Military Justice and Code of Conduct - … · Military Justice and Code of Conduct ... b....

BMC Study Questions Courtesy of BM1 Rick Ball www.boatswainsmate.net

Military Justice and Code of Conduct

1. Extra Military Instruction (EMI) can be defined as: a. Punishment for doing a poor job b. Help in an area that the member is strong and excelling c. Instruction in an area that the member may be deficient d. A tool used prior to NJP

2. EMI is intended for: a. Punishment b. Correcting a deficiency c. Pay back d. Get extra work done

3. EMI used as a legitimate training tool for: a. Improving efficiency b. Getting ahead on the worklist c. Conducting after hours extra training d. Punishment for not completing work on time

4. EMI may only be assigned if: a. Supervisor intends to correct a deficiency b. Training is needed c. Work load permits d. Approved by the Group Commander

5. EMI shall not be conducted for more than a. 4 hours a day b. 3 hours a day c. 2 hours a day d. 1 hour a day

6. EMI that is assigned by Commanding Officer may be conducted: a. During normal work hours b. During periods of duty c. During reasonable time outside normal work hours d. During a persons Sabbath

7. EMI will not be conducted over a period of time that is longer than_______to correct the performance deficiency for which it is assigned

a. Needed b. Required c. Two hours d. Necessary

8. True or False. EMI will be performed on the member’s Sabbath a. True b. False

9. True or False. EMI will not be used to deprive the members normal liberty to which the member is otherwise entitled.

a. True b. False

10. EMI may be directed to occur outside:


a. Commanding Officer

a. Normal Holiday routine b. Of home port c. Normal Duty schedule d. Normal work hours

11. EMI that is scheduled may: a. Purposefully limit a members actual liberty time b. Incidentally limit liberty time to complete the EMI c. Be doubled up on duty days as not to effect liberty d. Waived by the Officer of the day

12. A member who is otherwise entitled to liberty _________ commence normal liberty upon completion of EMI

a. Shall not b. Will c. May d. May not

13. EMI that is assigned during normal work hours does not need approval from:

b. Executive Officer c. Direct Supervisor d. Chief of the Boat

14. EMI that is assigned outside of normal work hours must have approval from: a. Commanding Officer b. Executive Officer c. Direct Supervisor d. Chief of the Boat

15. EMI is intended t corrected a deficiency and, as such an individual deemed by the command to be qualified must supervise the EMI. This EMI may be scheduled:

a. During periods away from home port b. During the individual’s duty schedule c. During periods of heavy work load d. During the supervisor’s work of duty schedule

16. EMI should not normally be ordered for a period exceeding: a. 7 sessions if consecutive and 14 days if not consecutive b. 14 sessions if consecutive and 1 month if not consecutive c. 15 sessions if consecutive and 6 weeks if not consecutive d. 30 sessions is consecutive and 6 months if not consecutive

17. If EMI does not correct the deficiency alternatives that can be considered are: a. Revocation of liberty b. Additional duty days c. Performance probation d. Reduction in pay grade

18. EMI is automatically terminated at the completion of the ordered period or sooner if:

a. EMI Commanding Officer deems necessary b. EMI Executive Office feels enough has been done


c. EMI Chief of the Boat approves d. EMI Supervisor determines the deficiency has been corrected

19. EMI is not considered appropriate for _____ or above: a. E-7 b. E-6 c. E-5 d. E-4

20. EMI performed must _________ and have ________ purpose of correcting the appropriate deficiency.

a. Link – Menial b. Relate – Logical c. Enjoy – Dutiful d. Not – No

21. Which are not examples of privileges? a. Leave during a particular time, Base parking, Commissary use b. Ship’s movies, Special services events, Special liberty c. Medical services, Regular pay, Annual Leave d. Special Pay, Exchange use, Exchange of duty

22. Final authority to withhold a privilege, ultimately rest with: a. Commanding Officer b. Executive officer c. Secretary of Homeland Security d. Level of authority empowered to grant privilege

23. True or False. Officers and Petty Officers without imposing punishment under Article 15, UCMJ may deny normal liberty to any subordinate

a. True b. False

24. A lawful deprivation of normal liberty may result form other lawful actions such as:

a. Not enough members to stand duty b. Pre-commissioning of a vessel c. Per-trial restraint d. For the good of the service

25. Commanding officer of a vessel during a port call may restrict members from: a. Sunbathing b. Renting mopeds c. Smoking d. Catching up on sleep

26. True of False. The incidental loss of liberty due to the performance of authorized EMI after hours is not considered punishment

a. True b. False

27. Who does not have authority under Title 14 US Code Section 89 to conduct Coast Guard Boardings.

a. CWO b. BMC c. SNBM d. ENS


28. Boarding Teams may use _____________ to compel compliance under Title 14 US Code Section 89:

a. As little force b. Excessive force c. Passive force d. All force

29. Which is not one of the things a boarding team may do while conducting a Coast Guard boarding?

a. Interrogate b. Inquire c. Arrest d. Search

30. True or False. Coast Guard boarding teams may go on board any vessel subject to the jurisdiction of the United States

a. True b. False

31.Which is not a suggested qualification for a mast representative: a. Officer b. Petty Officer c. Cadet d. Assigned to the unit of the commanding officer conducting the mast

31. Whose role is it to assign the mast representative? a. Commanding Officer b. Group Commander c. Chief of the Boat d. Executive Officer

32. When is the mast representative assigned? a. As soon as initial action is taken on the Report of Disposition b. As soon as the Chief takes action on the infraction c. As soon as the completion of EMI d. As soon as the JAG agrees

33. Which is not a deciding factor when a particular Mast representative is asked for: a. Practicable and reasonably available b. Is in the members chain of command c. Not involved in the subject of the mast d. Not expected to be a witness in the proceedings

34. True or False. The command is required to assign a particularly requested mast representative in every situation.

a. True b. False

35. The role of the mast representative does not include: a. Preparing for the mast b. Presenting the members side of the matter c. Speak for the member d. Assist the command in assigning punishment

