ntse_2015mocktestquestionpaper

8/10/2019 ntse_2015mocktestquestionpaper

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NTSE (AE)

1

Medium :ENGLISH

Roll No:

Language : ENGLISH

____________________________________________________________

NTSE MOCK TEST, 2014

MENTAL ABILITY AND

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 Marks

Language Comprehensive Test:40 Marks

Aptitude Test : 90 Marks

Total :180 Marks

Instructions to Candidates

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be

SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with HB Pencil. Read the Instructions

printed on the OMR Sheet carefully before answering the question.

1.

Please write your Center CodeNumber and Roll Number very

clearly (only one digit in one block)

on the OMR Sheet as given in your

admission card. Please see that no

block is left unfilled and even zeros

appearing in the Center Code

Number are correctly transferred to

the appropriate blocks on the OMR

Sheet as shown in the example given

in the OMR Sheet. For all the

subsequent purpose your Center

Code Number and Roll Number

shall remain the same as given on the

Admission Card.

2. The Test is in THREE PARTS, Part-

I (Mental Ability) consists of 50

Questions (Q.Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II

(Language Comprehensive Test)

consists of 40 Questions (Q. Nos, 51

to 90) and Part III (Aptitude Test)

Consists of 90 questions (Q.Nos, 91to 180).

3. All questions carry one mark each.

4.

Since all questions are compulsory,do not try to read through the whole

question paper before beginning to

answer it.

5. Begin with the first question and

keep trying one question after

another till you finish all three parts.

6.

If you do not know the answer to any

question, do not spend much time on

it and pass on to next one. If time

permits, you can come back to the

questions which you have left in the

first instance and try them again.

7. Since the time allotted to the

question paper is very limited, you

should make the best use of it by not

spending too much time on any

question.

8. A blank page is provided for rough

work at the end of each part.

9. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO

SHADE ANSWERS ON ASEPARATE OMR SHEET

PROVIDED.


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10.Answer to each question is to be

indicated by SHADING the circle

having the number of the correct

alternative in OMR Sheet from

among the once given for the

corresponding question in the

booklet.11.Now turn to the next page and start

answering the questions.

12.After the examination, you should

hand over the OMR Sheet to the

Invigilator of the room.

13.The candidate need not return this

Question Paper booklet and can take

it after completion of the

examination. No candidate shouldleave the examination hall before the

end of the examination.

PART I

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (Q. Nos. 1 to 50)

Max. Marks 50

Note:SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from

amongst the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question Booklet.

For shading the circles, use HB Pencil.

Directions: (Q 1 to 4) :In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of the letters are missing

in the given series with one term missing. This term is one of the alternatives among

the four groups of letters given under it. Find the right alternative.

1. JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT,______

1) QUR 2) RQR 3) RUS 4) SUR

2. AKU, FPZ, ______ PZJ, UEO, ZJT

1) JTD 2) KUE 3) KVE 4) JUE

3. ab_a_b_cc_aabbb_c

1) abcabb 2) cabcc 3) cabcbc 4) cbbcac

4. DCXW, FEVU, HGTS ______

1) LKPO 2) ABYZ 3) JIRO 4) JIRQ


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Directions: (Q 5 to 8) : In each of the questions 5 to 8 some of the numbers are

missing in the given series with one term missing. This term is one of the alternatives

among the four numbers given under it. Find the right alternative.

5. 2 5 11 23 47 95 ___

1) 194 2) 190 3) 192 4) 191

6. 126 62 30 14 _____ 2

1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8

7. 2 6 12 20 30 42 ____

1) 47 2) 54 3) 58 4) 56

8. 2 6 15 64 315 _____

1) 1986 2) 1896 3) 8196 4) 1968

Directions: (Q 9 to 12): Diagram is given in which the figures are interlocking each

other. Figure represents certain section of people which are indicated there on. Different

regions of the diagram are lettered. Read the statements of the questions given below the

diagram and write down the letter of the region which represents the set.

