae Ans-C

21-Type III category of basal FRACTURE of skull are: a-Those that run in the coronal plane from lateral end of one petrous through sella turcica to lateralend of

contralateral petrous ridge b-Run from side to side in the coronal plane but do not pass through the sella turcica c-Run from front to the contralateral back passing through the sella turcica d-Run from front to back involving all cranial fossae & sella turcica . Ans-B

22-The various component of a will to be valid are: a-A knowledge of the property to be disposed of b-A legatee can attest a will c-Presence of delusion not affecting in any way the disposal of the property or the person affected by the will

d-It should be made during lucid interval Ans-?

23-Reasons for marked variation in the shape of exit wounds of rifled weapons: a-Deformation of bullet during its passage through body and thereby presenting an irregular wound b-Absence of tumbling of the bullet in the body & hence it may not be able to exit with nose end first c-Intact bullet in the body after striking bone d-At times , both entry and exit wounds are of the same as in the assassination of kennedy , President of USA Ans-A

24-“Dry Submarine “ in custodia torture injuries refer to: a-Falanga beating on soles of feet b-Tying of a plastic bag ocer the ears c-Immersing head in contaminated water d-Suspending the accused by ankles Ans-B

25-“CAFÉ coronary “ refer to death in intoxication person during meals due to : a-Suffocation b-Natural cardiac death c-Choking d-Smothening Ans-C

26-The single test that confirms the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is: a-Coombs test b-Reticulocyte count c-Peripheral smear d-Hemoglobin electrophoresis Ans-A

27-The advantage of breast feeding to the mother includes: a-Decrease postpartum bleeding b-Prevention of breast cancer c-Spacing of pregnancies d-All of the above Ans-D

28-All these condition can produce metabolic acidosis except: a-Diabetic ketoacidosis b-Salicylate poisoning c-Gastroenteritis with dehydration d-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis Ans-D

29-All these condition are autosomal dominant disorders except: a-Marfan’s syndrome b-Hunter syndrome c-Osteogenesis imperfecta d-Achondroplasia Ans-B

30-All these conditions can produce first day jaundice in newborn except: a-RH incompatibility b-TORCH infection c-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d-G6PD deficiency Ans-C

31-Infantile hemiplegia can occur due to cerebrovascular accidents resulting in: a-Thrombosis b-Embolism c-Staphylococci d-All of the above Ans-D

32-Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to : a-Hemiphilus influenza b-Pneumococci c-Staphylococci d-Strepyococci Ans-A

33-The cause for anoixic spells in children include all except: a-Tranposition of great vessels b-Tricuspid artresia c-total anomalous muscular venous return d-Coarctation of aorta Ans-D

34-Gower sign is classical of one of the following condition: a-Congenital myopathy b-Werdnig-Hoffman disease c-Duchenne muscular muscular dystrophy d-Guillain-Barre syndrome Ans-C

35-All these condition are SEX chromosome disorder except: a-Turner syndrome b-Kline filter syndrome c-Super female d-Down’s syndrome Ans-D

36-Thought disorder is seen in: a-Obsessive compulsive disorder b-Anxiety neurosis c-Schizophrenia d-Psychopathic personality Ans-A,C

37-Repetative hand washing is symptom of; a-Posy-traumatic stress disorder b-Depression c-Anorexia nervosa d-Obsessive compulsive disorder Ans-D

38-Clozapine is a: a-Atypical anti-psychotic drug b-Anti-anxiety drug c-Used in dementia d-Also known as disulfiram Ans-A

39-Flouxetine is a : a-Anti- psychotic drug b-Used in opiate poisoning c-Tricyclic antidepressant d-Selective sacrotin reuptake inhibitor Ans-D

40-Fluctuating level of consciousness is seen in: a-Hysteria b-Delirium c-Dementia d-Mania Ans-B

41-After oral ingection of 8- methyoxypsoralen , how long an interval should be allowed before UVA radiation is given in PUVA treatment? a-1 hr b-2 hr c-3 hr d-4hr Ans-B

42-Which positive test does not necessarily indicate HIV infection in a newborn? a-ELISA for HIV IgG antibody b-p24 antigen c-Virus culture d-ELISA for HIV IgA antibody Ans-A

43-Each of the following ia caused by a pathogen of a Borrelia species , except: a-Erythema chronicum migrans b-Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicvans c-Epidemic relapsing fever d-Rat bite fever Ans-D

