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SSC MTS Free E-Book
As per the latest revised notification, we are providing the new exam pattern & syllabus of SSC MTS 2016 Exam which is going to be held from 16th September 2017 to 26th October 2017. Candidates are advised to prepare the expected SSC
Multitasking Staff exam syllabus and SSC MTS exam pattern as given below. This year SSC MTS Paper-1 will be conducted
online. Candidates need to stay connected with us, we will keep on providing useful information like study plan & notes for
SSC MTS exam preparation.
Latest Changes in SSC MTS Exam Pattern 2016
• Paper will be conducted in Online mode.
• Number of questions reduced to 100 from 150.
• Time is also reduced to 1 Hour 30 Minutes from 2 Hours. • Equal weightage of all subjects.
• Paper will be of 100 marks instead of 150.
SC MTS New Exam Pattern 2016
SSC MTS Exam consists of two papers. Paper-I is objective type paper and Paper II is descriptive paper. Kindly check the
exam pattern of paper-1 and paper-2 in the below table.
Paper-1
Subject Maximum
Marks Total Duration/ Timing
Intelligence Reasoning
(25 Questions) 25
90 minutes
Numerical Aptitude
(25 Questions) 25
General English
(25Questions) 25
General Awareness
(25Questions) 25
Paper-2
Short Essay/Letter in English or any language
included in the 8th
Schedule of the
Constitution
50 30 minutes
Note: Latest Changes in Exam Pattern are completely based on the information provided by SSC. You can
check the Practice Test here.
SSC MTS Syllabus 2016
The paper 1 of SSC MTS Exam is objective type. There are 100 questions asked in paper-1 for which Candidates gets 90
minutes. Questions will be based on following topics:
• General Intelligence and Reasoning
• Quantitative Aptitude
• General Awareness
• English Language
Go through the section wise detailed syllabus of SSC MTS Exam in below table. You can also check the study material to
boost your preparation.
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Reasoning Syllabus
Subjects Weightage Study Material
Analogy 2-3
Important Books, Study Plan, and
Quizzes for Reasoning section.
Classification 3-4
Missing Number 2-3
Matrix 1
Word Formation 1-2
Coding-Decoding 1-2
Simplification 2-3
Arrangement of words 1-2
Blood Relation 1
Distance & Direction 2-3
Number/Word Series 2-3
Non-Verbal (Paper Cutting & Folding, Mirror & Water Image,
Embedded figures, Figure Completion, Counting)
Embedded figures, Figure Completion, Counting of figure)
4-5
Verbal (Statement Conclusion, Assertion & Reason,
Statement & Inference, Arguments) 0-1
Quantitative Aptitude Syllabus
Subjects Weightage Study Material
Ratio & Proportion 1-2
Study Material of Quantitative Aptitude.
Percentage 1-2
HCF & LCM 1-2
SI & CI 2-3
Profit, Loss & Discount 2-3
Time & Work 2-3
Time, Distance & Speed 1-2
Average 1-2
Problem on ages 2-3
Number System 3-4
Number Series 1-2
Data Interpretation 2-3
Mensuration 1-2
Geometry 1
Mixture & Allegation 1-2
Trigonometry 1
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English Syllabus
Subjects Weightage Study Material
Reading Comprehension 5
Important Quizzes, Strategy to prepare
English Section.
Fill in the blanks 2-3
Error Spotting 2-3
Sentence Correction 2-3
Synonym & Antonym 2-3
Idioms & Phrases 2-3
One Word Substitution 2-3
Spelling Error 1-2
General Awareness Syllabus
Subjects Weightage Study Material
History 2-3
Latest GK for SSC MTS Exam.
Geography 2-3
Polity 1-2
Economics 2-3
Chemistry 2-3
Biology 2-3
Physics 3-4
Computer 2-3
Static GK (Imp. Dates, Sports, Awards,
Schemes, Books & Authors etc.) 2-3
Current Affairs 2-3
SSC MTS Selection Process
Step I: Candidates will be shortlisted for the Paper-II on the basis of their performance in Paper-I.
