Where are the renal pyramids located in the kidney

2006 Remembered Questions NBDE Part I

1. Where are the renal pyramids located in the kidney Medulla

2. Which of the following structures is found in the renal medulla

Loop of henle

3. The most hyperosmotic portion of the kidney

ascending loop of henle, prox tubule, inner medulla, distal tubule, collecting duct

4. The majority of water is reabsorbed.

Proximal tubule

5. If you have a Kidney or Heart infarctwhat type of necrosis is this

Liquefactive, Coagulative, Caseous .Caseous is for Tuberculosis

6. What causes inc filtration fraction in the glomerulus

Inc pressure (constriction) of efferent arteriolar pressure?7. What kind of Necrosis will lead to soap formation and calcification Fat necrosis (Enzymatic Fat Necrosis) Usu in the pancreas

8. L. Monocytogenes causes Parastie, Gastroenteritis, Meningitis9. Which Hepatitis will cause symptomatic chronic hepatitis Hep C

I think B is easiest to transmit in dentistry via blood, OSHA precautions for this10. Several ?s on Pathology of Liver Vit K ?s--Coumadin stops vit KWhich leads to lack of prothrombin or Thromboplastin???

VIT K is required by the liver to make prothrombin Pt has Liver Failure/Damage what is most likely cause of bleeding Dont have enough prothrombin,,maybe thromboplastin-11. When mast cells degranulate what is contents of granules. Histamine and Heparin Eo chemotactic factor + histamine??

Histamine + Leukotrienes + ECF-A + Heparin

12. What is most responsible for interstitial osmolarity Sodium, albumin (more for blood osmolarity) Sodium b/c Interstitial fluid is in the ECF so Na is ( in Ecf

13. If pt has a ( plasma osmolarity what is most effective substance that the patient needs

renin or ADH-increases permeability in collecting ducts, makes blood even more hypoosmolar, so I would say renin. Renin is secreted when theres low B.P. to retain more water which gives diluted blood and decreased osmolarity.14. What is most likely organism in perio infected oral cavity and infected pulp

Porphyromonas or streptococcus

It said in book that this was for deep subgingival sites and advanced perio dx

Predominant supragingival= streptococcus

Mutans= Enamel, plaque

Strep Anginosus= gingival crevice, dentoalveolar and endo infections??

Strep Vestibularis= vestibular mucosa

S. Salivarus= dorsum of tongue and saliva

15. In perio pockets what is there. Bacteria that are not indigenous to the normal flora, bacteria that are normal indeginous flora????-yes16. Neisseria Gonnorhea virulence factors- Endotoxin (gram neg. have this) LPS17. Pt gets an extraction, presents w/ fever and blood under his fingernails (splinter blood clots), what disease process was the most likely cause of this

---DIC, thrombocytopenia??, Google says Endocardtis or Vasculitis18. Which is least likely to infect a burn lesion

C. tetani, S. aurues, M. Ulceratum, P. Aeruginosa19. Neisseira Meningitis virulence factors, which of these is not a virulence factor

Capsule, endotoxin, Iga protease, enterotoxin

20. Predominate Ig in saliva

IgA or Secretory IgA???? Secretory IgA just has a role in protection for external secretions

I would choose Secretory IgA21. What is the ideal polio vaccine, what it produces

Produces a secretory IgA from gastrointestinal cells???, secr. IgA from respiratory tract cells Polio vaccine is of two types: the killed (Salk) vaccine and the live attenuated (Sabin) vaccine; the latter given orally is the more popular. The live vaccine produces more IgA22. How does Mililary Tb spread Bloodstream (hematogenous), lymphatics- Yes, caused by severe bacteremia23. Which cell type In newly forming bone is the most mitotic

Osteogenic progenitor cells?, osteoblast precursor??- 24. Cribiform bone in the periodontium??? 2?s one was a picture having to label where the Picture Synonyms for lamina dura include alveolar bony socket, alveolar bone, true alveolar bone, alveolar bone proper, and cribriform plate of the alveolar process. The alveolar bone proper is a plate of compact bone, the radiographic image of which is termed lamina dura. 25. Nerve of pterygoid canal

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

26. Lose Control of muscles of face below zygomatic arch on the left

Upper motor lesion, cerebrocortical lesion on upper right Babinski sign, toes fan out instead of curving inward Neural pathway for upper and lower musclesUpper= crossed and uncrossed, Lower= uppermotor nerurons from opposite side EXTRA

27. Operate on parotid gland what is at risk other than the facial nerve of being damaged External carotid branches and superficial temporal artery supply the parotid and auriculotemporal 28. Which nerves innervate the anterior part of the TMJ

Masseteric and deep temporal innervate anterior, auriculotemporal innervates lateral and posterior.What type of joint is a Gomphosis Gomphosis) is a form of immovable articulation in which a peglike part fits into a cavity, as in the setting of a tooth in its socket PDL TMJ=Synovial

29. What does Rotaviruses cause in infants Gastroenteritis

30. Which dx affects the most organ systems

Herpes, HPV, Rubell31. What causes the Most birth defects in industrialized countries

Cytemegalovirus???

32. Which virus infects B cells

Epstein Barr virus33. Syphylis aneurism occurs where?