44-Which of the following may occur either as a result of an elevated antrogen level or an exaggerated clinical response of tissues to androgen? a-Acne b-Hirsutism c-Alopecia d-All of these Ans-D

45-Which of the following is found least frequently in patients with TEN (Toxic Epidrmal Necrilysis)? a-Anamia (erythrocytic) b-Lymphopenia c-Neutropenia d-Eosinophilia Ans-D

46-The target material used in X –ray tube: a-Tin b-Tungsten c-Platinum d-Copper Ans-B

47-The following are radiological features of sigmoid vovulus except: a-Inverted U shaped bowel loop b-liver overlap sign c-Bird of prey sign d-Cupola sign Ans-D

48-Medical sonography employs ultrasound frequency between: a-1-2 MHz b-Less than 1 MHz c-100 Hz d-Greter than 100 MHz Ans-A

49-Colour Doppler study can evaluate the follwing except: a-Direction of blood flow b-Velocity of blood flow c-Impedence index d-Intravascular pressure Ans-D

50-The Radionuclide used in assessing the renal morphology: a-Thallium-201 b-99mTc-DMSA c-99mT-DTPA d-99mTc-MAG Ans-B

51-In Ranson’s criteria to predict severity of acute pancreatitis: a-A serum amylase that is 4 times normal is significant b-Serum amylase level is not a a criteria c-Rising serum amylase level are important d-Serum amylase equals urine amylase Ans-B

52-Non-propulsive peristalsis is feature of: a-Paralytic ileus b-Impacted faeces c-Mesenteric vascular occlusion d-Incarceration Ans-C

53-The operative wound after surgery for gangrenous , perforated appendicitis is best managed by: a-Primary suture b-Delayed primary closure c-Healing by secondry intention d-Antibiotic lavage Ans-B

54-A thrombosed external haemorrhoid ( or perianal haematoma ) is: a-Painless, with gradual onset b-The 5 days , painful , self curing lesion c-Part of internal haemorrhoids d-A sentinel pile Ans-B

55-The ratio of males to female in the incidence of strangulated inguinal hernia in infancy is : a-5:1 b-1:2 c-2:1 d-1:5 Ans-D

56-Treatment of intracapsular FRACTURE in a man aged 60 years: a-Dynamic hip screw fixation b-Total hip replacement c-Hemiarthroplasty d-Austin Moore pinning Ans-C

57-Barlows test is done to diagnose: a-C.D.H. b-Cruciate ligament tear c-Shoulder dislocation d-Ankle joint instability Ans-A

58-Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as: a-Perthes disease b-Osgood schlatters disease c-Kohler’s disease d-Kienbock’s disease Ans-D

59-Spine ventosa is caused by: a-Leprosy b-Defect in the spine c-Tuberculosis d-Gout

Ans-C

60-Calcification of inter vertebral disc is a feature of: a-Ankylosing spondilitis b-Hyper parathyroidis c-Charcot’s disease d-Alkaptonuria Ans-D

61-Tom Smith’s arthritis of hip joint is due to: a-C.D.H. b-Post polio c-Pyogenic infection d-Cerebral palsy Ans-C

62-Osteosarcoma arises from: a-Epiphysis b-Diaphysis c-Metaphysis d-Bone marrow Ans-C

63-Reversal of albumin-globulin ratio is seen in: a-Osteochondroma b-Multiple myeloma c-Osteoclastoma d-Osteoid osteoma Ans-B

64-Treatment of bone cyct; a-Amputation b-Bone grafting c-Chemotheraphy d-Disarticulation Ans-B

65-Osteochondroma is also known : a-Exostosis b-Gaint cell tumour c-Ivary osteoma d-Osteoblastoma Ans-A

66-Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in the following condition: a-Acidosis b-Increase 2-3 DPG level c-Hyperthermia d-All the above Ans-D

67-Following are the effects of thiopentose sodium anaethesis except: a-Respiratory depression b-Reduced cardiac output c-Good uterine relaxation d-Low intraocular tension Ans-C

68-Contra indication for nasotracheal intubation: a-Basal skull fractures b-Neonates c-Difficult intubation d-Prolong intubation Ans-A

69-Blood collected from acid citrate dextrose can be stored for:

a-28 days b-21 days c-14 days d-7 days Ans-B

70-Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except: a-A reduced need for opioids b-Early resumption for normal activity and ambulation c-A quick awakening from general anaesthesis d-Increase of the stress response Ans-D