Step II: Paper-II will only of qualifying nature. The cut-offs in Paper-I and qualifying marks in Paper-II may be different
for vacancies in each State/UT will be fixed at the discretion of the Commission.
Step III: Candidates for each State/UT will be finally selected based on their performance in Paper-I, subject to their
meeting basic qualifying standards fixed in Paper-II.
Important Points to Remember
Point 1: Paper-I will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only.
Point 2: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep
this in mind while answering the questions.
Point 3: Paper-II will be descriptive in which the candidate will be required to write short essay/letter in English or any
language included in the 8th schedule of the Constitution.
SSC MTS Free Mock Test on Updated Pattern with Answer Key
SSC MTS 2016 Online Exam Pattern has changed as per the latest instruction available on SSC CGL website. To help you with the exam pattern, we are providing SSC MTS Free Mock Test based on latest pattern with Answer. You can take the mock test and check your answers through answer key.
If you want to get detailed solutions with analysis, you can get it through Gradeup Online Test Series through link here
You can also take SSC MTS Online test on latest pattern through Gradeup test series app available here
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1. In the following question, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
Yes: No:: Alive : ?
A. Life B. Live
C. Dead D. None of These 2. In the following question, select the related
word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.
83 : 25 : : 29 : ?
A. 25 B. 16 C. 49 D. 36
3. Direction: In the following question, select the
related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.
72 : 18 : : 56 : ?
A. 24 B. 14 C. 20 D. 16
4. Direction: In the following questions, which one of
the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
1). Line
2). Angle
3). Square 4). Triangle
A. 2, 1, 4, 3 B. 3, 4, 1, 2
C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 4, 3
5. Which of the following inter change of signs or figures would make the given equation correct?
A. + and × B. 5 and 10
C. + and - D. 5 and 2
6. If ‘×’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘×’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then
A. 1800 B. 113
C. 2000 D. 123
7. A cyclist goes 30 km to North and then turning to East he goes 40 km. Again he turns to his right and
goes 20 km. After this he turns to his right and
goes 40 km. How far is he from his starting point?
A. 20 km B. 10 km C. 25 km D. 40 km
8. Direction: Which one of the following diagrams
represents the relationship between Cows, Animals
and Goats ?
A. B.
C. D. 9. In the following question, select the missing
number from the given responses.
A. 107 B. 77
C. 27 D. 50
10. In the following question, some equations are
solved on the basis; find out the correct answer for
the unsolved equation. If 526 = 9 and 834 = 9, then 716 = ?
A. 9 B. 12
C. 20 D. 15
11. In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash was shifted by two places towards the left, he became 7th from
the left end. What was his earlier position from the
right end of the row?
A. 7th B. 8th C. 9th D. l0th
12. In the following question, from the given
alternative select the word which cannot be formed
using the letters of the given word. ADMINISTRATOR
A. ADMIT B. NEST
C. MANIA D. ROAD
13. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word.
COMPANIONSHIP
A. OPINION B. NATION
C. OPEN D. OPIUM 14. In the following question, a series is given with one
term missing. Choose the correct alternative from
the given ones that will complete the series.
32, 58, 92, 134, ___?__. A. 184 B. 194
C. 156 D. 169
15. Select the one which is different from the other
three responses. A. Rain B. Cloud
C. Mist D. Fog
16. Direction: Select the one which is different from
the other three responses. A. 82 - 73 B. 66 - 68
C. 26 - 17 D. 55 - 46
17. If A = 1, ACT = 24, then FAT = ?
A. 26 B. 25 C. 27 D. 24
18. Two statements are given followed by four
conclusions (I), (II), (III) and (IV). You have to
consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follow from the given
statements. Indicate your answer. Statements:
Some teachers are students.
All students are girls.
Conclusions: (I) All teachers are girls.
(II) Some girls are teachers.
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(III) Some girls are students.
(IV) All students are teachers.