36. The role of the mast representative does not include: a. Question Witnesses b. Present questions for the witnesses


c. Go outside the command to gain leniency d. Bring to the commands attention matters that important or essential in the

disposition of the matter 37. In addition, the mast representative may do all of the following but:

a. Allow the pre-mast investigator not to find addition charges b. Make a plea for leniency c. Solicit statements from the members chain of command d. Submit statements regarding the character of the member

38. Communication between the mast representative and the member shall be treated in the same manner as:

a. Attorney and client b. Parent and child c. Supervisor and subordinate d. Peer to peer

39. Who normally assigns the PIO (Preliminary Inquiry Officer) a. Commanding officer b. Group commander c. Accuser’s supervisor d. Executive Officer

40. Duties of the PIO shall not include: a. Not advising the accused of additional charges b. Ensure the section of the CG-4910 “Information Concerning Accused” is

properly completed c. Review charges and address each elements as per the MCM d. Question witnesses and collect evidence

41. Additional duties of the PIO do not include: a. Correct the CG-4910 and provide a copy to the accused b. Complete the Preliminary Inquiry Officer’s Report of the CG-4910 c. Conduct portions of the inquiry remotely d. Omit finding of the investigation to the accused

42. True or False. The PIO shall make recommendation for type and amount of punishment.

a. True b. False

43. The PIO shall include one of the following recommendation except one: a. Dismissal b. NJP c. Bad Conduct Discharge d. Court-Martial, Other administrative measures

44. Put the following in order of precedence. 1) CG Medal 2) Medal of Honor 3) CG Pistol Marksman 4) Kuwait Liberation Medal

a. 1,2,3,4 b. 1,4,2,3 c. 4,2,1,3 d. 2,1,4,3


45. Put the following in order of precedence. 1) Artic Service Medal 2) Joint Services Achievement Medal 3) Coast Guard Distinguished Service Medal 4) CG Meritorious Unit Commendation

a. 3,2,4,1 b. 2,3,1,4 c. 1,2,3,4 d. 3,4,2,1

46. Put the following in order of precedence.1) Silver Lifesaving Medal 2) CG Good Conduct Medal 3) CG Unit Commendation 4) CG Achievement Medal

a. 1,4,3,2 b. 1,4,2,3 c. 4,2,1,3 d. 3,2,4,1

47. Put the following in order of precedence. 1) CG Commendation Medal 2) Gold Lifesaving Medal 3) CG Basic Training Honor Graduate 4) Armed Forces Expeditionary Medal

a. 4,2,3,1 b. 1,4,3,2 c. 2,1,4,3 d. 3,1,2,4

Career Information

48. Which is not a qualifying requirement in becoming a Chief Warrant Officer? a. Citizen of the United States b. 8 years total service in Armed Services with 2 years of that being Coast

Guard c. Serving in pay grade E-6 or above and placing in the top 50% SWE for

E-7 d. 3 years of Good Conduct prior to date of deadline for appointment

49. Which is a non-qualifying factor for appointment to Chief Warrant Officer? a. E-6 BM qualified as a Surfman for 12 months sea duty requirement b. AVI, BOSN, ELC, INF, MED, or WEPS with normal color perception c. Commanding Officer’s recommendation d. ELC applicant with 18 months of sea duty as an E-5

50. All of the following are reasons to appeal marks except one: a. Correct information b. Prejudice c. Discrimination d. Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances

51. What is the first step in appealing marks? a. Contact your Congressman b. Verbally express concerns to the rating chain c. Request a complaint mast with the Executive Officer d. Send an E-mail to your supervisor expressing your concerns


52. Which of the following is not needed in the Letter of Appeal for evaluations? a. Letter of recommendation from Base Commander b. Specific reasons the competencies should be raised c. Examples of exceeding the written standard d. Signed employee review counseling sheet

53. As an active duty member you have ______ calendar days after the date the employee review is signed to submit an appeal.

a. 10 b. 14 c. 7 d. 15

54. As a reservist member you have ______ calendar days after the date the employee review is signed to submit an appeal.

a. 15 b. 45 c. 30 d. 10

55. True or False. The command must ensure all enlisted persons are aware of their right to appeal.

a. True b. False

56. True or False. Each commanding officer must ensure counseling and clerical assistance are provided to any member desiring to exercise these appeal rights.

a. True b. False

57. As a result of an appeal the commanding officer may not do which of the following:

a. Raise the mark b. Leave the mark unchanged c. Not include the mark in the total for the employee review d. Not lower the mark

58. The commanding officer shall endorse and send the appeal letter to the Appeal Authority within _________ calendar days of receiving it from the member.

a. 30 b. 15 c. 10 d. 7

59. The commanding officer’s endorsement shall include: 1) Specific examples for the mark, 2) Address extenuating circumstances, 3) Copies of members LES, 4) Copy of command’s endorsement to the member

a. 4,2,1 b. 3,2,4 c. 1,2,3 d. 2,4,3

60. True or False. The Appeal Authority has 15 calendar days to raise, leave unchanged or lower any marks that are being appealed.

a. True b. False


61. Which is not a true state concerning the uses of a Leave Authorization(CG-2519)? a. Do not use a CG-2519 for periods of Compensatory Absence (CA) which

are associated with periods of PCS b. Do not use a CG-2519 for periods of CA in conjunction with TDY c. For Compensatory Absence d. For sick leave less than 2 days

62. Which is not an individual’s right in making a Civil Right complaint? a. Communicate with the Civil Right personnel b. Bias treatment c. File complaint without reprisal d. Seek redress

63. Identify the individual’s duty when filing a complaint: a. Suppress and discourage complaints b. Attempt to resolve at highest level possible c. Retaliate against complainant d. Allow supervisor opportunity for remedy

64. This is the number of days a Civil Rights complaint must be filled within from date of incident:

a. 60 b. 30 c. 15 d. 10

65. How do you notify the command of a civil rights discrimination complaint? a. E-mail you supervisor b. Tell your watch relief c. Pass it during morning brief d. Tell your supervisor

66. Where would you find out the procedures to find out how to file a complaint of discrimination in the Civil Rights Manual?

a. Chapter 4 b. Chapter 7 c. Chapter 5 d. Chapter 6

67. Substance and alcohol abuse undermine all of the following except one: a. Ships morale b. Material condition c. Mission performance d. Safety and Health