71-Corneal manifestation of Wilson’s disease is : a-Fleischer Ring b-Arcus Juvenilis c-Keyser Fleischer Ring d-Band Keratopathy Ans-C

72-Diabetic retinopathy causes : a-Traction Retinal Detachment b-Neovascular glaucoma c-Vitreos haemorrhage d-All of the above Ans-D

73-Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis is caused by: a-Contact Lens wear b-Ocular Prosthesis c-Protruding corneal sutures d-All of the above Ans-D

74-Ethambutol toxicity leads to : a-Steven Johnson syndrome b-Pupillary dilatation c-Visual loss with colour vision defects d-Bull’s eye retinopathy Ans-C

75- Field defect seen in papilledema a-Seidel’s scotoma b-Constriction of peripheral fields c-Centro-caecal scotoma d-None of the above. Ans-

76- Dysphagia for fluids but not to solids is seen in : a-Stricture b-Achalasia c-Carcinoma oesophagus d-Reflux oesopagitis Ans-B

77-Epistaxia in elderly person is common in: a-Foreign body b-Allergic rhinitis c-Hypertension d-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Ans-C

78-Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most commonly:

a-Acoustic neuroma b-Cholesteatoma c-Meningioma d-All of the above Ans-A

79-Gradenigo’s syndrome does not consist of: a-Abduscent nerve palsy b-Palatal palsy c-Aural discha d-Retro orbital pain Ans-B

80-Early symptoms of carcinoma larynx: a-Dysphagia b-Cough c-Haemoptysis d-Hoarseness of voice Ans-D

81-Physiologically, oxytocin is characterized by all except: a-Circulates entirely in free forem b-Plasma half life 5-7 minutes c-Level increase during labor d-Released in pulsatile fashion Ans-C

82-Studies have indicated the most important of the components of the Bishop score to be that related to: a-Dilatation b-Effacement c-Station d-Consistency Ans-A

Karnataka 2004 PREPG with answers83-The factor that is likely to influence the rate of relapce and prognosis in patients with ovarian cancer is: a-Tumor grade b-Tumor stage c-Intraoperative Rupture of tumor d-Presence of dence adhesion Ans-C

84-Most common symptom associatd with uterine myomas: a-Menorrhagia b-Metrorrhagia c-Pressure d-Urinary frequency Ans-A

85-How much is the risk of ovarian cancer increased above normal in a women with nonautosomal dominant genotype with one first degree related with ovarian cancer: a-2-3 times b-5 times c-10 times d-20 times Ans-A

86-What is the most common method for detecting early stage ovarian cancer? a-Evaluaation of vague gastrointestinal symtomss b-Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine pelvic examination c-Screening CA 125 d-Screening vaginal ultrasound Ans-B

87-Which ultrasound finding with an adnexal mass is most suspicious for malignancy? a-8 cm in diameter b-Several internal excrescences c-Cyctic with two thin septations d-Freee pelvic fluid

Ans-B

88-The most common major complication with Laparoscopic hysterectomy is: a-Urinary tract injury b-Bowel injury c-Uncontrolled bleeding d-Pulmonary embolus Ans-A

89-The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily an indication for expeditious delivery: a-Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication b-Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours c-Platelet count 80,000/ul d-Serum transaminase levels three times normal Ans-B

90-Independent risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except: a-hyper homocycteinemia b-Race c-Number of partners d-Family history Ans-B

91-Pregnancy- associated risk factor for pre-eclampsia include all except: a-Rh Incompatibility b-Multiple pregnancy c-Fetal structural abnormalities d-trisomy 13 Ans-A

92-The severity of pelvic pain in patients with endometriosis correlated best with: a-Number of implants b-Depth of invasion of lesions c-Type of lesions d-stage of disease Ans-B

93-accepted indication for Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) in endometriosis patients include all of the following except: a-Advanced disease b-At least one year of infertility c-Multifactorial infertility d-Advanced disease Ans-B

94-The data are most convincing for which theory as the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal cavity: a-Coelomic metaplasia b-Induction c-Embryonic rests d-Lymphatic & vascular metastasis Ans-C

95-Endometroisis has been found in all of the following location except: a-spleen b-Central Nervous system b-Exatremities d-Pancreas Ans-A

96-controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment for infertility is most useful in which patient: a-Women with premature ovarian failure b-Women undergoing cancer therapy c-Couples undergoing artificial insemination Ans-C