Descending aorta (thoracic), Thoracic Aorta??34. Which muscle abducts the Vocal Cords

Posterior Cricoarytenoid muscle pg. 627 for other muscles in Agur and Moore35. Severe abducens nerve (6) Cant abduct the eye due to LR

36. Numbness to skin and muscle of the thumb and forefinger Median nerve,- Radial Nerve37. Structure that is most superficial in deltoid triangle

Cephalic vein

38. Difference between cementum and bone

Cementum continues to get deposited throughout life??????, weird answers Cementum has similar composition to bone, but it lacks vascularization39. Cell bodies of the facial touch

Trigeminl ganglion

40. Bacteria thrives in co2 environment

Capnophiles

41. Source of cysts in the midline of the neck

Thyroglossal duct-connection in embryo devpt bw initial postion of thyroid gland and final postion. Remnants may develope into cysts42. Carotid triangle of the neck, superior border

Posterior Digastric43. Floor of the submandibular triangle?

Floor not Borders.mylohyoid

44. 53, Cyclic Amp and its role in glycogen breakdown Glycogen phosphorylase---It leads to phosphorylation of this and makes it active Glycogen phosphorylase is one of the phosphorylase enzymes (EC 2.4.1.1). It breaks up glycogen into glucose subunits. Glycogen is left with one less glucose molecule, and the free glucose molecule is in the form of glucose-1-phosphate. In order to be used for metabolism, it must be converted to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme phosphoglucomutase45. Cells that produce gastrin

..G Cells (was not an answer, maybe gastric glands via parasympathetic impulses??)46. Difference b/tw large and small intestine

Large intestine d/n have villi Stomach has rugae?

47. Where does myasthenia gravis effect

Neuromuscular junction postsynaptic R48. Thick filament of muscle

Myosin-49. Cells that hypertrophy due to injury

Cardiac muscle 50. What is in the jnxal epithelium

Hemidesmosomes + zona occludens? If Hemidesmosomes + Basal Lamina is an answer choose this b/c that is what is on the decks

51. Which epithelium can sustain trauma the best

Transitional ????, Stratified Squamous -keratinized52. What makes up the Nissl substance???

Rough ER- in cell bodies and dendrites53. How does pancreatic lipase get activated

Trypsin

Some ?s about trypsin activating pancreatic enzymes

54. What hormone stimulates gastric secretion

Gastrin, CCK (inhibits), secretin (no), (Chief Cells (Secrete Pepsinogen), Parietal Cells (secrete HCl from oxyntic glands)

Mixing and Emptying Actions Following a meal, mixing actions of the stomach turn the food into chyme and pass it toward the pyloric region using peristaltic waves. The rate at which the stomach empties depends on the fluidity of the chyme and the type of food. As chyme fills the duodenum, stretching of its wall triggers the enterogastric reflex, which inhibits peristalysis and slows the rate at which chyme enters the small intestine

55. What is the enterogastreal reflex

Feed back system to stomach

The brain alerts the stomach that it should expect arrival of a meal and the stomach comes out of its inter-digestive quiescence and begins low level motor and secretory activity (cephalic phase). After a meal is consumed, the gastric motor and secretory activity is fully turned on (gastric phase). If the meal is at all substantial, the gastric phase is periodically suppressed by signals from the small intestine and, if gastric pH falls to very low levels, from the stomach itself. Eventually, the meal is fully liquefied and emptied, and the stomach falls back into a state of very low motor and secretory activity, where it remains until the next cephalic phase.

56. What stimulates glucose intake uptake into adipose tissue

Insulin

57. Ehler-Danlos causes all of the following except

Delayed wound healing, collagen, something didnt make sense Ehler-Danlos has faulty collagen synthesis causing hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed ( easy bruising), hypermobile jts.58. Best way for Bacteria to transfer multi drug resistance, depends on the ? Conjugation or transformation Transductiontransfer via viral replication

Transformationno cell to cell contact, most primitive way for bacteria to transfer genetic info

Conjugationcell to cell contact, jay put this so not sure

59. Usual outcome of HSV-1 exposure

No Outcome (most people dont have symptomssubclinical dx)60. Usual transmission of Chlamydia-

Sexual transmission

61. Where is best place to take spinal tap

L3-L5 spinal cord ends at L162. Section below T4 of the spinal cord, and they come into the office for a 2 hr appt what do you worry about

Bowel emptying, high bp, temp regulation???63. How does Influenza get its genetic diversity

Mutation- genetic drift

Gene reasortment genetic shiftBoth answers were on test 64. Lag phase

( in mass but not #, ( in # but not mass

65. Pt has Hypotension, peri-oral pigmentation, nausea vomiting, fatigue Addisons-primary adrenal insufficiency (this one), Peutz-Jagers(d/n have hypotension), Gardners (d/n have hypotension)

66. Stain for Acid-Fast stain

Mycolic Acids (lipids and waxes)

This stains for Mycobacterium tuberculosis= Lipid and wax in cell wall

Mycoplasma pneumoniae= NO cell wall

67. Bacteremia

What causes it----probing causes endocarditis, seeding of bacteria into the bloodstream

68. Difference between IgM and IgA

Constant region of Heavy Chain, Constant Of Light, Variable of Heavy, Variable of Light

69. Which is not true of the Properties of Fungal Cells (eukaryotes) Chitin is cell wall, 2 forms (hyphae, yeast), asexual and sexual, Cholesterol in cell membranes (they have pergesterol)70. How do quantitate mRNA