68. Effective _____________ at all levels is necessary to curb substance and alcohol abuse in the Coast Guard.

a. Training b. Example c. Leadership d. Education


69. Any behavior, in which alcohol is determined, ________________, to be a significant or causative factor is deemed an alcohol incident.

a. Jury of peers during a Court Martial b. Commanding Officer c. Investigating Officer d. Person placing member on report

70. Identify the alcohol incident: a. Passed out in the back seat drunk when duty driver is struck from behind b. Shouting obscenities at a baseball game while in uniform c. Buying alcohol for your under age brother d. Sitting at the bar, when a fight breaks out across the room

71. True or False. An Alcohol Related Situation is defined as any situation where alcohol was involved or present, but was not considered a causative factor for a member’s undesirable behavior or performance.

a. True b. False

72. CDAR is an acronym for: a. Cutter Duty Awareness Representative b. Command Drug Alcohol Representative c. Command Duty Alcohol Responder d. Collateral Duty Addictions Representative

Fitness, Health and Wellness

73. Identify the statement that is not a stress management: a. Exercise vigorously for 30 minutes at least 3 times a week b. To maintain normal weight do not eat breakfast c. Develop and maintain a support system d. Do not smoke or inhale the smoke of others

74. Which is the correct way to avoid stress? a. Change commuting patterns b. Do not accept aggressive personalities c. Maintain unnecessary interruptions d. Do not go out for lunch

The National Flag

75. During a precession the National Flag shall be carries where a. Marching Left b. Column Left c. Column Right d. Marching Right

76. When flown with two or more flag, the National Flag shall be a. On a staff of higher size b. Slightly bigger in size c. Flown on a separate staff d. Flown in a higher position during times of peace


77. What are the only two pennants allowed to be flown higher than the National Flag during Church Service

a. Third Sub, Commissioning Pennant b. Jewish and Church pennant c. Fourth Sub, Oscar d. Alpha, Zulu

78. True or False. When used on a speaker’s platform, the national flag, if displayed flat, shall be displayed above and behind the speaker.

a. True b. False

79. When covering a casket the Union of the National Flag shall be: a. Unused during the ceremony b. On the right side over the shoulder c. On the left side over the shoulder d. Allowed to enter the grave

80. The National Flag shall be flow and displayed: a. Sunrise to Sunset b. Except during inclement weather c. 0800 to Sunrise and good weather d. 0800 to Sunset and regardless of weather conditions

Security Regulations

81. Top-secret information if disclosed could cause ___________ grave damage to national security.

a. Reasonably b. Totally c. Exceptionally d. Remarkably

82. Top-secret is information requiring the highest degree of ___________ . a. Protection b. Candor c. Safe Handling d. Shelter

83. Secret information if disclosed could reasonably be expected to cause _________ damage to the national security.

a. Grave b. Normal c. Special d. Serious

84. Secret information requires a ____________ degree of protection. a. Ample b. Substantial c. Generous d. Low


85. The unauthorized disclosure of confidential information could ___________ be expected to cause damage to national security.

a. Irrationally b. Practically c. Generally d. Reasonably

86. The Commandant can generate Top Secret information. True or False a. True b. False

87. Generally speaking the Coast Guard takes which approach when storing valuables such as morale money, medical narcotics, and morale weapons in the same containers used to safeguarded classified material.

a. There is no policy condemning this practice b. Is encouraged on Island Class Patrol Boats c. Shall not be done d. According to policy only during periods of underway

88. An authorized is a person who has ___________ determination of __________ for access to classified information

a. Favorable, Qualification b. Some what favorable, Certification c. Negative, Background check d. Favorable, Eligibility

89. When a security container is taken out of service it shall be inspected that no classified information remains and the built-in combination lock shall be reset to a standard combination such as:

a. 50-25-50 b. 25-50-50 c. 30-60-30 d. 60-30-60

Damage Control 90. True or false. A rapid chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of light

and noticeable heat id known as combustion a. True b. False

91. The lowest temperature at which a flammable substance gives off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied is known by what term?

a. Combustion point b. Fire point c. Flame point d. Flash point

92. The temperature at which a fuel will continue to burn after it has been ignited is known by what term?

a. Combustion point b. Fire point c. Flame point d. Flash point


93. What class of fire occurs in combustible metal, such as magnesium, titanium, and sodium?

a. ALPHA b. BRAVO c. CHARLIE d. DELTA

94. Class ALPHA (A) fire leaves embers or ashes and must be overhauled. a. True b. False

95. What type of fire occurs in electrical equipment? a. ALPHA b. BRAVO c. CHARLIE d. DELTA

96. What type of fire occurs in the vapor-air mixture over the surface of flammable liquid?

a. ALPHA b. BRAVO c. CHARLIE d. DELTA

97. A fire produces carbon monoxide (CO) when there is not enough oxygen present for the complete combustion of all the carbon in the burning material

a. True b. False

98. A fire produces carbon dioxide (CO2) when there is complete combustion of all of the carbon in the burning material

a. True b. False

99. Under normal conditions, oxygen accounts for what percentage of the chemical composition of air?

a. 10.5% b. 20.8% c. 30.2% d. 40.1%

100. Which of the following process in NOT a method of transferring heat

a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Glaciation

101. Heat, fuel and oxygen are the three components of the fire triangle? a. True b. False

102. Water is a cooling agent and the sea provides a ship with an inexhaustible supply. a. True b. False

103. AFFF can be used alone or in combination with PKP? a. True


b. False 104. Halon 1301 is a dense colorless and odorless gas that does not conduct electricity or leave a residue

a. True b. False

105. Dry chemical powders interrupt the chemical reaction of the fire by suspending fine particles in the fire. These particles put a temporary screen between the heat, oxygen, and fuel and maintain this screen just long enough for the fire to be extinguished.

a. True b. False

ADMINISTRATIVE AND CLERICAL 106. Any property, which is transportable, is an example of what kind of property?

a. Government b. Public c. Personal d. Private

107. This is a system for controlling the procurement, use, safekeeping, and disposal of property.

a. System Management b. Property Management c. Personal Management d. Quality Management