9. Americans who are painters but not sculptors

1) a 2) f 3) c 4) b

10. Painters who are neither Americans nor sculptors

1) a 2) f 3) g 4) e

11. Non-American Painters who are also sculptors

1) d 2) g 3) e 4) d

12. Americans who are painters as well as sculptors

1) d 2) e 3) c 4) g

Directions: (Q 13 to 15): In each of the following questions, find out which of the

alternatives (1), (2), (3) or (4) indicates the correct relationship between the threegiven words.

13. Elected house, M.P, M.L.A

1) 2) 3) 4)


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14. Triangle, Four sided figure, Square

1) 2) 3) 4)

15. Doctor, Nurse, Human being

1) 2) 3) 4)

Directions: (Q 16 to 19): Three alternatives are alike in certain way but the rest one

is different. Find out the odd one and write correct answer.16. 1) C Z H K 2) M L A G 3) X U B U 4) S E N O

17. 1) C F I L 2) P S V X 3) J M P S 4) O R U X

18. 1) 199 2) 326 3) 527 4) 248

19. 1) Carnatic 2) Kuchipudi 3) Kathak 4) Kathakali

Directions (Q 20 to 21):Numbers from 1 to 6 are placed on different faces of the dice.

20. Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number will be on the top ?

1) 1 2) 2 3) 5 4) 6

21. A die is thrown four times and its four different positions are given below. Find the number

on the face opposite to 3.

1)1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6

Direction (Q 22 to 23):Give answer on the basis of given figure that the different

faces are folded in the form of a cube.

22.

The number on opposite side of the face having the number 3 will be1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6


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23.

The number on opposite side of the face having the number 1 will be

1)

2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6

24. In a certain code language, 479 means fruit is sweet: 248 means very sweet voice and

637 means eat fruit daily. Which digit stands for is that code?

1) 7 2) 9 3) 4 4) 8

25. If diamond is called gold, gold is called silver, silver is called ruby and ruby is called emerald,

which is the cheaper jewel?

1) Diamond 2) silver 3) gold 4) ruby

26. In a certain language, CAT = 12, MAT = 17, then what is the value of JAM

1) 15 2) 16 3) 17 4) 12

27. In a certain code language STUDENT is written as TUTDNES. How will SOURCES be

written in that language?

1) SOURCES 2) SUORECS 3) SRUOCES 4) SOURSES

Directions: (Q. 28 to Q.30):In each of the following questions a statement is given

followed by two conclusions I and II:

28. Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practicing to improve and excel

well in the field of music.

Conclusions:

I) Natural gift needs nurturing and care.

II) Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practicing.

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

29. Statement: Fortune favours the brave

Conclusions:I) Risk is necessary for success II) Cowards die many times before their death



30. Statement: Morning walks are good for health

Conclusions:I) all healthy people go for morning walks. II) Evening walks are harmful.




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Directions: (Q. 31 to 32):A is the Son of B: C,Bs Sister has a son D and a Daughter

E : F is the Maternal Uncle of D.

31. How A is related to D ?

1) Nephew 2) Cousin 3) Brother 4) Uncle

32. How many nephews does F have?

1) Nil 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

33. If 23 * 52 = 48, then 43 * 35 = ?

1) 78 2) 96 3) 98 4) 80

34. If 26th

January 1995 fell on a Thursday, on what day did it fall in the year 1986?

1) Friday 2) Monday 3) Sunday 4) Thursday

35. Which of the following years had the same calendar as that of the year 1998?

1) 1987 and 2009 2) 1987 and 2004 3) 2004 and 2009 4) 1993 and 2009

36. If 8th

February in a certain non-leap year is Wednesday, then on which day of the week is 4th

October in the same year.

1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Tuesday 4) Saturday

37. Saritha is at 27th

position from the top in a class of 43 students. What is her rank from the

other side?

1) 16th 2) 17th 3) 15th 4) 21th

38. How many 3s are followed by 7 but are not preceded by 1?

5 3 7 7 3 4 2 6 3 7 2 7 1 3 7 7 3 7 3 4 3 2 3 7 6 1 3 7

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

39. How many times does the digit 7 appear when you write from 11 to 100?

1) 9 2) 10 3) 11 4) 19

40. If the numbers 810, 912, 910, 809, 781, 673, 573 are written in ascending order, then the sum

of the digits of middle number will be:

1) 9 2) 12 3) 17 4) 13

Directions: (Q 41 to 45) : There are four (or) five figures given. One of these doesn't

correlate with the rest of the figures. Find out that figure

41.

