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These are the (new) daily MCQs from my Facebook page from the past 12 months.

These are NOT included in the 7th or (new) 8th edn of Sure Success MAGIC, Since I am making it available online.

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Laser used in Selecetive Laser Trabeculoplasty is A. Argon Laser B. Excimer Laser C. CO2 laser D. Nd YAG laser Ans.....D......NdYAG...asked in many earlier state entrances and Jipmer also SELECTIVE laser trabeculoplasty (different from argon laser) + Uses 532 nm, frequency doubled, Q-switched Nd YAG laser + NO scarring of trabecular meshwork + Repeatable The 1-2-3 sign or Garland triad classically seen in A. Tuberculosis

B. Sarcoidosis C. Amyloidosis D. Bronchupulmonary aspergillosis Ans........B........Sarcoidosis Garland's triad (also known as the 1-2-3 sign or Pawnbrokers sign) is a lymph node enlargement pattern described in sarcoidosis. It comprises of: right paratracheal nodes right hilar nodes left hilar nodes Forensic taphonomy refers to A. Identification of dead body B. Postmortem changes C. Autopsy in drowning cases D. Tracking the path of gunshot wound in body Ans.......B.......Postmortem changes Forensic taphonomy is the study of the postmortem changes to human remains, focusing largely on environmental effectsincluding decomposition in soil and water and interaction with plants, insects, and other animals "Toll" in Toll like receptors (TLRs) are homologs of which Toll protein ? A. Drosophila B. Penicillium C. Aspergillus D. Anopheles mosquito Ans......A......Drosophila Toll was shown to be an essential receptor for host defense against fungal infection in Drosophila, which only has innate immunity Decerebrate posturing falls into the following grade on Glasgow Coma Scale ? M2 M3 M4 M5 Ans......M2...

M3 Abnormal flexion, i.e. decorticate posturing M2 Extensor response, i.e. decerebrate posturing SMILE stands for _______ and is used for ______ A. Small Incision lens Extraction; Mature Hard Cataracts B. Small incision Lenticule Extraction, Myopia C. Small Incision Linear Excimer, Myopia D. Small Incision Laser emulsification, Mature Hard Cataracts Ans......B.... SMall Incision Lenticule Extraction, Myopia Small incision lenticule extraction (SMILE) results in similar or better refractive outcomes compared with LASIK for the treatment of myopia COL4A5 mutation is a/w A. GoodPasture syndrome B. Lupus nephritis C. Alport's syndrome D. IgA nephropathy Ans......C..........Alport's Alport Syndrome is a progressive renal disease with cochlear and ocular involvement. The most common form ( approximately 80%) is inherited in an X-linked pattern. X-linked Alport Syndrome (XLAS) is caused by mutations in the type IV collagen alpha chain 5 (COL4A5). All are tributaries of coronary sinus except A. Middle and small cardiac veins B. Posterior vein of left ventricle C. Oblique vein of left atrium (of Marshall) D. Venae cordi minimi Ans.....D........Venae cordi minimi The tributaries of coronary sinus are: Great, middle and small cardiac

veins Posterior vein of left ventricle Oblique vein of left atrium (of Marshall) Left marginal vein Treatment of choice for Torsade des pointes is A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Sodium bicarbonate Ans..........C...........Magnesium Intravenous magnesium is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. Magnesium is effective even in patients with normal magnesium levels. Drug used for treating Paroxysmal Nocturnal hemoglobinuria is A. Eculizumab B. Idebenone C. Ivadrabine D. Nivolumab Ans......A...... eculizumab Eculizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that is a first-in-class terminal complement inhibitor and approved for Rx of PNH and atypical HUS. PAIR is used for a. Amebic liver abcscess b. Hydatid cyst liver c. Hemangioma Liver d. Hepatocellular ca Ans......B........Hydatid cyst liver The Puncture Aspiration Injection Reaspiration (PAIR) technique is performed using either ultrasound or CT guidance, involves aspiration of the cyst contents via a special cannula, followed by injection of a scolicidal agent for at least 15 minutes, and then reaspiration of the cystic contents. This is repeated until the return is clear. The cyst is then filled with isotonic sodium chloride solution.

Perioperative treatment with a benzimidazole is mandatory (4 d prior to the procedure and 1-3 mo after). Which disease is called "the captain of the men of death" A. Ca Lung B. Ca stomach C. Ca Liver D. Ca prostate Ans......B......Ca stomach Carcinoma of the stomach was termed Captain of the Men of Death by Lord Moynihan in the last century. ALSO KNOW: Sir William Osler, known as "the father of modern medicine," appreciated the morbidity and mortality of pneumonia, describing it as the "captain of the men of death" in 1918, as it had overtaken tuberculosis as one of the leading causes of death in his time. Globoid bodies are seen in A. Pick disease B. Parkinson's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Krabbe's disease Ans....D....Krabbe's disease ALSO KNOW 1. Pick bodies: Pick disease. 2. Hirano bodies: Alzheimer disease 3. Bunina bodies: amyotropic lateral sclerosis 4. Marinesco bodies: located chiefly in melanin containing brain stem neurons; no known pathologic significance. 5. Lafora bodies: myoclonic epilepsy Cabbage like odor to skin and urine is seen in A. Phenylketonuria B. Maple syrup urine disease C. Homocystinuria D. Tyrosinemia Ans.....D....Tyrosinemia

+ Cabbage like odor - tyrosinemia + Musty odor - PKU + Burnt sugar odor - maple syrup urine disease Recent AIIMS journal related question. "AIIMS test" has been proposed to be as good as Schaeffer's test....... Schaeffer's test is used to identify the tendon of A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor carpi radialis longus C. Palmaris longus D. Extensor carpu ulnaris Ans....C.........Palmaris Longus The Palmaris longus, one of the most variable muscles in the body both flexes the wrist and tenses the palmar fascia. It is used by surgeons as a source of tendon graft All are stigmata of cong. syphilis except a. olympian brow b. mulberry molars c. saber tibia d. band shaped keratopathy ns.......D.......Band shaped keratopathy Classic stigmata iof cong syphilis nclude Hutchinsons teeth (centrally notched, widely spaced, peg-shaped upper central incisors) Mulberry molars (sixth-year molars with multiple, poorly developed cusps), Saddle nose, and Saber shins (Saber tibia) Rhagades: wrinkled radiating scars around the mouth Olympian brow - prominent forehead due to periostitis of frontal bone Interstitial keratitis is a late manif of cong syphilis..... Which of the following words is derived from the Latin/Greek word for Crab?

A. Tumor B. Cancer C. Fistula D. Ulcer ans.....B......cancer The origin of the word cancer is credited to the Greek physician Hippocrates (460-370 BC), who is considered the Father of Medicine. Hippocrates used the terms carcinos and carcinoma to describe non-ulcer forming and ulcer-forming tumors. In Greek, these words refer to a crab, most likely applied to the disease because the finger-like spreading projections from a cancer called to mind the shape of a crab. The Roman physician, Celsus (28-50 BC), later translated the Greek term into cancer, the Latin word for crab. Galen (130-200 AD), another Greek physician, used the word oncos (Greek for swelling) to describe tumors. Although the crab analogy of Hippocrates and Celsus is still used to describe malignant tumors, Galens term is now used as a part of the name for cancer specialists oncologists. Prominent superior ophthalmic vein in MRI maybe seen in A. cavernous hemangioma orbit B. Capillary hemangioma orbit C. Lymphangioma orbit D. Carticocavernous fistula Ans.....D...Carotico-cavernous fistula Enlargement of the superior ophthalmic vein (SOV), is considered a sign of carotid-cavernous fistula best seen on MRI. Hyperkalemia is a feature in following conditions EXCEPT a) Insulin deficiency b) Calcitonin Deficiency c) Aldosterone deficiency d) Severe Obesity Ans......D....Severe obesity