Western blot, Southern blot, Northern blot??? Western blotdetect protein

Southern blotdetect DNA

Northern blotdetect RNA and mRNA71. How do you know if hep B carrier is infective state (actively dividing) HBs Antigen (ag) 72. How do you know if pt has been infected and now have immunity (test for post vaccination immunity) Test for hepatitis b surface antibody, (HBs-AB) or (anti-HBs)73. Sickle Cell anemia difference btw hemoglobin a and hgb S

Single DNA base pair substitution74. What is the relationship where both members benefit

Mutualism (wasnt a choice, this is a form of symbiosis, its when both benefit), Commensalism (1 benefit, 1 not affected), Symbioisis (Can both benefit but not always???)75. Acquired active immunity, natural and artificial

Look it up

76. Oshas standard for Blood Borne Pathogens is intended to protect

Patient, Licensed hc provider, health care employees? Fine ( everyone

77. What is a risk factor for endometrial cancer

Obesity (causes an ( in estrogen), multiple partners, sex at early age (cervical)

Other risk factors for endometrial carcinoma are Diabetes, HTN, and Infertility78. What is not a risk factor for cervical cancer

Early sex, Hpv, multiple partners, high risk male partners.. something else d/n make sense b/c all of these are the risk factors79. What is most common cancer of lung

SSC of lung80. Least likely to metastatize to bone

Kidney, colon, thyroid, breast, and tongue??? BLT with Kosher Pickle ( breast , lung, thyroid, testis, kidney, prostate)-metastasize to bone81. Appearance of breast cancer, which one is falseSymptoms: lump under the arm or above the collarbone that does not go away may be present. Other possible symptoms include breast discharge, nipple inversion and changes in the skin overlying the breast. Skin is dimpled, change in color of nipple, non tender mass, large red painful swollen mass82. What the marker for choriocarcinoma- tumor of placenta Increased Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (Beta-HCG)83. Smoking is a risk factor for all of the following cancers except

Stomach, esophageal, kidney, pharynx Could also be called colon, Look up what kind of cancers is caused by Smoking

84. What are not Symptoms of Bronchitis

Look up, Hyaline mmb formation (not related)

Symptoms: An expectorating cough (the colour of the mucus does not signify whether the infection is viral or bacterial) Dyspnea (Shortness of breath) Fatigue and/or malaise Mild fever Mild chest pains

85. What dx is a disorder of plasma cells that shows multiple punched out radiolucencies

Multiple Myeloma

86. What are pituicytes

Neurohypophysis-contains a specialised type of astrocytic glial cell - "pituicytes87. Which of the following is most likely to cause cancer

Dysplasia or Metaplasia

88. Osteocyte most resembles

Cementocyte

89. How does the body regulate Calcium absorbtion

Based upon body Need (???)PTH, calcitonin,90. What is an indication of malabsorption Steatorhea

91. What is the vitamin deficiency that causes rickets

Vit D

92. What vitamin deficiency causes gingival inflammation, pocket, and bleeding

Vit C (ascorbic acid)

93. What is the role of MHC class 2

CD4, presents extracellular antigen to T helper cells on the cell surface

94. What could be a possible cause of pulmonary emboli

Arterial thrombosis, parapalegic Venous thrombus/or left ventricle95. Multiple Sclerosis- causes gradual destruction of myelin (demyelination) and transection of neuron axons in patches throughout the brain and spinal cord (CNS)96. Which complement is for alternate pathway

C3= alternate no ab needed C1= classical

97. 65 yo with an ill fitting denture show cotton wool radiographic appearance

Osteitis Deformans (Pagets Disease), Fibrous Dysplasia

( risk factor for osteosarcoma98. Which of the following activates Osteoclasts

Thyroxine, Calcitonin, Insulin

PTH was not listed99. All of the following structures exit the middle cranial fossa

Jugular foramen

Some other things in orbital cavity oculomotor, the trochlear, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal, and the abducent nerves, some filaments from the cavernous plexus of the sympathetic, and the orbital branch of the middle meningeal artery; and from the orbital cavity a recurrent branch from the lacrimal artery to the dura mater, and the ophthalmic veins. Behind the medial end of the superior orbital fissure is the foramen rotundum, for the passage of the maxillary nerve. Behind and lateral to the foramen rotundum is the foramen ovale, which transmits the mandibular nerve, the accessory meningeal artery, and the lesser superficial petrosal nerve. Medial to the foramen ovale is the foramen Vesalii, which varies in size in different individuals, and is often absent; when present, it opens below at the lateral side of the scaphoid fossa, and transmits a small vein. Lateral to the foramen ovale is the foramen spinosum, for the passage of the middle meningeal vessels, and a recurrent branch from the mandibular nerve..100. Elevation of what marker will cause Acute Pancreatitis

Amylase

Lipase was not listed

In acute pancreatitis, the worst offender among these enzymes may well be the protease trypsinogen which converts to the active trypsin which is most responsible for auto-digestion of the pancreas which causes the pain and complications of pancreatitis.101. What is a bone disorder of endocrine origin Acromegaly (caused by GH), fibous dysplasia, pagets 102. What are the symptoms of asthma one of them will be false