97-The formation of primordial follicle in human fetus is completed by: a-4 weeks b-8 weeks c-13 weeks d-18 weeks Ans-D

98-During pregnancy there is an increased respiratory sensitivity to Carbon dioxide due to higher circulating level of: a-Progesterone b-Estrogen c-Estriol d-Prolactin Ans-A

99-An effective and safe treatment for recurrent lag cramps in the second half of pregnancy is: a-Vitamin C b-Vitamin D c-Acetaminophen d-Calcium 1 gm. Twice daily for 2 weeks Ans-D

100-The Ureter: a-Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad ligament b-Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerve roots c-Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction d-Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and superior vesical arteries Ans-B

101-Who said these words: “To study phenomenon of disease without books is to sail an uncharted sea, while to study without patients is not to go to sea at all” a-Hamilton Bailey b-Sir Robert Hutchison c-Sir William Osler d-J.B.Murphy Ans-C

102-T1 & T2 images are a feature of which diagnostic test? a-Ultrasound b-C. T. scan c-Duplex scan d-MRI scan Ans-d

103-Who said: “SKIN is the best dressing? a-Joseph Lister b-John Hunter c-James Paget d-McNeill Love Ans-A

104-How do you get an ideal scar? a-Achieve quite, secondry healing b-Ensure tight closure of the SKIN c-Give antibiotics d-Minimize tension Ans-D

105-Hypokalemic alkalosis is commonly seen in surgical wards in: a-Excessive absorption of alkali b-Excessive vomiting in pyloric stenosis c-Eessive steroid use d-Diarrhoea with dehydration Ans-B

106-5% dextrose in normal saline is : a-Hypotonic b-Isotonic c-Hypertonic d-A blood substitute

Ans-B

107-Infection with Hepatitis B virus is associated with the appearance in the blood of all of the following except: a-Hepatitis B antibody b-Hepatitis B surface antigen c-The Dane particle d-DNA polymerase activity Ans-A

108-Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as seen at a microscopic level is called: a-Hyperplasia b-Metaplaisa c-Dyplasia d-Carcinoma in sutu Ans-C

109-The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in the fluid management of a patient with burns, is to ensure a minimum hourly urine output of: a-10-30 ml b-30-50 ml c-50-70 ml d-70-100 ml Ans-B

110-Example of indirect traumatic gangrene are all except: a-Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline and tourniquet for digits b-Pressure of fractured bone on main artery to a limb c-Thrombosis of large artery following injury d-That resulting from crush or pressure injury Ans-A

111-Axillary vein thrombosis is NOT a complication of : a-Throracic outlet syndrome b-Simple mastectomy c-Excessive upper limb exercise d-Strap-hangers Ans-B

112-The four points of probe placement in Focuced Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma (FAST) in blunt thoraco-abdominal trauma are: a-Epigastrium , R hypochondrium , (L) Lower chest, hypogastrium b-Epigastrium, R & (L) Hypochondria R Iiiac fossa c-Epigastrium, r 7 (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium d-Hypogastrium, r& (L) Lumbar region,R lower chest Ans-A

113-In the acronym “SWELLING” used for the history and examination of a lumb or swelling , the letter ‘N’ stands for: a-Nodes b-Noise (Thrill/bruit) c-Numbness d-Neurological effects Ans-B

114-A position Froment’s sign is associated with palsy of which nerve? a-Median b-Axillary c-Radial d-Ulnar Ans-D

115-Acute bactorial sailadenitis is managed by: a-Immediate sialography b-Fluid intake restriction

c-Cuture of the FNAC from the involved gland d-Use of broad spectrum antibiotics Ans-D

116-A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial remnants of the : a-2nd branchial cleft b-3rd branchial cleft c-1st branchial cleft d-4th branchial cleft Ans-A

117-About follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland: a-FNAC is diagnostic b-Lymph node metasteses are common c-Distant metastases are more common d-Local recurrence rates are low Ans-C

118-Poland’s syndrome of the congenital absence of the sternal head of the pestoralis major muscle is associated with: a-Mastalgia b-Amazia c-Polymazia d-Gynecomazia Ans-B

119-Chest drain insretion is safest when perfomed: a-In the apex of the chest for pneumothorax b-In the base of the chest for haemothorax c-In the ‘triangle of safety’ on the antero-lateral chest wall d-With the smallest bore chest tube available Ans-C

