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Biology

NJBCT Practice Quizzes

Quiz 1 – Metric Measurements, Microscopes, Scientific Method Pages 3-6

Quiz 2 – Chemistry and Biochemistry Pages 7-9

Quiz 3 – Cellular Structure and Function, Photosynthesis, Cell

Respiration Pages 10-11

Quiz 4 – DNA & Gene Expression

Pages 12-14

Quiz 5 – Cellular Reproduction

Pages 15-16

Quiz 6 – Biotechnology

Pages 17-19

Quiz 7 – Ecology, Human Impact, Evolution Pages 20-21

Name:

Date: Period:

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Metric Measurement, Microscope, Scientific Method Units

Multiple Choice. Select the best answer.

_____1.Which procedure would most likely provide valid results in a test to determine if

drug A would be effective in treating cancer in white mice?

(a) injecting 1 mL of drug A into 100 white mice with cancer

(b) injecting 1 mL of drug A into 100 white mice with cancer and 0.5 mL of drug

X into100 white mice without cancer

(c) injecting 1 mL of drug A into 100 white mice with cancer and 0.5 mL of drug X

into another group of 100 white mice with cancer

(d) injecting 1 mL of drug A into 100 white mice with cancer and 1 mL of distilled

water into another group of 100 white mice with cancer

A biologist collected the data shown in the table below.Use the information for Question#2

_____2.Which statement is supported by the data in the table?

(a) Populations do not vary from month to month.

(b) Seasonal variations may affect populations.

(c) The grasshoppers increased in length in July.

(d) The populations are highest in September.

_____3. A student prepared a slide of pollen grains from flower. First the pollen was viewed

through the low‐power objective lens and then, without moving the slide, viewed through the high‐power objective lens of a compound light microscope. Which statement best describes the relative number and appearance of the pollen grains observed using these two objectives?

(a) low power: 100 small pollen grains; high power: 25 large pollen grains

(b) low power: 25 small pollen grains; high power: 100 large pollen grains

(c) low power: 100 large pollen grains; high power: 25 small pollen grains

(d) low power: 25 large pollen grains; high power: 100 small pollen grains

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_____4. What is the approximate length of the earthworm shown in the diagram below?

(a) 9 mm (c) 10.6 cm

(b) 90 mm (d) 106 cm

_____5. While viewing a specimen under high power of a compound light microscope, a

student noticed that the specimen was out of focus. Which part of the microscope should the

student turn to obtain a clearer image under high power?

(a) eyepiece (b) fine adjustment (c) coarse adjustment (d) nosepiece

_____6.A science researcher is reviewing another scientist’s experiment and conclusion. The

reviewer would most likely consider the experiment invalid if:

(a) the sample size produced a great deal of data

(b) other individuals are able to duplicate the results

(c) it contains conclusions not explained by the evidence given

(d) the hypothesis was not supported by the data obtained

_____7. Students were asked to determine if they could squeeze a clothespin more times in a

minute after resting than after exercising. An experiment that accurately tests this question

should include all of the following except

(a) a large number of students

(b) a hypothesis on which to base the design of the experiment

(c) two sets of clothespins, one that is easy to open and one that is difficult to open

(d) a control group and an experimental group with equal numbers of students of

approximately the same age

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Use this information for Question #8.

Students cut 20 rod‐shaped pieces of potato of the same diameter and length. Five pieces of potato were placed into each of four beakers containing different concentrations of sugar

solutions. Each potato piece was measured again after 24 hours. The table below shows the

results of their experiment.

______8.Which graph below best represents the information in the data table?

a. (1) c. (3) b. (2) d. (4)

_____9.How much water should be removed from the graduated cylinder

shown to leave 5 milliliters of water in the cylinder?

(a) 6 mL (b) 11 mL (c) 7 mL (d) 12 mL

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Use your knowledge of biology, along with the following information,

to answer Question #10.

A student studied the location of single‐celled photosynthetic organisms in a lake for a period of several weeks. The depth at which these organisms were found at different times of the day

varied greatly. Some of the data collected are shown in the table below.