The clinical hallmarks of an attack are shortness of breath (dyspnea) and wheezing. Although the latter is "often regarded as the sine qua non of asthma,"[5] some victims present primarily with coughing, and in the late stages of an attack, air motion may be so impaired that no wheezing may be heard.103. What is the process when the chromatin condenses in the nucleus of a cell Pyknosis1st stage of necrosis (unprogramed cell death), then Karyolysischromatin is degraded by enzymes (DNAses) which causes

Karyorrhexisfragmentation of the nucleus

Apoptosisprogrammed cell death

104. All of the following are examples of the Heat Sterilization Technique except

Load instruments in when wet, sterilize for 6min @ 190, 12 min for

105. Which of the following is an immersing sterilant Gluteraldehyde

106. Which amino acid forms an inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation Histidine- histamine

107. What is Penicillins MOA

Inhibits cross linking of growing gram + Cell wall(inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis)linkages bw NAG and NAM108. Which of the following inherited dx is associated with high levels of LDL in the blood stream

Familial Hypercholestrolemia

109. How is Cholesterol transported in the blood

LDL, VLDL??

Chylomicrons= Transfer triglycerides from lymph absorbed in intestine to adipose, and skeletal muscle which converts it to lipoprotein, such as HDL, VLDL. HDL= caries cholesterol from tissues to the liver. VLDL is assembled in the liver from cholesterol and apolipoproteins. It is converted in the bloodstream to low density lipoprotein (LDL)110. Mesothelioma is caused by exposure to

Asbestos111. What organ is affected by Exposure to carbon tetrachloride? Massive hepatic necrosis (liver problems) Chronic exposure to carbon tetrachloride can cause liver and kidney damage and may result in cancer Which of the following is X-linked Recessive

Hemophilia A ( other X linked recessive diseases are Hemophilia. B, Brutons agammaglobulinemia, Wiskot-Aldrich syndrome, Fragile X, Duchenes muscular dystrophy)112. What is the cause of hyperventilation

Respiratory alkalosis (blowing off all of your CO2)

Hypoventilation (building up your CO2 so you are resp. acidosis)

113. What happens to cause Troponin elevation in the blood

MI????, dont remember the options, just a guess

cardiac troponins are a marker of all heart muscle damage, not just myocardial infarction.114. Actinomycosis Sulfur granules, Anaerobic, gram-positive filamentous, branching rods;anaerobic "sulfur granules" in pus are mats of intertwined bacteria, Actinomyces israelii, Found in anaerobic crevices around teeth; intrauterine devices --> Actinomyces israelii endometritis. Normal oral flora, causes oral/ facial abscesses, may drain through skin.115. Active Acquired Immunity

After exposure to Ag, developes Ab

116. Diagram of mesencephalon=midbrain 117. Extrapyramidal neurons

Dont cross, control posture 118. ID Lacrimal Gland

119. What receptor does Epinephrine react with Stimulates alpha receptors and beta receptors. Norepi binds alpha 1 and 2 and beta 1

120. How does epinephrine raise the blood glucose level

It binds to 1 receptors of liver cells, which activate inositol-phospholipid signaling pathway, signaling the phosphorylation of insulin, leading to reduced ability of insulin to bind to its receptors121. What is least amount of space of teeth

ICP122. What enzyme is used for transamination reaction

Pyridoxine (vit. B6)

Transamination is the reaction between an amino acid and an alpha-keto acid. The amino group is transferred from the former to the latter; this results in the amino acid being converted to the corresponding -keto acid, while the reactant -keto acid is converted to the corresponding amino acid123. By checking hydroxyprloine levels what are you testing for

Collagen

Hydroxyproline is a major component of the protein collagen. It helps provide stability to the triple-helical structure of collagen by forming hydrogen bonds. Hydroxyproline is found in few proteins other than collagen.

124. Immediate source of methyl groups in amino acid synthesis???

SAM??, S-Adenosylmethionine (SAM) A source of transferable methyl groups is choline

125. What root of the maxillary 1st PM would have 2 roots

??

126. What structure is epinephrine most closely related to

tyrosine127. What is split into urea, the last amino acid before urea is released

?arginine

Urea cycle = amino groups donated by ammonia and L-aspartate are converted to urea , while L-ornithine , citrulline , L-arginino-succinate , and L-arginine act as intermediates.128. In a highly acidic environment the GC content of DNA is

Highest, Intermediate, Lowt129. What enzyme is secreted from the pancreas that stimulates an alkaline secretion

Secretin made in duodenum- stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate (base) from the liver, pancreas, and duodenal Brunner's glands in order to buffer the incoming protons of the acidic chyme. It also enhances the effects of cholecystokinin.130. Where are the JG cells located in the kidney

? bowmans capsule- JG cell are specialized smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus131. The breakdown of glycoproteins happens due to what organelle

Peroxisomes, lysosomes?, golgi

132. What structure is emptied into the inferior meatus

Nasolacrimal duct

133. which canal creates a direct entry from the oral cavity to the nasal cavity

?pterygopalatine, greater palatine

134. Which of these structures is located in the temporal bone

Internal acoustic meatus

135. Which taste receptor has the lowest threshold for taste.

Bitter, sour, salty, sweet

136. Which papillae is associated with vonEbner glands

Circumvallate

137. A 6 yo kid presented to your office with diffuse small red spot on the ant 2/3 of the dorsal tongue what is most likely affected

Filliform papillae, fungiform papillae, lingual tonsil, foliate papillae

138. Look up something about a striated duct

Weird ?