A. Only (I) follows B. Only (1), (II), and (III) follow
C. Only (II) and (III) follow
D. All follow
19. If m * n = m2 – mn – 2, then (–4 * –5) = ? A. –6 B. -2
C. 6 D. 7
20. In the following question, from the given answer
figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Question Figure
A. B.
C. D.
21. Direction: Which answer figure will complete the question figure ?
Question Figure
A. B.
C. D.
22. Find out the mirror image of the given figure. Question Figure :
A. B.
C. D. 23. Direction: A piece of paper is folded and cut as
shown below in the question figures. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear
when opened? Questions Figure:
A. B.
C. D. 24. From the following two different appearance of a
dice, which number lies to the opposite of 2?
A. 1 B. 4
C. 6 D. 5
25. Direction: Which number is on the face opposite 4, if the four different positions of a dice are as
shown in the figures given below?
A. 5 B. 3
C. 4 D. 1
26. There are two containers of equal capacity. The ratio of milk to water in the first container is 2 : 1,
in the second container 9 : 5. If they are mixed up,
the ratio of milk to water in the mixture will be
A. 54 : 29 B. 55 : 29 C. 29 : 55 D. 2 : 1
E. 53 : 29
27. A number is increased by 10% and then decreased
by 10%. Finally the number A. does not change
B. decreases by 1%
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C. increases by 1%
D. 0increases by 0.1%
28. Arbind spends 75% of his income and saves the rest. His income is increased by 20% and he
increases his expenditure by 10%. Then the
increase in savings in percentage is
A. 55% B. 52% C. 50% D. 48%
29. A mother after 4 yr will be twice the age of her
daughter after 4 years. The sum of their present
ages is 46. What is the present age of the daughter?
A. 14 yr B. 15 yr
C. 16 yr D. None of these
30. If 20% of A=30% of of C, then A: B: C: is
A. 2:3:16 B. 3:2:16
C. 10:15:18 D. 15:10:18 31. A bag contains Rs. 187 in the form of Rs. 1,50
paise and 10 paise coins in the ration 3:4:5. Then,
the number of each types of coins is
A. 102, 136 and 170 B. 100, 128 and 150 C. 101, 135 and 169 D. None of these
32. Having the same capacity 9 pipes fill up a
swimming pool in 20 minutes. How many pipes of
the same capacity are required to fill up the same swimming pool in 18 minutes?
A. 10 B. 12
C. 15 D. 18
33. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at
4% per annum is ₹ 1. Find the sum.
A. ₹ 630 B. ₹ 620
C. ₹ 625 D. ₹ 635 34. A reduction of 10 % in the price of a commodity
enables a person to buy 25 kg more for Rs. 225
the original price of the commodity per kg was
A. Rs 2 B. Rs 1
C. Rs 2.50 D. Rs 1.50 35. What price should a shopkeeper mark on an article
costing him ₹ 200 to gain 35% after allowing a
discount of 25%?
A. ₹ 270 B. ₹ 300 C. ₹ 330 D. ₹ 360
36. is equal to :
A. 98999 B. 99899
C. 99989 D. 99998 37. Two trains start from station A and B and travel
towards each other at speeds of 16 miles/hour and
21 miles/hour respectively. At the time of their
meeting, the second train has travelled 60 miles more than the first. The distance between A and B
(in miles) is:
A. 444 B. 496
C. 333 D. 540 38. A does half as much work as B in one-third of the
time taken by B. If together they take 10 days to
complete a work, then the time taken by B alone to
do it would have been
A. 30 days B. 25 days C. 6 days D. 12 days
39. With an average speed of 40 km/hr, a train
reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an
average speed of 35 km/hr, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is
A. 30 km B. 40 km
C. 70 km D. 80 km
40. The speed of a boat in still water is 10km/hr. It covers upstream a distance of 45 km in 6 hours.
The speed (in km/hr) of the stream is
A. 2.5 B. 3
C. 3.5 D. 4 41. The least perfect square number, which is divisible
by each of the numbers 16, 20 and 24 is :
A. 1600 B. 3600
C. 6400 D. 14400
42. For a triangle, base is cm and two base angles are 30 ° and 60. Then height of the triangle is
A. cm B. 4.5 cm
C. cm D. cm
43. The mean value of 20 observations was found to
be 75, but later on it was detected that 97 was
misread as 79. Find the correct mean. A. 75.7 B. 75.8
C. 75.9 D. 75.6
44. The volumes of a cylinder and a cone are in the
ratio3 : 1. Find their diameters and then compare them when their heights are equal.