1) 2 2) 5 3) 4 4) 1


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42.

1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2

43.

1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 3

44.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

45.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

Directions : (Q 46 to 50) : There are two sets of figures. One set contains problem

figures while the other has answer figures. There is a sequence according to which

the problem figures are arranged. You have to select one figure from the set of

answer. Figure which can be placed in sequence after the set of problem figures. Find

out the correct figure.

46.


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47.

48.

49.

50.


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PART-II

LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST

(Q. Nos. 51 TO 90)

Max. Marks 40

Note :

i) SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheetprovided, from amongst the ones given against the

corresponding question I the Question Booklet. For shading

the circles, use HB Pencil.ii)

Q. No 51 to 90 of Language Comprehensive Test contains

English Language along with a blank sheet for rough work.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions.

To set and work toward any goal is an act of courage. When we exercise the courage to set and

act on goals that are connected to principles and conscience, we tend to achieve positive results.

Over time, we create an upward spiral of confidence and courage. Our commitment becomes

stronger than our moods. Eventually, our integrity is not even an issue. We build the courage to

set increasingly challenging, even heroic goals. This is the process of growth, of becoming allwe can become.

On the other hand, when we exercise courage in setting goals that are not deeply connected topr inciples and conscience, we often get undesirable results that lead to discouragement and

cynicism. The cycle is reversed. Eventually, we find ourselves without the courage to set evensmall goals.

The power of principle-basedgoal setting is the power of principles the confidence that the

goals we set will create quality of life results, that our ladders are leaning against the rightwalls. Its the power of integrity the ability to set and achieve meaningful goals regularly, the

ability to change with confidence when the best becomes the good. Its the power of thefour human endoments working together to create the passion, vision, awareness, creat ivity, and

character and strength that nurture growth.

To access this power is to create the upward spiral that empowers us to continually put firstthings first in our lives.

51. We achieve positive results

1) When we exercise the courage to set and act on goals.

2) When we give connection to conscience.

3) When we set goals.

4) When we respect our goals.


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52. We get unwanted results when

1) We exercise courage in setting goals.

2) We are discouraged by others.

3) We set the goals that are not deeply connected to principles and conscience.4) When we set the goals that is connected deeply to principles and conscience.

53. We find ourselves without the courage to set even small goals.

1) if we do not have goals 2) if we discourage others

3) if we are discouraged 4) if we do not have courage

54. Growth is nurtured by

1) passion and awareness 2) character and strength

3) passion, vision, awareness, creativity

4) strength and passion

55. Which one of the following statements is true according to the above passage.1) our mood becomes stranger than our commitment

2)

setting the goal is an act of courage

3) discouragement is also an encouragement

4) none of the above

Direction :In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been

numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, somewords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out theappropriate words.

About (6)_________ year and half after I had entertained these notions, and by long

musing had, as it were, resolved all (7)_________ nothing, for want of an occasion to put them

(8)_________execution, I was (9)_________, one morning early, with seeing no less than five

can all on shore together on my side the island, and the people (10) _________belonged to them

all landed, and out of my sight.

56. 1) an 2) a 3) the 4) no article

57. 1) into 2) in 3) by 4) on

58. 1) with 2) of 3) on 4) in

59. 1) surprising 2) am surprised 3) was surprised 4) surprised

60.1) that 2) who 3) whose 4) none of these

Direction :Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in theblank to make the sentence meaningful complete.

61. I worked about on the shore _____up my hands.

1) Leaved 2) Lifting 3) Leave 4) was lifting

62. I thought that I _____on the ground, on the outside of my wall, where I sat when the

storm below after the earthquake.1) was sat 2) was sitting 3) is sitting 4) seating

63. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit _____from the chosen path.

1) diversion 2) deviation 3) distraction 4) obstruction


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Direction :In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentencehas an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is No error.

