NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 1 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
TEST BOOKLET
TARGET PRELIMS 2017
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - 1
CURRENT AFFAIRS & ENVIRONMENT
PRELIMS MODEL TEST-11 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate
place in the answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to
you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which
has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third
(.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Date: 17-04-2017
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 2 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. With reference to ecological niche, consider the following statements: 1. Niche is the physical space occupied by
an organism and its functional role in the community of organisms
2. A habitat have several ecological niche 3. Two species can have same ecological
niche Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. ‗NoMore50‘, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) campaign calling for stronger and higher
penalties for Tax evading (b) campaign calling for stronger and higher
penalties for animal cruelty (c) campaign calling for stronger and higher
penalties for environmental pollution (d) campaign calling for stronger and higher
penalties for smoking in public place
3. The Animal Welfare Board of India, country‘s apex institution for promoting welfare of animals is constituted under the (a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (b) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
1960 (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
4. With reference to Species richness, consider the following statements: 1. Species richness refers to the number of
species in an area or community. 2. Species richness in general tends to
increase with the size of the area or from higher to lower latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. ‗One planet city challenge‘, an initiative to recognize and reward cities for their efforts to combat climate change, is a programme created by (a) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) (b) International Union for the Conservation
of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) (c) United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) (d) United Nations Conference on
Sustainable Development, Rio+20
6. With reference to ‗sangai‘, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an herbivorous animal. 2. It is found along the entire Western
Ghats regions of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
7. Consider the following pairs: 1. Kamlang Tiger
Reserve : Arunachal
Pradesh
2. Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve
: Madhya Pradesh
3. Umred-Karhandla wildlife sanctuary
: Maharashtra
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Recently, which of the following states has declared some butterfly as ‗State Butterfly‘? 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Karnataka 4. Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Consider the following statements: 1. National Board for Wildlife is established
under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Board for Wildlife is a statutory body.
3. National Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. If an animal is included in the Vermin category, what does it imply? (a) The animal comes under the Schedule I
of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (b) That particular animal can be culled as
it cause‘s harm to crops and humans (c) That particular animal is a man-eater
wild animal (d) The animal is given a high degree of
protection by Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
11. One of the Ramsar site in India which is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity, is deteriorating primarily because of the change in water regime due to construction
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 3 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
of a barrages and the commissioning of a Hydro-Power Project in that region. Which of the following could be that Ramsar site? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Chilika Lake (c) East Calcutta Wetlands (d) Loktak Lake
12. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Khangchendzonga 2. Achanakmar Amarkantak 3. Seshachalam 4. Manas Which of the above are included in the world network of Biosphere reserve by UNESCO? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of wildlife? (a) Tiger Reserve (b) National Park (c) Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Zoological Park
14. Which one of the following statements is not true? (a) Teesta river originates in the Himalayas
and flows through Sikkim and West Bengal to merge with the Brahmaputra
(b) Harikke barrages water is utilized in the Indira Gandhi Canal
(c) River Luni is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchch
(d) Cauvery River rises from Trimbakeshwar
15. Which of the following animals are listed in the Vermin category in certain states by the Ministry of Environment and Forest? 1. Nilgai 2. Peacock 3. Rhesus Macaque 4. Elephant
5. Wild boar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
16. Consider the following States: 1. Nagaland 2. West Bengal 3. Meghalaya In which of the above States do ‗Tropical Evergreen Forest‘ occur? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
17. ‗BIOTA 1.0‘, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) a biofuel (b) a satellite in PSLV C37 (c) a biodiversity app
(d) an anti-cancer drug produced form plants
18. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth hour: 1. Earth hour is a global environmental
movement by International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN).
2. Rajkot is declared as the National Earth hour capital of 2016.
3. The global Earth Hour City Challenge (EHCC) is a year-long competition that rewards cities for their long term efforts to combat climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
19. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Satkosia 2. Ratapani 3. Kaziranga 4. Ranthambhore Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. Which of the following biotic components are producers of ecosystems? 1. Mosses 2. Ferns 3. Fungi 4. Phytoplankton Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Consider the following statements: 1. Species evenness means relative
abundance of each species in a community
2. If a habitat has similar abundance for each species present, the habitat is said to have evenness.
3. Evenness tells whether a particular ecosystem is numerically dominated by one species or whether all of its species have similar abundances
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
22. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? 1. Carbon dioxide. 2. Ammonia 3. Ozone 4. Lead
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 4 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
5. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
23. Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive Zone: 1. These are the land falling inside the
protected areas which act as the shock absorber to ecological damages.
2. These are declared to prevent ecological damage caused due to developmental activities around the protected areas.
3. Eco-sensitive Zones are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Which of the following pairs is/are correct? Protected Area State
1. Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary
: Arunachal
Pradesh
2. Panna Tiger Reserve
: Kerala
3. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
: Madhya Pradesh
4. Dandeli - Anshi Tiger Reserve
: Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 4
25. With reference to ‗hangul‘, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a subspecies of elk native to India. 2. It is found along the entire deccan
regions of India 3. It is given legal protection under
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
26. With reference to an organisation known as ‗Wetlands International‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global organisation dedicated to
maintaining and restoring wetlands for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people.
2. It identifies the sites known as ‗Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas‘.
3. They work at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge, giving respect to traditional values and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
27. With reference to coral bleaching, consider the following statements: 1. Coral bleaching takes place when the
symbiotic relationship between algae (zooxanthellae) and their host corals breaks down under certain environmental stresses
2. Coral beaching occurs only due to the rise in temperature
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Consider the following statements: 1. The sum total of the populations of the
same kind of organism constitute the community.
2. Community consists of interacting populations and all the species living in an area.
3. Population consists of all the species living in an area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
29. Consider the following statements: 1. The Home range of an animal could be
the whole area that can sustain the animal with living conditions such as food, shelter, and mating partners.
2. Home range is expressed to identify the total inhabited area of a particular species, subspecies, or other taxonomic group.
3. The territory expresses only the area of a particular group of animals in the same species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
30. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Agasthyamalai 3. Sundarbans 4. Western Ghats Which of the above are declared World Heritage Sites?
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 5 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is a membership union composed
of both government and civil society organisations (NGOs) for the conservation of biodiversity
2. IUCN has an official Observer Status at the United Nations General Assembly
3. IUCN runs field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Which of the following is/are the factors determining the primary productivity? 1. Availability of nutrients 2. Photosynthetic capacity of plants 3. Photosynthetic active radiation Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3only (d) 1, 2 and 3
33. Consider the following pairs: Tributary River Main River 1. Ken : Narmada 2. Wainganga : Ganga 3. Shyok : Indus Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
34. Which one of the following is the best description of World Heritage Sites? (a) A place of importance that is listed by
the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.
(b) The sites of outstanding example of ongoing ecological process and beauty only.
(c) The sites protected by IUCN without any human interventions.
(d) The places having ecologically important wetlands which are protected by Ramsar Convention.
35. Consider the following statements: 1. A biome is a large ecological area with a
distinct climate and a distinct biological community of plants, animals and other organisms.
2. One or more communities of different species interacting with one another and with their no-living environment is called as ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. With reference to an initiative called Asian Waterbird Census (AWC), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The AWC is a citizen science programme
that supports the management and conservation of waterbirds and wetlands.
2. AWC is only monitoring waterbirds. 3. The Bombay Natural History Society
(BNHS) along with Wetlands International is organizing Asian Waterbird Census (AWC) to count waterbirds all over India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Which one of the following is an example of parasitic food chain? (a) Phytoplankton→ Zooplankton→ Fish→
Hawk (b) Grass→ Grasshopper→ Frog→ Snake→
Hawk (c) Trees→ Fruit eating birds→ Lice and
bugs→ Bacteria and fungi (d) Dead leaves→ Earthworm→ Blackbird
38. With reference to India Biodiversity Awards (IBA), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and United Nations Development programme (UNDP).
2. It recognise the contribution of stakeholders towards the conservation of biodiversity and excellence in biodiversity governance.
3. It is only giving awards to the steps taken for conservation of threatened species.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
39. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Materials are cycling through
ecosystems (b) Energy is cycling through ecosystem
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 6 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(c) Energy will be reduced in every trophic level
(d) Energy transfer happens in an ecosystem through the food chain
40. What would happen if excess fertilisers are run off in to a lake ecosystem? 1. The excess in nutrients results in algal
bloom 2. Biodiversity of the lake will increase 3. Decrease in the oxygen level of the lake
and becomes dead zones Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Which of the following is/are not a correct statement? 1. Ecological succession is the process
through which ecosystems tend to change over a period of time.
2. The xerarch succession starts from a wetter area and ends in a mesic state.
3. The hydrarch succession starts from a dry area and ends in a mesic state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
42. A snow covered region is the natural habitat of an Indian species, which were not sighted in the Kargil‘s Drass Sector after the 1999 Kargil war, due to its habitat destruction. The species is again spotted in that region recently. Which one of the following could be that animal? (a) Himalayan Musk Deer (b) Himalayan Brown Bear (c) Himalayan Tahr (d) Snow leopard
43. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Primary productivity is related to
producers (b) Primary productivity is the organic
material that plants produce (c) Net Primary Production (NPP) represents
the amount of energy or organic matter fixed or stored at trophic level one (Producers) after respiration
(d) Annual productivity of an ecosystem is greater than the annual increase in biomass of the herbivores in the ecosystem
44. With reference to speciation, consider the following statements: 1. Speciation occurring when the
population becomes separated by
geographical barriers is called as allopatric speciation.
2. The formation of two or more species from a single ancestral species all occupying the same geographical area is known as sympatric speciation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Consider the following: 1. Irrawaddy dolphin 2. Humpback dolphin 3. Bottlenose dolphin 4. Finless Porpoise Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
46. Other than indiscriminate cutting, what are the possible reasons for the very high mortality rate in the population of Khejri tree, a Keystone species found in Rajasthan? 1. Decrease in groundwater level 2. Fungal attacks 3. Use of mechanical ploughs 4. Lopping off of branches for fodder 5. Changing topography with the Indira
Gandhi Canal making water flow through once arid desert
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
47. Recently, from one of the global biodiversity hotspot in India four new tiny Night Frogs belong to the Nyctibatrachus genus were found which are endemic to that region; they are in threat posed by human activities, especially due to hydroelectric projects. The species can be seen in: (a) Himalaya (b) Western Ghats (c) Indo-Burma (d) Sundaland
48. Consider the following pairs: 1. Manas River : Assam 2. Peddavagu river : Arunachal Pradesh 3. Pala Rapu cliff : Telangana Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
49. In India, one of the strongest contenders for the top spot as the next-best substitute for petrol and diesel is biofuel. Which of the
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 7 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
following is/are the source/sources for biodiesel? 1. Jatropha 2. Pongamiapinnata 3. Mahua 4. Neem 5. Castor Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
50. With reference to ‗pacha chedi‘ (Neurocalyx calycinus), sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a medicinal plant endemic to the
southern parts of Western Ghats and Sri Lanka.
2. It has a potential for developing anti-cancer drug.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. ‗Aquila‘, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) Waste management technology (b) Wireless communication technology (c) Nuclear power production technology (d) Water conservation technology
52. Regarding ‗BharatNet‘ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It aims to provide on demand, affordable broadband connectivity of 2 Mbps to 20 Mbps for all households and on demand capacity to all institutions.
2. The entire project is being funded by Universal service Obligation Fund (USOF).
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. The province known as ‗Idlib‘ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) Yemen (b) Syria (c) North Korea (d) Somalia
54. With reference to ‗Islamic Military Alliance to Fight Terrorism (IMAFT)‘; consider the following statements: 1. It is a specialised agency of Organisation
of Islamic Cooperation in working relation with NATO.
2. It calls for all member states to cooperate to combat terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
3. It was established by Saudi Arabia in December 2015 and its joint operations centre is based in Riyadh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. With reference to ‗International Energy Agency (IEA)‘, consider the following statements: 1. The IEA was founded in 1974 to help
countries collectively respond to oil supply disruptions.
2. India recently became a member of International Energy Agency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. In the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC), an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Pakistan 2. Bangladesh 3. Thailand 4. Myanmar 5. Nepal Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5
57. Consider the following statements: 1. Tawang is a disputed territory in the
Western sector of the India- China boundary.
2. Tawang district is situated in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Consider the following pairs: Community sometimes
mentioned in the news
In the affairs of
1. Yazidis : Afghanistan
2. Pashtuns : Syria
3. Baloch : Pakistan
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
59. With reference to ‗Organoid‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It was created by coating tiny gel beads
with liver-derived stem cells.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 8 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
2. It aims to study the diseases, including idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Shenzhou-11‘ that was in the news recently? (a) Supercomputer of Russia (b) Remote sensing satellite of China (c) Rice variety made by India (d) Manned spacecraft of China
61. With reference to ‗Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide (PAVA)‘ shell, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is otherwise called Nonivamide. 2. It is a Russian-based ammunition. 3. It aims to find an alternative to pellet
guns for crowd control. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. With reference to ‗Sarathi vessel‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is a torpedo recovery vessel. 2. It is capable of carrying pollution
response equipment to contain oil spill at sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. With reference to ‗Intellectual Disability (ID), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is otherwise called cystic fibrosis. 2. It is measured by an intelligence
quotient below 70. 3. It significantly limits an individual‘s
practical skills. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Yudh Abhyas 2016, recently seen in the news, is a joint military exercise between India and (a) Turkmenistan (b) Russia (c) U.S.A (d) Uzbekistan
65. With reference to ‗Barak-8 missile‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-air missile.
2. It was jointly developed by India and Russia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. With reference to ‗Three parent technique‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It involves fertilising both the mother‘s
egg and a donor egg with the father‘s sperm.