_____10. A valid inference based on these data is that

(a) most photosynthetic organisms live below a depth of 150 centimeters

(b) oxygen production increases as photosynthetic organisms move deeper in the lake

(c) photosynthetic organisms respond to changing light levels

(d) photosynthetic organisms move up and down to increase their rate of carbon dioxide

production

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Chemistry and Biochemistry Units

Multiple Choice. Choose the BEST answer for each.

The following picture comes from the Periodic table of the Elements. Use

it to answer Question #11. Assume Boron does not have a charge.

_____11) Which line in the table below is correct for an atom of Boron?

Choice Symbol Atomic Mass #protons #electrons

A. B 15.81 10.81 5.81

B. B 10.81 5 5

C. 5B10.81 5 5.81 0

D. B5 5.81 0 5

______12) Which of the following shows a balanced equation which obeys the law of

conservation of matter?

a) H + O 2H2O

b) H2 + 2O2 H2O

c) 2H2 + O2 2H2O

d) 2H + O H2O2

_____13) Which line in the table below is correct for the following equation?

K + Cl2KCl

Choice Reactant(s) Product(s)

A. K + Cl2 KCl

B. Cl2 K + KCl

C. KCl + Cl2 K

D. K &KCl Cl2

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_____14) The reactivity of an atom is determined by ..

a. The number of electrons in the outermost energy level

b. The number of neutrons in the atoms innermost energy level

c. The number of protons minus the number of electrons in the nucleus

d. The number of electrons in the innermost energy level

_____15) What is the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?

a) Electrons are transferred in ionic bonds and they are shared in covalent bonds.

b) Electrons are shared in covalent bonds and they are transferred in covalent bonds

c) Electrons are produced in covalent bonds and they are destroyed in ionic bonds.

d) Electrons are destroyed in covalent bonds and they are produced in ionic bonds.

______16) Dehydration synthesis __?__ polymers, and hydrolysis __?__ polymers.

a. breaks down ; breaks down

b. builds ; builds

c. builds ; breaks down

d. breaks down ; builds

_____17) Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?

a. An enzyme can only fit with its specific substrate(s).

b. Enzymes help to speed up chemical reactions.

c. Enzymes lower the amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction.

d. Enzymes work equally well at every temperature and pH.

e. Enzymes are necessary for most chemical reactions in living things.

_____18) Which of the following is correct?

a. An acid will have a pH below 7 and it will release OH- ions in water.

b. An acid will have a pH above 7 and it will release H+ ions in water.

c. An acid will have a pH below 7 and it will release H+ ions in water.

d. An acid will have a pH above 7 and it will release OH- ions in water.

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Use the table below to answer Questions #19-20.

______19) Which molecule belongs in section U?

a.

b.

c.

d.

______20) In which section of the chart would find the structure containing “glycerol + fatty

acids”?

a. U b. Z c.T d.V

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Cell Structure and Function, Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration Unit

Multiple Choice. Select the best answer.

______ 21) Which structure is present in both eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells?

a) nuclear membrane c) cell membrane

b) mitochondrion d) chloroplast

______ 22) Current evidence indicates that ribosomes are most closely associated with

a) contraction of the cytoplasm c) synthesis of protein

b) production of DNA d) regulation of mitosis

______23) A student could tell the difference between onion skin cells and human cheek cells

because the onion skin cells have a

a) cell membrane c) cytoplasm

b) cell wall d) nucleus

______24) In a plant cell, the synthesis of glucose and other sugar compounds from inorganic

raw materials takes place in the

a) cell membrane

b) mitochondria

c) nucleus

d) chloroplasts

______25) As a direct result of cellular respiration in humans,

a) liquid wastes are eliminated from the body

b) food is digested and absorbed into the blood

c) energy is released from digested food within the cells

d) nutrients are transported within the cells

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______26) Which choice has terms in the correct order from simplest to most complex?

a) cells tissues organs organ systems

b) tissues organisms cells organ systems

c) cells tissues organ systems organs

d) organs organisms organ systems cells

______27) When Elodea cells are placed in a saltwater solution, the cells undergo __________,

which means the __________________ of the cell.

a) hydrolysis / bursting

b) plasmolysis / shrinking

c) plasmolysis / bursting

d) hydrolysis / shrinking

_______28) In both plant and animal cells, the cell membrane

a) produces enzymes c) is composed of sugars

b) controls reproduction d) regulates diffusion

______29) Which statement is true regarding the interdependence of photosynthesis and

cellular respiration?

a. the products of one reaction are the products of the other

b. the products of one reaction are the reactants of the other

c. the reactants of one reaction are the reactants of the other

d. none of these

Use the following information to answer

Question #30.