"Severe obesity is a/w comorbidities like hyperinsulinemia (type II DM) and HTN which are a/w HYPOkalemia; Also in sever obesity - diuretics are used (either for reducing the "swelling" or for HTN); as well as repeated bouts of fasting, low-calorie foods and bulimia may contribute to DEPLETION of total body potassium levels" Calcitonin reduces renal tubular reabsorption and consequently results in an increase in the excretion of calcium, potassium, magnesium, phosphorus and sodium by the kidneys". Hence it would follow that calcitonin deficiency would result in hyperkalemia. correct me if i'm wrong here. this was a 2007 pg entrance qn. Vocal cord laterlisation is which type of thyroplasty? Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 Type 4 Ans......Type 2 Vocal cord medialisation Type I Vocal cord lateralization Type II Which of the following has highest malignant potential for oral cancer? A. Leukoplakia B. Oral submucus fibrosis C. Oral lichen planus D. Erythroplakia Ans....D... Erythroplakia has 17 times higher malignant potential than leukoplakia Sideropenic dysphagia refers to A. Brown Sequard syndrome B. Iatrogenic esophageal perforation C. Patterson kelly syndrome D. Corkscrew esophagus Ans.....C.....Patterson kelly syndrome

The association of postcricoid dysphagia, upper esophageal webs, and iron deficiency anemia is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome (PVS) in the United States and Paterson-Brown Kelly syndrome in the United Kingdom. The term sideropenic dysphagia has also been used, since the syndrome can occur with iron deficiency (sideropenia), In nearly 80% cases cardiac dominance is A. right dominant B. left dominant C. co-dominant D. mixed dominance Ans.....A.......right dominant The artery that supplies the posterior descending artery (PDA)[1] (a.k.a. posterior interventricular artery) determines the coronary dominance + If the posterior descending artery (PDA) is supplied by the right coronary artery (RCA), then the coronary circulation can be classified as "right-dominant". + If the posterior descending artery (PDA) is supplied by the circumflex artery (CX), a branch of the left artery, then the coronary circulation can be classified as "left-dominant". + If the posterior descending artery (PDA) is supplied by both the right coronary artery (RCA) and the circumflex artery, then the coronary circulation can be classified as "co-dominant". Approximately 80% of the general population are right-dominant. Ross classified five stages of (MHCET 2015 Q) A) Schizophrenia B) Delusion C) Death D) None Ans....C.......Death

In her 1969 book, On Death and Dying, Swiss-born psychiatrist Elizabeth Kubler-Ross outlined the five stages of grief of someone who is dying: (DABDA) D - Denial and isolation: "This is not happening to me." A - Anger: "How dare God do this to me." B - Bargaining: "Just let me live to see my son graduate." D - Depression: "I can't bear to face going through this, putting my family through this." A - Acceptance: "I'm ready, I don't want to struggle anymore." Serum Lithium level should be checked earliest after how many days of constant dosing ? (MHCET 2015 Q) A) 3 B) 5 C) 14 D) 20 Ans.....B......5 days Kaplan & Sadock's Concise Textbook of Clinical Psychiatry, Pg 518, 3rd edn. When obtaining blood for lithium levels, patients should be at steady state lithium dosing, (usually after 5 days of constant dosing) and the blood sample must be drawn 12 hours after a given dose. Tavaborole is used for treating A. Keratomycosis B. Otomycosis C. Vaginal mycosis D. Onychomycosis Ans....D......Oncyhomycosis Tavaborole is a topical antifungal medication for the treatment of

onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the nail and nail bed. It inhibits an essential fungal enzyme, Leucyl-tRNA synthetase, or LeuRS, required for protein synthesis. It is not for use in the eyes, mouth, or vagina. Rundle's curve can be used to explain which disease ? A. Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Thyroid Ophthalmopathy C. Coronary Heart Disease D. Type 1 DM Ans....B..... Thyroid Ophthalmopathy + The natural history of Thyroid Ophthalmopathy follows Rundle's Curve. + The initial phase usually of a few months is associated with worseing of the TED which reaches a plateau and then spontaneously improves. Which of the following maybe a/w Tuberculosis? A. Erythema gyratum repens B. Erythema annulare centrifugum C. Erythema induratum of Bazin D. Erythema ab igne Ans.....(C) 1. Erythema induratum of Bazin, 2. lichen scrofulosorum, and 3. papulonecrotic tuberculide are the 3 recognized tuberculides, which are sequelae of immunologic reactions to hematogenously dispersed antigenic components of Mycobacterium tuberculosis Dhatura seeds resemble seeds of a. calotropis b. capsicum c. ricinus d. gelsimium ns....B....capsicum Dhatura seeds resemble capsicum seeds; BUT dhatura seeds are larger, thicker and kidney shaped. 93. All of the following are health

promotion strategies EXCEPT a) Chlorination of water b) Paring of nails c) Chemoprophylaxis d) Lifestyle changes 94. The following are examples of specific protection EXCEPT a) Use of calipers for post polio residual paralysis b) Use of helmets c) Vitamin A administration to children d) Use of goggles by welders 95. The severity of illness of a disease is represented by a) Attack rate b) Proportional mortality rate c) Case fatality rate d) Cause specific mortality rate 96. A good measure of the virulence of a disease is a) Attack rate b) Secondary attack rate c) Incidence rate d) Prevalence rate Ans to yestday's set C A C B 1. Abacavir is a nucleoside transcription inhibitor that carries which side effect unique for HIV antiretroviral agents? A. Fanconis anemia B. Granulocytopenia C. Lactic acidosis D. Severe hypersensitivity reaction 2. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor that carries which side effect unique for HIV antiretroviral agents? A. Abnormal dreams B. Benign hyperbilirubinemia C. Hepatic necrosis in pregnant women D. Nephrolithiasis Ans to yestdays qns

Abacavir - hypersensitivity Indinavir - renal calculi - nephrolithiasis Greenish color of bruise is due to A. Hemoglobin B. Hemosiderin C. Bilirubin D. Hematoidin Ans......D.....hematoidin Also Know - Age of bruise - At first - Red (oxyhemoglobin) - Few hrs to 3 days - blue (reduced hemoglobin) - 4th day - bluish black (hemosiderin) - 5-6 days - greenish (hematoidin) - 7-12 days - yellow (bilirubin) - 2 weeks - normal (absorption of pigment) another set.... 1. Acute infectious purpura fulminans is caused by a) Neisseria meningitidis and Variclla b) Gonococci c) E. coli d) Proteus 2. Waddling gait (sailors gait) is seen in a) Bilateral CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equino Varus) b) Bilateral CDH (Congenital Dislocation of Hip) c) Congenital genu recurvatum d) Bilateral calcaneo-valgus deformity 3. Bernoullis principle could explain a) Deviated nasal septum b) Malignancy c) Polyp formation d) Nasal Allergy 4. Civatte bodies are seen in a. Lichen sclerosus b. Lichen planus c. Lichen amyloidosis d. Psoriasis 5. Lincoffs rule is useful in diagnosing

a. Site of duodenal ulcer b. Site of retinal detachment c. Site of perforation of tympanic membrane d. Site of intestinal perforation 6. Sensitivity means ability to detect a) True positive b) False positive c) True negative d) False negative 7. Dohle bodies seen in neutrophils of patients suffering from sepsis are a) Golgi complexes b) Toxic granules c) Dilated endoplasmic reticulum d) Degenerated mitochondria Ans to yestday's set 1-A; 2-B; 3-C; 4-B; 5-B; 6-A; 7-C Lincoff's rule for finding the site of break in retinal detachment Tache noire after death is seen in a) eyes b) face c) dependent areas like elbows and buttocks d) gastric mucosa Ans......A.....eyes Tache noire, literally meaning black spot, is a dark, reddish brown strip that will form horizontally across the eye ball. During life the eye balls are kept moist by blinking, but sometimes they are no longer protected upon death. Therefore, tache noire will occur in individuals whose eyelids are not closed post mortem. Similarly, other mucous membranes like the tongue will darken after prolonged air exposure to the normally moist tissue. If the individual drowned, or the body was found in water, the tache noire would not be present. The eye balls have to be exposed to air for it to occur Open ring sign is relatively specific for a. Space occupying lesion