A. Diameter of cylinder = 2 times of diameter of
cone
B. Diameter of cylinder = Diameter of cone C. Diameter of cylinder > Diameter of cone
D. Diameter of cylinder < Diameter of cone
45. If the diameter of a circle is increased by 8% then
its area is increased by: A. 16.64% B. 6.64%
C. 16% D. 16.46%
46. When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When
2n is divided by 6, the remainder is A. 2 B. 0
C. 4 D. 1
47. A discount of 20% on one article is the same as a
discount of25% on another article. The cost price of the two articles can be:
A. Rs. 90 and Rs. 40 B. Rs. 50 and Rs. 40
C. Rs. 40 and Rs. 60 D. Rs. 50 and Rs. 90
Directions (48-51): The pie-chart, given here,
shows the land distribution of a village.
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Study the Pie Chartand answer the questions based
on it.
48. The ratio of the waste land to the cultivated land is
A. 4 : 3 B. 3 : 2
C. 2 : 1 D. 3 : 1
49. What percent of total land is used for cultivation? A. 24 B. 25
C. 50 D. 90
50. If the total area of the village is 7200 acres, the
total area of the wet land is A. 1028 acres B. 5040 acres
C. 3600 acres D. 1400 acres
51. Directions: In the following questions, some parts
of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If
a sentence is free from error, then your answer is
No error.
Columbus was the first / man who invented America after his so many/ hazardous journeys.
A. Columbus was the first
B. man who invented America after his so many
C. hazardous journeys D. No error
52. Directions: In the following questions, some parts
of the sentences have errors and some have none.
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is
No error.
Our office buys / five kilograms of paper / every
month. A. Our office buys
B. five kilograms of paper
C. every month
D. No error 53. In the following question, some parts of sentences
have errors and some are correct. Find out which
part of a sentence has an error. The number of
that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error.
A. He works hardly
B. to make
C. both ends meet. D. No error
54. Direction: In the following question, some parts of
sentences have errors and some are correct. Find
out which part of a sentence has an error. The
number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is
free from error, your answer is (D) i.e. No error. Pacific Ocean is (A)/ the deepest ocean (B)/ in the
world. (C)/ No error (D)
A. (A) B. (B)
C. (C) D. No error 55. Direction: In the following question, some parts of
the sentences have errors and some have none.
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The
number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, the your answer is (4). i.e. No
error.
My father (1) / has returned back (2) / to Chennai
yesterday. (3) / No error (4) A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
56. In the following question, four alternatives are
given for the Idioms and Phrases printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idioms and Phrases.
When my friend was in Kolkata, he ran into an old
friend at the theatre. A. hit B. met accidentally
C. planned to meet D. invited
57. In the following question, four alternatives are
given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning
of the Idiom/Phrase.
He handled the situation with an iron fist.
A. Strictly B. Leniently C. Softly D. Wayward
58. In the following question, four alternatives are
given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and as your answer.
A hard nut to crack
A. a foolish search B. a difficult problem
C. an easy question D. expensive thing 59. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence.
A form of government in which the supreme power rests with people is
A. Monarchy B. Oligarchy
C. Democracy D. Bureaucracy
60. In the following question, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Diligent
A. Incompetent B. Hardworking
C. Extravagant D. Frugal 61. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
Shines A. glows B. dazzles
C. blazes D. glitters
62. In the following question, choose the word opposite
in meaning to the given word as your answer. Rancid
A. Carious B. Delicious
C. Fresh D. Stale
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63. In the following question, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses
the meaning of the given word. Hard
A. difficult B. simple
C. common D. Easy
64. Find the correctly spelt word as your answer A. dissatisfied B. disatisfied
C. disatesfied D. dissatesfied
65. Find the wrongly spelt word
A. successful B. succession C. succesor D. succeed
66. Direction: In the following question, four words
are given, out of which only one word is misspelt.
Find the misspelt word. A. assessment B. harassment
C. nourishment D. punishment
67. In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each
question. Choose the correct alternative out of the
four as your answer. She has been supporting her family _________ her
husband’s death.