108. Property which has a normal life expectancy of more than two years, has continuing use as a self contained unit, is not consumed in use, does not lose it’s identity when put to use, or does not ordinarily become a non-serviceable component of other property is known as:

a. Non-renewing personal property b. Extended shelf life personal property c. Expendable property personal property d. Non-expendable personal property

109. This is the person designates in writing by name or organizational position, as being responsible for maintaining accountability and control of property within a specified area:

a. Property Custodian b. Property Officer c. Property Owner d. Property Official

110. A person responsible for custodial control of property within a specific area. This position is designated in writing by name or organizational position is know as:

a. Executive Officer b. Commanding Officer c. Property Custodian d. Property Officer

111. A property user is not responsible for the use and care of government property entrusted to them since it belongs the unit that they are attached to.

a. True b. False


112. Which does not belong on the unit’s property list as a mandatory item? a. Artwork b. Weapons c. Musical instruments d. Silver Service

113. What is a STTR and what is it use for? a. Shipboard Training Team Request, request team members from a CG ship

for training b. Standard Temporary Testing Requirements, Minimum scores for a passing

REFTRA c. Short-Term Resident Training Request, Documentation submitted through

the command to assign members of a unit to Class “C” training d. Stop Taking Toilet-paper Rolls, expression used by BMOW

114. What two methods do cutters rely on for the qualifications of their personnel without using Class “C” schools?

a. PQS & OJT b. 3PM & QRS c. OJT & Boot-camp d. PQS & RJR

115. Complete this statement: There are __________ quotas and _________ available to allow for formal schooling for each member of the Coast Guard.

a. Adequate, resources b. Several, monies c. Insufficient, funding d. A few, some funding

116. Cutters who find it necessary to internally swap a member trained for a specific billet with another member on a permanent basis, must first obtain approval from:

a. HRSIC b. CGPC c. TQC d. ESD

117. Which of the following does not it into the criteria for needing a formal school quota?

a. PCO/PXO b. EMT c. BO d. LAMS

118. TQC publishes list of training requirements by billet number that include course title and a course number that may look like this, “t-billet#”, in some cases this billet number is identical to the units ________________

a. WQSB b. PAL c. PDIF d. CGPC report

119. According to the Correspondence Manual the new memo replaces what?

a. Old Memorandum


b. Business Letter c. Basic Letter d. Rapidraft Letter

120. If a memo is _______ or more pages, the subject line (Subj.), the date and the SSIC will automatically appear on those pages.

a. 3 b. 1 c. 4 d. 2

121. The term “THRU” replaces what term on correspondence on memorandum? a. TO b. FROM c. VIA d. COPY

122. Which is numbered correctly in regards to numbering “Thru” addressees going from Unit to HQ. From: I. M. Doflatchy, BM1 Station Oregon Inlet

a. To: CG LANTAREA Thru: COMDT (CGPC)

b. To: COMDT (CGPC) Thru: CG LANTAREA

c. To: CG Group Hatteras Thru: CG D5-M

d. To: CGC Sherman (WHEC 720) Thru: CG PACAREA

123. True or False: To and Thru line include individual’s names a. True b. False

124. When signing a memorandum it should be signed where? a. Below where it is typed b. To the right of where it is typed c. To the left of where it is typed d. Above where it is typed

125. Never use _____________ in a memo and if used it should appear on the 2nd From line.

a. By direction b. Acting c. In place of d. Signing for

126. True or false: The use of the business letter can be used to correspond official correspondence between individuals within the Coast Guard.

a. True b. False

127. When corresponding on the subject of Operational Readiness which group of SSIC would be used?


a. 8000-8999 b. 16000-16999 c. 3000-3999 d. 1000-1999

128. When corresponding on the subject of Coast Guard Missions which group of SSIC would be used?

a. 13000-13999 b. 16000-16999 c. 4000-4999 d. 12000-12999

129. When corresponding on the subject of Ordinance which group of SSIC would be used?

a. 2000-2999 b. 6000-6999 c. 1000-1999 d. 8000-8999

130. When corresponding on the subject of Civilian Personnel which group of SSIC would be used?

a. 7000-7999 b. 1000-1999 c. 12000-12999 d. 16000-16999

131. When corresponding on the subject of Military Personnel which group of SSIC would be used?

a. 1000-1999 b. 2000-2999 c. 3000-3999 d. 4000-4999

132. When corresponding on the subject of General Administration and Management which group of SSIC would be used?

a. 4000-4999 b. 5000-5999 c. 6000-6999 d. 7000-7999

133. When corresponding with a company but dealing with a particular person what is used on the inside address?

a. To: b. Sir: c. Mrs.: d. Attn:

134. True or False: When using a window envelope type the address using normal capitalization, eliminating all punctuation except the hyphen in the ZIP+4code

a. True b. False

135. When formatting a business letter how many spaces are between the inside address and the salutation?


a. 1 line b. 2 lines c. 3 lines d. 4 lines

136. In regards to the salutation how many spaces is it indented from the left margin? a. 3 spaces b. 2 spaces c. It is flush d. 4 spaces

137. True or false: Business letters have no From line. a. True b. False

138. In a business letter which is the method of expressing dates? a. Day-month-year (05 May 2003) b. Year-day-month (2003 05 May) c. 03/5/5 d. Month-day-year (May 5, 2003)

139. When in the text of a business letter double spacing within paragraphs and indenting and numbering main ones. True or false.

a. True b. False

140. What is recommended in the case of a short letter (less than 8 line or 100 words)? a. All capitals b. A memorandum c. Double spacing d. An e-mail to substitute

141. The use of “Sincerely” shall be used in a business letter and placed where? a. Right flushed, 3 lines down b. Centered, next line after text c. Centered, 2 lines after text d. Left flushed, 2 lines after text

142. The use of a signature block shall be placed: a. Centered, 4 lines below Sincerely b. Left flushed, 4 lines below Sincerely c. Right, Flushed, 3 lines below Sincerely d. Centered, next line after Sincerely