64. If Ihad time, I would havemet you without fail.No error

1 2 3 4

65. Hardly had I seenThe snake than I tooka stick and threw at it.No error1 2 3 4

66. I have been playing heresince seven yearsto make our team perform the best.No error.

1 2 3 4

67. She has made an appeal to all the peopleyesterday to be alertNo error.

1 2 3 4

68. If I wereThe Chief MinisterI would not have done so. No error.

1 2 3 4

Direction: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active

/ Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which bestexpresses the same sentence in Passive / Active voice.

69. They treat me well.

1) I am being treated well 2) I am treated well

3) I am been treated well 4) None of the above

70. Have you informed him?

1) He has been informed by you. 2) Have he been informed by you?

3) Has he been informed by you? 4) Have you been informed by you?

71. Dust covered the walls.

1) The wall were covered by dust 2) The walls covered with dust.

3) The walls were covered with dust 4) The walls covered the dust.

Direction :In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct /

Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which bestexpress the same sentence in Indirect / Direct speech.

72. She said to me. Why were you late?

1) She asked me why I was late. 2) She asked me that why I had been late

3) She asked me why I had been late 4) She asked me why you were late.

73. I said to them, Do you play chess?

1) I asked them did you play chess. 2) I asked them if they played chess ?

3) I asked them if they playing chess ? 4) I said to them if they played chess.

74. She says, I am Unwell.

1) She says that she was unwell. 2) She says that she is unwell.

3) She said that she was unwell. 4) She said that I was unwell.

75. Which one of the following sentences is in comparative degree.

1) He is as good as Ramu. 2) She is the best student.

3) This is worse than anything else. 4) I am beautiful.

76. No other country is as rich as the U.S.A. The comparative degree of the sentence is.

1) The U.S.A is the richest country. 2) The U.S.A is richer than many other countries.

3) The U.S.A is richer than any other country.

4) Some countries are as riches the U.S.A


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77. Ramu runs faster than Raju. The positive degree of the sentence is.

1) Ramu is running faster than Raju. 2) Raju does not run as fast as Ramu

3) Raju runs as fast as Ramu 4) Raju did not run as fast as Ramu

78. Which one of the following is a simple sentence.

1) He bought a blue shirt. 2) I saw a man who is strange3) You are simple and sweet 4) This is the book that changed the whole society

79. She is ill but she attended the class Change the sentence into complex.

1) In spite of her illness she attended the class.

2) Though she is ill she attended the class.

3) Although she was ill she attended the class.

4) Being ill she attended the class.

80. Which one of the following sentences is not a compound sentence.

1) He came and met me. 2) He came to meet me.

3) She gave me book but I did not read 4) I gave her book but she did not return81. Somebody gave you this book. (Add Question Tag)

1) did they ? 2) didnt he ? 3) didnt she ? 4) didnt they ?

82. I am aware of this. (Add question Tag)

1) amnt I ? 2) arent I ? 3) are not I ? 4) am I not ?

Direction :In each of the following questions, a word has been written in fourdifferent ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

83. 1) recedeing 2) receding 3) receeding 4) reeceding

Direction :Find out the wrongly spelt word among the following.

84. 1) arrangement 2) laureat 3) alliteration 4) overlapped

85. A close shave idiom gives the following meaning.

1) a clean shave 2) a lucky escape 3) a narrow escape 4) no escape

86. One of the following idioms give the meaning of get into trouble.

1) to split hours 2) to spill the beans

3) to lose ones head 4) to get into hot waters.

Direction :Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph.

A) and asked him if he had solved the tough problems.

B) Rama got surprisedC) he did not feel the problems were tough.

D) One day Rama went to Ravi.

E) Hearing this, he laughed and said that

87. 1) d, e, c, b, a 2) d, a, e, c, b 3) d, a, e, c, b 4) d, e, b, c, a

88. The synonym for INCENTIVE

1) Punishment 2) reward 3) sensitive 4) tough

89. The antonym for IOTA

1) tiny 2) high 3) big 4) shallow

90. It is an interesting news.

The underlined word is.