A. on B. at
C. from D. since 68. Directions: In the following questions, sentences
are given with blanks to be filled in with an
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are
suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.
While he was working at the construction site, the
block of wood suddenly _________his right
shoulder. A. was hitted B. was hit
C. had hitted D. hit
69. In the following questions, a part of the sentence is
printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (1), (2), (3) which may improve the
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case
no improvement is needed, your answer is (4).
Rakesh didn’t knew my address. A. didn’t known B. didn’t have
C. didn’t know D. No improvement
70. In the following questions, a part of the sentence is
printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (1), (2), (3) which may improve the
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case
no improvement is needed, your answer is (4).
I am working here from 2008. A. have been working here since
B. have worked here from
C. have been working here from
D. No improvement
Directions (71-75): In the following questions,
you have one brief passage with 5 questions. Read
the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Although Indians spend less money on allopathic
medicines than people in most Asian Countries,
more than 40,000 drug formulations are available here. All manufacturs are required by law to
provide information about their product either on
the packaging or in a pamphlet inside. But, in
many cases, this information is very meagre and hard to understand. Many doctors, too do not tell
their patents anything about the drugs they
prescribe.
What should we be concerned about when we take drugs ? there are two areas : (1) side effects. Many
people taking a drug will notice an undesirable
reaction, usually minor. But even the mildest drugs
can do harm if taken improperly, long enough or in excessive doses. And everyone responds to a drug
differently. (2) Failure to follow directions. Many of
us disobey prescription instructions on how much
to take and when. It is easy to fall into thinking that more of the drug will speed up the healing. It
is more common, however for people to stop taking
a drug when they begin to feel better. This, too,
can be dangerous. What are the steps to be taken for safety? Take a
drug only as recommended on the label or by the
doctor. (2) If you feel ill after taking a drug, check
it with a doctor.(3) Do not mix drugs,(4) Check whether any food or activities are to be avoided.
71. Which one of the following statements is true ?
A. Indians use more than 40,000 allopathic drugs
B. Indians hate allopathic medicines C. Other Asian countries do not have allopathic me
dicines
D. Indians cannot afford allopathic drugs
72. How are drug users to be instructed by the manufacturers?
A. Doctors should give a manual of instruction.
B. The Chemist should issue an instruction manual
C. Information should be printed on the carton or in a pamphlet kept inside it
D. Patients should keep in touch with drug
manufacturers
73. Only one of the following sentences is right. Identify it.
A. All medicines produce reaction of various
degrees in their users
B. Even mild drugs are not always safe C. Medicines should be discontinued as soon as we
feel better
D. More than the prescribed dose brings quicker
recovery 74. drug manufactures ____________
A. do not give instruction
B. give all instructions necessary
C. give very little and unintelligible information D. give information only when asked
75. Which one of the following is true?
A. Throw away the drug that produces side effects
and try another B. Drugs may be taken with all kinds of foods
C. Drugs do not inhibit our normal life style
D. Drugs should be used only according
prescription 76. Which of the following folk dances is associated
with Rajasthan?
A. Rauf B. Jhora
C. Veedhi D. Suisini 77. The sweetmeat is referred to
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A. Camel meat B. Goat meat
C. Feta cheese D. Petha of Agra
78. Rice cultivation is associated with which one of the following Harappan sites?
A. Harappa B. Lothal
C. Kalibangan D. KotDiji
79. Before assuming the office of the Sultan of Delhi Balban was the Prime Minister of Sultan
A. Nasir-ud-din B. Qutub-ud-din-Aibak
C. Bahrem Shah D. Aram Shah
80. When the East India Company was formed the Mughal emperor in India was
A. Jehangir B. Humayun
C. Aurangzeb D. Akbar
81. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on: A. Simon Commission
B. Lord Curzon Commission
C. Dimitrov Thesis
D. Lord Clive’s report 82. In the treatment of skin disease the radio isotope
used is
A. Radio phosphorous B. Radio iodine
C. Radio lead D. Radio cobalt 83. The animal that do not develop hypertension
inspite of heavy intake of salt is :