b. Intracranial hypertension c. Demyelination d. Intracranial abscess Ans is c.......demyelination The open ring sign (white matter crescent sign) is a relatively specific sign for demyelination, helpful in distinguishing between ring enhancing lesions. The enhancing component is thought to represent advancing front of demyelination and thus favours the white matter side of the lesion. The open part of the ring will therefore usually point towards the grey matter. Also NOTE: McDonald's MRI criteria are used for Multiple sclerosis Cracked mud retina seen in a. CMV retinitis b. Acute retinal necrosis c. Progressive outer retinal necrosis d. Retinitis pigmentosa Ans......C..... Progressive outer retinal necrosis (PORN), first described in 1990, is seen in patients who are immunocompromised (e.g., AIDS) who present with rapid outer retinal necrosis. Multifocal lesions with deep retinal opacification are characteristic of PORN. About 30 percent of patients have deep outer retinal lesions in the macula, which become confluent to form a cherry red spot. They classically have a cracked mud appearance where there is perivenular clearing of the retinal opacification. This fracture has been dubbed the "unsolved fracture" for more than a century... A. Fracture neck of femur B. Fracture shaft of femur C. Vertebral fracture D. Fracture scaphoid Ans.....A

Displaced fracture of the intracapsular proximal femur has been termed the unsolved fracture because it is unclear whether it should be treated by internal fixation or by replacement of the femoral head with an artificial hip (arthroplasty) Lorenzo's oil is used in (this is a true question !!! in earlier exam) A. Metahcormatic leukodystrophy B. Adrenoleukodystrophy C. Krabbe's disease D. Gaucher's disease Lorenzos oil is a combination of two chemicals called erucic acid and oleic acid.Lorenzos oil is used as a treatment for two related inherited conditions - adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD), which occurs in children; and adrenomyeloneuropathy, which occurs in adults. The oil is named after a child, Lorenzo Odone, who developed ALD. His parents discovered a mixture of fatty acids that seemed to slow progression of the disease. The mixture became known as Lorenzos oil. - ALSO a movie of the same name based on this true story was made in 1992 and that's the picture I had posted. These disorders cause accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids(VLCFA) in the blood and many other tissues.The white matter of the brain, the Leydig cells of the testes and the adrenal cortex are the most severely affected systems.The levels of VLCFA can be normalized by treatment with Lorenzo's oil, but this does not alter the progression of the disease. CURB-65 score is used for a. Cannabis addiction b. Pneumonia c. Intestinal obstruction d. Acute pancreatitis CURB-65 Severity Score for Community-Acquired Pneumonia: Calculates the CURB-65 Score to estimate pneumonia mortality to help

determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment. Confusion BUN > 19 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) / Respiratory Rate 30 / Systolic BP < 90 mmHg or Diastolic BP 60 mmHg / Age 65 The Pulvinar sign refers to T2 hyperintensity in the posterior thalamic nuclei (the pulvinar). It is classically described in a. Arnold Chiari malformation b. Parkinson disease c. Creutzfelt Jakob disease d. Alzheimer's disease Ans ........C The pulvinar sign refers to bilateral FLAIR hyperintensities involving the pulvinar thalamic nuclei. It is classically described in variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) As per BIRADS known biopsy proven malignancy is grouped under grade a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Ans to yestday's qn..... BI-RADS = 'breast imaging reporting and data system', 0- incomplete, 1- negative, 2-benign findings, 3-probably benign, 4-suspicious abnormality, 5-highly suspicious of malignancy, 6- with known biopsy proven malignancy. 11. Gluten free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B. Exfoliative dermatitis C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Pemphigoid 12. Buford complex is a normal anatomic variant of which joint? A. Elbow

B. Shoulder C. Knee D. Hip 13. CAMP test is used to detect infection caused by a) Streptococcus equsimilis b) Streptococcus agalactiae c) Streptococcus viridans d) Staphylococcus aureus 14. NIH Swab is used for the recovery of the eggs of a) Ancylostoma duodenale b) Enterobius vermicularis c) Ascaris lumbriocoides d) Trichinella Spiralis 15. Kidney transplantation is an: (a) Allograft (b) Isograft (c) Xenograft (d) Syngeneic graft Ans for yestday's set C B B B A Next set....... 1. A 14-year-old girl has a 1-day history of pain in the right ear. She swims every morning. The right ear canal is red and swollen. She has pain when the auricle is pulled or the tragus is pushed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute otitis media B. Bullous myringitis C. Chronic otitis media D. External otitis 2. World health day is on A. January 7 B. April 7 C. Dec 1 D. January 14 3. All are anti-VEGFs in treating macular edema except A. Bevacizumab B. Ranibizumab C. Adalimumab D. Pagaptanib

4. Which of the following is true about lgG antibody? a) Produced in primary immune response b) Cannot cross placenta c) Provides local protection d) Produced in secondary immune response 5. Acclimatization does NOT include a) Hyperventilation b) Decreased concentration of 2,3 DPG in RBC c) Increased erythropoiesis d) Kidney excrete more alkali Ans for yestday's set 1-D; 2-B; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B Next set........ 1. NESTROFT test is for screening A. CML B. AML C. Thalassemia D. Carcinogenic potential 2. Skirrows medium is used for A. Proteus B. C. jejuni C. H.influenzae D. Mycpolasma 3. A 54-year-old man who is being treated for hypertension and hypercholesterolemia develops diffuse muscle pain and weakness. His serum creatine kinase activity is increased. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused this clinical picture? (A) Captopril (B) Hydrochlorothiazide (C) Lovastatin (D) Nicotinic acid 4. STEPS program is for the following A. Pneumococcal vaccine B. Thalidomide C. Streptomycin D. Ethambutol

5. Vogts triad includes all except A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Choroidal hemangioma D. Adenoma sebaceum Ans for previous set...... 1-C; 2-B; 3-C; 4 B. 5 -C Next set.......... 1. A 58-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis is treated with infliximab for refractory disease. All the following are potential side effects of this treatment except A. demyelinating disorders B. disseminated tuberculosis C. exacerbation of congestive heart failure D. pulmonary fibrosis 2. What is the most common extraarticular manifesta- tion of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Anterior uveitis B. Aortic regurgitation C. Cataracts D. Third-degree heart block 3. Which of the following joints are typically spared in osteoarthritis (OA)? A. Ankle B. Cervical spine C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Hip 4. All the following organisms have been implicated in reactive arthritis except A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Shigella dysenteriae E. Yersinia enterocolitica Ans to previous set......... 1-D; 2-A; 3-A; 4-B 1. Coloboma of the lid is commonest in: (a) Lateral half of the lower lid (b) Medial half of the lower lid (c) Medial half of the upper lid

(d) Lateral half of the upper lid 2. Pulse oximeter works on the following principle: (a) Beer Lambarts law (b) Raman scattering effect (c) Venturi principle (d) Mass spectrometry 3. Amyl nitrate inhalation test is used to detect: (a) Carcinoma esophagus (b) Achalasia cardia (c) Oesophageal diverticulum (d) Tracheoesophageal fistula 4. Hyperuricaemia is a side effect of this anti- tubercular drug: (a) Pyrazinamide (b) Isoniazid (c) Capreomycin (d) Ethambutol 5. The bacteria producing a picture resembling pseudohaemoptysis in sputum sample due to prodiogisin production is: (a) Serratia marcesens (b) Erwinia herbicola (c) Ehrlichiasennestsu (d) Legionella pneumophila ans to previous set 1-C; 2-A; 3-B; 4-A; 5-A Next set.......... 1 All are components of Quadruple test except A. Beta HCG B. Maternal serum AFP C. Nuchal transluceny D. Inhibin A 2 Triple test is used in the diagnosis of A. Turners syndrome B. Down syndrome C. Edwards syndrome D. Pataus syndrome 3 Coarctation of aorta is a/w A. Turners syndrome B. Down syndrome

C. Edwards syndrome D. Pataus syndrome 4. Cri du Chat syndrome is a/w chromosome A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 5. Quilty effects is seen in A. Lung transplants B. Cardiac transplants C. Renal transplants D. Skin grafting Ans to yestday's set........... 1-C; 2-B; 3-A; 4-A; 5-B Next set............. 1. Lucid interval is characteristic pathognomonic feature of: A. Extradural haemorrhage B. Intracerebral haemorrhage C. Tumour in the frontal lobe D. Intracerebral abscess 2. Dietls crisis occurs in: A. Hydronephrosis B. Tuberculosis of kidney C. Acute intussusception D. Wandering spleen 3. Landmark study in the management of postoperative endophthalmitis was a. BRAVO study b. ONTT study c. EVS study d. HEDS study 4. Submandibular gland surgery may result in damage to the following nerves, except: A. Buccal branch of the facial nerve B. Accessory nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 5. A 60-year-old man develops a tremor in his fingers. The tremor is most pronounced when he reaches for his coffee cup or points to an object.