1) Noun 2) Adjective 3) Verb 4) Gerund


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PART III

APTITUDE TEST [Q.Nos 91 to 180]

Max. Marks - 90

i . Subjects, Questions Sl. No. and Marks allotted:1. Physics 91 to 102 Questions 12 Marks

2. Chemistry 103 to 113 Questions 11 Marks

3. Biology 114 to 125 Questions 12 Marks

4. Mathematics 126 to 145 Questions 20 Marks

5. History 146 to 155 Questions 10 Marks

6. Geography 156 to 165 Questions 10 Marks

7. Political Science 166 to 175 Questions 10 Marks8. Economics 176 to 180 Questions 05 Marks

i i SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in the OMR Sheet provided,

from among the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question

Paper Booklet. For shading the circles, use HB Pencil

PHYSICS

91. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plot represents the velocity-time graph of the ball during its flight, if the air resistance is not ignored ?

92. The motion of rocket is based on the principle of conservation of

1) mass 2) kinetic energy 3) Angular momentum 4) linear momentum

93. The earth rotates about the sun in an elliptical orbit. At which point is velocity maximum?

1) At A

2) At B

B

A C

D

S3) At C

4) At D

94. Two bodies having kinetic energies in the ratio of 4:1 are moving with equal linear

momentum. The ratio of their masses is1) 1:2 2) 1:4 3) 1:1 4) 4:1


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95. Match the following :

Column - A Column - B

a) pitch ( ) d) wave form

b) quality ( ) e) frequency

c) loudness ( ) f) IntensityThe correct match is

1) a e, b d, c f 2) a e, b f, c d 3) a d, b e, c f 4) a f, bd, c e

96. 540 gm of ice at 00c is mixed with 540 gm of water at 800 C. The final temperature of the

mixture is (given that latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm, Specific heat of water = 1

cal/gm-0C)

1) 800c 2)4 00c 3) 00c 4) 79.90c

97. For a prism, the correct relationship between i and is represented by (i = angle ofincidence, = angle of deviation)

98. A hunter wants to shoot a fish the image of which can be seen through clear water. It is to

be aimed.

1) Above the image of fish 2) Below the image of fish

3) Directly towards the image 4) In any direction

99. Total internal reflection is possible when a ray of light passes from

1) air into water 2) air into glass 3) glass into water 4) water into glass

100. What is the resistance between the points A and B ?

1)3

2

2)2

3

3)1

2

4) 2

101. A current carrying conductor experiences a mechanical force of maximum value in a

magnetic field when it is

1) parallel to the field 2) Inclined at 450

to the field3) perpendicular to the field 4) none of these


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102. Induced e.m.f. in a coil is proportional to the

1) current in the coil 2) Magneticflux linked with the coil

3) Rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil

4) magneticflux density

CHEMISTRY103. The chemical equation Cacl

2+ 2AgNO

3 2Agcl + Ca(NO

3)

2represents following

type of chemical reaction.

1) displacement reaction 2) combination reaction

3) Decomposition reaction 4) Double decomposition reaction

104. Element with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) is

1) metal 2) Non-metal 3) Metalloid 4) Inert gas

105. Ca has atomic number 20 and atomic weight 40. Which of the following statement is NOT

correct about Ca atom ?

1) The number of electrons is same as the number of neutrons

2) The number of nucleons is double of the number of neutrons

3) The number of protons is half of the number of neutrons

4) The number of nucleons is double of the atomic number

106. In which of the following, the elements belong to the same period

1) Na, Li, k 2) Cu, Zn, Cr 3) Cr, Sn, At 4) H, He, F

107. Ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because

1) Attraction of electrons by the nucleus is more

2) Half filled p orbitals are more stable

3) nitrogen atom is small 4) more penetration effect

108. The unit cell of Nacl has

1) Greater number of Na+ions than Clions

2) unequal number of Na+ions than Clions

3) equal number of Na+and Clions 4) smaller number of Na+ions than Clions

109. An electronegativity difference between combining atoms increases

i) Covalent character increases ii) covalent character decreases

iii) ionic character increases iv) ionic character decreases

1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iv) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iv)