2. It is legally approved in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. With reference to ‗avian influenza‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is a disease caused by bacteria. 2. It is a zoonotic disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. With reference to ‗Quantum radar‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a device that uses quantum
entanglement photons to provide better detection capabilities than conventional radar systems
2. It will be useful for tracking targets with stealth technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana? (a) Members of the scheduled caste and
scheduled tribe households (b) Economically weaker sections, low-
income group and mid-income group (c) Physically differently abled or senior
citizens
(d) All the above
70. Regarding ‗Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It aims to skill all the youth who are
poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly wages.
2. It envisages setting up of at least 1500 to 2000 training centers across the country.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 9 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
3. It guarantees placement for at least 75% trained candidates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
71. With reference to ‗Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It provides for accidental Death
Insurance. 2. It is available to people between 18 and
70 years of age with bank accounts Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. The endeavour of ‗Pradhan Mantri YUVA Yojana‘ Programme is 1. to provide skills training and enhance
the employability of unemployed youth 2. to provide industry-relevant skill
training for unemployed youth 3. to provide entrepreneurship education
and training Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
73. ‗Swavlamban Health Insurance Scheme‘ launched by the Government of India pertains to (a) provide affordable Health Insurance to
the persons with disabilities (b) provide one year life insurance scheme
to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years
(c) Social security scheme for rural landless household
(d) Financial inclusion of all the households in the country
74. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‗National Rural Health Mission‘ of the Government of India? 1. To provide accessible, affordable and
quality health care to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
2. To achieve the goal of making the public health delivery system fully functional, community owned, decentralized health delivery system with inter-sectoral convergence at all levels
3. It aims to promote access to improved healthcare at household level through the female health activist (ASHA).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
75. With reference to ‗Mission Poorna Shakti‘, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to ensure violence against
women is eliminated progressively. 2. It aims to prevent gender biased sex
selective elimination Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission is aimed at (a) enhancing livelihood security of people
in rural areas (b) development of 300 rural growth
clusters (c) creating efficient and effective
institutional platforms of the rural poor (d) All the above
77. With reference to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following statements: 1. It provides a legal guarantee of 100 days
of work in a financial year. 2. Adult members of below poverty line
(BPL) households are eligible to get the benefits.
3. One-third of the stipulated work force must be women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
78. ‗PRAGATI‘, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (a) starting a culture of timely
implementation of government projects and programmes, improving the governance in the country proactively
(b) providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
(c) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system
(d) protecting, restoring and enhancing India‘s diminishing forest cover
79. Subramanian panel‘s recommendations are based on (a) MSP procurement operations (b) Mandi taxes (c) Agri warehousing facilities (d) Working of eNAM
80. Consider the following crops of India: 1. Sorghum 2. Buck wheat
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 10 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are coarse cereals? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
81. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, and it has many other uses. Which one of the following is not a use of it? (a) The gum made from its seeds is used in
the extraction of shale gas. (b) Guar gum is used in baking as a dough
thickener. (c) The oil extracted from seeds is used in
the manufacture of biodegradable plastics.
(d) Guar is used in mining, petroleum drilling and textile manufacturing industries.
82. With reference to ‗sunflower‘, consider the following statements: 1. Besides oil, almost every part of
sunflower has commercial value. 2. Crop gained importance due to its short
duration of maturity. 3. Since it is a photo-insensitive crop, it
can be grown throughout the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Consider the following crops: 1. Cowpea 2. Cluster bean 3. Green gram 4. Pigeon pea Which of these are leguminous Green Manures? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
84. Suez Canal connects (a) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (c) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (d) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
85. With reference to ‗Article 50 of European Union‘, consider the following statements: 1. It sets out the process by which member
states may withdraw from the European Union.
2. It gives the leaving country two years to negotiate an exit deal.
3. It was created as part of the Treaty of Lisbon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
86. What is ‗Raisina Dialogue‘?
(a) It is a flagship conference of India on geopolitics and geo-economics.
(b) It was a meeting of global business leaders in November 2016 which was organised by the Government of India.
(c) It is the nickname given to the Indus Water Treaty.
(d) It is the initiative of India to fight piracy in Indian Ocean region.
87. With reference to ‗World Food Programme (WFP)‘, consider the following statements: 1. It was established very recently in
response to Syrian Civil War. 2. It is the largest humanitarian
organisation implementing school feeding programmes worldwide.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
88. With reference to ‗United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF)‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is a United Nations (UN) programme
headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. 2. It advocates for the protection of
children's rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. With reference to ‗Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC)‘, consider the following statements: 1. It was established in response to
incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Diego Garcia island, which is a US military base is located in (a) Indian Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean
91. ‗Ram Sethu‘, recently in news, lies between which one of the following pairs of islands? (a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Amini and Canannore (c) Sumatra and Java (d) Pamban and Mannar
92. Consider the following pairs:
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 11 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
National Cities Highway connected 1. NH 2 : Delhi and Kolkata 2. NH 5 : Chennai and Bhubaneshwar 3. NH 4 : Mumbai and Chennai Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
93. Consider the following pairs: Hills State
1. Dafla Hills : Nagaland 2. Nallamalai Hills : Tamil Nadu 3. Agasthyamala : Kerala 4. Maikala range : Madhya Pradesh Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
94. Which of the following statements regarding ‗Carbon Offsetting Scheme for International Aviation‘ is/are correct? 1. It suggests a single global market-based
measure to address CO2 emissions from international aviation.
2. The agreement was adopted at UNFCCC meeting in Paris in 2015.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. With reference to ‗Gravitational waves‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Gravitational waves are ripples in the
fabric of space-time. 2. Coalescing neutron stars produce
gravitational waves. 3. It was first discovered using Laser
Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO).
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
96. Which of the following statements regarding ‗gas hydrates‘ is/are correct? 1. They are ice-like combination of natural
gas and water found in oceans and polar regions.
2. Deposits of Gas hydrates are found in Krishna-Godavari Basin.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Which of the following describes/describe the objective of ‗Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojna‘? 1. Financial turnaround and operational
improvement of State electricity distribution utilities.
2. Reduction of cost of generation of power 3. Development of Renewable Energy Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
98. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was recently amended at Kigali, Rwanda. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Parties of Montreal Protocol agreed to
phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). 2. The Kigali Amendment will enter into
force only if it is ratified by at least 20 parties to the Montreal Protocol.
3. Kigali agreement is not legally binding and countries can opt out of the agreement at any stage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
99. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Major Ports State
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
: Goa
(b) Ennore : Tamil Nadu
(c) Paradip : Maharashtra (d) Mormugao : Odisaa
100. The Chenani-Nashri tunnel, the longest
highway tunnel in India, is a part of which of the following National Highways? (a) NH 8 (b) NH 37 (c) NH 2
(d) NH 44
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 12 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
TEST BOOKLET
TARGET PRELIMS 2017
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - 1
ECONOMY & ECONOMY RELATED CURRENT AFFAIRS
PRELIMS MODEL TEST-12 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate
place in the answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to
you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which
has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third
(.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Date: 23-04-2017
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 13 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. Consider the following statements regarding
the Liquidity Adjustment Facility:
1. It is one of the chief monetary tools of the RBI.
2. Under LAF, RBI sells Government
Securities when there are inflationary
trends in the economy and buys the same
during deflationary periods.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Public Sector Enterprises-
Exchange Traded Funds (CPSE-ETF):
1. CPSE-ETF follows the Nifty50 index.
2. It includes Maharatna, Navaratna as well
as Miniratna companies.
3. ONGC holds the maximum share of the CPSE ETF.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
3. Which of the following is/are the major
constraints for the better monetary
transmission in the Indian economy?
1. Deposit rates of the small savings schemes
are higher compared to the bank deposits. 2. Twin Balance Sheet Problem.
3. High Statutory Reserve Requirements.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. The World Economic Forum 2016 at Davos
discussed about the Fourth Industrial
Revolution that are fusing the physical, digital and biological worlds, and impacting all
disciplines, economies and industries. But the
world fear that this may lead to more
unemployment and increasing inequality. The
type of unemployment mentioned above can
be (a) Seasonal Unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Cyclic Unemployment
(d) Structural unemployment
5. Consider the following statements regarding
the Gender Inequality Index (GII) released by
the UNDP:
1. GII measures gender inequalities in three
important aspects of human development- reproductive health, the labour market
participation and empowerment.
2. Higher the GII value the more disparities
between females and males and the more
loss to human development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following is the correct
arrangement of BRICS economies based on
their GDP (Purchasing Power Parity $) in decreasing order?
(a) China-India-Brazil-Russia-South Africa
(b) China-Brazil-India-Russia-South Africa
(c) China-India-Russia-Brazil-South Africa
(d) China-Russia-India-Brazil-South Africa
7. One of the appropriate ways to compare the
income levels of the different countries across
the globe is
(a) GDP at nominal rate (b) GDP at constant rate
(c) Purchasing Power Parity
(d) IMF quota
8. Consider the following statements regarding the Repo rate:
1. It is the rate at which the RBI lends money
to commercial banks generally against the
Government Securities.
2. It is the rate at which the RBI borrows
money from the commercial banks against the Government Securities.
3. It is the rate at which the Commercial
Banks keep deposits with the RBI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above
9. Consider the following statements regarding
the State GST bills:
1. All the 29 States and 2 Union Territories with legislatures i.e. Delhi and
Puducherry needs to pass the State GST
bills for the introduction of GST regime in
the country.
2. Telangana is the first state to pass the State GST bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which of the following periods in the history of
Indian planning has been a period of Annual
Plans?
(a) 1966-69 (b) 1979-80
(c) 1990-92 (d) All of the Above
11. Which of the following criteria is/are
considered while computing the Multi-
Dimensional Poverty Index of UN Development
Programme? 1. Nutrition
2. Expected years of schooling
3. Standard of living
4. Child Immunisation
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
12. Which of the following statements regarding
the 2016 Human Development Report (HDR)
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 14 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
released by the United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP) is/are correct?
1. Both India and Pakistan comes under the ‗medium development‘ category.
2. Among SAARC members, India is fourth
after Sri Lanka, Maldives and Bhutan.
3. While India‘s HDI value increased from
0.428 in 1990 to 0.624 in 2015, it still had
the lowest rank among BRICS nations. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following areas is/are not
covered under the Human Development
Index?
1. Poverty 2. Empowerment
3. Life expectancy 4. Inequalities Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
14. When the Indian rupee appreciates against
the international currencies in the global
economy?
(a) the black money in the system may get
reduced (b) the country will have the export
competitiveness over other countries
(c) the RBI will offload more government
securities into the system
(d) the import bill of the country will benefit
15. The NK Singh panel to review the India‘s
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
Act has recommended
1. Debt-to-GDP ratio target for both Central and State governments to be achieved by
2022-23.
2. Setting up of a Fiscal Council.
3. Repealing the existing FRBM Act.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
16. Cyber Security and Information Technology
Examination (C-SITE) cell was established by (a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
17. The main function associated with the
‗Currency Chest‘, sometimes seen in the news
is (a) To store the returned soiled and mutilated
currency notes.
(b) To design and issue the new currency
notes
(c) To stock rupee notes and coins.
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are true
in this context.
18. India has amended Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreements with a number of
countries. Which of the following countries
is/are eligible for the Limitation of Benefit
clause under the amended agreements? 1. Cyprus
2. Singapore
3. Mauritius
4. Republic of Korea
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
19. Which of the following items is/are exempted under the Goods and Services Tax system?
1. Electricity
2. Real Estate
3. Petroleum products
4. Alcohol
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
20. Which of the following taxes is/are subsumed
under the proposed Goods and Services Tax?
1. Entry Tax
2. Service Tax
3. Customs Duty
4. Countervailing Duty Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
21. Consider the following statements regarding
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code:
1. The code creates time-bound processes for
insolvency resolution of companies and
individuals. 2. The National Company Law Tribunal
(NCLT) will adjudicate insolvency
resolution for companies as well as
individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Which of the following is/are related to the International Monetary Fund?
1. International Monetary Financial
Committee
2. Group 77
3. Group 10
4. Group 15 Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 15 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
23. Recently Indian Government has amended the
Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement with
various countries. This is to 1. curb the revenue loss
2. prevent the double non taxation
3. streamline the flow of investments
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements regarding
the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI: 1. MPC includes 6 members and is headed by
RBI Governor.
2. MPC is taking decisions based on
consensus.
3. MPC has only advisory power on monetary
policy and the policy rate is set by Government of India.
4. MPC members appointed by the Central
Government hold the office for a period of
four years and also eligible for
reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
25. Which of the following statements regarding
the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is
correct?
(a) IIP is published by the Central Statistical
Organisation
(b) IIP gives maximum weightage to the manufacturing sector
(c) IIP receives data compilation from 16
different agencies across the country
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are
correct in this context.