139. When your mandible moves in lateral excursion, the TMJ on the lateral working side moves

Lateral, medial, inferior, superior

140. What covers the tmj articulating surfaces

Fibrocartilage

141. in what layer is the large vessels in the floor of the mouththe tongue located

Submuosa, lamina propria

142. The deep dermis is composed of what

Dense irregular CT, Dense Regular CT, Reticular Layer

143. What is true insided the pulp

Type I collagen>Type III collagen

144. A fungal infection most common in diabetics

Mucor mycosis

145. What artery does middle meningeal a tributary of

Maxillary artery

146. What artery parallels the the ptergoid plexus of veins

Maxillary

147. What structure stores sperm

Testis, vas defrens, seminiferous tubules

148. If a pt develops right heart failure with an otherwise healthy left side what is the problem

Cor pulmonale

149. If a patient can only rotate his jaw and not translate what is the max amount of opening

30mm, 40mm, 50mm, 60mm

150. What foramen connects the sphenoid sinus and nasal cavity

Sphenopalatine foramen

151. Which muscle of the tongue pulls the side of the tongue inferior

Hyoglossus

152. What muscle does the parotid duct pierce

Buccinator

153. What foramen directly connects the nasal cavity and oral cavity

Incisive

154. The lingual nerve before it joins the c. tympani has what type of fibers

Afferent ant 2/3 tongue (general sensory) then it picks up taste from c. tympani

155. How many heme molecules and globulin protein chains??? Does hemboglobin have

4 hemes, 4 chains

156. How does the mandible form

Intramembraneous bone formation around Meckels cartilage

Hint: meckels bone does not ossify

157. What is the primary growth center of long bones

Epiphysis, epiphyseal plate, metaphysic, diaphysis158. What deformity is due to lack of Vit D

Rickets in children, Osteomalacia in adults

159. What cell cycle phase is characteristic of separating nuclear material?

M phase

160. Asbestos exposure most likely causes what

Mesothelioma

161. What nerve innervates the TMJ

Auriculotemporal from V3 is the main one (highly innervating the posterior and lateral aspects), however receives little twig branches from masseteric nerve and the deep temporal nerve in the anterior portion.

162. Which of these is located in the anterior mediastinum

Some loose areolar tissue, lymphatic vessels and some lymph glands, and branches from the Internal Mammary artery

163. What structure is located at the level of the trachea bifurcation

Sternal angle at the level of the 4th thoracic vertebrae. 164. What is a positive chronotropic agent that will stimulate carotid bodies

Low O2 tension

165. The nerve that stimulates the submandibular ganglion (c. tympani) has its origin in what nucleus

Superior salivatory nucleus

166. The adventia of the arterioles is derived from what?

Contains loose collagen and elastic fibers (mesenchyme??)

167. The tip of the tongue receives its blood supply from

Deep lingual artery

168. What is a direct tributary of the celiac trunk

3 main branches: Left Gastric (later anastamoses with the Right gastric artery, a branch of the Hepatic artery), Common Hepatic, and Splenic arteries169. The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the

thyrocervical trunk is a branch of the subclavian artery. Its branches are, inferior thyroid, suprascapular, and transverse cervical artery.

170. Which part of the gastric mucosa has no vili and limited mucous glands

Ileum, stomach, duodenum, jejunum Every part of the small intestine contains villi. The only places that dont are stomach and large intestine171. What vessel carries oxygenated blood to the heart

Pulmonary veins172. What is the function of synovial fluid

Lubrication and nutrition

173. What lines the ventricles of the brain

Ependymal cells

174. Where is the Brocas area of speech

Inferior FRONTAL gyrusWernickes area is in the left posterior part of the cortex called the superior temporal gyrus

175. What is a relay station for sensory stimuli from the spinal tract to cortex

Thalamus

176. What structure is the midbrain derived from

mesencephalon

177. If you ( the permeability of a nerve cell to K what will happen

It will go 0, +30, - 30, -50, -80 (should become hyperpolarized)178. Complete cardiac block of the nerve transmission will show what on an EKG

..Dissociation of QRS and P

179. The Right 1st, 2nd, and 3rd posterior intercostal veins drain into the right superior intercostal which then drains into what structure

Hemiazygous, azygous, superior vena cava

180. Which of the following causes a

181. Osteoblasts are derived from

Mesenchyme

182. What lines the articulating surfaces of the mandi. Fossa

Fibrous connective tissue

183. TMJ lower rotation, upper translation

Translation or gliding happens in the upper compartment and rotation or hinge occurs in the lower compartment

184. The tip of the tongue drains directly to

Submental nodes and then the deep cervical nodes

185. If you have an abcess of the 1st PreMolar what space is infected

Submandibular (mand. Incisor tth are the submental only)

186. Which of these will ( during a contraction

H bands and I band will decrease. A band will stay the same187. If your tongue deviates to the right what is wrong

Right hypoglossal nucleus

188. Which antimicrobial affects lipid and non-lipid membranes

Chlorhexidine gluconate distrupts membranes. Chlorine attacks cell membrane. Alcohols extract membrane lipids189. What will cause over secretion of saliva

Epinephrine, atropine, curare, something else was the answer starts with a P (Pilocarpine)190. Staph aureus

Heat stable enterotoxins

191. What type of necrosis is most common in alcoholics

Liquefactive???