143. Which is the correct use of the signature block if the person who is singing title appears on the letterhead?

a. LT Joe Weeks b. LT J. W. WEEKS c. LT WEEKS d. J. W. WEEKS

144. The inclusion of a title of a principal subordinate authorized to sign by title is expressed how?


a. Chief of Staff b. By Direction c. Commanding Officer d. Acting

145. A person that has formally appointed to temporarily replace either the commanding officer or a subordinate who signs by title, signs how?

a. Chief of Staff b. Acting c. Commanding Officer d. By Direction

146. If a letter has enclosures, that were mentioned and described in the text, the word “Enclosure” or number of enclosures preceding the word “Enclosure” is typed ________ below the signature line.

a. 4 lines b. 3 lines c. 2 lines d. 1 lines

147. Some examples of exceptions to a MINIMIZE would include all except: a. Messages containing critical intelligence b. Message alerting to a change to the Correspondence Manual c. Messages relating to movement of troops d. Messages pertaining to serious illness, accident, or death

148. When a message has the UNCLAS EFTO on the message, what does the EFTO stand for?

a. Elongated For Turn Over b. E-mail Forwarded Task Office c. Enter For Transmission Only d. Encrypted For Transmission Only

149. What does the term NOFORN mean as it relates to message traffic? a. No Fornication b. Next Office Forward Out for Retransmission Next c. Not Releasable to Foreign Nationals or Government d. Notice Of Federal Offense Reportable Now

150. What does LIMDIS refer to in a message? a. Limited Distribution b. Limited Destruction c. Limited Dissemination d. Limited Discard

151. What is AIG? a. Action Information Group b. Address Indicating Group c. Address Information Group d. Action Indicating Group

152. True or False. There are only two types of addressees for a message. a. True b. False

153. Identify the correct Speed Of Service Objectives: Flash a. 15 minutes or less


b. 10 minutes or less c. 30 minutes or less d. 20 minutes or less

154. Identify the correct Speed Of Service Objectives: Routine a. 30 minutes or less b. 1 hour or less c. 3 hours or less d. 6 hours or less

155. Identify the correct Speed Of Service Objectives: Immediate a. 15 minutes or less b. 10 minutes or less c. 30 minutes or less d. 20 minutes or less

156. Identify the correct Speed Of Service Objectives: Priority a. 30 minutes or less b. 1 hour or less c. 3 hours or less d. 6 hours or less

157. What is the Precedence Prosign “Y” used officially for? a. Terrorist Alert Yellow b. Yikes messages c. Supremely Important Precedence d. Emergency Command Precedence

158. Identify a Routine, R, message from one of the following examples: a. Attack orders to commit a force in reserve without delay b. Messages concerning stabilized tactical operations c. SITREP on positions of the front d. Recalling or diverting friendly aircraft about to bomb targets unexpectedly

occupied by friendly forces 159. Identify a Priority, P, message from one of the following examples:

a. Messages concerning imminent movement of naval, air, or ground forces b. Ship movement messages c. WX messages such as Hurricanes, Tropical Storms, Tsunami, Earthquake

believed to be previously undetected d. WX observations with wind speed 34 knots or greater

160. Identify an Immediate, O, message from one of the following example: a. Reports of warning of grave natural disaster (e.g. Flood, Hurricane,

Tsunami) b. WX observation with surface wind speeds of less than 33 knots c. Initial enemy contact reports d. Consolidated intelligence reports

161. Identify a Flash, Z, message from one of the following examples: a. Stabilized tactical operations b. SITREP on position of the front where an attack is impending c. Amplifying reports of initial enemy contact d. Warning of imminent large-scale attack

162. When generating message traffic which office would not receive an Office Code/Staff Symbol?


a. Group Long Island Sound Engineering b. LANTAREA Operations c. D7 Marine Safety d. TRACEN Cape May Medical

163. True or False: Although authorized, lower case letters will not cause errors when messages with them are retransmitted

a. True b. False

164. Which symbol has been approved for Coast Guard messages only? a. ? b. / c. @ d. “”

165. Which frequency is used for distress? a. 5330 kHz b. 2670 kHz c. 2182 kHz d. 4773 kHz

166. Which frequency is used by non-Coast Guard stations and Coast Guard for telecommunications after initial contact has been?

a. 156.8 MHz b. 149.3 MHz c. 158.6 MHz d. 157.1 MHz

167. Radio logs are required for all radio-equipped units except: a. Vessels under 65 feet in length b. Aircraft, except when serving as OSC c. Vehicles d. Vessels 65 feet and greater in length with TC assigned.

168. Which prescribes a uniform system classifying, safeguarding, and declassifying national security information?

a. Executive Order 129 58 b. M5510.23 c. Local SOP d. COMDINST 5510.23

169. Information shall only be classified when? a. To protect local law enforcement patrol schedules b. To protect the release of personnel information c. To protect the interest of national security d. To protect the property of the United Stated Government

170. True or False: Official information does require classification to be protected. a. True b. False

171. What is the Coast Guard Classified Information Management Program not designed to promote?


a. Effective classification b. Effective formatting c. Protection d. Declassification

172. The security of the US in general, and of the USCG operations in particular is effective because of:

a. Proper use of CG assets b. Granting permission to view classified information c. Safeguarding information d. Disseminating CG Directives

173. True or False. Some Coast Guard personnel are personally and individually responsible for providing proper protection to classified information under their custody and control.

a. True b. False

Uniform Regulations 174. True or False. The Commanding Officer of Training Center Cape May can establish more restrictive grooming standards for members of the permanent party.

a. True b. False

175. Eccentric hairstyles can be worn when? a. Never b. While serving on TAD c. While underway d. While not in a duty or uniform status

176. Bulk as defined by the uniform regulation is: a. The distance around the head b. The distance from the scalp to the end of the hair c. The amount of hair that protrudes out from the back of the headgear d. The amount of hair protrudes from the scalp when groomed

177. For men, hair shall be all of the following except: a. Block cut b. Tapered on the sides c. Clean d. Within the standard for bulk

178. Which is a not a false statement concerning women’s hair? a. Shall be visible under the front brim of the cap b. Shall have no more than one braid in the hair c. Shall extend below the eyebrows when head gear is removed d. Shall extend below the bottom edge of the collar