Which of the following components of the motor system is most likely to be involved? A. Basal ganglia B. Cerebellar hemisphere C. Cerebellar vermis D. Frontal eye field Ans...........to yestday's set 1-A; 2-A; 3- C; 4-D; 5-B 4th is a sllghtly controversial question old KCET question......glossopharyngeal nerve injury is more asso with tonsilectomy COCA-COLA Bottle sign is seen in a. Pseudotumor cerebri b. Thyroid ophthalmopathy c. Orbital myocysticercosis d. Dacryoadenitis Ans......B......thyroid ophthalmopathy The coca-cola bottle sign refers to the appearance of the muscles of the orbit in thyroid eye disease. The belly of the muscle enlarges with sparing of the tendinous insertion, giving the appearance of the traditional coca-cola bottle. Next set........ 1. Gerstmanns syndrome is due to involvement of: A. Right parietal lobe B. Left parietal lobe C. Upper brainstem D. Cerebellum 2. Known causes of diffuse interstitial fibrosis include all of the following, except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Asbestosis C. Cigarette smoking D. Bleomycin 3. Lurching gait is produced by the paralysis of: A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus medius C. Adductor magnus

D. Soleus 4. The principal precursor of cholesterol is: A. Citrate B. Acetate C. Glycerol D. Lanosterol 5. Drugs associated with significant ototoxicity include the following, except: A. Ethacrynic acid B. Nitrogen mustard C. Gentamicin D. Cotrimoxazole Ans....to yestday's set 1-B; 2-C; 3-B; 4-D; 5-D 1. voriconazole commonly causes all of the following side effects except a. drug-drug interactions b. photosensitivity skin rashes c. renal toxicity d. visual disturbances 2. Helicobacter pylori colonization is implicated in all of the following conditions except a. duodenal ulcer disease b. gastric adenocarcinoma c. gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma d. gastroesophageal reflux disease 3. Radial keratoneuritis is a feature of A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Acanthameba keratitis C. Aspergillus keratitis D. Post LASIK complication 4. A patient who has undergone prosthetic valve sur- gery 6 weeks ago is readmitted with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. Which of the fol- lowing is the most likely etiologic organism? 1. Candida albicans 2. Coagulase-negative staphylococci 3. Enterococcus 4. Escherichia coli

5. A deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by affecting the activity of: A. Glucosyl transferase B. Galactosyl transferase C. Prolyl hydroxylase D. Lysyl oxidase Ans to yestday's set.......... 1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-B; 5-D; Voriconazole is an azole antifungal - less renal roxicity compared to ampho-B Next set.......... 1. Bonneys test is done for A. Urinary fistula B. Stresss incontinence C. Urinary retention D. Urge incontinence 2. Bronchial asthma is likely to be relieved by all except : A. Stimulation of beta adrenoceptors B. Histamin aerosols C. Drugs which stabilize mast cell membranes D. Glucocorticoids 3. Corpora amylaceae is seen in A. Prostate B. Parotic C. Pituitary D. Pineal 4. MEN type 2 is inherited as A. AD B. AR C. XD D. XR 5. A 42 yrs old man was diagnosed to have a pheochromocytoma tumor. Staging investigations showed the tumour to be operable. What definite therapy will the patient most likely be started on a few weeks before the surgery: a) verapamil b) sodium nitroprusside c) phenoxybenzamine

d) nitroglycerine 6. Ulcus serpens is caused by A. Streptococcus B. Pneumococcus C. Staphylococcus D. pseudomonas Ans ......to yestday's set........ 1-B; 2-B; 3-A; 4-A; 5-C; 6-B Another set.......from JIPMER 6. Neve found in Guyons canal is A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Median nerve D. Sciatic nerve 7. Posterior gastric artery is a branch of A. Hepatic artery B. Splenic artery C. Left gastric. D. Right Gastric artery 8. CO poisoning is type of A. Stagnant hypoxia B. Histotoxic hypoxia C. Hypoxemic hypoxia D. Anemic hypoxia 9. All muscles are innervated by oculomotor nerve except a. superior rectus b. inferior rectus c. lateral rectus d. medial rectus 10. Northern Blotting is for: A. RNA B. DNA C. Protein D. Polysaccharides Ans.....to yestday's set 6-B; 7-B; 8-D; 9-C; 10- A Few from earlier JIPMER.... 1. In post natal period the greatest

growth in the CNS is of? A.Cell body B.Axon C.Dendrite D.Size of perikaryon 2. A patient with proteinuria has a renal biopsy that reveals segmental collapse of the glomerular capillary loops and overlying podocyte hyperplasia. The patient most likely has A. diabetes B. HIV infection C. multiple myeloma D. systemic lupus erythematosus 3.Which is Eaton agent ? A. Mycoplasma B. H.influenza C. Klebsiella D. E.coli 4.Hassal corpuscles are seen in? A. Adrenals B. Thyroid C. Parathyroid D. Thymus 5. Which of the following Nuclei DOES not lie in the floor of 4th ventricle ? A. Abducens Nerve B. Facial Nerve C. Hypoglossal Nerve D. Vagus Nerve Ans.....to yestday's set..... 1-C; 2-B; 3-A, 4-D; 5-B; Which aortic arch does not develop further in human embryo? 1st 2nd 4th 5th Ans.........5th

Of the six pairs of aortic arches, most of the 1st and 2nd arches disappear, 5th totally disappears. ++ 1st arch = mainly disappears, remaining part forms inferior alveolar artery, branch of maxillary artery ++ 2nd arch = mainly disappears, remaining part forms stapedial artery 1. The following molecules are important activators of apoptosis except A. Caspase 3 B. Cytochrome C C. Heat shock proteins D. Fas 2. True about neutrophils is A. Have multilobed nuclei B. Are the predominant cell type in chronic inflammation C. May fuse to form multinucleate giant cells D. Have numerous eosinophilic granules in their cytoplasm 3. Epstein Barr Virus is a/w all except A. Glandular fever B. Burkitts lymphoma C. Gastric Ca D. Nacopharyngeal Ca 4. The following may cause right heart failure except A. VSD B. COPD C. HTN D. Atherosclerosis 5. Bladder cells and Wedl cells are seen in A. Iris pearls in leprosy B. Elschnig pearls C. Basal cell Ca D. Squamous Cell ca Ans.........to yestday's set...... 1-C; 2-A; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B 1. Autopsy by removal of organs one by one is called A. Virchows method