As the depth of the ocean increases, the amount of

light that penetrates to that depth decreases. At

about 200 meters, little, if any, light is present. The

graph below illustrates the population size of four

different species at different water depths.

______ 30) Which species most likely performs

photosynthesis?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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DNA and Gene Expression Units

Multiple Choice. Select the best answer.

_____31.Which cell organelle is most directly involved with the bonding of amino acids?

a. Mitochondrion

b. endoplasmic reticulum

c. cell wall

d. ribosome

_____32.The types of enzymes produced in a cell are regulated by the

a. shape of DNA molecules

b. order of nucleotides in DNA molecules

c. size of nucleotides in DNA molecules

d. location of DNA molecules

Some steps involved in DNA replication and protein synthesis are summarized in the table

below.

_____33.At which step would a mutation lead directly to the formation of an altered gene?

a. A b. B c.C d. D

_____34.Chromosomes can be described as

a. large molecules that have only one function

b. folded chains of bonded glucose molecules

c. reproductive cells composed of molecular bases

d. coiled strands of genetic material

_____35. Transcription occurs at/in the __?__, and translation occurs at/in the __?__.

a. ribosomes ; ribosomes c. nucleus ; ribosomes

b. ribosomes ; nucleus d. nucleus ; nucleus

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Base your answers to questions 36 and 37 on the diagram below, which represents some

components involved in cellular protein synthesis.

_____36. Molecules C, D, and E will combine to form part of…

a. a polypeptide c. a polysaccharide

b. DNA d. RNA

_____37. Structure B represents a molecule of

a. nuclear DNA b. ribosomal RNA

c. cytoplasmic DNA

d. transfer RNA

______38. The central dogma of molecular biology is:

a. traits proteins RNA DNA

b. RNA traits DNA proteins

c. DNA RNA proteins traits

d. Proteins DNA traits RNA

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Use the following segment of DNA and

the codon wheel to answer Question #39.

DNA: TAC GGG CAT

_____39. Using this DNA sequence, transcription would produce a molecule containing:

a. ATG CCC GTA c. meth - pro - val

b. AUG CCC GUA d. tyr - gly - hist

_____40. How many codons are in this mRNA? AUG GAC UGG GCC CAA

a. 3 b. 15 c. 45 d. 5

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Cell Reproduction Unit

Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.

_____41.An exact duplication of the complete set of chromosomes of a cell, followed by the

separation of these duplicate sets into two new cell as shown below is known as:

a. Mitosis b. Zygote formation c. Meiosis d. Fertilization

_____42.Compared to the number of chromosomes in a normal human body cell, the number

of chromosomes in a normal sperm cell is:

a. The same

b. Twice as much

c. Half as much

d. Four times as much

_____43.In sexually reproducing organisms, the number of chromosomes in each body cell

remains the same from one generation to the next as a direct result of:

a. Mitosis and mutation

b. Differentiation and aging

c. Homeostasis and dynamic equilibrium

d. Meiosis and fertilization

_____44.If the chromatid labeled C below has a gene that codes for hair color, which of the

chromatids has a gene that will code for hair color (in general)? A B C D

a. A

b. B

c. all of these

d. D

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_____45.Body cells in a fruit fly contain 8 chromosomes. How many of these chromosomes

were contributed by each parent of the fruit fly?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 8

d. 16

______46. What phase of mitosis is shown to the right?

a. Telophase c. Anaphase

b. Metaphase d. Prophase

_____47.Which of the following form during fertilization?

a. Egg cell c. Zygote b. Sperm cell d. Gamete

______48.Mitosis and meiosis are similar in that:

a. The chromosomes are replicated before either process starts b. The chromosome number is the same when each process is done c. Two separate cell divisions occur during both processes d. Each process combined genetic material from two individuals

_____49.Which statement best explains the significance of meiosis for the survival of species:

a. Meiosis produces egg cells and sperm cells that are completely alike b. Meiosis ensures the continuation of a species by asexual reproduction c. Meiosis produces equal numbers of egg cells and sperm cells in animals d. Meiosis results in genetic variation among the offspring that are produced

_____50.What is the name of structure a in the diagram below:

a. Centriole c. Chromatids b. Centromere d. Cytoplasm

a b

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Biotechnology Unit

Read Chapter 15 in your textbook to answer the following.