26. On 8th November 2016, Government of India
demonetised the high value currency notes to
fasten its fight against black money and
advance towards the cashless economy. Consider the following statements regarding
the Mahatma Gandhi (new) series notes
introduced after the demonetisation. 1. The new ₹2000 denomination note has
motif of the Mangalyaan on the reverse, depicting the country's first venture in
interplanetary space. 2. ₹ 2000 is the maximum denomination
that RBI can issue as bank notes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. When the Reserve Bank of India carry out the
Open Market Operations (a) it may sell off the government securities to
the public
(b) it may take loans from the International
Finance Institutions
(c) it may buy the government securities from
the pubic
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct in this context
28. An increase in the repo rate generally
indicates that the
(a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b) Central bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c) Central bank is following tight money
policy
(d) Both (a) and (c) are true in this context.
29. Which of the following brings out the ‗Index of
Industrial Production‘?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Central Statistics Organisation
(c) Office of the Economic Advisor, DIPP (d) Ministry of Labour, Govt. of India
30. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) Inflation benefits debtors (b) Inflation affects the creditors
(c) Inflation benefits the bond holders
(d) Inflation affects the fixed income people
31. The most appropriate term to express the deliberate action of the Government to
increase the rate of inflation in the economy?
(a) Appreciation (b) Revaluation
(c) Reflation (d) Disinflation
32. A rise in general level of the prices may be
caused by
1. Cheap money policy
2. An increase in the money supply
3. An increase in the public expenditure Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
33. With reference to the inflation, consider the
following statements:
1. Monthly combined Consumer Price Index
(CPI) is now taken as the
measure of headline inflation in India. 2. RBI uses the same to formulate its
monetary policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Consider the following statements regarding
Indian Performing Right Society Limited
(IPRS): 1. IPRS issue licences to users of music.
2. IPRS collect royalties from users of music,
for and on behalf of its members i.e. the
Authors, the Composers and the
Publishers of Music.
3. IPRS distribute the royalty amongst them after deducting its administrative costs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 16 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
35. The public sector shipyard which recently
decided to get listed in Indian stock market is
(a) Hooghly Dock & Port Engineers Limited
(HDPEL), Kolkata
(b) Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL), Mumbai (c) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), Goa
(d) Cochin Shipyard Limited(CSL), Kochi
36. Which of the statements regarding the
copyright is not correct? (a) Copyright protection extends to
expressions, ideas, procedures,
mathematical concepts etc.
(b) Copyright protects both economic and
moral rights. (c) The economic rights under the copyright
have a time limit.
(d) None of the above
37. Which of the following is/are the focus areas of lending of BRICS led New Development
Bank?
1. Infrastructure
2. Sustainable development
3. Climate change mitigation & adaption Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Consider the following statements:
1. Non-convertible debentures are used as
tools to raise long-term funds by
companies through a public issue.
2. Non-convertible debentures can't be
converted into shares or equities after sometime.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Which of the following is the major objective
behind the proposed ‗Standing Deposit
Facility‘ under RBI?
(a) To help the Reserve Bank of India absorb surplus funds without having to provide
lenders collateral in exchange.
(b) To help the Reserve Bank of India inject
sufficient capital into the economy during
demonetisation period. (c) To help the Government of India raise the
funds for farm loan waiver schemes.
(d) To help the banks borrow from the Reserve
Bank of India in an emergency situation
when inter-bank liquidity dries up
completely.
40. Consider the following statements regarding
the merger of 5 associate banks with State
Bank of India on 1st April 2017:
1. The merger would bring SBI in the list of top 50 banks in terms of its asset.
2. This merger includes the following 6 banks
viz. State Bank of Travancore, State Bank
of Hyderabad, State Bank of Indore, State Bank of Saurashtra, State Bank of Mysore
and Bharatiya Mahila Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2
41. Which of the statement regarding the Banks
Board Bureau (BBB) is not correct?
(a) BBB will recommend selection of heads for Public Sector Banks
(b) BBB is chaired by the RBI Governor
(c) BBB is based in Mumbai
(d) BBB is an autonomous body
42. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched? Economic
activity/Economic units
Funds associated
with them
Disinvestment : NIF
Infrastructure
Development
: NIIF
CPSE : ETF
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
43. Which of the following public sector
organizations are having the ‗Maharatna‘ status?
1. Steel Authority of India
2. Indian Railway
3. National Thermal Power Corporation
4. Air India Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
44. With reference to monetary policy in India,
which of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) Monetary policy is handled by the Reserve
Bank of India (b) Consumer Price Index-combined is used
as a tool to decide the interest rates
(c) The reverse repo and Marginal Standing
Facility rates are in gap of 100 basis points
with repo rate
(d) Inflation control is the major objective
45. Consider the following statements regarding
the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN):
1. GSTN is a non-Government, private
limited company. 2. The Government of India holds 49% equity
in GSTN and the rest is held by the non-
governmental banking institutions.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 17 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
3. The Company has been set up primarily to
provide IT infrastructure and services to
the Central and State Governments, tax payers and other stakeholders for
implementation of the Goods and Services
Tax (GST).
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
46. In the context of which of the following, do you
sometimes find the term ‗NASDAQ‘ in the news?
(a) American capital market
(b) National Air Quality index of India
(c) China Pakistan Economic Corridor
(d) IMF quota reforms
47. Which of the following measures is/are taken
to reinforce the strategic control of
Government of India over the Goods and
Service Tax Network (GSTN)?
1. The Chairman of the GSTN will be nominated through a joint approval
mechanism of Central and State
Governments.
2. Certain matters of strategic importance
shall be decided only through Special Resolution (i.e. three fourth (3/4) of the
shareholders must vote in favour of such
matters)
3. The major shareholding of the GSTN is
kept under the Government control.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Which of the following is/are the tools likely to
be used by the RBI to mop up the extra
liquidity in the system?
1. Market Stabilization Scheme
2. Open market operations
3. Standing Deposit Facility Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
49. With reference to the recent amendments
made in India Singapore Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement, consider the following
statements:
1. It will provide source based taxation of capital gains arising on transfer of shares
in a company from April 1, 2017 onwards.
2. Derivatives traded in India remain exempt
from the new capital gains tax under this
amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Consider the following statements:
1. PM Garib Kalyan Yojna is a mandatory
income declaration scheme under which
those with unaccounted income were allowed to come clean by paying 50% of
their untaxed wealth.
2. Central Board of Direct Tax is the agency
responsible for the implementation of the
scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Which of the statements regarding the
Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme is not correct?
(a) The bonds are issued by the Ministry of
Finance in consultation with RBI.
(b) The bonds can be used as collateral for
loans. (c) The bonds qualify for SLR holdings.
(d) They bear fixed interest rate on the initial
amount invested.
52. Which of the following is/are Small Saving Schemes of Government of India?
1. Sukanya Samridhi Yojna
2. Kisan Vikas Patra
3. National Savings Certificate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Countervailing Duties are imposed in
order to counter the negative impact of
export subsidies to protect domestic
producers. 2. An anti-dumping duty is a
protectionist tariff that a domestic
government imposes on foreign imports
that it believes are priced below fair
market value.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
54. In the context which of the following do you sometimes find the term ‗Economic Needs
Test‘ in the news?
(a) India-RCEP negotiations
(b) India-ASEAN free trade agreement
(c) India‘s model Bilateral Investment Treaty (d) India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic
Cooperation Agreement
55. Consider the following statements regarding
the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):
1. The objective of NIIF would be to maximize
economic impact mainly through
infrastructure development in
commercially viable projects, both green
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 18 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
field and brown field, including stalled
projects.
2. Its governing council will have the participation from the experts of the
infrastructure sector.
3. Government will be the majority
shareholder of the fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the following is/are the members of Goods and Service Tax Council?
1. Union Finance Minister
2. Union Minister of Commerce and Industry
3. Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog
4. State Finance Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
57. Goods and Service Tax likely to be levied in India is not a
(a) gross value tax
(b) value added tax
(c) consumption tax
(d) destination based tax
58. Consider the following statements regarding
the Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied
in India:
1. GST will make India one unified common market.
2. Assam is the first state to ratify the 122nd
constitutional amendment bill on GST.
3. France is the first country to introduce the
GST system in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
59. Consider the following statements regarding
the Sovereign Credit rating:
1. The Sovereign Credit Rating ‗AAA‘ means
the lowest degree of safety and highest
degree of credit risk.
2. India‘s Sovereign Credit Rating is ‗BBB-‘. Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Economic Survey 2016-17 has criticised the
global credit rating agencies for India‘s lower
credit rating though the Government of India
carried out a lot of reforms since 2014. Which
of the following factors is/ are the major
hindrances to the India‘s credit rating upgrade as per the credit rating agencies?
1. History of credit default
2. Low per capita GDP
3. Combined Government fiscal deficit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
61. Recently the Government of India has
amended the Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreements with various countries in order to
avoid double non taxation. Which of the
following countries is/are awarded with the Grandfathering clause but not the Limitation
of Benefit clause under the amended
agreements?
(a) Mauritius (b) Singapore
(c) Cyprus (d) All of the above
62. What is the purpose of the General Anti
Avoidance Rule (GAAR) arrangement that is to
kick start from the 1st April 2017 in India?
(a) It seeks to give the tax department powers to scrutinize transactions structured in
such a way as to deliberately avoid paying
tax in India.
(b) It seeks to give the OECD authorities
powers to scrutinize transactions
structured in such a way as to deliberately avoid paying tax in India.
(c) It seeks to give the tax department powers
to ban the foreign investments that avoid
tax payment in India.
(d) None of the above
63. Consider the following statements regarding
the General Anti Avoidance Rule that came to
existence in India on 1st April 2017:
1. GAAR is not applicable if the availing tax benefit of the foreign investor is more than ₹3 Crore.
2. The proposal to apply GAAR will be vetted
first by an officer at the level of the
principal commissioner or commissioner of income tax and at the second stage by an
approving panel headed by the Secretary
of Ministry of Finance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. In the ‗Index of Eight core Industries‘, which
one of the following is given the lowest
weightage?
(a) Coal production (b) Electricity Generation
(c) Fertilizer production
(d) Steel production
65. Which of the following will be the benefits
associated with the Goods and Service Tax
system?
1. It will create a common Indian market
2. Improve tax compliance and governance
3. Boost investment and growth Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 19 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
66. Which of the following will be the long term
benefits of the demonetization of higher
denomination notes? 1. Reduced corruption
2. Greater digitalization of the economy
3. Increased flows of the financial savings
4. lesser formalisation of the economy
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
67. Consider the following statements: 1. At present, India‘s export of services/world
GDP is higher compared to its exports of
goods/world GDP.
2. But in case of China, export of
goods/world GDP is higher compared to its
exports of services/world GDP. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Which of the following best describes the term ‗demographic dividend‘?
(a) It is the difference between the working
age and the non-working age population
(b) It is the ratio of the working age to the
non-working age population (c) It is the difference between labour force
and working force of the population
(d) It is the ratio of the labour force and
working force of the population
69. Consider the following statements regarding
the ‗Google Tax‘:
1. It is a direct tax
2. India is the first country to levy this type of
tax over the digital transactions 3. Both domestic as well as the foreign web
advertising companies are covered under
it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
70. Ratan Watal Committee, sometimes seen in
the news, is related to (a) Monetary policy committee
(b) Bitcoin
(c) Digital payments
(d) Small Finance Banks
71. The first country to have a full series of
circulating polymer bank notes is
(a) Venezuela
(b) Australia
(c) USA (d) South Korea
72. Which of the following scheme/schemes is/are
unveiled by RBI for the resolution of the
stressed asset problem? (a) Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets
(b) Asset Quality Review
(c) Private Asset Reconstruction Companies
(d) All of the above
73. Accessible India Campaign is launched by
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Human Resource and Development
74. Marginal Cost of fund based Lending Rate
(MCLR) is a new methodology to calculate the
lending rate of the commercial banks. Which of the following elements is/are considered
while calculating MCLR?
1. Marginal cost of funds
2. Tenur premium
3. Net Demand and Time Liability of the bank Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
75. Which one of the following statements
regarding the shadow banks is not correct?
(a) They are not subjected to regulatory
oversight
(b) They carry out traditional banking functions
(c) They were one of the main reasons for the
global financial crisis in 2008
(d) None of the above
76. What is the major objective of carrying out a
bioequivalence test?
(a) To certify the generic drug by the
competent authority
(b) To ensure the proper functioning of the
transplanted organs (c) To evaluate any drugs dissolution and
efficacy levels in blood
(d) To screen people who are affected with the
Multi Drug Resistant Tuberculosis
77. With reference to the Soil Health Card (SHC),
consider the following statements:
1. Using a grid-wise approach, representative
soil samples from the fields are tested for
nutrient content in designated chemical laboratories.
2. Both macro and micro nutrients needed by
the soil are identified and translated into
specific, measured quantities of fertilisers
required. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. With reference to ‗Gokul Gram‘ under National
Gokul mission, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It will act as centres for development of
Indigenous Breeds.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 20 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
2. It will be established in the native breeding
tracts and near metropolitan cities for
housing the urban cattle. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. With reference to uses of Sugar, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It provides raw material for the
manufacturing of alcohol.
2. It is used for manufacturing of paper. 3. It is an efficient substitute for petroleum
products
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
80. With reference to ‗border method of irrigation‘,
consider the following statements:
1. If the borders are constructed along the
general slope of the field, they are known as contour borders.
2. If the borders are constructed across the
general slope of the field they are called
straight borders or slope borders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. With reference to Tueboponics, which is a fairly recent development in the field of
irrigation, consider the following statements:
1. Water is provided to plants/trees to its
root zone area through trickle.