192. What type of necrosis is most common for infarcts

Coagulative (typically seen in hypoxic states)

193. Patients with cystic fibrosis

Will have a sweat that contains NaCl (Get dx by chloride level in a sweat drop)194. SCID is due to hypoproduction of

B cells, T cells, stem cells (no differentiation of stem cells, lymphoblasts, so you have NO B or T cells)

195. Most common type of meningitis

Viral is most common (Enteroviruses) but less severe than Bacterial (most common being Strep. Pneumonia)

196. What is false about Chylamydia Trachomatis

I think I narrowed it down to , the majority of women are symptomatic

197. What disease is most common to resemble primary syphilis (chancre)

Gingival herpetic stomatitis, herpangina

198. What is the most common renal tumor in kids

Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor) most common metastasis is to the lungs

199. What infects skin, hair, and nails

Trichophyton (treat with Griseofulvin)

200. Which of these cause cancer in the genital tract of females

HPV (cervical cancer)

201. What causes a blood clot, terminal step

Monomeric fibrin

202. Hemophailiac A is caused by a deficiency of

Factor 8

203. How is VZV spread

Airborne, direct skin contact

204. Chicken pox stays latent where

Dorsal Root (sensory) Ganglia

205. Cytomegalovirus and EBV are familys of

Herpes Virus (HHV-4 is EBV and HHV-5 is CMV)

206. Which of the following are not viruses of the brain

..

207. HIV is a rotavirus

False, it is a retro virus

208. Intervertebral disc is composed of

Fibrocartilage

209. What is endotoxin associated with

Gram (-) part of the LPS

210. What is the most common severe rxn in transplants

Graft vs. Host disease, Host vs. Graft

211. What is associated with the mushroom toxin that affects mRNA

I put Rifampin ?? Alpha-amantin212. If pt has a RV (something like that) quotient of 0.7 what is the main source of fuel

Fats are the source for fuel with an RQ (respiratory quotient) of 0.7. Carbohydrates are the source at an RQ of 1.0

213. Hertwigs epithelial root sheat forms

Epithelial cell rest of malasez

214. Enamel formation is due to

Stratum intermedium????

215. Crown dentin is different from root dentin by

Granular layer of tomes in radicular dentin

216. Know the pathogens in adult and juvenile Periodontitis

JUVENILE: Generalized- Prevotella intermedia + Eikenella Corrodens Localized- Actinobacillus Actinomycetemcomitans + Capnocytophaga ADULT: Porphyromonas gingivalis, Prevotella, Bacteriodes, Campylobacter, Fusobacterium, and Spirochetes217. Crutzfiel Jacobs dx

Something about infected carcasses of cow (also known as Mad Cow Disease)218. What is a secondary messenger

Cyclic AMP

Could also be cyclic GMP

219. Which of the following can you not measure using a respirometer

Residual Volume ??

220. Which of the following would be going on if Oxaloacetate was depleted

TCA Cycle will come to a stop, Acetyl CoA will accumulate, and HMG-CoReducatase will be formed at high rates221. What enzyme is used in the oxidation of energy

Cytochromes

222. What is the function of secretory IgA

Protect mucous membranes

223. Which salivary enzyme breaks down starch (or maybe it said proteins)

Alpha-amylase (aka ptyalin), beta amylase

224. Which is true of polyunsaturated fatty acids

Have a lower melting point than saturated fatty acids

225. The storage form of Iron in the liver is called

Ferritin

If it is transferable= transferrin

226. If a person has antibodies anti-A and anti-B in their blood what blood type are they

O

227. If a patient comes in with a cyanotic blue looking lip what is their problem

Deoxygenated hemoglobin due to a circulatory or ventilatory problem I put low hemoblobin count (low o2), other answers were anemia related problems (which would mean normal o2 tension, just not enough of normal cells???)

228. The breakdown of Lactose yields

Glucose+ galactose

229. Which of the following could cause glucosuria

Low Insulin due to Diabetes mellitus or Renal Glycosuria (inherited)

230. Inulin is a measure of

GFR

231. Pt had a diastolic pressure of 140 and a systolic pressure of 80, what is the mean arterial pressure

MAP = [(2 x diastolic)+systolic] / 3 =120232. Which of the following is the most common autoimmune thyroid problem

Hashimotos, Graves, DiGeorges, etc..??

233. What causes exopthalmous, bony defects, etc

Graves disease causes exophthalmos234. What is the storage form of Thyroid hormone

Thyrogloblulin (others say T4 is the storage form)

235. How does DNA, RNA, and protein replication occur

53, 53, N-terminalC-terminal

236. What is the function of the nuclear pore

Transfer of proteins and ribosomes from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

237. What is the cDNA libraries made up of

All of a cell or organisms set of mRNA reversely transcripted to DNA

238. What is useful for detecting DNA sequences

Southern Blot

239. The most important buffer system in parotid secretions of saliva

Bicarbonate, that was the only one that made sense, phosphate also an answer

240. How is glucose mediated across cell membranes

2ndary active transport

241. What hormone is responsible for producing milk in the mammary glands

Prolactin, Oxytocin

If during breast feeding I think its Oxytocin, depends on how its worded

242. What is the hormone that has the direct effect on growth of a bone

Somatotrophin (GH)

243. What hormone binds to an intracellular receptor and has a long slow response

Estrogen244. What is the major regulator of Ca in the body

Calcitonin, PTH245. What disease is caused by an excessive formation of uric crystals in the big toe

Gout

246. What is the Mechanism of destruction in rheumatoid arthritis

Inflammatory autoimmune disorder that attacks joints. Might be from food allergy or external agent (Mycoplasma)(molecular mimicry247. What is true of a micelle

The hydrophobic portion is pointed toward the interior

248. Urea is produced by the hydrolysis of

Arginine

249. What reflex controls posture to the spine

Stretch reflex??