120-Disparity of the bowel ends during end to end anastamosis is corrected by: a-Cheatle’s manoeuvre b-Connell suture c-Lembert suture d-Czerny technique Ans-A

121-Odynophagia is : a-Throat pain b-Pain on swallowing c-Heartburn d-Painless dysphagia ans-B

122-For inoperable gastric neoplasms involving the cardia, the best palliation is by: a-Intubation b-Exclusion c-Pre-sternal bypass d-Gastroenterostomy Ans-A

123-Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by: a-Clambing the hepatic artery b-Occluding the portal vein c-Clambing the hepatic veins d-The pringle manoeuvre Ans-D

124-Splenic abscess is best treated by: a-Open splenectomy b-Laparoscopic splectomy c-Percutaneous drainage under image guidance d-Antibiotic only Ans-C

125-“Limey bile” is : a-Present in the CBD b-Thin and clear c-Like toothpaste emulsion in the gall bladder d-Bacterial rich Ans-C

126-Myelin around central nervous axons is laid down by: a-Microglia b-Schwann cells c-Oligodendrocytes d-Protoplasmic astrocytes Ans-C

127-Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by: a-Facial nerve b-Mandibular nerve c-Spinal accessory nerve d-Ansa cervicalis Ans-A

128-The paranasal air sinuses opening into the middle meatus include all except: a-Frontal sinus b-Maxillary sinus c-Posterior ethmoidal sinus d-Anterior ethmoidal sinus Ans-C

129-The following are the branches of the internal iliac artery except: a-Ovarian artery b-Uterine artery c-Superior vesical artery d-Obturator artery Ans-A

130-Which one of the followinf is attached to the lingual of the mandible? a-Stylomandiblar ligament b-Sphenomandibular ligament c-Pterygomandibular raphe d-Middle constrictor of pharynx Ans-B

131-The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is greatest on: a-The lips b-The palm of the hand c-The back of scapula d-The dorsum of the hand Ans-C

132-The visceral pain: a-Shows relatively rapid adaption b-Mediated by ‘B’ fibre in the dorsal root of spinal nerve c-Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to the SKIN d-Most closely resemble fast pain produced by naxious stimulation of the SKIN Ans-C

133-The fourth heart sound is caused by: a-Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices b-Vibration of the ventricular wall during systole c-Ventricualr filling

d-Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices Ans-C

Karnataka 2004 PG paper134-Lymphocytes: a-All originate from bone marrow after birth b-Are unaffected by harmone c-Converted to monocytes in response to antigens d-Are part of body’s defence against cancer Ans-D

135-Which of the follwing has the highest pH? a-Gastric juice b-Bile in the gallbladder c-Pancreatic juice d-Saliva Ans-C

136-The concentration of sphingomyelins are increased in: a-Gauche’s disease b-Fabry’s disease c-Febrile disease d-Niemann-Pck disease Ans-D

137-Salivary amylase is activated by: a-Na+ b-K+ c-HCO3- d-Cl- Ans-D

138-Glucose increase plasma insuline by a process that invoves: a-GLVT1 b-GLVT2 c-GLVT3 d-SGLT1 Ans-B

139-In the body, metabolism of 10 gms. of protein would produce approximately: a-1 K calorie b-41 K calories c-410 K calories d-41 calories Ans-B

140-Refsum’s disease is a rere neurological disorser caused by: a-Accumulation of glutamic acid b-Accumulation of glycine c-Accumulation of phytanic acid d-Accumulation of phnylalanine And-C

141-The term physical half life is applicable to: a-Repository preparations b-Prodrugs c-Radioactive isotopes d-Alkylating agents Ans-C

142-The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in chronic active hepatitia-B infection is: a-Zidovudine b-Nelfinavir c-Efavirenz d-Procarbazine Ans-D

143-The drug of choice ofr chronic myeloid leukaemia is:

a-Chlorambucil b-Busulfan c-Vincristine d-Procarbazine Ans-B

144-Which of the follwing antipileptic drug does not produce Hepatic Micromosomal enzyme induction? a-Phenobarbitone b-Carbamazepine c-phenytoin d-Sodium valproate Ans-D

145-The antithyroid drug preferred for use during pregnancy and lactation is: a-Propylthiouracil b-Methimazole c-Carbimazole d-Radioactive iodine Ans-A

146-The antibiotic known to cause “Red Man’s “ syndrome is: a-clindamycin b-Cefadroxil c-Vancomycin d-Azithromycin Ans-C