A. Sheep B. Buffalo
C. Tiger D. Camel 84. Which microorganism causes hepatitis B?
A. Virus B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria D. None of these
85. From where does the river Ganga originate? A. Mansarovar B. Gaumukh
C. Auli D. Kedarnath
86. Mounds of sand formed by wind action are called
A. Cliffs B. Cirques C. Dunes D. Hamadas
87. The land of maximum biodiversity is
A. Tropical B. Temperate
C. Monsoonal D. None of these 88. The canal which links Atlantic Ocean with Pacific
Ocean is
A. Suez B. Malacca
C. Panama D. Gibralter 89. Probiotic curd (yogurt) contains health benefitting
good
A. bacteria B. source of energy
C. transgenic genes D. antibiotics 90. Which of the following instrument is used for
measuring the relative humidity of atmosphere?
A. Hygrometer B. Hydrophone
C. Pyrheliometer D. Hydrometer
91. The Finance Commission in India is appointed by A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha 92. Which of the following is a political right ?
A. Right to Work
B. Right to Education
C. Right to Freedom of Expression D. Right of Vote
93. Which of the following subjects dose not figure in
the concurrent list of our constitutions?
A. Stock Exchange and futures markets B. Protection of wild animals and birds
C. Forests
D. Trade unions
94. The International Court of Justice sits in A. Geneva
B. The Hague
C. Vienna
D. Rome 95. Life Insurance was nationalized in
A. 1950 B. 1953
C. 1956 D. 1960
96. In which of the following state Asia’s first cycle highway has been inaugurated?
A. Madhya Pradesh B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Maharashtra D. Telangana
E. None of these 97. A supply function expresses the relationship
between
A. price and output
B. price and consumption C. price and demand
D. None of these
98. Rashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana was introduced in
A. 1992 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 1996
99. A Snickometer is associated with which of the
following sports?
A. Tennis B. Cricket C. Hockey D. Football
100. World Toilet Day is observed on ______.
A. 18th November B. 19th November
C. 20th November D. 21st November E. None of these
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ANSWERS KEY
1. Ans. C
2. Ans. C
3. Ans. B 4. Ans. D
5. Ans. C
6. Ans. B
7. Ans. B 8. Ans. A
9. Ans. B
10. Ans. B
11. Ans. B 12. Ans. B
13. Ans. A
14. Ans. A
15. Ans. A 16. Ans. B
17. Ans. C
18. Ans. C
19. Ans. A 20. Ans. D
21. Ans. D
22. Ans. B
23. Ans. B 24. Ans. B
25. Ans. D
26. Ans. B
27. Ans. B 28. Ans. C
29. Ans. A
30. Ans. D
31. Ans. A 32. Ans. A
33. Ans. C
34. Ans. B
35. Ans. D 36. Ans. A
37. Ans. A
38. Ans. B
39. Ans. C 40. Ans. A
41. Ans. B
42. Ans. B
43. Ans. C 44. Ans. B
45. Ans. A
46. Ans. A
47. Ans. B 48. Ans. A
49. Ans. B
50. Ans. D
51. Ans. B 52. Ans. D
53. Ans. A
54. Ans. A
55. Ans. B 56. Ans. B
57. Ans. A
58. Ans. B
59. Ans. C 60. Ans. A
61. Ans. D
62. Ans. C
63. Ans. A 64. Ans. A
65. Ans. C
66. Ans. A
67. Ans. D 68. Ans. D
69. Ans. C
70. Ans. A
71. Ans. A 72. Ans. C
73. Ans. B
74. Ans. C
75. Ans. D 76. Ans. D
77. Ans. D
78. Ans. B
79. Ans. A 80. Ans. D
81. Ans. A
82. Ans. A
83. Ans. D 84. Ans. A
85. Ans. B
86. Ans. C
87. Ans. A 88. Ans. C
89. Ans. A
90. Ans. A
91. Ans. B 92. Ans. D
93. Ans. A
94. Ans. B
95. Ans. C 96. Ans. B
97. Ans. A
98. Ans. C
99. Ans. B 100. Ans. B
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