250. The pentose phosphate will generate

Ribulose 5-phosphate

251. Isotopes have

The same atomic # (same protons) but different atomic mass (different neutrons)

252. What virus most closely resembles herpangina

Hand foot and mouth disease

253. What is the cytopathic effect of HIV

Giant cell formation (induced by apoptosis)

254. Hypoplasia

Decrease in cell production

255. Sjorgens syndrome is associated with destruction of what two glands

Salivary and lacrimal

256. What is the disease called that causes tumors in the gi tract

Puetz-Jeghers

257. What is the difference between Th1 and Killer T cells

Th1= MHC2 & CD4, Killer T= MHC1 & CD8

T Cell SubsetCoReceptorMHC Recognition

Immunity TypeCytokines

Cytotoxic (CTL)CD8Class 1CMI

(Killer Ts, NK, Macrophages)Tc1, Tc2

T Helper (Th1)CD4Class 2IL-2, IFN-g

T Helper (Th2)Humoral

(B Cells and AbIL 4, 5, 10

258. What pathway is shut down in arachidonic acid pathway to cause a ( of leukotrienes

Lipoxygenase pathway

Know this good, know that asprin will shut AA synthesis off, probably 2-3?s related to this

259. What strep bacteria is not found in dental plaque

Strep pyogenes, s. sanguis, S. mutans, s. salivarius, s. mitis

260. What is the best way to monitor a malignant tumors prognosis

Size, location, degree of differentiation

261. UV light causes damage to DNA by

Damaging the cross-links of pyrimidine bases to form thymine dimers262. Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of

Factor VIII

263. If your bile duct is plugged it will cause you to be deficient in what vitamins

I have no idea, each answer was like ADE, kde, kab, etc(Bile breaks down fats right? So, the vitamins that you cannot absorb must be fat-soluble, like A, D, E, and K.264. What is the most common fungal infection of humans in the US

Candida Albicans

265. A cell that stains heavily in the center and is tightly packed has undergone

Pyknosis, it is followed by Karyorrhexis, fragmentation of nucleus

266. What lung diseases causes you to not be able to keep the alveoli open, also common in CF pts

Atelectasis(alveolar collapse, followed by a mucus plug occluding a bronchiole267. Down syndrome is mainly caused due to what

Non-Disjunction

268. Thats all folks

ANATOMICAL SCIENCES 2006

269. Which foramen is not in the middle cranial fossa?

Option: foramen Lacerum, Rotundum, Ovale, Jugular Foramen270. Which is in the Retroperperitoneal?

Kidney

271. Which structure innervate Orbicularis Oculi( or Oris) or supply nerve to them is

Option: superior orbital fissure, mental,......

272. Which nerve abduct the eye....?

Option: Abducens N, Adduct N...

273. Diagram of eye and asked to locate lacrimal glands

274. (2-3) more Q's regarding triangles of the Neck?

275. Right lymphatic duct drains lymph from??

Upper right trunk, right arm, and right side of head and neckeverything else drains via the thoracic duct276. More Q's about Lymph nodes??

277. What causes cleft lip?

Maxillary and medial nasal processes unable to fuse278. Which cell cycle is more variable is most variable in mammal?

G1279. What forms Philtrum?( Maxi process & Medial nasal process)

280. Which is seen continuously throughout the circulatroy system?

Adventitia (larger in veins), Endothelium (intima), Vasa Vasorum

281. Function of hyaline cartilage in bone growth???\

Gets replaced by bone. If not enough produced, then dwarfism282. Something about notochord?

Becomes the nucleus pulposesalso induces formation of neural tube283. Which one is propriception nucleus in face?

Mesencephalic nucleus!!

284. Jaw-Jerk-reflex goes through what ganglion??

Mesencephalic nucleus!!

285. Bell stage definition?

Morphodifferentiation and histodifferentiation (majority of cells are stellate reticulum because of their star shaped.286. What is the lateral boundary of retromandi space??/

287. Ipsilateral-contra lateral Q's about facial and something about pain innervation??

288. Q's about Hypothalamus and its Hormones

Oxytocin, ADH, ??(Acromegaly)

289. Numbness to thumb and forefinger caused by damage of???

Option: radial nerve, ulnar nerve, median.......

290. Abduction of vocal cord caused by???

Posterior Cricoarytenoid

291. Engterogastric reflex???

Peristaltic contraction of small intestine followed by food entrance into stomach292. Where respiratory bronchiole subdivides into?

...terminal bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli, primary bronchi

293. Know type I collagen fibrils well???

294. Where is trapeful M???????

Option: Medial, Lateral, Superior, Inferior...

295. Paralysis of lateral rectus causes interference with what eye movement??

Abduction

296. Trapezius inserts into??

Scapular spine

297. Jugular foramen found in which part of cranium??

Posterior cranial fossa

298. Hard palate supplied by??

Greater palatine NAV

299. Aggregated mass of lymphoid tissue found between palatoglossus and palatophanryngeus ...?

palatine tonsil

300. What is usually mistaken for subgingival calculus??

Option: Concrescent teeth, dens in dente.......