147-The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is : a-Lidocaine b-Bupivacaine c-Tetracaine d-Prilocaine Ans-D

148-Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergoes Hoffmann elimination? a-Pancuronium b-Rocuronium c-Atracurium d-Succinyl choline Ans-C

149-Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not cause hepatotoxicity? a-Isoniazid b-Ethambutol c-Pyrazinamide d-rifampicin Ans-B

150-The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is: a-Propronolol b-Atenolol c-Sotalol d-Pindolol Ans-D

151-Myasthenia gravis may be associated with a-Thymoma b- Systematic LUPUS erythematosus c-Hyperthyroidism d-All of the above Ans-D

152-Example of PRION disease include: a-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b-Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis c-Alzheimer’s disease d-None of the above Ans-A

153-The treatment of Herpes simplex viral encephalitis should include: a-Zidovudine b-Acyclovir c-Didanosine d-Symptomatic treatment only Ans-B

154-The drug found to be beneficial in amytrophic lateral sclerosis is: a-Riluzole b-Methylprednisolone c-Hydroxyurea d-None of the above Ans-A

155-The drug of choice for a patient with a combination of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and absence seizures is: a-Ethosuximide b-Carbamazepine c-Valproic acid d-Phenytoin sodium Ans-C

156-Complication of Paget’s disease include: a-High output cardiac failure b-Osteogenic sarcoma c-Pathologic fractures d-All of the above Ans-D

157-Causes of Rickets include: a-Dietary phosphate deficiency b-Distal renal tubular acidosis c-Small intestinal disease with malabsoption d-All of the above Ans-D

158-Causes of hypercalcemia include: a-Hyperthyroidism b-Hypothyroidism c-Hypoparathyroidism d-None of the above Ans-A

159-Drugs useful in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis include: a-Allopurinol b-Colchicine c-Probenicid d-Sulfinpyrazone Ans-B

160-Drugs considered safe in patients with acute intermittent porphyria include: a-Phenobarbitone b-Valproic acid c-Carbamazepine d-Narcotic analgesics Ans-D

161-The level of LDL cholestrol at which therapy should be intiated in a aotient without coronary artery disease and no risk factor is: a-100 mg/ dL b-130 mg/ dL c-160 mg/ dL d-190 mg / dL Ans-C, D

162-The most common karyotypic abnormality associated with Turner syndrome is : a-45, X b-46, XY c-47, XXY d-45, Y

Ans-A

163-Insulin resistance is defined as a daily requirement of insulin greater than: a-100 units b-150 units c-200 units d-250 units Ans-C

164-The treatment of choice for hypertension in a patient with phaeochromocytoma: a-Alpha adrenergic blocking agents b-Beta adrenergic blocking agents c-Calcium channel blockers d-Angiotensin receptor blockers Ans-A

165-Nelson’s syndrome is a complication of: a-Unilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome b-Bilateral adrenalectomy for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia c-Excision of a pituitary tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperlasia d-Excision of a hypothalamic tumor for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia Ans-B

166-The electrolyte abnormality typical seen in primary aldosteronism is: a-Hypokalemia b-Hyperkalemia c-Hyponatremia d-Hypernatremia Ans-A

167-The feature of subacute thyroiditis include: a-Elevated T3 & T4 levels b-Depressed TSH levels c-Depressed RAIU d-All of the above Ans-D

168-SIADH typical causes: a-Hypernatremia and a urinary osmolality300 mmol/Kg c-Hyponatremia & a urinary osmollity300 mmol/Kg Ans-D

169- The most common manifestations in Takayasu’s arteritis are related to occlusion of: a-Abdominal aorta b-Renal arteries c-Subclavian arteries d-Pulmonary arteries Ans-C

170-Nucleoside analogues used in the treatment of HIV infection include: a-Indinavir b-Nevirapine c-Didanosine d-Efavirenz Ans-C

171-Drugs used in the treatment of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia include: a-Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole b-Dapsone c-Clindamycin d-All of the above Ans-D

172-Drugs useful in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C include: a-Glucocorticoids b-Interferon alpha c-hydroxyurea d-None of the above Ans-B

173-Finding suggestive of an obstructive jaundice on a liver function test is a marked elevation of: a-Unconjugated bilirubin b-Conjugated bilirubin c-Alkaline phosphatase d-AST and ALT Ans-C