2. It is practiced in the desert areas in order to convert it into green lush forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Consider the following statements:
1. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
[RIDF] helped to complete hitherto
incomplete irrigation projects by mobilizing
deposits out of the shortfall in commercial banks‘ lending targets to agriculture.
2. The Command Area Development
Programme was launched to bridge the
gap between irrigation potential created
and its actual utilization. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2
83. With reference to ‗Long Term Irrigation Fund‘
as part of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee,
consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Agriculture and NABARD
signed an agreement to operationalise the Long Term Irrigation Fund.
2. It would be raised by way of budgetary
resources and market borrowings to fund
fast tracking of implementation of incomplete irrigation projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. With reference to the concept of ‗Seed Village‘,
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Organizing seed production in cluster (or) compact area
2. Replacing existing local varieties with new
high yielding varieties.
3. Increasing the seed production Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
85. With reference to benefits of eNAM, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. It will reduce the gap between farm to fork
prices (the prices farmers get and prices
paid by retail consumers). 2. Bulk buyers of agri commodities will be
able to conduct e-procurement operations
across regions.
3. It eliminates the number of intermediaries
and improves the scope for more income for farmers.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
86. With reference to ‗Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana‘, consider the following statements:
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of only 2% for all
Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops as
well as annual commercial and
horticultural crops.
2. In this scheme, remote sensing will be
used to increase the number of crop cutting experiments.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
87. An objective of the National Food Security
Mission is to increase the production of
certain crops through area expansion and
productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the
country. What are those crops?
(a) Rice, wheat, pulses and millets only
(b) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses, millets and commercial crops
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and
vegetables
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 21 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
88. With reference to Minimum Support Price
(MSP), consider the following statements:
1. MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure all
agricultural producers against any sharp
fall in farm prices.
2. MSPs have also been used as a tool by the
Government to incentivise farmers to grow
crops that are in short supply. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton 2. Wheat
3. Rapeseed 4. Gram
Which of these are Rabi crops?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
90. The recommendation for Minimum Support
Price (MSP) of agriculture commodities is
approved by the (a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices
(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection,
Ministry of Agriculture (d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee
91. With reference to Public Distribution System
(PDS), consider the following statements:
1. For Public Distribution System, FCI has assumed the responsibility for
procurement, storage, transportation and
bulk allocation of food grains to the State
Governments.
2. Foodgrains are issued by the FCI to the States at a uniform Central Issue Price
(CIP).
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. Consider the following types of irrigation:
1. Drip Irrigation
2. Furrow Irrigation
3. Check basin irrigation 4. Sprinkler Irrigation
Which of these are considered as micro-
irrigation?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
93. A ‗wilful default‘ would be deemed to have
occurred if
1. the unit has defaulted eventhough it has
the capacity to repay the loans 2. the unit has defaulted and has diverted
the funds for other purposes.
3. the unit has defaulted and the fund has
not utilized for the specific purpose to
which it is availed.
4. the unit has defaulted and has sold off the
mortgaged asset without knowledge of the
lender Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Which of the following has/have been
accorded the ‗Geographical Indication‘ status?
1. Chettikulangara temple offerings
2. Peruvian Pisco
3. Coimbatore Wet Grinder Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
95. The establishment of ‗Small Finance Banks‘ is
being allowed in India to promote the financial
inclusion. Which of the following statements
is/are correct in this context?
1. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies
(NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) that
are owned and controlled by residents can
opt for conversion into Small Finance
Banks.
2. Small Finance Banks will be required to extend 50 per cent of its Adjusted Net
Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible
for classification as priority sector lending
(PSL) by the Reserve Bank.
3. Small Finance Banks can undertake both
deposit and lending activities. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
96. Which of the following do not come under the
purview of ‗Place of Effective Management‘
(PoEM) guidelines recently unveiled by Central
Board of Direct Taxes?
1. Shell companies that are created to evade taxes through establishing overseas
subsidiaries.
2. Firms with an annual turnover of less than ₹ 50 Crore.
3. All the businesses with active business operations overseas.
4. MNC‘s with their units in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
97. OECD has recently put forward a global
agreement called ‗Multilateral Instrument‘
(MLI). What is the overall goal of this
initiative? 1. To provide the framework through which
over 100 countries and jurisdictions are
collaborating to tackle anti-treaty shopping
provisions.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 22 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
2. To promote seamless flow of goods and
services across the border without trade
and non-trade barriers. 3. To help the countries especially developing
countries to prevent the Base Erosion and
Profit Shifting (BEPS) and ensure the
profits are genuinely taxed.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
98. With reference to capital market, consider the following statements:
1. Share buyback is a tool for disinvestment.
2. Under it, additional shares are allowed to
existing shareholders.
3. Close to half of the disinvestment in
Financial Year 2016-17 came through this route.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
99. Consider the following statements regarding
the ‗Annual Survey of Industries‘:
1. ASI is the principal source of industrial statistics in India.
2. Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is more
comprehensive than ASI to measure the
industrial growth as the former includes
small and medium industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Which of the following States have the ‗special
category status‘?
1. Assam
2. Meghalaya
3. Sikkim
4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 23 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
TEST BOOKLET
TARGET PRELIMS 2017
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - 1
INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
PRELIMS MODEL TEST-13 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate
place in the answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to
you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which
has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third
(.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Date: 30-04-2017
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 24 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers are responsible
to the Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha.
2. Rajya Sabha has no power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
3. Both elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are exempted from filing their assets and liabilities under Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following is the ‗Upholder of the Rule of Law‘ and ‗Enforcer of the Right to Liberty‘? (a) President of India (b) Indian Judiciary (c) Constitution (d) Union executive
3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the ‗Swachh Bharat Abhiyan‘ launched by the Government of India? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which among the following states are considered under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution for the purpose of granting maximum autonomy to tribal areas? 1. Assam 2. Nagaland 3. Meghalaya 4. Mizoram 5. Arunachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
5. Consider the following statements: 1. Lok Sabha Speaker has the special
power to summon the joint sitting of the Parliament to resolve legislative deadlocks.
2. Joint sitting cannot be resorted to, for passing Constitutional Amendment Bill.
3. Joint sitting is not allowed for ‗Money Bills‘.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. The establishment or abolition of a State Legislative Council can be effected through (a) passing a resolution on respective state
assembly followed by an Act in Parliament.
(b) Presidential Ordinance on the recommendation of the Governor.
(c) passing a Constitutional Amendment for the purpose.
(d) passing a resolution in the Council of States.
7. President of India can be impeached on the ground of 1. Proved misbehaviour or incapacity 2. Violation of the Constitution 3. Insolvency Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
8. Which of the following cases can only be taken up in the Supreme Court of India? (a) Enforcing a fundamental right (b) Public Interest Litigation (c) Removing high court judges (d) Federal disputes
9. Which among the following famous cases are related to or dealt with the conflicts between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution? 1. Golaknath case 2. Keshavanth Bharati case 3. Minerva Mills case Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
10. Consider the following statements: 1. The functions and powers of Gram
Sabha is delineated in the Constitution. 2. The Gram Panchayat Secretary is
responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. The power to declare an area as schedule area is with (a) Parliament (b) Governor of respective States (c) President (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 25 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
12. Consider the following statements: 1. In the absence of Speaker of Lok Sabha,
Chairman of Rajya Sabha will preside over joint session of the Parliament.
2. In case of a tie, Speaker of Lok Sabha can exercises the right of casting vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Which of the following motions can only be exercised in the Lok Sabha? 1. Adjournment motion 2. No-confidence motion 3. Censure motion Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
14. The term ‗delegated legislation‘ refers to (a) Parliament asking the States to pass
legislation on the model of a Union law (b) Parliament authorising the Executive to
frame rules and regulations (c) the legislation passed on to Standing
Committees for detailed scrutiny (d) the practice of taking public opinion on
a legislation under the consideration of the Parliament
15. Consider the following statements with regard to State Legislative Councils: 1. Ministers can be drawn from State
Legislative Councils. 2. All the members in State Legislative
Councils are elected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on foreign relations? 1. Preamble of the Constitution 2. Center-State Relations 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Fundamental Duties 5. Directive Principle of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
17. Consider the following statements: 1. Chief Secretary heads the state
administrative machinery whereas DGP heads the state police force.
2. DGP can be removed from the post if he/she loses confidence of Chief
Minister where as Chief Secretary of the State enjoys security of tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. The principle of ‗locus standi‘ refers to (a) court as an upholder of liberty (b) ability of a party to demonstrate his
connections with the case (c) appeal against the writs (d) case which have complete evidence to
prove someone guilty
19. Consider the following statements: 1. A case pending in the court and a case
at the pre-litigative stage can be referred to Lok Adalats.
2. A nominal court fee has to be paid by litigants in Lok Adalats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Which among the following is not a part of Directive Principles of State Policy? (a) Protecting and improving the
environment (b) Opportunities for healthy development of
children (c) Promotion of international peace (d) Safeguarding the public property
21. Consider the following with regard to ‗Office of the Whip‘: 1. It is an arrangement to ensure financial
control over executive by the legislature. 2. It is a unique innovation by Indian
Parliament and procedures for its application is laid down in the rules of procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Consider the following statements: 1. All members of Estimates Committee are
elected from Lok Sabha only. 2. Estimates Committee can only scrutinize
Budget estimates and cannot recommend any improvements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Indian President is elected from the electoral college consisting of 1. All members of the Lok Sabha 2. All elected members from Rajya Sabha
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 26 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
3. All elected members of Legislative Assemblies
4. All elected members of Legislative Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Consider the following statements: 1. Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court. 2. It exercises the powers of both Criminal
and Civil Courts. 3. The Gram Nyayalaya will not be bound
by Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but guided by the principles of natural justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. 73rd Amendment provides for the establishment of 1. State Election commission 2. State Finance Commission 3. District Planning Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Indian Constitution is considered to be a living document mainly because (a) different communities in the country can
relate to the Constitution as a legitimate document
(b) it has been amended to suit the demands of the time while retaining its basic principles
(c) provisions in the Constitution is open for multiple interpretation
(d) it maintains proper balance between different organs of the state
27. Which of the following features in the Indian Constitution is/are adapted from the British Constitution? (a) Rule of law (b) Federal System (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Rights
28. ‘Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana‘ has been launched for (a) providing Free LPG connections to
Women from BPL Households across the country
(b) providing integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence
(c) provide piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents of the eastern region of the country
(d) providing public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment
29. A new state can only be created through (a) a resolution passed in state assemblies
concerned (b) an ordinary legislation passed in the
Parliament (c) a Constitutional Amendment Act (d) resolution passed in Rajya Sabha with
the special majority
30. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is enjoyed by the Indian citizens alone? (a) Right against exploitation (b) Freedom of Speech and Expression (c) Equality before law (d) Right to Religion
31. Consider the following with regard to the Overseas Citizenship: 1. Overseas Indian Citizens will be granted
multiple-entry, multi-purpose life-long visa to visit India.
2. They are exempted from registration with local police authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Securing ―Equality of status and of opportunity;‖ is a provision made in the (a) Preamble of the Constitution (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Duties
33. With reference to Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Judicial remedy for the violation of
Fundamental Rights is provided for the executive actions only.
(b) It guarantees economic justice to citizens.
(c) Fundamental Rights are not amendable. (d) None of the above
34. Which of the following actions may amount to corrupt practice in elections as per the Representation of the People Act, 1951? 1. Offering dinner to vote for a particular
candidate. 2. Hiring government vehicle for the
campaigning. 3. Appealing to the national flag for
furthering the prospect of a candidate. 4. Agent of the candidate offering free lift to
the polling station. 5. Use of caste and language to canvass
votes.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 27 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
35. Consider the following statements: 1. In all the institutions recognized and
funded by the government, religious instruction is not allowed.
2. Right to freedom of religion is extended to both individuals and denominations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Which of the following writs is/are used to restrict the jurisdiction of lower courts or tribunals within its limit? 1. Quo Warranto 2. Prohibition 3. Certiorari Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. According to Article 370, most of the provisions in the Constitution of India can only be extended to Jammu and Kashmir State through (a) a legislation passed in the Jammu and
Kashmir State Assembly (b) a resolution passed in both houses of
the Parliament (c) a Presidential order issued in agreement
with the state government (d) a notification by the State Governor in
agreement with the state government
38. The authority to impose restriction on Inter-state trade lies with 1. State Legislature 2. President 3. Ministry of Commerce 4. Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
39. With regard to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, State governments are entitled to legislate on 1. Public Order 2. Criminal Law 3. Forest 4. Banking 5. Electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
40. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Finance Commission? (a) It assists the Parliament to scrutinize
the CAG reports. (b) Finance Commission‘s recommendations
are binding on the Government. (c) The Constitution mandates that the
Chairman of the Commission must be a High Court Judge or one qualified to be so.
(d) President is required to lay down the recommendations of the commission and action taken on these before the Parliament.
41. Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are 1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out
of the Consolidated Fund of India 2. to audit the expenditure from
Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Account of India.
3. to prescribe the form in which accounts of Union and State shall be kept.
4. to compile and maintains accounts of Union Government.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
42. What will follow, if a national emergency is declared on ground of external aggression? (a) All of the fundamental rights will be
suspended (b) State Assembly will be dissolved. (c) Distribution of powers between Centre
and States is suspended (d) Power of state legislatures to make laws
in State subjects will be suspended
43. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: 1. A financial emergency is always declared
along with National Emergency. 2. Once approved by the Parliament, the
financial emergency shall remain in force for an indefinite period till the President revokes it.