B. Letulles method C. Gohn method D. Rokitanksy method 2. Siderosis is caused by A. Steel B. Copper C. Mercury D. Brass 3. Topical retinoids used in acne treatment are all except A. Adapalene B. Tazoretene C. Benzoyl peroxide D. Tretinoin 4. Tree bark appearance in vessel wall is seen in A. Tuberculosis B. Syphilis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Wegeners granulomatosis 5. Indian evidence act was enacted in A. 1871 B. 1872 C. 1901 D. 1902 Answers to yestday set..... 1-A; 2-A; 3-C; 4-B; 5-B.... 2. Steel - has ferrous content (alloy of IRON and carbon) - so siderosis there...mentioned in parsons.........as for the rest - they are routine one liners... Aaron's sign, Rosving's sign, Bastedo's sign and Dieulafoy's triad is a/w A. Acute mestenteric ischemia B. Splenic rupture C. Acute periotnitis D. Acute appendicitis Ans.....D........Acute appendicitis + Aaron's sign: a referred pain or feeling of distress in the epigastrium or precordial region, on continuous firm pressure over McBurney's point, in

acute appendicitis. + Bastedo's sign: pain and tenderness in the right iliac fossa on inflation of the colon with air, in cases of chronic appendicitis. + Rovsing's sign: pain at McBurney's point induced in cases of appendicitis, by pressure exerted over the descending colon. + Dieulafoy's triad: tenderness, muscular contraction and skin hyperaesthesia at McBurneys point in appendicitis. 1. The rule of 10 is usually applied for: A. Adrenal cortical tumours B. Pheochromocytoma C. Myelolipoma D. Adrenal metastases 2. The surgeon who introduced catgut in surgery was: A. Astley Cooper B. Lord Lister C. John Hunter D. Syme 3. The triad of Whipple is a feature of: A. Carcinoma head of pancreas B. Islet cell adenoma of pancreas C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Acute pancreatitis 4. The fold of Treves is: A. The fold of mucus membrane projecting into the lumen of the rectum B. The ileo-appendicular fold of peritoneum C. The fold of mucus membrane around the ampulla of Vater D. The fold of peritoneum over the inferior mesenteric vein 5. Astley-Cooper ligament is: A. Medial end of inguinal ligament B. Pectineal part of inguinal ligament C. Fibres along the ileopectineal line D. Linea semilunaris Ans.......to yest'days one-liners 1-B; 2-B; 3- B; 4-B, 5- B

NUHM (National Urban Health Mission) was launched in ? 2005 2008 2011 2013 NUHM (National Urban Health Mission) - launched in 2013 NRHM (National Rural Health Mission) - launched in 2005 Myeloid or zebra bodies or renal biopsy are seen in a. IgA nephropathy b. HIVAN c. Henoch schonelin nephritis d. Fabry's disease Ans.......D......Fabry's disease ++ Fabry disease is an X-linked recessive inherited lysosomal storage disease, which results in accumulation of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in a variety of cells, including in the lysosomes. ++ The metabolic defect is deficiency of the lysosomal hydrolase alpha-galactosidase A. ++ By electron microscopy, widespread deposits of Gb3 appear within enlarged secondary lysosomes as lamellated membrane structures, called myeloid or zebra bodies "Staccato" cough is a/w which pneumonia ? a. Staphylococcus b. Chlamydia c. Hemophilus d. Mycoplasma Ans........B......Chalmydia Cough usually occurs as staccato paroxysms (breath between each cough) that may be followed by periods of vomiting or apnea. Thus, prolonged and distressing cough can give an important clue for the clinical diagnosis of C. trachomatis Yellow colour of Lens Nuclear

degeneration is due to ? a. Lipofuscin b. Urochrome c. Lipochrome d. Bilirubin Ans.....B......urochrome + In the nuclear cataract the hardened central lens nucleus appears yellowish or brown. The color results from an accumulation of UROCHROME. + The colored lens absorbs blue light distorting color vision - hence following cataract surgery some ptnts c/o blue vision - cyanospia - a normal phenomenon Road to health chart was designed by (an earlier TNPG qn) a. David Hasselhoff b. David Morley c. David Gower d. David Goliath Ans......B..........David Morley.. Ans yes the options were weird......but then when the question was a general knowledge question - so thot options could be general knowledge based....... :). - David Hasselhoff - The "Baywatch" guy - David Gower - the stylish English left handed batsman from the 1980s - David Goliath - no one keeps that name ! - stoyr of David and Goliath from the bible !! Myerson's sign maybe seen in a. Multiple sclerosis b. Parkinson's disease c. Neurocysticercosis d. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease Ans...B.....Parkinson's disease Tapping the glabella (i.e., between the patients eyebrows) causes blinking, which typically ceases after several taps. Persistent blinking (i.e., more than 4 or 5 blinks) in response to glabellar tapping is abnormal, and is called Myersons sign.

It Maybe ASSOCIATED WITH - Parkinsons disease - Cerebral infarction - Cerebral haemorrhage - Alzheimers dementia - Vascular dementia - Frontotemporal dementia - Advanced HIV/AIDS dementia Achromatopsia related to which area of occipital cortex? V3 V4 V7 V8 Ans.....V4....Bilateral damage to the fourth visual area (area V4) causes achromatopsia Bull's eye maculopathy maybe caused by all except A. Chloroquine tox B. Stargadts disease C. Bardet Bield syndrome D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy Ans.......D....polypiodal choroidal vasculopathy BULL'S EYE maculopathy Chloroquine maculopathy Advanced Stargdardts disease Fenestrated sheenmacular dystrophy Benign concentric annular macular dystrophy Clofazimine retinopathy Sielmeyer Vogt synd. Bardet Biedl synd. Hallervorden Spatz disease Leber congenital amaurosis Lipofuscinosis AD cerebellar ataxia Maltese crosses are a/w a. Leishmeniasis b. Babesiosis c. Trypanosomiasis d. Naegleria fowleri Ans...B.....Babesiosis Babesia microti, a hemoprotozoan parasite of rodents, is also important as a zoonotic agent of human babesiosis.

The Maltese cross form, which consists of four masses in an erythrocyte, is characteristic of the developmental stage of B. microti. Face of the giant panda sign and double panda sign seen on MRI in a. Multiple sclerosis b. Wilson's disease c. Metachromatic leukodystrophy d. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease Ans....B....Wilson disease The midbrain panda sign on T2-weighted MRI has been previously described as preservation of normal signal intensity in the red nuclei and lateral portion of the pars reticulata of the substantia nigra, high signal in the tegmentum, and hypointensity of the superior colliculus. The face of the miniature panda is seen within the pontine tegmentum. It is delineated by the relative hypointensity of the medial longitudinal fasciculi and central tegmental tracts Pupillary powdering is seen in a. Pigment dispersion syndrome b. ICE syndrome c. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome d. Posner Schlossmann syndrome Ans......C.....PSeudoexfoliation syndrome The deposition of pseufoexfoliative material at the pupillary margin causes the appearance of 'pupillary powdering' and this condition is a/w poor pupillary dilation. Brain cells most sensitive to hypoxia are a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes c. Pyramidal cells d. Endothelial cells Ans......C....Pyramidal cells + Brain cells sensitivity to hypoxia :Neurons > Oligodendrocytes > Astrocytes > Endothelial cells

+ Among Neurons most sensitive are - Pyramidal cells in area CA1 of hippocampus (Ammon's horn) - known as Sommer's sector First list of essential medicines in India was published in which year? 1996 1997 1998 1999 Ans.....A.....1996 The National list of essential medicines is one of the key instruments in balanced healthcare delivery system of a country which inter alia includes accessible, affordable quality medicine at all the primary, secondary, tertiary levels of healthcare. Realizing this GOI, MOHFW decided to have its own essential medicines list. The first National List of Essential Medicines of India was prepared and released in 1996. The disease which is classically described as associated with the ancient "silk route" is A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. Behcet's disease D. Cysticercosis Ans.....C......Behcet's disease + Behet's disease is a multisystem disorder named after the Turkish dermatologist, Hulusi Behet (18891948), who recognised and reported in 1937 a triad of symptoms consisting of recurrent eye inflammation, oral ulcers and genital ulcers. + Behet's disease is particularly common in the Far East and the Mediterranean basin, and is frequently noted between the 30th and 45th degree latitudes in Asian and European populations, corresponding to the Old Silk Road, an ancient trading route stretching between the