179. Which type of hairstyle shall not be worn by women? a. Afro b. Exaggerated Style c. Natural d. Bouffant


180. Identify items that cannot be worn in women’s hair a. Small plain cloth covered in elastic bands b. Ribbons and Headbands c. Pins and bobby pins d. Combs

181. What color of barrette can be worn? a. Gold b. Silver c. Platinum d. Aluminum

182. Visible hairnets will only be worn when? a. As needed b. Serving on the FS staff c. As required by the command d. Filling in for the mess-cook

183. Wigs may be worn while in uniform for all of the following reasons except: a. Cosmetic reason b. Give the appearance of longer hair c. Cover natural baldness d. Physical Disfigurement

184. All members must be clean-shaven, although mustaches are permitted except for which personnel serving as a member:

a. Coast Guard Diver b. Fire Party Nozzle man c. Coast Guard Recruiter d. Ceremonial Honor Guard

185. A beard may be worn for health reasons when a waiver is grated by: a. Commanding Officer b. Base Commander c. Unit’s HS d. Military Medical Officer

186. When a waiver is granted for a beard, the beard shall not be longer than: a. ½” b. 1/3” c. ¼” d. 1/16”

187. When a beard is granted with a waiver, prior to reenlistment certain criteria must be met from which manual?

a. Personnel b. Pay, Procedure, Policy c. Uniform Regulation d. Medical

188. Men’s fingernails shall be clean and how long? a. Not extended past the fingertip b. Flush with the quick of the fingernail c. ¼” past the fingertip d. ½” past the fingertip


189. Women’s fingernails shall be clean and how long? a. Not extended past the fingertip b. Flush with the quick of the fingernail c. ¼” past the fingertip d. ½” past the fingertip

190. True or False. Lipstick may be worn and can be mildly eccentric a. True b. False

191. True or False. The application of cosmetics shall be done in such a manner so that is in good taste and to enhance natural features.

a. True b. False

192. Metal or embroidered insignia are worn on the chest to indicate a special _________ or designation.

a. Certification b. Rank c. Privilege d. Qualification

193. The thread for items to be sewn on the uniform should be: a. In contrast to the item sewn on the uniform b. Always be sewn by machine c. Be the same color as the background as the item d. Be the same color as the insignia

194. When sewing the item on the uniform what is the correct number of stitches per inch?

a. 6 b. 8 c. 4 d. 12

195. BM3 Hard-charger has just earned his coxswain insignia; he then polishes it up to a bright shine.

a. This is prohibited b. This is variant from command to command c. This is allowed d. This is up to the individual

196. BMCM Lifer is attending a District Change of Command, Service Dress is prescribed, he has a Marine Safety, Surfman, Cutterman insignia as well as both Officer in Charge Afloat and Ashore, for a total of 5 breast insignias.



197. BM2 Spiffy is serving as Base Portland’s OOD, the uniform of the day is Undress, he has in the past has qualified as an Coxswain and a permanent Cutterman and proudly wears both while in the uniform of the day.


198. BM1 Good-Ol-Boy recently lateraled over from the Unites States Navy where he earned both the Surface Operation and Warfare insignias; he can wear both on his Coast Guard uniform at the same time pending the qualification have not been revoked. True or False

a. True b. False

199. An Aviator pin is: a. A gold toned metal winged pin with an anchor and the letters “AC”

inscribes b. A gold toned metal winged pin with an anchor behind a shield in the

center c. A gold toned metal winged pin with a silver caduceus superimposed on a

shield in the center d. A gold toned metal winged pin with a fouled anchor behind a shield in the

center 200. Identify the First Class Diver pin for LT Okay

a. A gold tone metal pin with a wet suit hood, face mask, and breathing apparatus surrounded by sea serpents

b. A gold tone metal pin with a wet suit hood, face mask, and breathing apparatus

c. A dull silver with a diving helmet and a breast plate surrounded by sea serpents

d. A dull silver with a diving helmet and a breast plate 201. BMCM Female conducts her OIC duties in the Tropical Uniform while assigned to Station Hatteras Inlet. She recently transferred from the USCGC BLUFIN where she was also the OIC. In passing you notice that her breast insignias were positioned as such: OIC Afloat closest the buttons and the OIC Ashore Outboard. Is this the correct positioning of the devices?


202. While wearing the dinner dress and formal dress blue jackets, men center the Command insignia on the left lapel approximately ______ inches below the notch.

a. 2 ½ b. 3 ½ c. 2 d. 3


203. Enlisted personnel will wear one gold sleeve insignia on each of the outer sleeves. True or False

a. True b. False

204. In regards to the Enlisted service stripes, one service stripe shall be worn for each _____ year(s) of active or reserve in any of the Armed Forces or any combination thereof

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

205. What is the approved color for the service stripe for the enlisted uniform? a. Crimson b. Red c. Scarlet d. Ruby

206. When more that one of the 5 ¼” inches long and 3/8 inch wide enlisted service stripes are worn how far apart shall they be?

a. ½” inches b. 1/8” inches c. ¼” inches d. ¾” inches

207. What would the enlisted group-rate marks for Airmen look like? a. 2 short diagonal red stripes b. 3 short diagonal green stripes c. 3 short diagonal white stripes d. A perched eagle with the wings extended upward and the head to the

eagle’s right 208. On the women’s double knit Service dress Blue coat, the name tag will be worn on the right chest ________ to _______ inches above an imaginary line drawn from the top button corresponding to ribbon placement.

a. 1 ½” to 2 b. 1 ¼” to 1 ½” c. 1” to 1 ¼” d. ¾” to 1”

209. If name tapes are worn, the wearing of U. S. Coast Guard is optional. True or False a. True b. False

210. On the women’s short sleeve light blue shirt ribbons will be worn on the left chest _____.

a. 1 ¼” to 1 ½” above an imaginary line drawn from the top button corresponding to name tag placement

b. 1 ½” to 2” above an imaginary line drawn from the top button corresponding to name tag placement

c. Midway between the 1st and 2nd button d. Midway between the 2nd and 3rd button


211. When the ribbons are worn on the chest, the arrangement of the ribbons will be by precedence from

a. Bottom upward and from the wearer’s outboard to inboard b. Top down and from the wearer’s inboard to outboard c. Top down and from the wearer’s outboard to inboard d. Bottom upward and from the wearer’s inboard to outboard