_____51. Study the DNA fingerprint below. Which two

samples may be from a set of identical twins?

a. 2 and 3

b. 4 and 6

c. 1 and 4

d. none of these

_____52.In the diagram below, a lamb named Dolly was produced using a cloning technique.

Read through the steps carefully. Dolly’s DNA would therefore…

A. be the same as the DNA in a body cell from Sheep “A”

B. be the same as the DNA in a body cell from Sheep “B”

C. be a mixture of the DNA from Sheep “A” and Sheep “B”

D. be the same as the DNA in an egg cell from Sheep “A”

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_____53.What do we call the process of changing a gene to treat a medical gene or disorder

(such as replacing a defective insulin gene in a diabetic patient)?

a. gene therapy

b. cloning

c. DNA fingerprinting

d. selective breeding

e. gel electrophoresis

_____54. Primary goal(s) of the Human Genome Project included:

a. determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human DNA

b. find new ways of making human clones

c. identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA

d. determine the biochemical composition of DNA

e. “a” and “c” only

_____55. Stem cells are:

a. differentiated somatic cells

b. undifferentiated gametes

c. differentiated somatic cells

d. undifferentiated gametes

_____56.Genetically modified (GM) or transgenic foods:

a. contain no DNA

b. are all dangerous

c. are all safe

d. have had their DNA altered through genetic engineering

_____57. Humans have kept and bred dogs for thousands of years, always looking to produce

animals that are better hunters, better retrievers, or better companions. We’ve done this by

allowing only those animals with wanted characteristics to produce the next generation. This

takes advantage of naturally occurring genetic variation, to pass wanted traits on to the next

generation of organisms. This technique is known as:

a. selective breeding b. cloning c. genetic engineering d. mutation

_____58.Study the diagram below. What would we identify as the vector?

a. normal hemoglobin gene

b. genetically engineered virus

c. bone marrow cell

d. bone marrow

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_____60.

59.

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Ecology, Evolution and Human Impact Units

Multiple Choice. Select the best answer.

________61. Which component of a stable ecosystem can NOT be recycled?

a. oxygen

b. energy

c. water

d. nitrogen

________62. Extinction of a species could result from:

a. evolution of a type of behavior that produces greater reproductive success.

b. synthesis of a hormone that controls cellular communication

c. limited genetic variability in the species

d. fewer unfavorable mutations in the species.

________63. Classification of different

organisms is listed in the table. According

to this table, which organism is most closely

related to the house cat?

a. dolphin

b. songbird

c. lynx

d. wolf

________64. Male grizzly bears can maintain territorial control over many square miles. This

role as top predator in the territory is known as:

a. a habitat

b. an ecosystem

c. a biosphere

d. a niche

________65. In the diagram to the right,

which organism is classified as both a

primary and secondary consumer?

a. hawk

b. raccoon

c. snake

d. mouse

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________66. In a species of plant, the sudden appearance of one plant with a different leaf

structure that enables this plant to survive longer than normal, results from a mechanism of

microevolution called:

a. artificial selection

b. photosynthesis

c. mutation

d. hydrolysis

________67. The guppy is a species of small freshwater fish. Scientists observed that the

average size of guppies in a pond decreased over a few years after the introduction of a species

of fish that preys on the largest guppies. Which of the following best explains the change in

guppy size?

a. dehydration

b. synthesis

c. inbreeding

d. natural selection

________68.Which process transforms chemical energy into energy that is useable by the cells

of an organism?

a. evolution

b. cellular respiration

c. digestion

d. photosynthesis

________69. Organisms are grouped into the 6 kingdom system of classification based on

a. phylogeny or lines of evolutionary decent

b. physical characteristics

c. similarities in the DNA sequences

d. all of the above

________70. Which of the following would cause average global temperatures to increase?

a. increased use of fossil fuels

b. increase in plant populations

c. decrease in vehicle emissions

d. increase of earth’s biodiversity

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