110. Match the following

a) Bleaching powder ( ) i) NaHCO3

b) Gypsum ( ) ii) CaSO4.2H

2O

c) Baking soda ( ) iii) CaOcl2

d) plaster of paris ( ) iv) CaSO4H

2O

1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv


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111. The ore that is concentrated by Froth floatation process is ___

1) cinnabar 2) Bauxite 3) malachite 4) Zincite

112. Which of the following are chain isomers of C5H

12

(I) 3 2 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CH (II) |3 2 3CH CH CH CHCH

3

(III)

|

|3 3

CH3

CH C CHCH

3

1) I & II 2) II & III 3) I & III 4) I, II & III

113. List - I List - II

i) Graphite p) 13 bonds

ii) Buckminster fullerene q) sp3

iii) C4H

10r) good conductor of heat and electricity

iv) Diamond s) 12 pentagons, 20 hexagons1) i-s, ii-q, iii-r, iv-p 2) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q

3) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p 4) None of these

BIOLOGY

114. Match the following

i) Tuber ( ) a) Onion

ii) Corm ( ) b) Colocasia

iii) Bulb ( ) c)Bryophyllum

iv) Reproductive leaves ( ) d) Potato1) i-b,ii-a,iii-c,iv-d 2) i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c 3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c 4) i-d, ii-b , iii-c, iv-a

115. Plasmodesmata connections help in

1) Cytoplasmic streaming 2) Synchronous mitotic divisions

3) Locomotion of unicellular organisms 4) Movement of substances between cells

116. A cell is plasmolysed after being kept in a hypertonic solution. What will be present

between cell wall and plasmalemma?

1) Hypertonic solution 2) Air 3) Hypotonic solution 4) Isotonic solution

117. Agar is commercially obtained from

1) Blue green algae 2) Brown algae 3) Red algae 4) Green algae118. The mouth parts of mosquito are of

1) Siphoning type 2) Piercing and sucking type

3) Sponging type 4) Cutting and chewing type

119. Identify the true statement

1) Pellagra is due to deficiency of vitamin B2

2) Scurvy is due to deficiency of vitamin A

3) Rickets is due to deficiency of vitamin D 4) Beri beri is due to deficiency of vitamin B6

120. The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of

1) Number 2) Energy 3) Biomass 4) All the above

121. The longest cell in the body of an animal is

1) Osteocytes 2) Neuron 3) Chromatophores 4) Lymph corpuscles


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122. The book named Philosophic Zoologique was published in 1809 and was written by:

1) Mendel 2) Darwin 3) De Vries 4) Lamarck

123. Double fertilization is characteristic of

1) Angiosperms 2) Algae 3) Gymnosperms 4) Bryophytes

124. In 28-day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on

1) day 1 2) day 10 3) day 14 4) day 28125. Normal haemoglobin content of an adult man is

1) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood 2) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood

3) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood 4) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood

MATHEMATICS

126. The given figure consists of three semicircular arcs and one circle. The smaller arcs are

equal. If AB = 6cm, AC = 4 cm, then the complete length of the two figures is

1) 2cm 2) 4cm 3) 6cm 4) 8cm

127. If , , are the real roots of the equation x3 3ax2+ 3bx 1 = 0, then the centroid of

the triangle whose vertices are the points1 1

, , ,

,1

,

is

1) (a, b) 2) (a, -b) 3) (-a, b) 4) (-a, -b)

128. Four circular cardboard pieces, each of radius 7cm are placed in such a way that each

piece touches the two other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by the four pieces is

1) 21 cm2 2) 42 cm2 3) 84 cm2 4) 168 cm2

129. Let S be the sample space of the random experiment of throwing simultaneously two

unbiased dice with six faces (numbered 1 to 6). Let , :kE a b s ab k for 1k .

If ( )k k

P P E for 1k , then which of the following is correct?