212.When ribbons are worn on the right chest, the arrangement of the ribbons will be by precedence from

a. Bottom upward and from the wearer’s right to left b. Top down and from the wearer’s right to left c. Bottom upward and from the wearer’s left to right d. Top down and from the wearer’s left to right

213. BM1 Rock-on passes you on the Quarter deck in his dress uniform and you notice that he has a Coast Guard Achievement Medal with a 5/16” silver star on it. What does this Silver Star mean?

a. The exchange was out of gold stars b. This is a replacement for 4 gold stars c. This represents the sixth award d. This is to accompany the “O” device on the ribbon as well

214. As XPO of Station San Juan you advise the crew that the uniform for the OINC’s change of command will be Tropical Blue Long. This is the correct decision for the uniform based on what?

a. Tropical Blue Long uniform can be worn to compensate for weather conditions

b. Tropical Blue Long is the most economical uniform for and enlisted crew to maintain

c. Tropical Blue Long is not prescribed for any change of command as per COMDT policy

d. Service Dress Blues will be worn for any change of command 215. Which uniform is to be worn when no other uniform are prescribed for all occasions or while in a travel status?

a. Service Dress Blue b. Working Blues c. Undress Uniform d. Tropical Blue Long

216. Which uniform is not authorized when it would be expected by civilian to wear a coat and tie?

a. Dinner Dress Uniform b. Tropical Blue Long c. Service Dress Blues d. Alpha Uniform

217. Seaman Stains is attending at the local high school an awards banquet in his honor for his participation with the local high school ROTC program, he arrives wearing the USCGC Cowslip’s unit ball cap while wearing his Tropical Blue Long uniform. This is the prescribe headgear for the uniform and situation, true or false.

a. True b. False


218. The Tropical Blue Uniform shirt will be Air Force shade: a. 1607 b. 1790 c. 1550 d. 1967

219. The Service Dress Blue A uniform is considered a modification of the Service Dress Bravo and should be worn in which of the following situations:

a. Business and informal social occasions as correct for local customs b. Change of command during physical discomforting weather c. Normal daily activities such as work parties d. Fulfilling duties of the Officer of the Day

220. While wearing the Service Dress Blue A uniform men shall wear a _______ necktie tied in the manner of a _______ knot.

a. Black, single Windsor b. Blue, double Windsor c. Blue, Four-in-hand d. Black, bowtie

221. While wearing the Service Dress Blue A uniform women shall wear: a. Coast Guard shade #3362 ascot b. Coast Guard racing stripe ascot c. Blue Tab tie d. Black Tab tie

222. While wearing the Service Dress Blue A uniform women, who wear a skirt shall wear:

a. Stockings are not required b. Flesh toned stockings c. Black stockings d. Blue stockings

223. While wearing the Service Dress Blue A uniform women, who wear blue trousers may wear skin tone stockings. True or false

a. True b. False

Personnel Manual 224. All rated and non-rated personnel are assigned by Commander,:

a. CGPC-opm-2 b. CGPC-rev-2 c. CGPC-epm-2 d. CGPC-nrpm-2

225. MK1 Lug-nut has just bought a house in the Miami FL area and he is slated to transfer during the next AY, he has requested to do back-to-back tours aboard the USCGC Farallon. Which statement is true.

a. This meet the spirit of the Geographic stability policy b. This is career enhancement at it’s best because of the ability to achieve

more sea-time c. Geographic stability does not mean a member can fill the same billet for

two consecutive tours d. The financial needs of the member out weight the need to relocate


226. SNBM Prop-wash is due to transfer in the upcoming transfer season; however, 6 weeks ago he completed the court proceedings for a D.U.I. and has some outstanding fines and will be on probation for the next 18 months. His assignment officer 3 months ago stated via message traffic the new duty station will be in state and as a result will comply with his subsequent probation order. There are no other issues with SNBM Prop-wash. Which statement is true.

a. This will not affect his suitability for transfer b. He currently is not suitable for transfer c. Upon his completion of probation he will be suitable for transfer d. Upon paying his fine he will be suitable for transfer

227. QM1 Blue-suiter who is assigned to USCGC MUSTANG homeported in Seward, Alaska has just received his performance evaluations with an average of 2.8 in the Military Bearing section. How will this affect his suitability to transfer?

a. QM1 is not suitable for transfer b. This will not effect his suitability to transfer at all c. He will transfer for evaluation or other administrative action d. He will be processed for discharge

Pay 228. While stationed aboard the USCGC Baranoff, the ship is transport over to the Persian Gulf in support of Operation Iraqi Freedom on patrol in a combat zone will you be paying Federal Income Tax?

a. Yes b. No

229. What is the basis for a member’s Legal Residence, unless requested by the member? a. Changes from station to station b. Residency at time of entry c. Legal residency is only necessary for those states that have state income

taxes d. Residency changes from permanent unit transfers

230. When is there a need to submit a new W-4 after the initial enlistment one? a. One must be submitted at each new duty station b. One must be submitted upon each promotion c. One must be submitted if the member transfers out of the original state of

entry d. One must submitted if there is a change to marital status

231. For the one time deduction of Federally taxed income for Reenlistment or Career Status Bonus, Lump sum, Leave etc, what is the flat tax rate?

a. 28% b. 31% c. 17% d. 35%


232. If a debt caused by overpayment of nontaxable items, BAS, BAH, what will result? a. Those allowance will continue as before and payment will be scheduled

by member for repayment b. Those allowance will be reduced to 75% of normal payment and the

repayment will be scheduled by member c. Those allowance will be terminated d. Those allowance will be reduced by 50% of normal payment and the

repayment will be scheduled by member 233. SN Stupid is a legal resident of North Carolina and has been in the Coast Guard for 3 taxable years. SN Stupid has failed to pay $2700 in state taxes. What can the Coast Guard to assist in the collection of those back taxes?

a. The unit XO will promptly place SN Stupid on report under Article 15 of the UCMJ.