301. Carcinoma of larynx would affect- ????

Option: deep cervical nodes, submandibular, thorax....

302. Postganglionic sympathetic to head region???/

From Intermediolateral cell column in the thorax region

303. Postganglionic parasympathetic to spincter pupillae???

304. What is the function of nuclear pore???

BIOCHEMISTRY & PHYSIOLOGY--2006

305. Enzyme helping in transamination reactions???

B6 (Pyridoxyl)

306. Immediate source of methy groups in amino acid synthesis???

SAM??, serine

307. Something about DNA transcription??

308. Which glucose, that is not degraded in muscle??

309. How to check protein level in meat

hydroxyproline level???

310. Activation of complement by alternate pathway take place at???

C3

311. TCA cycle???

know it well couple of Q's about it...

312. Enzyme not found in muscle??

Option: glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase,.....

313. Which one is used to pick out amount of mRNA sequence??

Option: western, southern, northern...

314. Q about GFR and inulin?

315. Greatest osmotic pressure is found in what part of nephron???

Option: PCT, DCT, Collecting duct, Henle loop..316. HCL secreted by which cells of stomach??.. parietal cells, chief cells

317. Something about Kw calculations????

318. Movement of solute against an ectrochemical gradient requires???

Option: simple diffusion, facilitated, active transport..

319. Difficult in breathing in neonates is due to ????

Option: puctured lung, collapsed alveoli, increased surface tension of tissue...

320. A DNA sequence was given and the corresponding RNA seq had to be chosen????

A-- T (RNA=U), G ---C Study their sequence and know it by heart......

321. What maintain the tertiary structure of proteins??

The primary structure is held together by covalent peptide bonds, which are made during the process of translation. The secondary structures are held together by hydrogen bonds. The tertiary structure is held together primarily by hydrophobic interactions but hydrogen bonds, ionic interactions, and disulfide bonds are usually involved too.

322. (2-3) Q's about hyperventilation & hypoventilation??

PATHOLOGY & MICROBIOLOGY--2006

323. Bacteria surviving in CO2???

Option: anaerobic,fac anaerobes, capnophiles....324. Legionella pneumophila causes??

pneumonia

325. Miliary tuberculosis spread by??

hematogenous

326. Rotavirus causes what.... in infant?

Gastroenteritis

327. Staining in tubercle bacilli is possible due to ???

Mycolic acids?, lipids and waxes make up the cell wall

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis= lipid and wax cell wall

Mycoplasma pneumoniaethere is no cell wall

328. What is the cause of cervical cancer??

hpv

329. Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol???

Act on ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis

330. Q about multiple sclerosis!!!!

Seen as plaques of demyelination in CNS??

331. Four choices of combination of O2,Co2, and N were given...Which would Affect the central chemoreceptor the most??

CO2???

332. Patient have HepB would show??

Option: HBsAg, HBsAg antibodies, ...etc

333. What is the symptom of malabsorption??

Steatorrhea!!!

334. What cause bronchogenic carcinoma???

Asbesto....etc?

335. A few Q's about sterilization, OSHA. OSHA established for ??

Option: patient Health provider, public, employees...etc

336. Cell wall of mycoplasma made up of???

NO cell wall, its lipids and waxes??

337. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by elevated level of???

Serum Amylase and Lipase???

338. What is the main cause of Down Syndrome???

Option: Non-Disjunction, translocation, or Mosaic DS

All cause Trisomy 21, non-disjunction is most common cause

339. Hepatitis B what indicates active replicaiton??

HBeAg!!!!!

340. Listeria monocytoigens causes what?

341. If a susceptible person were given tetanus antitoxin what kind of immunity would result: Option:1. Innate 2. Natural active 3.Natural passive 4. artificial active 5. artificial passive

(If tetanus antitoxin is given, then, artificial passive immunity results, because tetanus antitoxin is nothing but antibodies aganist the toxin. since artificial antibodies are given from outside , it is called passive imunity.)

DENTAL ANATOMY--2006

342. Lots of Q's about Max/Mand 1st & 2nd premolars know them well and put more effort in learning their difference in shape , roots #, eruption, angulation, which one is more prone to have anamoli

343. Some Q's about TMJ & articular disc

344. High frequency Q's about Occlusion movement[ lateral movement, metrio,,, on the posterior teeth, Cuspid protective occlusion, Condylar guidance, Anterior guidance,...]

345. How many primary and permanent teeth are present in the 6.5 year old child??

346. Earliest sign of mixed dentition phase???

When Mand Centrals erupt

347. If upper first premolar had 3 roots, where would that be???

348. Cervical contours + contacts in Icp + anatomical features of premolars, anterior teeth and first molar??

349. A woman in her second trimester, took tetracycline, what teeth of her baby would be affected???

350. Amount of swallowing in one day??

[geez, I have search a lot of books to find answer , the only answer I found was in book by Okeson "597 times perday"]

351. Tooth formation stages and it histology and embryology??

352. What is the difference between Max 1st and 2nd Premolar??

353. Lot's of Q's on Premolars

354. What muscles moves the condyle Superior- Anteriorly- superioanterio-

( 3 Q's )

355. What are used to record mandibular movement in horizontal plane???

Gothich arch tracer?