1) P1< P30< P4< P6 2) P36< P6< P2< P4 3) P1< P11< P4< P6 4) P36< P11< P6< P4130. OABC is a quadrant with radius 14 cm and a semi-circle with OA as diameter. The

area of the shaded portion is:

1) 55 cm2 2) 66 cm2 3) 77 cm2 4) 88 cm2

131. If sin A, cos A and tan A are in G.P, then tan

6

A + tan

4

A = 1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1


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132. If 2 2cos cos ,f x x x where is the step function, then

1) 0 1f 2) / 4 2f 3) / 2 1f 4) 1f

133. In the given figure below, the value of QSR is

1) 700 2) 600 3) 750 4) 650

134. The sum of all odd numbers between 100 and 200 is

1) 6200 2) 6500 3) 7500 4) 3700

135. The number of solutions of the equation x2 |x 1 | = 1 is

1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

136. The angle of elevation of the top of a lamp post of 4m tall from a point on the ground is

300. How far should the observer walk so that the elevation gets doubled?

1) 8 3 m 2)8

3m 3) 8 m 4) 4 m

137. If ab + bc + ca = 0, then the value of 2 2 21 1 1

a bc b ca c ab

is equal to

1) 3 2) 3abc 3) abc 4) 0

138. If

2 23 3

5 2 6 5 2 6 10

x x

, then x = ..

1) 2, 2 2) 3, 3 3) 3, 7 4) None

139. In the given figure, sectors of two concentric circles of radii 7cm and 3.5 cm are shown.

The area of the shaded region is

1) 2774

cm 2) 2778

cm 3) 2772

cm 4) None of these

140. If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, in which BC is parallel to AD. Then DAC

1) 400 2) 500 3) 600 4) 640


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NTSE (AE)

19

141. If1 2 20...

20

x x xM

, then the value of

20

1 20i

i

x M

is

1)19

20

M2) 1 3) 0 4) 1/20

142. The value of k for which the system of equations kx y = 2 and 6x 2y = 3 have aunique solution is

1) k 2 2) k = 3 3) k 6 4) k 3

143. If the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = x3 12x2+ 39x + k are in A.P., then the value of k

is

1) 28 2) 28 3) 30 4) 30

144. The values of x satisfying log3(x2 + 4x + 12) = 2 are

1) 2, -4 2) 1, -3 3) -1, 3 4) -1, -3145. Which of the following is false?

1) A B C A B A C 2) c c cA B A B

3) c c cA B A B 4) cA A

HISTORY

146. Praying Hands is a famous, sketch by

1) Albert Durer 2) Michelangelo 3) Leonardo Davinei 4) Delacroix

147. Who among the following did not contribute to the unification of Italy

1) cavour 2) victor immanuel 3) Garibaldi 4) Georges michelet

148. Which among the following statements regarding the mill workers in India during 19th

century are correct.

1) They had to work till the sun set and it became only impossible to see

2) payments were made in proportion to the amount of goods produced

3) mill owner would keep some part of wages till the end of next month as security

4) when electric bulbs began to be fitted the hours of work also increased

1) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 2) only 1 & 4 are correct

3) only 2 & 3 are correct 4) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

149. Animal Farm was written by

1) George Orwel 2) Shawkat Usmani 3) Joseph Stalin 4) Florence owens

150. Long March was conducted in

1) 1905-06 2) 1934-35 3) 1948-49 4) 1944-45


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151. The amount of Agent Orange sprayed over vietnam by US is

1) 11 million gallons 2) 25 million gallons 3) 5 million gallons 4) 18 million gallons

152. Sare Jahan se Achha Hindustan Hamara was written by

1) Rabindranath Tagoore 2) Mohammed Iqbal

3) Sarojini Naidu 4) Jayaprakash Narayan

153. Gandhiji did not celebrate the first independance day because

1) he was against celebrations

2) He thought that India could not achieved Indipendance

3) He was unhappy with the communal frenzy

4) He was busy with the preparation of constitution

154. Punnapra-Vayalar revolt took place in1) Tamilnadu 2) Karnataka 3) Kerala 4) Odisha

155. Kalidasa lived during the reign of

1) Samudra gupta 2) Chandragupta mourya 3) Ashoka 4) Chandragupta II

GEOGRAPHY

156. Which of the following is called Lungs of the earth

1) Tropical evergreen forest of Brazil 2) Tropical deciduous forest of central America3) Temperate evergreen forest of China 4) Temperate deciduous forest of chile

157. A man travels from 1700E to 170W. On 01.01.2014 saturday at 1am. He took 2 hours to

reach his destination. What changes he has to make on his wrist watch after reaching

1700W.