Mediterranean, the Middle East and the Far East. + The disease had also been alluded to in descriptions by physicians as far back as Hippocrates. Ohngren's classification and Ohngren's line are related to A. Cerebellopontine angle tumor B. Maxillary sinus Ca C. Glomus jugulare tumor D. Basal cell ca of eyelid Ans......B......Maxillary Sinus Ca ++ Historically, Ohngren's line, connecting the medial canthus of the eye to the angle of the mandible, is used to divide the maxillary sinus into an anteroinferior portion (infrastructure), which is associated with a good prognosis, and a superoposterior portion (suprastructure), which has a poor prognosis. ++ The poorer outcome associated with superoposterior cancers reflects early access of these tumours to critical structures, including the eye, skull base, pterygoids, and infratemporal fossa. PIRADS is a reporting scheme for a. Prostate b. Pancreatitis c. Pulmonary X-rays d. Pregnancy Ans.....A..........Prostate PI-RADS an acronym for Prostate Imaging-Reporting and Data System refers to a structured reporting scheme for prostate cancer. The score is assessed on prostate MRI Acute anterior uveitis associated with hypopyon is seen with this therapy: a. Zidovudine b. Maraviroc c. Reltegravir d. Rifabutin Ans.......D............ (Rifabutin). Rifabutin is used for prophylaxis of

disseminated MAC infection in AIDS patients; also used in TB and Crohns. It is well known to be a/w hypopyon uveitis as a side effect. ALSO KNOW: Cidofovir can also cause this effect. Idealisib is FDA approved for treatment of CLL CML ALL AML Ans.....CLL Idealisib is a phosphoinositide 3-kinase inhibitor; more specifically, it blocks P110, the delta isoform of the enzyme phosphoinositide 3-kinase. Approved for CLL and relapsed follicular B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (FL) and relapsed small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) Blackfoot disease" is due to consumption of water contaminated with a. copper b. selenium c. ergot d. arsenic Ans....D......Arsenic BlackFoot Disease was associated with the consumption of inorganic arsenic from the artesian wells. Typical clinical symptoms and signs of progressive arterial occlusion are mainly found in the lower extremities Angioid streaks in the fundus are seen in all except a. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum b. Acromegaly c. Pagets disease d. Hypocalcemia Ans.......D......Hypocalcemia Angioid streaks (also called Knapps striae) are cracks in the Bruch's membrane...

I also use this mnemonic "PAPSHEL.." Psudoxanthoma elasticum .. Acromegaly ..Pagets disease..Sickle cell disease..Hypercalcemia.. Ehler Danlos syndr.. Lead poisoning. The test of choice to detect perivalvular abcess of the aortic valve is: (a) MRI of heart (b) Transesophageal Echo with Doppler (c) Ventriculography (d) CT chest Ans......B.... An earlier Comed-K question Trans Esophageal Echocardiography with color Doppler is the test of choice to detect perivalvular abscesses: - H'son 18th Marey's law relates a. heart rate and BP b. cardiac output and stroke volume c. respiratory rate and exercise d. Hb level and hypoxia Ans.....A.........heart rate and BP Marey's Law states that heart rate is inversely related to arterial blood pressure Bracht-Wachter bodies are found in a. rheumatic heart disease b. subacute bacterial endocarditis c. old sign of acute MI d. amyloidosis of heart Ans......B.......... subacute bacterial endocarditis BrachtWachter bodies are found in infective endocarditis consisting of yellow-white miliary spots in the myocardium. First appendicectomy was performed by (don't curse me for this........BUT was asked in DNBCET earlier)

a. Jacopo Berengario da Carpi b. Gabriele Fallopio c. Caspar Bauhin d. Claudius Amyand Ans...........D........Claudius Amyand The first successful appendicectomy was performed in 1735 by Claudius Amyand ALSO KNOW + Kurt Semm performed the first laparoscopic appendectomy in 1981 Most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a. Hyperkalemia b. Dry cough c. Ankle edema d. Angioedema Ans.....(B).......Dry cough + Dry cough is the most common and annoying, although harmless, side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors. + It usually disappears on withdrawal of the specific ACE inhibitor + Accumulation of bradykinin maybe the cause Treatment fo choice for bacillary angiomatosis is a. erythromycin b. amoxicillin c. ciprofloxacin d. trimethorpim-sulfamethaxazole Ans....(A).....Erythromycin + Bacillary Angiomatosis is caused by Bartonella henslae or B.quintana + MC manifestation is raised, reddish, highly vascular skin lesions that can mimic the lesions of Kaposi sarcoma; common in AIDS + Drug of choice : erythromycin Lafora bodies maybe associated with a. Alzheimer's disease b. Epilepsy c. Acute hemorrhagic stroke

d. Wernicke's encephalopathy Ans....(B).....Epilepsy Lafora disease: progressive myoclonus epilepsy ; lafora bodies - abnormal glycogen clumps in neurons...... ALSO KNOW + Hirano bodies: Alzheimer's disease + Bunina bodies: ALS All are used for treating osteoporsis except a. Zoledronic acid b. Pamidronate c. Denosumab d. Natalizumab Ans....D........Natalizumab Zoledronic acid and pamidronate - IV biphsophonates Denosumab - monoclonal antibody that prevents conversion of preosteoclast to mature osteoclast. ALSO KNOW: + Teriparatide used in osteoporsis Rx - analog of PTH; it stimulates the production of new collagenous bone matrix Sampolaesi's line is seen in a. cornea b. angle of the eye c. retina d. optic chiasma Ans.....B > A.......a controversial question from a recent exam Technically Sampolaesi's line is a pigmented line just anterior to Schwalbe's line......considering that Schwalbe's line is a peripheral termination of Descemet's membrane A (cornea) may be marked as answer; BUT sampolaesi's line is seen clinically ONLY by gonioscopy - in the angle of the eye (B) Medulloblastoma belongs to grade ______ as per WHO classification ? I

II III IV Ans.....D.....IV MedulloBLASToma and GlioBLASToma - Grade IV Osteitis and osteomyelitis maybe complications with which vaccine? a. MMR b. BCG c. HiB d. Hepatitis B Ans....B.......BCG Osteitis and OSteomyelitis - BCG ALSO KNOW - Vaccine associated reactions (add to MAGIC 7/e Pg 247) + Toxic shock syndrome - Measles + Acute cerebellar ataxia , Pneumonitis - Varicella + Transient thrombocytopenia - measles, MMR, HiB vaccine + Intussusception - Rotavirus vaccine Exanthem subitum is caused by a. Herpes virus b. EBV c. Poxvirus d. Togavirus Ans....(A)....Herpesvirus Exanthem subitum (Roseola infantum) is a common childhood disease. The causative organism is human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6). The classic presentation of roseola infantum is a 9- to 12-month-old infant who acutely develops a high fever and often a febrile seizure. After 3 days, a rapid defervescence occurs, and a morbilliform rash appears Winking owl sign seen in a. vertebral metastases b. neurofibromatosis c. maxillary sinusitis d. orbital metastases

Ans.....A......vertebral metastases Erosion of the pedicles (the "winking owl" sign) is the earliest radiologic finding of vertebral tumor. - H'son 18th. In 2008, a series of suicides planned over the internet in Japan cam to be known as The Japanese Detergent Suicide technique........gas involved was a. Carbon monoxide b. hydrogen sulfide c. sulfur hexaflouride d. hydroegn cyanide Ans....b.....hydrogen sulfide Was an earlier AIIMS question..........if u r interested read more here..... Ozurdex intravitreal implant consist of _______ mg of dexamethasone (prev AIIMS numerical question) a. 0.5 b. 0.6 c. 0.7 d. 1.0 Ans.....C....0.7 OZURDEX (dexamethasone intravitreal implant) 0.7 mg is a biodegradable implant injected into the eye (vitreous; approved for -- macular edema following branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) or central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and -- NON infectious posterior uveitis Eosinophilia is the presence of > _________ eosinophils per microlitre of blood a. 400 b. 500 c. 600 d. 700 Ans..... B 500 Eosinophilia is the presence of > 500 eosinophils per microL of blood - H'son 18th