3. President may reduce salaries of Constitutional functionaries and civil servants while the Financial Emergency is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
44. Which of the following is not a ground for disqualification under Anti-Defection law?
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 28 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(a) An elected member voluntarily resigns from his political party and joins any other political party
(b) An elected member votes or abstains from voting contrary to party whip
(c) An independent member of legislature joins any political party
(d) A nominated member of a House joins a political party within six months after becoming a member of the house
45. Speaker of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies can be removed by passing a resolution with (a) a majority of all then members of the
house (b) a majority of not less than 2/3rd
members present and voting (c) a majority of members present and
voting (d) a majority of the total strength of house
46. Consider the following statements: The function(s) of Election Commission of India is/are 1. To cancel polls in the event of rigging or
booth capturing. 2. To advise the Supreme Court on matters
relating to the disqualifications of MPs. 3. To register and to grant them status of
national or state parties. 4. To prepare and periodically revise
electoral rolls. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. Which of the following are Constitutional bodies? 1. State Public Service Commission 2. National Human Right Commission 3. National Commission for STs 4. Inter-State Council 5. Central Vigilance Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
48. Which of the following functions is/are performed by the Union Public Service Commission? 1. Pay and Service Conditions of Civil
Servants. 2. Cadre Management of All India Services. 3. Conducting examinations for
appointments in public banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None
49. Annual reports of which among of the following bodies is/are submitted to the President of India? 1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Joint Public Service Commission 3. Finance Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
50. An Attorney General appointed by the President of India must be a person qualified to be appointed as a (a) Chief Justice of high court (b) Supreme Court Judge (c) High Court Judge (d) Senior most advocate in Supreme Court
51. Which among the following Union Territories have Legislatures? (a) Puducherry (b) Delhi (c) Chandigarh (d) Puducherry and Delhi
52. Regarding the inter-relationship between two houses of Parliament, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. Prime Minister must always belongs to
the Lok Sabha while Ministers can belong to either houses of the Parliament.
2. A Minister is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
3. Members of both houses have equal privileges and immunities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
53. In which among the following areas, Lok Sabha Speaker and Rajya Sabha Chairman have similar power(s) and function(s)? 1. In deciding a bill as money bill 2. Right to vote on a resolution for their
removal 3. Salaries and allowance Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. Special leave petition refers to (a) taking permission to be heard in appeal
against lower court verdict (b) applying for shifting the hearing of a
case from one high court to another (c) referring a case to the Constitutional
bench by the Supreme Court (d) Public Interest Litigation that requires
urgent hearing
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 29 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
55. Establishment of the village panchayats through 73rd Constitutional Amendment ensured 1. Participatory governance 2. Self-sustenance 3. Women empowerment 4. Bottom-up policy making Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. Consider the following statements regarding a Money Bill: 1. It can be introduced with prior
permission from the President. 2. Rajya Sabha can‘t recommend any
changes in a Money Bill. 3. President cannot return a Money Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
57. Which of the following are the ‗expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India‘? 1. Salary and Allowances of High Court
Judges 2. Emoluments and allowance of the
President 3. Pensions of High Court Judges 4. Debt charges of Government of India 5. Salary and pensions of Comptroller and
Auditor General of India Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
58. Which among the following can said to be the important functions of the Parliament? 1. Keeping a check on government actions 2. Highlighting peoples‘ grievances 3. Adjudication of disputes 4. Providing the informations 5. Appointing the judges Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
59. Consider the following with respect to the judicial powers of the President: 1. Commutation means reducing the
amount of sentence without changing its character.
2. Respite means substituting one form of punishment for another of a lighter character.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Consider the following statements: 1. A cognizable offence means that a police
officer can arrest without warrant. 2. Any crime, which can be settled by
making up for damages is known as compoundable offence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. With reference to ‗Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission‘; consider the following statements: 1. It aims at development of 300 rural
growth clusters called ‗Rurban Clusters‘. 2. Under this scheme, each Member of
Parliament needs to choose one village each from the constituency that they represent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. In Indian Constitution, Gandhian ideals and principles are reflected in the provisions of 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Part IX of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
63. Consider the following statements with regard to 97th Constitutional Amendment Act: 1. It inserted right to form cooperative as a
Fundamental Right. 2. State Governments‘ power to regulate
cooperatives became enhanced. 3. It fixed minimum and maximum
numbers of directors allowed for a co-operative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
64. ‗Operation Muskaan-II‘ is a campaign to (a) prevent trafficking of women and
children from commercial sexual
exploitation
(b) clean up the country and promote
hygiene and sanitation among
government employees
(c) trace and rescue missing children and
those found abandoned
(d) make people aware about cashless
economic system
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 30 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
65. In which among the following situations Parliament can legislate on a state subject? 1. When the President rule is declared on
the State. 2. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
to do so with simple majority. 3. When a State Legislative Assembly
request to do so on its behalf. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
66. The elected members of State Legislative Assemblies can participate in 1. Electing President 2. Electing Vice-President 3. Electing members of State Legislative
Council 4. Impeaching the President 5. Removing High Court judge Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 4 and 5
67. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‗NIDHI‘‘, a scheme of the Government? (a) providing access to information,
knowledge and skills for operating
computers / digital access devices
(b) providing technological solutions to the
pressing needs of the society and create
new avenues for wealth and job creation
(c) Providing accessible, affordable and
quality health care to the rural
population
(d) providing Free LPG connections to
Women from BPL Households across the
country
68. Consider the following statements regarding contempt of court: 1. In India, on certain occasions, contempt
of court can be a criminal offence. 2. There is no mention of contempt of court
in the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, Ashok Mehta Committee and L.M Singvi Committee are dealt with (a) Judicial reform (b) Electoral reform (c) Democratic decentralization (d) Inclusive development
70. With reference to GST Council, consider the following statements:
1. It is the first Constitutional body having representatives from both Union and State Governments as its members.
2. Decisions in the council are taken by a majority of two-third of weighted votes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Which among the following bodies embody the principle of cooperative federalism in its working? 1. Monetary Policy Committee 2. GST Council 3. National Institution for Transforming
India Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
72. Which of the following provisions of Constitution of India mentions about protection and preservation of cattle? 1. Seventh Schedule 2. Ninth Schedule 3. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Fundamental Duty Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
73. Consider the following statements regarding nominated members to the Rajya Sabha: 1. They are nominated by the President of
India to provide wider representation to marginalized communities.
2. They enjoy all privileges like any other MPs.
3. The system is adopted from Irish Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
74. Consider the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban: 1. It aims to build affordable pucca houses
with water facility, sanitation and electricity supply
2. It is only meant to cover people in the economically weaker sections and low-income group
3. It aims to transform slum areas by building homes for slum dwellers in collaboration with private developers Which of the following statements given above are correct?
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 31 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Consider the following statements with regard to National Commission for Backward Classes? 1. It is a Constitutional body set up for the
welfare of the Socially and Educationally backward classes.
2. It recommends the inclusion or exclusion of communities from OBC Central list.
3. The body has the authority to prosecute government officers who fail to ensure mandated reservation for OBCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
76. Consider the following statements with regard to National Commission for Women: 1. It is a statutory body set up to review the
Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women.
2. One stop centers are organized by the National Commission as an Alternative Justice Delivery System for gender related cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. In conducting Parliament elections, the role of a returning officer is to (a) carry out and oversee elections at the
level of Parliamentary constituency. (b) check irregularities in the voting list at
district level. (c) carry out and oversee elections at the
level of polling booth. (d) assist the presiding officer in conducting
elections at the booth level.
78. Which of the followings is not a department under the Ministry of Finance? (a) Department of Disinvestment (b) Department of Expenditure (c) Department of Financial Service (d) Department of Investment and Public
Asset Management
79. National Human Rights Commission can inquire into a human right violation case 1. if a petition is filed before it 2. when court directs to conduct
investigation 3. by way of suo moto Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
80. According to the seventh schedule of the Constitution. which of the following taxes are levied exclusively by the Union? 1. Tax on Agriculture Income 2. Corporate Tax 3. Tax on Profession 4. Goods and Services Tax 5. Taxes on sales of goods in inter-state
trade Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
81. Consider the following with regard to Central Administrative Tribunals: 1. Administrative tribunals are
Constitutional bodies to provide for speedy disposal of disputes relating to service matters.
2. They have the power to adapt their own rules of procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Which of the following is not found in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? (a) English (b) Sanskrit (c) Konkani (d) None of the above
83. Which of the followings is set up to foster cooperative federalism while functioning as a policy Think Tank? (a) Inter-State Council (b) Zonal Councils (c) NITI Aayog (d) GST Council
84. According to the Constitution of India, an election petition with respect to disputes in the election to Lok Sabha can be filed (a) in the Lok Sabha Secretariat after the
declaration of the results. (b) with the Election Commission of India. (c) in the High Court after the polling has
been completed. (d) in the High Court after the declaration of
the result.
85. Consider the following with regard to Cabinet Secretary: 1. His main function is to coordinate
between different ministries. 2. Apex Committee on Digital India
Programme is headed by Cabinet Secretary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 32 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
86. Consider the following pairs: Department Ministry 1. Department
of Space
: Ministry of Science
and Technology
2. Department
of Justice
: Ministry of Law and
Justice
3. Department
of States
: Ministry of Home
Affairs
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
87. Consider the following with respect to National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): 1. Prime Minister is the Chairman of
NDMA. 2. Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry
for Disaster Management. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
88. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs? 1. Forming Consultative Committees of
Members of Parliament for various Ministries.
2. Pursues with the other Ministries for implementation of assurances give in the Parliament.
3. Drafting the Legislations on behalf of different Ministries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
89. Appointment of Parliamentary Secretaries are discouraged and termed it as an unconstitutional practice by various courts, because (a) it will lead to overlapping functions of
different Ministers hindering the administration.
(b) there is ample number of Civil Servants for assistance.
(c) they perform primarily the functions of civil servants.
(d) legislators would be obliged to the executives.
90. Consider the following with respect to Prime Miniter‘s Office: 1. The Prime Minister‘s Office is headed by
Cabinet Secretary.
2. The main function of Prime Minister‘s Office is inter-Ministerial coordination and framing rules of business.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of Indian Constitution? (a) Sovereign (b) Socialist (c) Federal (d) Republic
92. ‗Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana‘ has been launched for (a) Indian youth to take up industry-
relevant skill training (b) providing integrated support and
assistance to women affected by violence (c) skill training of rural youth and provide
them with jobs (d) providing public assistance to its citizens
in case of unemployment
93. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution is incorporated through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, also known as ―mini-Constitution‖? 1. Added the phrases ―socialist‖ and
―secular‖ to the Preamble of Indian Constitution.
2. Provided restrictions in proclamation of National Emergency.
3. Added Fundamental Duties into the Constitution.
4. Restricted the discretionary power of the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Under Article 368, Indian Parliament cannot destroy independence of Judiciary because (a) Parliament is accountable to the people (b) federal principles are enshrined in the
Preamble itself (c) it will lead to secession (d) it is part of the basic structure of the
Constitution
95. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution? 1. To safeguard public property and to
abjure violence. 2. To promote international peace and
universal brotherhood. 3. To value and preserve the rich heritage
of our composite culture. 4. To develop a sense of respect for elders
and to help disabled. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 33 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. In which one of the following does the subject of cyber security fall? (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Power of Union Government
97. Present Lok Sabha does not have a Leader of Opposition because (a) no opposition alliance has secured 20
per cent of the total seats. (b) no opposition party has secured 10 per
cent of the total seats. (c) all opposition parties together does not
fulfill the quorum criteria of the House. (d) None of the above
98. The dissolution of Lok Sabha does not affect (a) a bill passed in the Lok Sabha and
pending in the Rajya Sabha. (b) a bill originated in the Rajya Sabha and
not send to the Lok Sabha.
(c) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha.
(d) None of the above
99. President of India submit the resignation letter to (a) Chief justice of India (b) Lok Sabha Speaker (c) Vice President of India (d) Prime Minister of India
100. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana is aimed at (a) providing loans to poor farmers for
cultivating particular crops (b) instilling certain value in the villages
and their people so that they get transformed into models for others
(c) building affordable pucca houses with water facility, sanitation and electricity supply
(d) development of 300 rural growth clusters called ‗Rurban Clusters‘
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 34 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
TEST BOOKLET
TARGET PRELIMS 2017
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - 1
GEOGRAPHY, GENERAL SCIENCE AND SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
PRELIMS MODEL TEST-14 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate
place in the answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to
you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which
has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third
(.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Date: 07-05-2017
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 35 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. With reference to ‗Aquila‘, recently in the news, which of the following statement is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of Google launched in collaboration with Tata Trusts to educate women in rural India on the benefits of using the Internet.
2. Rather than use under-ground fibre optic cables or construct cell towers to connect users, it will use balloons that float in the stratosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The term ‗Cyber Physical Systems‘, sometimes seen in the news, refers to
(a) computer-based systems that do things in the physical world
(b) the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store data
(c) industrial applications of Internet of things
(d) a mechanism used in 3D printing
3. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗VoLTE‘, which was in the news recently? (a) Derived unit for electric potential (b) India's first deep-sea robot (c) Wireless technology that transmits
high-speed data using visible light communication
(d) Technology that makes it possible for voice calls to be carried over 4G networks
4. With reference to ‗Cyber Swachhta Kendra‘, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. It provides Indian citizens a dedicated
cloud storage space that is linked to their Aadhaar number.