b. SN Stupid will have his wages garnished under Coast Guard regulations to pay the owed taxes

c. SN Stupid will by direction of the Coast Guard Pay Manual pay all owed taxes back in one lump sum at a time designated by the said state

d. There is no authority for involuntary collection of delinquent state tax liabilities from the pay of military members

234. In regard to the Federal Insurance Contribution Act, which pay is subject to this tax? a. Basic Pay b. Career Incentive Pay c. Reenlistment Bonus d. Combat Zone Pay

Personnel Manual 235. While executing Permanent Change of Station (PCS) orders what is the status is the member in while in between permanent units?

a. Leave b. Temporary Duty c. Travel d. Compensatory Time off

236. While issuing TAD travel orders, when should orders not be issued? a. When they interfere with weekly weigh-in for Maximum Weight

Standards b. When they are in conjunction with leave c. When they interfere with weekly drug testing d. There are not limitations on when TAD orders can be issued

237. Which of the following is an approved Administrative Absence? a. Hometown Recruiting Program b. Operational Familiarization for members in receipt of PCS orders c. U. S. Olympic Tryout d. Family Relocation

238. Which is not a way to advance from E-1 through E-4? a. By special authority of the Commandant b. By their commanding officer (E-1 to E-2, & Class “A” Schools) c. Prior enlistment d. Striker program for FT, IV, ET, ASM, and GM


239. Calculate the credited time in rate using the formula from the personnel manual for 3.5 years in rate.

a. 3.5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 1.75

240. Calculate the total Awards point for a member sitting for a SWE. Achievement Medal (Navy), CG Good Conduct Medal (4th award), Commandant’s Letter of Commendation Ribbon (3rd Award), Navy Good Conduct Medal

a. 9 b. 10 c. 7 d. 8

241. True or False. A person can be advanced to E-9 from E-8 without competing in a SWE.

a. True b. False

242. Which is not a requirement for advancement to E-8? a. Served on continuous active duty in the USCG in pay grade E-7 for two

entire years b. Have no NJP, unsatisfactory conduct marks, court-martial, or civil

convictions for a period of 36 months c. Have a total of at least ten years of active service d. Completed the CG-CPO Academy

243. As a minimum, what is the lowest allowable average in any performance dimension for a person to be able to compete in the SWE?

a. 3.1 b. 2.9 c. 2.8 d. 3.0

244. For a person requesting a special evaluation for the May SWE, what is the deadline for those evaluations to be dated?

a. 28 Feb b. 31 Mar c. 31 Jan d. 31 Dec

245. A person can request a special evaluation for competition in the upcoming SWE for all except the following reason:

a. Performance probation period no completed b. Receiving a unsatisfactory conduct mark c. Just transferred to a new unit d. Mid marking period in hopes to boost evaluation average on PDIF

246. PS3 Weekender is attempting to compete for PS2 in the October Reserve SWE, when does she need to have her Performance Based Quals to the command?

a. 30 Jun b. 31 May c. 30 Apr d. 31 Jul


247. True or False. While reviewing the PBQ for PS3 Weekender her XO may challenger her knowledge of E-3 PBQ, if she fails to correctly answer them she may not be recommended for advancement to E-5.

a. True b. False

248. While engaged in Operation Iraqi Freedom, GM3 Kabang was assigned to USCGC BARRANOF in the Persian Gulf; he wants to compete in the May 2003 SWE, however his PBQ’s in the areas of WMEC weapon systems are incomplete. What can the command do?

a. Send him TAD to a Navy Frigate for a week to get the PBQ completed b. Deny his request to compete c. Sign it off and allow him to compete d. Grant a waiver until the task can be completed but allow him to compete

249. BM1 Whitewater is preparing to advance to BMC when does he need to have his CPO correspondence course completed for the May SWE?

a. 01 Jan b. 01 Mar c. 01 Feb d. 01 Apr

250. EMCS Battery-licker has competed in the May 2002 SWE for EMCM and is above the cut to be advanced, he has just been notified that he has also been selected for a commission as a CWO. How long does EMCS Battery-licker have to make a decision on which advancement he will take after the officer eligibility list has been published?

a. 15 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 30 days

251. FS1 Rock-gut was hospitalized due to a broken leg from a snowboarding accident and will remain under doctor’s care until after the next SWE. What are his options for competition?

a. He is unable to compete due to a non-fit for duty status b. He will be able to take the SWE after he returns to a fit for duty status in

July c. He will be able to compete from the hospital room with the doctor’s

assurance for a full recovery and CO recommendation d. He is ineligible and will have a medical board convened

252. BM2 Doall while serving aboard a WMEC as his first sea duty is transferred off the WMEC due to needs of the service. He is transferred 2 months prior to him meeting the requirements for the sea service to compete in the upcoming SWE. What are his options?

a. There is not sea service requirements for advancement to BM1 b. He will need to compete the sea service prior to competing c. He will not compete in this up coming SWE d. A will have a sea service waiver documented on his PCS orders


253. TCCS Underway started his cutter experience as a young TC3 back in Jan 1992 and has been underway on one type of cutter or another ever since until Jun 2000. How many Sea Duty Points for SWE competition does he have?

a. 13 b. There are no points for sea service c. 12 d. 14

254. Which is not a reason to withhold advancement? a. Not complying with Allowable Weight Standard b. Undergoing medical treatment c. Disciplinary action d. Holding an aviation rating but in a non-flying status

255. What happens to YN2 Bookworm when she is above the cut but not advanced when a new SWE and advancement list is published?

a. She will have to compete in the next SWE b. She will not be eligible for competition c. She will be carried over and place in order she was in prior to the SWE d. She will have points credited and compete in the upcoming SWE

256. Who signs the Chief Petty Officer appointment certificates? a. Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard & Commandant b. District Commander & Master Chief Petty Officer of the District c. Commandant d. Commanding Officer

257. Which is not a general provision for reduction in rate a. Punishment in accordance with UCMJ b. Erroneous advancement c. Competency d. Fraudulent advancement

258. Sick leave should not exceed a cumulative total of 30 days, but postnatal recovery is authorized for how many days?

a. 37 days b. 42 days c. 45 days d. 30 days

259. When traveling on Emergency Leave Orders, how many copies of the orders are required?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 10

260.

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