Few more......... 1. Carneys triad is associated with all except A. GIST B. Male preponderance C. pulmonary chondroma D. manifests in younger age group 2. Dubois abscess is seen in A. skin B. thymus C. adrenals D. eyelids 3. Component of corpora quadrigemina is A. Fourth ventricle B. Medulla C. Superior colliculus D. Sigmoid sinus Ans.........B.....B......C Carney triad: extra-adrenal paraganglioma, GIST, and pulmonary chondroma; MC in young females Dubois abscess: thymus (a/w congenital syphilis) Corpora quadrigemina = sup + inf colliculus Few qns 1. "Piano Key Sign" is positive in A) Carpal Instability B) Proximal Radioulnar Joint Instability C) Distal Tibiofibular Joint Instability D) Distal Radioulnar Joint Instability 2. Dyslipidemia can be a side effect of A. Ramipril B. Thiazides C. Amlopdepine D. Amiloride 3. Acute hemorrhagic cystitis may be seen with A. Methotrexate B. Azathioprine C. Cyclophosphamide

D. Paclitaxel Ans.....D B C Piano key sign - DRUJ instaibility - was asked in MH SSET and COMEDK earlier Thiazides - dyslipidemia Cyclophopshamide - cystitis - str forward qn All are features of Addisonian (Adrenal) crisis except a. abdominal pain b. hypertension c. hyponatremia d. hypoglycemia Ans....B....HTN An acute adrenal crisis can manifest with vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypovolemic shock. Hyponatremia is common (although not diagnostic); hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia also may be present. 1. Stiles Crawford effect is with respect to A. Cornea B. Retina C. Crystalline lens D. Cataractous lens 2. Ames test is used to detect A. Action potential B. Mutagenic potential C. Cataractogenic potential D. Emetogenic potential 3. Kveim sitzbach test is diagnostic for A. Amyloidosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Brucellosis 4. touton giant cells are seen in A. tumors B. xanthomas C. RHD D. TB

5. True about Canakinumab is A. acts against IL-1 B. acts against Il-2 C. used in asthma D. used in rheumatoid arthritis Ans to yest set......... 1-B; 2-B; 3-B; 4-B; 5-A Canakinumab is a human monoclonal antibody targeted at interleukin-1 beta; approved for the treatment of cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes Apremilast - FDA approved for psoriatic arthritis is a a. phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor b. histone deacetylase inhibitor c. anti IgG monoclonal antibody d. new herbal remed Ans....A.... phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor Apremilast is a phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4) inhibitor indicated for the treatment of adult patients with active psoriatic arthritis. all are used for treating mycosis fungoides except a. bexarotene b. omalizumab c. vorinostat d. electron beam therapy Ans....(B).....Omalizumab Romidepsin is another hitone deacetylase inhibitor used for mycosis fungoides; bexarotene, vorinostat and electron beam theray are options. Also Know Omalizumab is a recombinant humanized IgG1 monoclonal anti-IgE antibody - INDICATED FOR adults and adolescents (12 years of age and above) with moderate to severe persistent asthma. Fruit with bite mark of the victim or suspect is preserved in A. Camdens solution

B. Hartmann's solution C. Refrigerator door D. Refrigerator freezer compartment Ans is ......A.....Campden's solution This was a JIPMER qn......Campden's solution is a metabisulphite solution used for fruit bottling and is used for preserving fruit bite marks. ALSO KNOW Chocolate with bite marks are preserved in refrigerator (NOT frozen) Kaufman white scheme is for serotyping of a. clostridia b streptococci c. staphylococci d. salmonella Ans....D.....salmonella The Kauffman and White classification scheme is a system that classifies the genus Salmonella into serotypes, based on surface antigens. ALSO KNOW -- Selection of cells rich in H antigens may be made using a device, named Craigie's tube SPIKES approach is used a. during CPR in infant b. during CPR in adult c. for critically ill patient in ICU d. for epileptic found in non hospital settings Ans....C....for critically ill patient in ICU SPIKES approach is a protocol for disclosing unfavorable informationbreaking bad newsto cancer patients about their illness. Straightforward and practical, the protocol meets the requirements defined by published research on this topic. The protocol (SPIKES) consists of six steps S = "Setting Up" P = "Perception"

I = "Invitation" K = "Knowledge" E = "Empathising and Exploring" S = "Strategy and Summary" Urinary bladder develops from the a. Pronephros b. mesonephros c. metanephros d. urogenital sinus Ans.....(D)....urogenital sinus Bladder develops from urogenital sinus. ALSo KNow -- Epithelium of trigone of the bladder is derived from the absorbed mesonephric / WOLFFIAN ducts (mesoderm). Prophylaxis with vitamin C is helpful in preventing A) Flurosis B) Neuro Lathyrism C) Iodine deficiency D) Botulism Ans....(B).....Neurolathyrism Vitamin C prophylaxis has shown benifit in prophylaxis of Neurolathyrism MRI sign of intracapsular rupture of a breast implant is a. linguine sign b. meniscus sign c. double line sign d. toothpaste sign Ans...(A)...Linguine sign Linguine sign: MRI sign of intracapsular rupture of a breast implant. ALSO KNOW -- Meniscus sign: Air is seen between the Aspergillus fungal ball and the wall of the cavity -- Double line sign: Avascular necrosis of femoral head on MRi -- Toothpaste sign: Represents an

extrusion of a disc into epidural space Quilty effect is seen in A. Kidney transplantation B. Lung transplantation C. Cardiac transplantation D. Bone marrow transplantatio Ans....C....Cardiac transplantation Quilty effect refers to lymphocytic infiltrates in the endocardium of cardiac allografts. Quilty effect is generally not regarded as a manifestation of rejection and should be distinguished from focal interstitial lymphoid infiltrates of cellular rejection. Sofosbuvir and Simeprevir were FDA approved in 2013 for ? a. Hep B b. Hep C c. HIV d. H1N1 Ans...(B).....Hepatitis C - Nucleotide analog inhibitor - sofosbuvir - Protease inhibitor - Simeprevir, is approved for treating adults with chronic hepatitis C virus or HCV infection Rigler sign is seen in a. Pneumothorax b. Pneumoperitoneum c. Pneumoencephaloecele d. Pericardial effusion Ans....(B).......pneumoperitoenum The Rigler's sign, also known as the double wall sign, is seen on an x-ray of the abdomen when air is present on both sides of the intestine, i.e. when there is air on both the luminal and peritoneal side of the bowel wall - Pneumoperitoneum (due to perforation or, from recent instrumentation or surgery) The precore mutants in Hepatitis B are characterised by notable absence of