2. It is set up in accordance with the objectives of the "National Cyber Security Policy".
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. With reference to ‗Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS)‘, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. AEPS is a new payment service
developed by State Bank of India. 2. AEPS functions through the Unified
Payments Interface (UPI).
3. It empowers a bank customer to use Aadhaar as his/her identity to access his/ her respective Aadhaar enabled bank account and perform basic banking transactions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. In the context of Digital India initiatives, the term ‗DigiSevak‘, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) a crop Insurance mobile app that can
be used to calculate the Insurance Premium for notified crops.
(b) a mobile application that has been developed with an aim to keep farmers
abreast with the crop prices and discourage them to carry-out distress sale.
(c) a campaign for achieving universal accessibility that enables people with disabilities to gain access for equal opportunity.
(d) an online volunteering platform for interested citizens who want to contribute to the success of Digital India program.
7. With reference to ‗Long Term Evolution (LTE) Technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a fourth generation mobile
wireless technology. 2. EDGE and WiMAX are the other 4G
technologies competing with LTE. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. What is ‗eBASTA‘, recently in the news? (a) An initiative to improve the business
environment in the country by enabling fast and efficient access to Government-to-Business (G2B) services through an online portal
(b) An e-Governance initiative for the rural sector
(c) A project to make school books accessible in digital form
(d) National agency to secure Indian cyber space
9. With reference to ‗quantum communication lines‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is impossible to wiretap, intercept or
crack the information transmitted through them.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 36 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
2. China has recently launched a quantum communication line 712 kilometers in length for safely transmitting sensitive information.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. The Government of India has launched Digitize India Platform (DIP) under the Digital India Programme. The objective of this initiative is (a) To create an integrated system for
enhancing the efficiency of policing (b) To provide a comprehensive software
solution attempting automation of Gram Panchayat functions
(c) To connect the government directly with citizens across India by running mailer, outbound dialing and SMS campaigns
(d) To computerize and make usable all the existing content in different formats and media, languages, and create data extracts for document management
11. Regarding ‗Internet of Things (IoT)‘ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 3. Internet of Things generally refers to
scenarios where network connectivity and computing capability extends to objects, sensors and everyday items not normally considered computers.
4. Centre of Excellence for IoT was announced as a part of the Digital India Initiative to jump start the IOT ecosystem in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Net Neutrality‘, that was in the news recently? (a) It is the principle that affordable high
speed broadband connectivity should be available to all households and institutions.
(b) It is the principle that Internet service providers (ISP) and governments should treat all data on the Internet the same, not discriminating or charging differentially by user, content, site, platform, application, type of attached equipment, or mode of communication.
(c) It is an initiative of the Government of India under the Digital India Programme to provide access to bandwidth in a non-discriminatory manner to all eligible service providers to enable them to provide services in rural areas.
(d) It is an initiative of the Government of India to impart IT training to women in rural India.
13. With reference to ‗Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource Identification Security - Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS-REX), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed by European space
agency.
2. It is a spacecraft to study on comet. 3. It will help scientists investigate how
planets formed and how life began. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
14. With reference to ‗Gaia space probe‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was launched by National
Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
2. Recently, it has mapped more than a billion stars in the Milky Way.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. With reference to ‗Light Utility Helicopter (LUH)‘, which of the following statements is/are correct? 3. It was developed by Hindustan
Aeronautics Limited (HAL). 4. It was developed to replace the
military‘s obsolescent fleet of Chetak and Cheetah helicopters.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. In relation to ‗INSAT-3DR‘ recently in news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was launched by European Ariane-5
VA-227 launch vehicle 2. It is a 3654 kg satellite placed in an
orbit at 36000km above the surface of the Earth.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 37 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗INS Mormugao‘ that was in the news recently? (e) Visakhapatnam-class stealth Guided-
missile destroyer (f) Arihant class Ballistic missile
submarine (g) Shishumar class Attack submarine (h) Kiev class Aircraft carrier
18. With reference to ‗Electroactive bandage‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed by Japan Aerospace
Exploration Agency (JAXA). 2. It creates an electric charge to help
promote the healing process of wounds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. With reference to ‗Mining surveillance system (MSS)‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed by Defence Research
and Development Organisation (DRDO).
2. It aims to curb illegal mining without human intervention and subjectivity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. With reference to ‗Great Balls of Fire (GBF), recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They are super-hot blobs of gas. 2. They were detected by Hubble space
telescope. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. With reference to ‗CYSVAX‘, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is the world's first vaccine to fight
against roundworms in dogs. 2. It was developed by Indian
Immunologicals Ltd (IIL).
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. With reference to ‗Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is popularly known as the
pacemaker for the brain. 2. It is only for patients who can‘t control
their movements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. ‗Druzhba 2016‘, recently seen in the news, is a joint military exercise between Pakistan and (a) Turkmenistan (b) Russia (c) China (d) Uzbekistan
24. With reference to ‗Magnetar‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is an extremely dense type of
neutron star. 2. It can cause earthquakes on stars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‗proteome‘, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) a range of enzymes used in genome
editing (b) the entire set of proteins expressed by
an organism (c) the description of the mechanism of
gene expression
(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells
26. With reference to ‗scramjet engine‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It uses Hydrogen as fuel and the
Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer.
2. India is the first country to demonstrate the flight testing of Scramjet Engine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 38 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
27. ‗DMH-11‘, often seen in the news, is the name of (a) India‘s latest indigenously developed
robot (b) GM mustard developed in India (c) India‘s first fully dedicated helicopter
for disaster management operations (d) High breed wheat variety developed in
India
28. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Tiantong-01‘ that was in the news recently? (a) It is the sophisticated super computer
of china (b) It is a proposed space lab of china (c) It is the china‘s satellite for mobile
communication
(d) It is the guided missile destroyer of china
29. With reference to the ‗Agni-V‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is an indigenously developed,
intercontinental, surface to surface, nuclear capable ballistic missile.
2. Agni-V is India's first intercontinental ballistic missile.
3. Agni-V can cover a range of over 5000 kilometers in any direction.
4. On the successful test of Agni-V, India has now joined the elite Intercontinental range ballistic missile (ICBM) club with just five other countries across the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. ‗Proxima b‘ sometimes seen in the news, is (a) an asteroid that orbits the proxima
century (b) an exoplanet that orbits the proxima
century (c) a comet that orbits the proxima
century (d) None of the above
31. With reference to ‗DNA Index System‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to make Tamil Nadu a crime
free state in India. 2. It allows generation of DNA profiles
from live samples. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Consider the following statements with reference to andrographolid drug: 1. It is a drug which has ability to inhibit
tumour growth. 2. It was developed by National Centre for
Cell Science (NCCS) in Pune. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following pairs: Change Type of Change 1. Melting of ice cube : Physical Change 2. Digesting food : Chemical Change 3. Burning wood : Chemical Change 4. Breaking a glass : Chemical Change 5. Cooking an egg : Physical Change
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
34. Consider the following statements with reference to Xmu-Mp-1 Molecule: 1. It is a small molecule which can
regenerate the tissue. 2. It was developed by Indian Institute of
Science (IISc) in Bangalore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Consider the following diseases: 1. Lymphatic filariasis 2. Hepatitis B 3. Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated from India? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
36. With reference to ‗virtual black hole‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is an experiment based on light,
rather than sound. 2. It aims to prove that Hawking‘s theory
of radiation emanating from black holes is correct.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Consider the following statements with reference to maglev trains: 1. They are less expensive to operate and
maintain.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 39 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
2. They produce no air pollution during operation.
3. Maglev trains are in operation in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Consider the following statements with reference to DNA sequencing: 1. DNA sequencing is the process of
determining the sequence of nucleotides in a piece of DNA.
2. DNA sequencing cannot be used to determine the paternity of the child.
3. DNA sequencing is used to identify the criminals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
39. With reference to ‗Regenerative medicine‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It develops methods to regrow, repair
or replace damaged or diseased cells, organs or tissues.
2. It includes the generation and use of therapeutic stem cells, tissue engineering and the production of artificial organs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. With reference to ‗Asteroid psyche‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is the largest metallic asteroid in our solar system.
2. Recently, scientists have detected the presence of water on Psyche
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗Halophytes‘ that was in the news recently? (a) Pest resistant plants (b) Frost tolerant plants (c) Disease resistant plants (d) Salt tolerant plants
42. Which one of the following is the best description of ‗GJ 536b‘ that was in the news recently?
(a) Exoplanet (b) Comet (c) Asteroid (d) Star
43. Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1. Japanese encephalitis : Virus 2. Athlete's foot : fungus 3. Leprosy : Bacteria 4. Dengue : protozoan 5. Measles : bacteria Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
44. Consider the following statements with reference to Electromagnetic (EM) Drive: 1. It is a propulsion system. 2. It was developed by ESA
3. It defies Newton's third law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Directly Observed Treatment Short course or DOTS, a highly efficient and cost-effective strategy for Tuberculosis control is launched by (a) World Health Organization (WHO) (b) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (c) National Centre for Disease Control
(NCDC) (d) United Nations
46. With reference to ‗Bio-Indicator Lidar Instrument (BILI), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fluorescence-based lidar 2. It uses light to detect and ultimately
analyse the composition of particles in the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. With reference to ‗INS Chennai‘, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is the third indigenously designed
Ballistic missile submarine in an Arihant class.
2. It is armed with supersonic surface-to-surface BrahMos missiles and Barak-8 long range surface-to-air missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 40 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
48. ‗Robot lakshmi‘ sometimes seen the news, is (a) a banking robot (b) a space robot (c) a mining robot (d) a medical robot
49. With reference to CERN, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. CERN is the European Organisation
for Nuclear research. 2. Recently India got associate
membership in CERN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. ‗Coradia iLint‘, sometimes seen in the news, is (a) the world's first zero-emission
hydrogen passenger train. (b) the pest resistant rice verity developed
by India (c) a spacecraft launched by Russia (d) None of the above
51. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct? 1. The colour of the soil is red due to
ferric oxide content. 2. Red soils are rich in lime, humus and
potash. 3. They are porous and have friable
structure. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil conservation in arid regions? 1. Wind breaks 2. Shifting cultivation 3. Contour ploughing Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
53. Consider the following pairs: Rocks Type 1. Shale : Sedimentary 2. Basalt : Igneous 3. Slate : Metamorphic Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. In which of the following states is Bellandur lake situated? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Uttarakhand (d) Telangana
55. Consider the following pairs: Well Known lake State 1. Chilika Lake : Odisha 2. Kolleru Lake : Andhra Pradesh 3. Pulicat Lake : Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Consider the following pairs: Islands Country 1. Reunion Island : India 2. Havelock Island : United Kingdom 3. Thengar Char Island: Bangladesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
57. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the western most and southern most State? (a) Rajasthan and Kerala (b) Gujarat and Kerala (c) Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat and Tamil Nadu
58. Which of the following countries share border with Myanmar? 1. India 2. Bangladesh 3. Laos 4. Thailand Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
59. A State in India has the following characteristics: 1. Indian standard Meridian (82.50 E)
passes through this State. 2. It has only 9.01% of its area under
forest and tree cover. 3. The main cash crop in the state is
sugarcane, with 46% of the total production in the country.
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics? (a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
60. Which one of the following Islands is of volcanic origin? (a) Reunion Island (b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (c) Lakshadweep Islands
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 41 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(d) Maldives
61. With reference to ‗Ozone layer‘, which of the following statements is/are not correct? 1. It is continuously being created and
destroyed naturally. 2. It is formed in the atmosphere through
photochemical reaction. 3. Controlling and phasing out ozone
depleting substances is associated with Nagoya protocol.
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Consider the following statements: 1. Increased cloud cover will lead to
warmer winters due to clouds reflecting more intense solar energy.
2. Cloudy conditions reduce diurnal range of temperature.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of (a) glacial topography (b) volcanic topography (c) karst topography (d) fluvial topography
64. Consider the following statements: 1. The earth is farthest away from the
Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4.
2. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3.
3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4.
4. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
65. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following hills as one proceeds from north to south? 1. Nilgiri Hills 2. Anaimalai Hills 3. Mahadeo Hills 4. Satmala Hills Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 (b) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1
(c) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
66. Consider the following statements: 1. In troposphere, temperature increases
with altitude. 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases
with altitude. 3. The lowest temperature of the
atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.
4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. Turkey, which is frequently in the news, does not have a border with which of the following? (a) Romania (b) Iran (c) Georgia (d) Bulgaria
68. A particular lake in India has the following characteristics: 1. It is the largest freshwater Lake in
Northeast India. 2. It carries floating islands that are
known as phumdis. 3. World‘s only floating national park,
Keibul Lamjao, is located at the south-western part of this lake.
Which one among the following lakes has all the above characteristics? (a) Rudrasagar Lake (b) Sangetsar Lake (c) Gurudongmar Lake (d) Loktak Lake
69. Which of the following statements concerning circum-pacific belt are correct? 1. It is an active volcanic realm. 2. It is an active seismic realm. 3. It is prone to Tsunami. 4. It is having divergent plate boundary. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
70. Longest day/night is experienced during a year in the (a) Equator (b) North/South Pole (c) Tropics of Cancer/Capricorn (d) Arctic/Antarctic Circle
71. With reference to salinity of ocean water, consider the following statements: 1. High evaporation and precipitation
increases the salinity. 2. Salinity is high in Red Sea mainly due
to high rate of evaporation.