174-An abnormal D-xylase test is suggestive of: a-Pancreatic insufficiency b-Hepatic insufficiency c-A mucosal abnormality of proximal small intestine d-Colonic disease Ans-C

175-In a patient with hypoxemia the finding suggestive of hypoventilation on an arterial blood gas analysis is: a-Elevated PaCO2 b-Decreased PaCO2 c-Elavated pH d-None of t he above Ans-A

176-PQLI stands for: a-Physical quality of life index b-Physical quantity of life index c-Physiological quality of life index d-Psychological quality of life index Ans-A

177-Mean, Medium and Mode are: a-Measure of dispersion b-Measure association between two variables c-Test of significance d-Measure of central tendency Ans-D

178-Incidence rate refers to: a-Only old cases b-Both old and new cases c-Only new cases d-None of the above Ans-C

179-Generation time in epidemiology id defined as: a-The interval between marriage and the birth of first child b-The interval of time between the receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of the host c-The interval of time between primary case and secondry cases d-Interval of time between invasion by infection agent and appearance of first sign or symprom of the disease/ in question Ans-B

180-In the demographic cycle, India is in the : a-High stationary stage b-Early expanding stage c-Late expanding stage d-Low stationary stage

Ans-C

181-The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection in India as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was: a-20% b-30% c-40% d-50% Ans-B

182-Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to: a-All children between 0-5 years of age on a single day, irrespective of their previous immunization status b-Children in the age group of 0-1 year only who have not been immunized earlier c-Children in the age group of 12-24 months only,as the booster dose d-All children between 0-5 years of sge, whenever there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis Ans-A

183-In high risk areas the radial treatment for plasmodium vivax infection sfter microscopic confermation is administration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of: a-0.25 mg/Kg body weight b-0.50 mg/Kg body weight c-0.75 mg/Kg body weight c-1.00 mg/Kg body weight Ans-A

184-Couple protection rate in India is: a-30.8 % b-46.2% b-62.4% d-85.7% Ans-B

185-By international agreement , low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within the first hour of life is: a-Less than 2000 grams b-Less than 2500 grams c-Less than 2800 grams d-Less than 3000 grams Ans-B

186-For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of protein is expressed as: a-0.5 gms/ Kg body weight b-0.75 gms/Kg body weight c-1.0 gms/ Kg body weight d-1.50 gms/Kg body weight Ans-C

187-Lathyrism is due to consumption of : a-Red gram dhal b-Contaminated ground nuts c-Bengal gram dhal d-Khesari dhal Ans-D

188-Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of : a-Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium b-Chlorides of calcium and magnesium c-Nitrates of calcium and magnesium d-Oxides of calcium and magnesium Ans-A

189-Kata thermometer measures: a-Air temperature only b-Air temperature and humidity c-Air temperature humidity & air movement

d-None of the above Ans-C

190-The optimum floor space recommended per adult person in a dwelling place is: a-50-100 sq. ft. b-101-150 sq.ft. c-151-200 sq.ft. d-201-250 sq. ft. Ans-A

191-An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without sub damage to their hearing is: a-45 db b-65 db c- 85 db d- 105 db Ans-C

192-The permissible dose of amn made radiation should not exceed: a-3 rads per year b-5 rads per year c-8 rads per year d-10 rads per year Ans-B

193-The mean radient temperature is measured by: a-Dry bulb thermometer b-Wet bulb thermometer c-six’s maximum and minimum thermometer Ans-D

194-Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except: a-Shollow trench latrine b- Pit latrine c-Borehole latrine d-Septic tank Ans-D

195-Sand fly transmit the following disease except: a-Relapsing fever b-Kala azar c-Sand- fly fever d-Oraya fever Ans-A

196-The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia: a-Aniline b-Dapsone c-Nitrates d-All of the above Ans-D

197-The following drugs are useful in the treatment of isonized poisoning: a-Pyridoxine b-Diazepam c-Bicarbonate d-All of the above Ans-D

198-Gastric lavage is contraindicated in the following : a-Barbiturate poisoning b-Kerosene poisoning c-Paracetamol poisoning d-None of the above Ans-B

199-The following is not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:

a-Lateral rectus palsy b-Paralysis of conjugate dominant c-Pupilary dilation d-Nystagmus Ans-C

200-The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is: a-X- linked recessive b-Autosomal dominant c-Autosomal recessive d-Polygenic Ans-A"