A) HBVDNA B) HBeAg C) HBcAg D) AntiHBeAg Ans....(B).....HBeAg ....MHCET 2014 qn Hepatitis B virus (HBV) precore mutants are associated often with highly productive infection in hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) carriers lacking hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) but positive for anti-HBe, rendering serological identification of infectious individuals unreliable. von Herick's method is useful for assessing a. grade of posterior subcapsular cataract b. thickness of cornea c. depth of anterior chamber d. macular edema post cataract surgery Ans....(C).....depth of anterior chamber von Herick's method is for asessing the depth of the anterior chamber - compares peripheral anterior chamber depth with thickness of the peripheral cornea - used for assessing risk of angle closure Also Know - Lincoff's rule : used for determining site of break in retinal detachment Recent AIIMS journal publication question... Which is a SGLT2 inhibitor ? a. Exanitide b. Canagliflozin c. Saroglitazar d. Sitagliptin Ans....(b).....canagliflozin -- The kidneys reabsorb glucose via sodium glucose co-transporters (SGLTs), primarily SGLT2. -- Canagliflozin provides SGLT2 inhibition, reducing renal glucose

reabsorption and increasing urinary glucose excretion "Box shaped" heart on x-ray is seen in a. tetralogy of Fallot b. Ebstein anomaly c. TAPVR d. Endocardial cushion defect Ans....(B)...Ebstein anomaly..........ALSO KNOW -- box-shaped heart (Ebstein anomaly). -- scimitar (partial anomalous pulmonary venous return), -- gooseneck (endocardial cushion defect), -- boot-shaped heart (tetralogy of Fallot), -- figure of three and reverse figure of three (aortic coarctation), -- egg on a string: transposition of the great arteries), -- snowman/figure of 8/cottage leaf sign: [TAPVR MC cardiovascular manif of thyrotoxicosis is a. sinus tachycardia b. atrial fibrillation c. supraventricular tachycardia d. HOCM Ans.....A.....sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia is the MC cardiovascular manifestation of thyrotoxicosis. Atrial fibrillation is more common in patients >50 years of age. Straightforward question but like I always say u've got to get the simple ones also right...... which of the follwing is known to cause acute myopia and angle closure glaucoma ? a. gabapentin b. levatricetam c. quetiapine d. topiramate Ans....D.....topiramate Topiramate is an oral sulphamate

medication primarily used for seizure, migraine and neuropathic pain. It has been a/w secondary bilateral angle closure, which can mimic acute angle closure glaucoma and induced myopia also. ALSO KNOW -- Quetiapine is a/w cataracts Vogts triad includes all except A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Choroidal hemangioma D. Adenoma sebaceum Ans...C Vogts triad in tuberous sclerosis includes EPILOIA= EPIlepsy, LOw Iq and Adenoma sebaceum Shifting sands of Sahara syndrome may be seen as a complication of A. LASIK B. Scleral buckling surgery C. Squint surgery for paralytic squint D. Glaucoma calve implant - Sands of the Sahara syndrome, or diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) as it is more commonly called, is an exaggerated interface inflammation following lamellar refractive surgery. - While all LASIK patients on careful examination have a few white blood cells in the interface on the first postoperative day, in DLK there is a continuous sheet of cells. - These are MC seen in the periphery of the flap, especially superiorly. - Most patients respond to topical steroids. Ludloff's sign is seen in a. # neck of humerus b. # lesser trochanter femur c. # medial epicondyle humerus d. # lateral epicondyle humerus Ans....(B).....# lesser trochanter - The Ludloff test is a specific test for the iliopsoas muscle. - The test isolates the iliopsoas muscle by lifting the leg with the knee

extended whilst sitting on a chair - Production of a deep groin pain during this test implies the muscle's tendinous insertion onto the LESSER trochanter is affected (positive Ludloff sign) So - Add to MAGIC on Pg 395- in the point abt ludloff sign, add the "iliopsoas muscle" part as above. Which is anti-apoptotic ? p53 Fas Bax Bcl-2 Ans....Bcl-2 Bcl-2 is anti-apoptotic. Whenever it is over-expressed in tumours, cells will have a prolonged surviva Ferriman Gallwey score is used to clinically grade a. extent of endometriosis b. hirsutism c. alopecia d. area of burns Ans...(B).....Hirsutism Ferriman Gallwey score is most widely used method for visually scoring excess terminal body or facial hair growth for the clinical or investigational assessment of - Hirsutism. Modified Ferriman- Gallwey (mFG) scoring system used now considers 9 body areas. Poland syndrome - all are true except a. absence of pectoralis major b. syndactyly and brachydactyly c. right side MC affected d. females MC affected Ans.....(D)......females MC affected Poland syndrome: - MC in males and on right side - absence of pectoralis major - syndactyly + brachydactyly =

(symbrachydactyly) - rarely a/w dextrocardia Widened intercondylar notch and squared inferior margin of the patella....seen in A. Osteoarthritis B. Hemophilic artyhritis C. Juvenile rheum arthritis D. Psoariatic arthropathy Ans....(B)...Hemophilic arthritis - Squaredpatella(flattenedinferiorly). - Widened intercondylar notch - Tibiotalar slanting. - Talar tilt What's NEW in MAGIC 8th edn? Should I buy 8th edn or will 7th edn be enough? How different is it from other revision books? ........these are the questions many of you have been asking me.......so I am clarifying that here........read on below....... My main aim of Sure Success MAGIC has been to provide "A QUICK REVISION NO NONSENSE BOOK that gives you MAXIMUM INFORMATION IN MINIMUM TIME !!" - with this new edition also, I have made the best effort to live up to this . 1. The theory part has undergone major changes in almost all subjects and systems. High-yield MCQ related material including those from recent exams has been added and low-yield material has been deleted. 2. Numerous high quality color images have been added in all subjects and systems - these serve the purpose of "image based questions:" which are standard in most computer based exams these days (AIPGE, DNB CET, AIIMS etc). These images, are along with the text itself ,and not at the end of the book - this ensures easier

readability (ex: images related to congenital heart disease are along with congenital heart disease topic; images related to cataract are along with cataract topic etc...) 3. Some images have MCQ related points within the image itself (ex: anatomy of celiac plexus or anatomy of brachial plexus is a favorite MCQ question for examiners)...... similarly each subject has numerous mages for easier/faster understanding. 4. The text has all MCQ related points in BOLD and ITALICS with "Q" marked as superscript - so these "MCQ/likely MCQ" can be identified easily - in fact frankly I would say each and every line in this book is important. It has the "core knowledge" of various PG entrance papers of the past 10 years. 5. Sure Success MAGIC is not a collection of 1000s of facts one line below the other like many other books - "Its different!"..........In fact I have ensured that it is as much as possible presented systematically starting from etiology to treatment/prognosis....(ex: psoriasis topic would start from etiology and end at treatment, rather than giving 100 facts about psoriasis in 100 lines) - ensures it is easier to remember/retain and recall also. 6. Numerous new tables and flowcharts have been added to enable easier/faster understanding. 7. 2015 exams roundup includes important points from the various state and central level exams of 2015.

8. Extensive Index has been added at the end. Of course the other existing highlight of the book have been retained in this edition also - as below System-wise and subject-wise presentation. High Yield tables 100s of Easy to remember Mnemonics / Memory Aids for confusing stuff (ex: LI Fraumeni syndrome = chromosome 17.....remember as LI= ulta 17!)...... You will find these little helpful memory tips scattered throughout the book. PG entrance preparation is a difficult phase and if the book is in black and white OR in shades of a singe color (like light and dark blue, red etc..) ........reading these only for hours/days together sometimes gets boring and stressful ( I have been through that phase and I KNOW it!). HENCE for this new edition of MAGIC, I have requested the publisher and ensured that this book is of an excellent quality and in full color BUT at affordable price...........when u pick up this book you will like the feel of the book and feel like reading it ! Ohkkkk..................I just read the lines above after I typed this and realized that I am "OH SO TOTALLY PROMOTING!" my new edition here................YES I AM and I have no issues about that because.............I want every PG aspirant to BENEFIT from this book................ I have been through the grind of PG entrance preparation and know how much "hard work" you guys put into it.......its the same "hard work" which you just finished recently in passing MBBS.........its the same "hard work"

which you WILL again put into 2-3 years of your PG course.......BUT in addition to the same "hard work" PG entrance also requires "SMART work"......and Sure Success MAGIC, 8th edn, will help you in this direction. All the Best and God Bless Dr. Ramgopal PS: Starting July 1st week I will be starting "www.suresuccessmagic.com" for any corrections and printing errors in the book and also for additional info about any topic which has come recently as MCQ - you can add this into your books in the respective pages - I have called it - Add To Magic - "ATM"!! ........... Ex: Just when I thought I had included almost all possible MCQ related stuff about schizophrenia - there was a qn about high risk of schizophrenia in ptnts with Velocardiofacial syndrome!!- (in TNPG 2015) - so I will try to include all such points..