1) the watch will automatically adjust

2) He has to adjust his watch to 4:20 AM Sunday Jan 2, 2014.

3) He has to adjust as 1:40 AM Jan 1 2014 Saturday

4) He has to adjust as 1:40 AM Dec 31 Friday 2013

158. Which among the following is not a reason for ocean current.

1) Centrifugal force B) Solar energy 3) Tilting of the earth 4) wind directions

159. A foot ball stadium is located in the Northern hemisphere have goal points at North

and South. A player kicks the ball freely into the air from the South east corner and

towards the goal post. What will be the possible coriolis effect on the ball.

1) The ball moves away from the post 2) The ball moves into the post

3) The ball goes strait to North East corner 4) The ball goes towards the centre of the stadium


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NTSE (AE)

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160. Which among the following is not a fibre crop :

1) Jute 2) Hemp 3) Coconut 4) Sesamum

161. Which of the following river does not include in Sapta Sindu.

1) Jhalem 2) Saraswathy 3) Yamuna 4) Ravi

162. Find the odd one from the group

1) Patkai Hills 2) Naga Hills 3) Palani Hills 4) Khasi Hills

163. Match the following :

1) Vasantha a) Sravana-Bhadra

2) Grishma b) Aswayuja - Karthika

3) Varsha c) Chaitra- Vaishaka

4) Sharad d) Margashira-Pusha

5) Hemantha e) Jyesta - Ashadha

1) ceabd 2) caebd 3) cdeab 4) cebad

164. How many kopis do a Gadi have ?

1) 200-500 2) 10-50 3) 50-100 4) 1000-2000

165. The highest peak in South India is

1) Doda betta 2) Anaimudi 3) Kodaicanal 4) Makurti

POLITICAL SCIENCE166. General We Win belongs to

1) Burma 2) Vietnam 3) Libya 4) Belgium

167. UDHR was made in

1) 1945 2) 1946 3) 1948 4) 1949

168. Right to enviornment is laid under

1) Article 19 2) Article 24 3) Article 32 4) Article 21

169. Which among the following does not come under Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 1956.

1) Reading rustic writings and watching observe pictures

2) Taking work with out making proper payments

3) Stealing vehicles 4) Removing body parts and doing busines

170. Which among the following document cannot be produced as a residance proof for a

driving licence

1) Ration card 2) electricity bill 3) life insurance policy 4) Bank account

171. According to Ambedkar which article of Indian constitution is known as the Heart and

Soul of the constitution.

1) Article 42 2) Article 17 3) Article 32 4) Article 29


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172. Official language Act was passed in

1) 1963 2) 1964 3) 1965 4) 1966

173. In which year Supreme Court laid down strict norms for the use of Article 356.

1) 1976 2) 1994 3) 1983 4) 1998

174. Which Indian Prime Minister brought constitutional status to local self governments.

1) Rajiv Gandhi 2) LalBahadur Shastri 3) V.P. Singh 4) P.V.Narasimha Rao

175. Federalism means

1) Existence of more than one level of government in the country

2) Federation of states to run the country

3) Only the central government has the right to make laws

4) Judiciary is the highest authority in the country

ECONOMICS

176. START was signed between

1) The USA & The USSR 2) The USA & Vietnam

3) The USSR & China 4) India & Pakistan

177. Juvenile Justice Act was passed in

1) 1976 2) 1956 3) 1986 4) 1987

178. Money Kumar and Monitory policy is a

1) Comic published by Reserve Bank of India 2) novel written by Amarthya Sen

3) cartoon by SLBC 4) short film by RBI179. As per WDR percapita Income of low income countries is

1) less than $1035 2) less than $12,600 3) less than $2085 4) less than $5430

180. Literacy rate of India for men in 2011 census was

1) 65.46% 2) 74.04% 3) 82.14% 4) 80.12%

_________ X _________

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