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 42 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. Which one of the following can be used to predict the epicenter of earthquakes? (a) Large scale fluctuations of oil flow in
oil wells (b) Increase in emission of radon gas (c) Seismic gap (d) None of the above
73. Variations in apparent altitude of the midday sun from season to season are due to (a) the earth‘s rotation on its axis (b) the earth‘s revolution around the sun
in an elliptical manner (c) latitudinal position of the place (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
74. ‗Polar Vortex‘, sometimes seen in news, is (a) a threatened species in polar regions
due to rapidly increasing global warming
(b) largescale melting of polar ice caps (c) a gyre formed by cold oceanic currents
in polar seas (d) an upper level low-pressure area lying
near the Earth's pole
75. Recently, the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) decided to conduct the 'Ram Sethu Pilot Project‘ to determine whether ‗Ram Sethu‘ (Adam‘s bridge) is natural or man-made. Ram Sethu is mainly made up of which one of the following? (a) Granite (b) Gneiss (c) Limestone (d) Marble
76. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The agreement entered into force. 2. The agreement acknowledged the
contributions to global warming from aviation sector.
3. The agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2oC or even 1.5oC above pre-industrial levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
77. Which of the following statements regarding Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) is/are correct? 1. NDCs are voluntary pledges made by
nations to reduce their carbon emissions.
2. All countries should submit new NDCs every five years representing a progression beyond previous ones.
3. Through its NDC, India committed to achieve 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel based energy resources by 2030.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
78. REDD+, developed by parties to UNFCCC, incentives for developing countries to keep their forests standing by offering result-based payments for actions to reduce or remove forest carbon emissions. Which of the following are the eligible activities under REDD+? 1. Reducing emissions from
deforestation. 2. Reducing emissions from forest
degradation. 3. Conservation of forest carbon stocks. 4. Sustainable management of forests. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
79. Terrace cultivation is a method of soil conservation used in (a) desert margins, liable to strong wind
action (b) low flat plains, close to stream
courses, liable to flooding (c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed
growth (d) None of the above
80. Consider the following factors: 1. Topography 2. Parent material 3. Climate 4. Geomorphic agents Which of the above factors influence the soil formation? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
81. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‗Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)‘ of the Government of India?
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 43 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. To ensure livelihood security to the fishing communities and other local communities living in the coastal areas.
2. To conserve and protect coastal stretches.
3. To promote development in a sustainable manner.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
82. Which of the following are the basic features of ‗National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP)? 1. The Ministry of Mines will carry out
auctioning of identified exploration
blocks for exploration by private sector on revenue sharing basis.
2. Government will create baseline geoscience data as a public good and fund the generation and dissemination of such data.
3. Government will carry out a National Aerogeophysical Program for acquiring state-of-the-art baseline data for targeting concealed mineral deposits.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Indian standard Meridian (82030' E meridian) passes through which of the following states? 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Maharashtra 3. Odisha Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
84. With reference to cloudbursts, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It refers to sudden and copious rainfall
over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes.
2. They are generally associated with thunderstorms.
3. They are formed by orographic lift. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
85. Recently, India‘s highest glaciological research facility was set up in (a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Uttarakhand
86. The term ‗Supermoon‘ is recently seen in news in the context of (a) new moon or full moon closely
coinciding with perigee (b) new moon or full moon closely
coinciding with apogee (c) new moon or full moon closely
coinciding with perihelion (d) new moon or full moon closely
coinciding with aphelion
87. ―Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna‖. Which of the following local storms in India is described in the above passage? (a) Mango Shower (b) Loo
(c) Blossom Shower (d) Nor Westers
88. What could be the main reason/reasons for the frequent landslides in Himalayas? 1. They are tectonically active. 2. The slopes are very steep. 3. Presence of several big thrusts. 4. They are mostly made up of
consolidated deposits. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
89. Compared to the Himalayas, the Western Ghats along the west coast are tectonically stable but still landslides occur. What could be the main reason/reasons for this? 1. Presence of hard rocks resulting in
rockslides 2. Steeper slopes with almost vertical
cliffs 3. High precipitation and temperature
changes resulting in mechanical weathering
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
90. Which of the following countries will have mid-day Sun exactly overhead only once a year? 1. China 2. Brazil 3. Taiwan Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
91. Consider the following pairs: Ocean currents Country
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 44 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. Labrador Current : Canada 2. Falkland Current : Argentina 3. Humboldt current : Peru Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Tropical cyclones are few during southwest monsoon season. What is the reason? (a) Sea surface temperature are low (b) Precipitation weakens cyclonic
depressions (c) High vertical wind shear (d) Coriolis force is too weak
93. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following: 1. U shaped valleys 2. Deep gorges 3. Parallel mountain ranges 4. Steep gradients causing land slide Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for glacial action that has taken in Himalayas? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Consider the following pairs: Clouds Features 5. Cirrostratus : Halo formation 6. Cumulonimbus : Thunderstorms 7. Asperitas : Upturned
Roughened sea surface
Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
95. Which of the following are the key features of monsoon rain? 1. Recurring spells of rainfall 2. Squally winds 3. Stratiform clouds Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
96. With reference to sea erosion, consider the following statements: 1. Rise in sea level causes sea erosion. 2. In India, sea erosion is more over
western coast when compared with eastern coast.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. With reference to ‗Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik‘, consider the following statements: 1. It is aimed at reviving dormant
airstrips in the country. 2. Under this scheme, flights between
major airports are priced at Rs. 2500 for one hour of flying time.
3. To fund the scheme, a cess will be charged to airlines flying on metro or trunk routes for each departure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
98. Consider the following: 1. Humanizing landscapes 2. Cyclonic depression
3. Thermal contrast between land and ocean
4. Revolution of earth on its tilted axis Which of the above factors influence Indian monsoon? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99. Consider the following pairs: Landforms Geomorphic agent 1. Potholes : Running water 2. Drumlines : Glacier 3. Playas : Underground water 4. Stalagmite : Wind Which of the above pairs are not correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
100. Which one of the following countries border South China Sea? (a) Singapore (b) Malaysia (c) Laos (d) Both (a) and (b)
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 45 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
TEST BOOKLET
TARGET PRELIMS 2017
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - 1
HISTORY AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
PRELIMS MODEL TEST-15 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate
place in the answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to
you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a
penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Date: 14-05-2017
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 46 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. With reference to the nagara style of Indian temple architecture, amalaka refers to
(a) semi-circular dome on garbhagriha (b) ribbed, lenticular or globoid part
crowning the top of the shikhara (c) semi-circular hall in front of the
temple (d) ornamental pot-design decorating the
shikhara
2. The Indian ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939 because (a) the Wavell plan ignored dominion
status for India (b) the left-wing leaders of congress
formed Socialist Congress Party (c) India was declared a party to the
World War II without the consent of the Provincial Governments
(d) the formation of interim government was accepted by All party conference
3. Consider the following pairs: Term Description
1. Chaitya : Place of congregation
and worship
2. Panchayatan : Main temple
surrounded by four
sub-shrines in each
corner
3. Squinch : Pictorial mosaic
work using semi-
precious stones
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. The Cabinet Mission proposals did not include (a) the formation of a Union of India (b) setting up an Interim Government (c) formation of the constituent assembly (d) a strong centre with viceroy as the
head
5. The Karachi session of 1931 is significant because (a) it decided to launch a Civil
Disobedience Movement (b) it anointed Jawaharlal Nehru as the
future Prime Minister of India (c) of the introduction of the idea of a
Planning Commission
(d) it passed resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy
6. Rihla is (a) Abul Fazl‘s book on Mughals (b) Ibn Battuta‘s book of travels (c) Al-Biruni‘s book on epics (d) Abdur Razzak‘s book on Cholas
7. The Jury Act 1827 was opposed by many Indians. Which among the following leader was known for his opposition to the Jury Act? (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Raja Rammohan Roy (c) Lord Sinha (d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
8. Which one of the following political dramas of ancient Gupta period dealt with Chandragupta II‘s accession to the throne after murdering his elder brother Ramagupta and marriage to Dhruvadevi, his brother‘s widow? (a) Mrichchhakatika (b) Kaumudimahotsava (c) Malavikagnimitra (d) Devichandraguptam
9. With reference to the objectives of Swarajists, consider the following statements: They wanted 1. to end the boycott of Legislative
Councils 2. to expose the basic weaknesses of
Legislative Councils 3. to gain experience of the functioning
of the Councils 4. to use them as an arena of political
struggle to arouse popular enthusiasm
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
10. Which one of the following is associated with ‗Delhi Chalo movement‘? (a) Non-Co-operation Movement (b) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Rowlatt Satyagraha (d) Individual Satyagraha
11. The reforms of Lord Hastings did not include 1. abolition of Censorship Act 2. abolition of Provincial Courts 3. abolition of Sati
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 47 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
4. suppression of thugs Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
12. Which of the following statement/ statements about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. It was related to
oppressive teenkathiya system. 2. It addressed the economic demands of
the peasants. 3. The middle-class intelligentsia
remained silent. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only
13. The Tolkappiyam is (a) a Tamil version of Ramacharitamanas (b) an orthodox school of Tamil
philosophy (c) a collection of Vedic hymns in Tamil (d) the book on Tamil Grammar
14. With reference to the Wavell plan proposals, consider the following statements: 1. It proposed the Central Executive
Council to be Indianised. 2. All portfolios including defence would
be held by the Indian Members. 3. It is also known as Breakdown Plan
and was not accepted by the British. Which of the statement/ statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
15. Who among the following Urdu poets was invited to the Second and Third Round Table Conference? (a) Faiz Ahmad Faiz (b) Josh Malihabadi
(c) Muhammad Iqbal (d) Firaq Gorakhpuri
16. Rabindranath Tagore in response to the massacre at Jallianwala bagh, returned his knighthood award as a 1. protest against inaction of the
Government. 2. method to awaken masses. 3. protest against violence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only
17. What was/were the common elements among Walchand Hirachand and Ambalal Sarabhai? 1. They were leaders of Indian Ship
Owners Association. 2. They were Indian industrialists. 3. They were founding members of
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. 4. They supported Indian National
Movement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 only
18. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in (a) an autobiography—The Story of My
Experiments with Truth (b) Unto this Last - A Paraphrase (c) the Bhaghavad Gita according to
Gandhi (d) Hind Swaraj
19. Consider the following statements regarding Home Rule Movement: 1. It aimed to attain self-government
within the British empire. 2. It was able to combine the moderates,
extremists, and revolutionary terrorists.
3. It dropped the idea of mendicancy of the moderates but continued their concept of patriotism.
4. Tilak made the concept of Home Rule, the popular catchword through the medium of New India and The Commonweal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 only
20. The Bardoli satyagraha resulted in 1. reduction of 30% rise in revenue
payment. 2. Restoration of the confiscated lands
and properties. 3. creation of separate paragana for
kaliparaj. 4. cancellation of job reservation for
ujaliparaj. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 48 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only
21. Chhau refers to (a) a tribal martial art dance performed by
Kalbelia tribe (b) a dance movement resembling that of
a serpent (c) a religious festival and ritual theatre of
the naga region (d) a tribal martial art dance that employs
mock combat techniques 22. Which one of the following is not correct
about the Cabinet Mission Plan? (a) Grouping of provinces (b) Interim Cabinet of Indians (c) Division of Bengal and Punjab (d) Constitution framing right
23. Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the latter half of the nineteenth century? (a) Rast Goftar (b) Durgesh Nandini (c) Mahratha (d) Nibandhamala
24. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Satyagraha Persons Actively
Associated with
1. Chambaran satyagraha
: J.B. Kripalani
2. Dharasana march
: Maulana Abul Kalam
Azad
3. Kheda Satagraha
: Shri Mohanlal
Pandya
4. Individual Satyagaha
: Ravishankar vyas
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
25. With reference to which of the following it was said, ―It made its proposals in May. It still wanted a united India. There was to be a Federal Union composed of British provinces.‖ (a) Simon Commission (b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact (c) Cripps Mission (d) Cabinet Mission
26. Which among the following statement/ statements are correct about the Swadeshi movement?
1. It focused on social and economic regeneration of the villages.
2. It provided suitable opportunity for reviving weaving industry.
3. Aravindo Ghosh, Syed Haidar Raza and Bipin Chandra Pal took part in swadeshi.
4. Prafulla Chandra Roy set up Bengal Chemicals Factory.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. Consider the following statements: 1. Italian traveller Nicolo de Conti visited
Vijaynagar empire during Krishna Deva Raya.
2. Srirangam copper plates provide the genealogy of Vijayanagar rulers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Consider the following statements: 1. Madalasa Charita, Satyavadu
Parinaya, Rasamanjari and Jambavati Kalyanam were authored by Krishna Devaraya.
2. The battle of Rakasa Tangadi marked the end of Vijaynagar empire and that of Tuluva dynasty which succeeded Aravidu dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Yaoshang is a festival celebrated in India by the (a) people of Himachal Pradesh (b) people of Assam (c) people of Nagaland (d) people of Manipur
30. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chinese pilgrim Fahien visited
India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
2. Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of Harsha.
3. Itsing refers to the donation of villages to Chinese Buddhists by his contemporary Pushyamitra Sunga.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and3 only
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 49 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
31. Which of the following were not common to both Buddhism and Jainism? 1. Both of them were opposed to animal
sacrifices. 2. Both of them came as subdivisions of
Hindu religion. 3. Both religions believed every matter
has a soul. 4. Both of them advocated Self-
mortifications and severe penances. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
32. The ancient Indian play Mrichchhakatika of Sudraka has its subject on (a) the story of the power struggle between
two Brahmin rulers (b) a conflict between Chandragupta
Maurya and Karavela I (c) a romantic story of a young Brahmin,
Charudatta and a wealthy courtesan Vasantasena
(d) the court intrigues at the time of Devendra Maurya
33. With reference to trade in Indus civilization, consider the following: 1. Land trade and sea trade were in
vogue. 2. They used metal money but no barter
system. 3. ‗Dilmun‘ and Makan (Makran Coast)
were two intermediate stations between Indus and Mesopotamia.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Simmon commission proposed for dyarchy 1. abolition of dyarchy in the centre.
2. separation of Burma from British India.
3. giving away with communal electorate/separate electorate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
35. Which one of the following was the purpose of the Radcliffe Committee chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe?
(a) Solve the problem of minorities in India
(b) Give effect to the Independence Bill (c) Delimit the boundaries between India
and Pakistan (d) Enquire into the riots in East Bengal
and West Punjab
36. With reference to Cabinet Mission, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the princely states were (a) elected by provincial assemblies (b) directly elected by the people of those
states (c) elected by the princes (d) nominated by the princes
37. Which portfolio was held by John Mathai
in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946? (a) Department of Railways and Transport (b) Food and Agriculture
(c) External Affairs and Commonwealth
(d) Industries and Supplies
38. Which one of the following statement is not correct about Kutiyattam? (a) Netra abhinaya and hasta abhinaya
are prominent (b) The women of the Nangiar caste play
the female roles (c) Udukku is the major musical
instrument used here (d) It is traditionally performed in theatres
called Kuttampalams
39. The failure of Cripps mission resulted in (a) the launch of Quit India Movement (b) the launch of Civil Disobedience
Movement (c) Individual satyagraha (d) Non-cooperation movement
40. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942? (a) It was not supported by Hindu
Mahasabha (b) Women played no role due to its
violent nature (c) There were no communal clashes
during the movement (d) Formation of parallel government were
highlights of this movement
41. Which one of the following statement is correct about Rajaji formula? (a) It proposed cancellation of separate
electorate
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 50 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(b) It proposed formation of provisional interim government
(c) It demanded partition of India after 1946 election
(d) It suggested division of princely states between India and Pakistan
42. The forerunner of Indian National Congress, founded by A.O. Hume was (a) Indian National Association (b) Indian Association (c) Indian National Social Conference (d) Indian National Union
43. With reference to Quit India Movement, consider the following statements: 1. Usha Mehta organized the Secret
Congress Radio.
2. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted tricolor at Gowalia tank maidan.
3. Matangini Hazra aroused nationalism among rural folk in Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
44. Which one among the following is not correct about the Pattachitra paintings? (a) It is a traditional painting of Odisha (b) The base of the painting is treated as
cloth (c) They are inspired from Bhimbetka
Cave Paintings (d) Colours are from natural sources
including burnt coconut shells
45. Suvarnadvipa or Suvarnabhumi, referred by Ancient Sanskrit and Pali texts identified being as (a) North-West of Hindukush (b) Tibet (c) Sri Lanka (d) South-East Asia
46. Consider the following statements about Abul Kalam Azad: 1. He was the founder of Indian National
Association of Calcutta in 1876. 2. He was the President of INC during
Quit India Movement. 3. He published the weekly ‗Al-Hilal‘. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
47. The outcomes of the Munda rebellion were
1. enactment of Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908.
2. recognition of Khuntkatti rights. 3. abolition of Beth Begari (forced
labour). 4. creation of separate district for
Mundas. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
48. With reference to 1857 revolt, who said it was a Struggle of soldiers, peasants and democratic combine against the foreign and feudal bondage? (a) R C Mazumadar (b) K.Kelappan
(c) T R Holme (d) Karl Marx
49. With reference to Yoga philosophy, consider the following statements: 1. Release of purusha from prakriti
eventually leads to salvation. 2. Practice of control over pleasure
senses and bodily organs is central to this system.
3. This school of philosophy was developed by Vasumitra sage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
50. Which one of the following is not a reason for tribal uprisings in 19th century? (a) Influx of Christian missionaries (b) British Land reforms (c) British Labour reforms (d) Forced labour practice
51. With reference to the tribal uprisings of 19th century, consider the following statements: 1. Tribal movements were supported by
Indian intellectuals. 2. There were intra and inter-tribal
clashes as in cases of Santhal and Munda rebellions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Tattvabodhini Sabha, founded in 1839, aimed to
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 51 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
1. popularize Brahmodharma or Brahmo faith.
2. encourage religious inquiries and disseminate the essence of Upanishads.
3. counter the teachings of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
4. promote Vedic knowledge. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) None of the above
53. Mir Saman, under Mughal administration was (a) in charge of the intelligence
department (b) in charge of the military department
(c) in charge of the imperial department (d) in charge of the judicial department
54. Social reforms such as inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women were central demands of (a) Deoband Movement (b) Aryan Dharma Sabha (c) Tabernacle of New Dispensation (d) Prarthana Samaj
55. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are correct about the Theosophical Society? 1. Theosophy subscribed to the spiritual
philosophy of Hinduism and its doctrine of Karma and transmigration of the soul.
2. The beliefs of the Theosophical Society were a mixture of religion, philosophy and occultism.
3. It promoted a spirit of national pride among the Indians.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
56. The political demands of Young Bengal Movement included; 1. Trial by jury 2. The freedom of the Press 3. Indians in higher government services 4. Self-rule for Indians Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
57. Consider the following statements: 1. Dipavamsa is Buddhist literature in
Pali language. 2. Mahavamsa is the historical work on
Jainism. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the permanent settlement system in India during the Company rule? 1. Under permanent settlement system,
land got transferred from cultivating to non-cultivating class in large scale.
2. This settlement was the reason that during the 1857 mutiny, the
Zamindars remained loyal to the company and did not provide any help to the rebels.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. Consider the following statements about the ‗Dual government‘ introduced in Bengal in 1765: 1. The servants of the East India
Company amassed great wealth by abusing the system.
2. Under this, the British had all the power while the Nawab and his official had the responsibilities.
3. The Nawab exercised absolute revenue and judicial powers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Which of the following art form depicts mythological tale of a battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika?
(a) Kalbelia (b) Mudiyettu (b) Ramman (d) Koodiyattam
61. Consider the following statements: The India – EU summit 1. held in 2016 was the thirteenth such
summit. 2. In 2016, the summit was held in New
Delhi, India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 52 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. ‗Dadaab refugee camp‘ sometimes mentioned in the news is located in (a) Kenya (b) Syria (c) South Sudan (d) Iraq
63. ‗457 visa‘ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (a) Australia (b) UK (c) European Union (d) USA
64. With reference to the ‗Arctic Council‘, consider the following statements: 1. All the members of Arctic Council are
Arctic States. 2. The Arctic Council‘s mandate explicitly
excludes military security.
3. India is an observer in Arctic Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
65. ‗Great Repeal Bill‘ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (a) India (b) UK (c) Australia (d) USA
66. Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. South Korea 3. Japan 4. Russia 5. Vietnam Which among the above countries share land boundary with North Korea? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
67. The Kuril Islands dispute, also known as the Northern Territories dispute, is a dispute between (a) Indonesia and Malaysia (b) Russia and Japan (c) China and Japan (d) China and Philippines
68. Which of the following is not a member of ‗Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)‘? (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Oman (d) Kuwait
69. Strait of Gibraltar connects (a) Atlantic Ocean to Mediterranean Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea (c) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (d) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
70. The area known as ‗Rakhine‘ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) Vietnam (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Myanmar
71. ‗World Happiness Report‘ is prepared by the (a) United Nations Sustainable
Development Solutions Network (b) Global Happiness Organization (c) Amnesty International (d) Government of Bhutan
72. With reference to the ‗Wassenaar Arrangement‘, consider the following statements: 4. It was established to promote
transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.
5. It also aims to prevent the acquisition of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies by terrorists.
6. The headquarters of the Arrangement is located in Wassenaar, Netherlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
73. With reference to ‗The Australia Group‘; consider the following statements: 1. It aims to allow exporting or
transshipping countries to minimise the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapon (CBW) proliferation.
2. Participants in the Australia Group do not undertake any legally binding obligations.
3. All states participating in the Australia Group are parties to the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) and the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC).
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
74. The ‗Pelindaba Treaty‘ treaty was in the news recently. What is this treaty? (a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms
reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 53 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
(c) It is a treaty that establishes a Nuclear-Weapon-Free Zone in Africa
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade
75. The city known as ‗Haifa‘ which was recently in news is located in (a) Syria (b) Israel (c) Yemen (d) India
76. With reference to ‗The Hague Code of Conduct‘, consider the following statements: 3. It is an international pact aimed at
preventing the spread of nuclear weapons.
4. India has recently joined the Hague
Code of Conduct. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. ‗Organization of American States‘, often in the news, is (a) Intergovernmental military alliance
between North American and South American nations
(b) Regional intergovernmental organisation of nations in South America
(c) Regional intergovernmental organisation of nations in North America
(d) Intergovernmental organisation of American Republics
78. Amir Amanullah Khan Award, Afghanistan‘s highest civilian honour was recently given to (a) Angela Merkel (b) Raheel Sharif (c) Nawaz Sharif (d) Narendra Modi
79. India is a member of which among the following? 1. Mekong-Ganga Cooperation 2. Commonwealth of Independent States 3. International Atomic Energy Agency Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) India is a member of none of them
80. With reference to ‗Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)‘, consider the following statements:
1. The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) works on the basis of consensus.
2. NSG was created following the explosion in 1974 of a nuclear device by India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. With reference to ‗Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)‘; consider the following statements: 1. It is a specialised agency of the United
Nations. 2. The MTCR imposes legally binding
obligations on Partners (members). 3. It seek to limit the proliferation of
missiles and missile technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
82. The area known as ‗Scarborough Shoal‘ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) South China Sea (b) East China Sea (c) Indian Ocean (d) Sea of Japan
83. Consider the following countries: 1. India 2. Japan 3. Russian Federation 4. United States of America 5. United Kingdom Which of the above are the members of the ‗Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)‘? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
84. Consider the following countries: 1. France 2. Japan 3. Israel 4. India 5. United States of America
Which among the above are permanent participants in the Malabar Naval exercise? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
85. Consider the following pairs: Places sometimes Country mentioned in the news 1. Kigali : Botswana 2. Aleppo : Syria 3. Vientiane : Laos
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 54 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
86. With reference to ‗Balochistan‘ region, consider the following statements: 1. Balochistan was previously part of the
former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. Gwadar port is located in Balochistan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
87. ‗BBIN Motor Vehicle Agreement‘ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the
context of the events related to (a) South Asia (b) West Asia (c) Central Asia (d) Southeast Asia
88. With reference to ‗Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)‘; consider the following statements: 1. LEMOA gives both Indian and United
States of America access to designated military facilities on either side for the purpose of refueling and replenishment.
2. LEMOA does not entail basing of any U.S. troops or assets on Indian soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements: The Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) 3. It was established as a dialogue forum
in 1996 to foster dialogue and cooperation between Asia and Europe.
4. Its partners include 2 regional organisations- ASEAN Secretariat and European Commission.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Consider the following statements about ‗Non-Alignment Movement‘ (NAM): 1. Indian delegation at the 17th Summit
of the Non Aligned Movement held in 2016 was led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
2. 17th Summit of the Non Aligned Movement (NAM) was held at Margarita Island in Venezuela.
3. India is one of the founding members of the Non Aligned Movement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
91. With reference to ‗Raisina Dialogue‘; consider the following statements: 1. Raisina Dialogue is India‘s flagship
geo-political conference. 2. The conference is held jointly by
Ministry of External Affairs and the Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. Which of the following is not a member of ‗Islamic Military Alliance to Fight Terrorism‘ (IMAFT)? (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia (c) United Arab Emirates (d) Pakistan
93. With reference to ‗Group of Twenty‘ (G20); consider the following statements: 1. Its membership comprises 19
countries plus the European Union. 2. India is a member of G20. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
94. In the Trilateral Chabahar Agreement, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Bangladesh 2. India 3. Turkmenistan 4. Iran 5. Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5
95. In the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC), an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Pakistan 2. Nepal 3. Myanmar 4. Bangladesh 5. Sri Lanka
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 55 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5
96. With reference to the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements: 1. It endeavours to safeguard and protect
the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
2. India is a member of OIC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. 1. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five
mechanism. 2. The SCO Secretariat, the main
permanent executive body of the SCO is based in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. With reference to ‗Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation‘ (BIMSTEC); consider the following statements: 1. It constitutes Member States from
South Asia only. 2. BIMSTEC is a sector-driven
cooperative organization. 3. BIMSTEC Summit is the highest policy
making body in the BIMSTEC process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
99. Which of the following is not a member of ‗South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation‘ (SAARC)? (a) Bangladesh (b) Maldives (c) Myanmar (d) Afghanistan
100. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: 1. All BRICS countries are also members
of G20. 2. India was the last to join the BRICS
grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
NEO IAS 0484-3190310, 9446331522, 9446334122 Page 56 www.neoias.com | www.youtube.com/neoias | www.facebook.com/neoias | www.twitter.com/neoias