PHYSICS]...lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. An object is placed at 2 cm from objective lens and final...

Space for Rough Work

CBT - 02 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

1/21

[ PHYSICS]

Choose the correct answer :

1. If taking Force, Length and Time to be the

fundamental quantities, then dimension of density is

(1) [ F–1 L–4 T2 ] (2) [ F L–4 T2 ]

(3) [ F2 L–4 T ] (4) [ F L3 T–2 ]

2. If the length and radius of cylindrical wire is

measured with vernier callipers are found to be

4.54 cm and 1.25 cm respectively, then the volume

of cylinder is

(1) 22.3 cm3 (2) 22.27 cm3

(3) 22 cm3 (4) 22.274 cm3

3. The momentum of a particle is given by

ˆ ˆ( sin cos )= ω + ω�

P a t i a t j then

(1) Momentum is perpendicular to force

(2) Momentum is parallel to force

(3) Angle between momentum and force is 60°

(4) Momentum is antiparallel to force

4. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with speed

100 m/s at a height of 2 km from ground. The

aeroplane when at point A drops a bomb to hit a

point B on the ground, the time taken by bomb to

reach from A to B is

(1) 10 s (2) 40 s

(3) 15 s (4) 20 s

5. L be the length of a chain, what is the maximum

length of the chain which can be held outside a

table without sliding? [where coefficient of friction

between chain and table is 1

2]

(1)3

L(2)

5

L

(3)2

3

L(4)

2

L

6. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle

of radius r, under a force equal to 2

k

r, where k is

constant, total energy of particle is

(1) –

k

r(2) –

2

k

r

(3)2

k

r(4)

k

r

7. If a light moving particle strikes a heavy target at

rest and sticks to it, then, which is true for particle?

(1) All the KE is lost (2) Half the KE is lost

(3) One third KE is lost (4) KE does not change

8. If two identical bodies move towards each other with

speeds 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, then

distance travelled by their centre of mass in interval

of 4 s is

(1) 5 m

(2) 10 m

(3) 2.5 m

(4) 20 m

Time : 3:30 Hrs. MM : 200CBT - 02


All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A)

2/21

9. A rod AB of mass M and length L is lying on a

smooth horizontal surface. A particle of mass m

strikes to end A elastically with speed v0 in a

direction perpendicular to AB. After collision if

particle comes to rest, then the distance of point

from B which is in rest just after the collision is

(1)3

L(2)

2

3

L

(3)4

L(4)

3

4

L

10. A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a child sits

gently on it, then angular momentum of system

(1) Decreases

(2) Increases

(3) Remains constant

(4) Is zero

11. If a planet of mass m is revolving around Sun of

mass M in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a

then the total mechanical energy of planet is

(1) –GMm

a(2)

2–

GmM

a

(3) –2

GMm

a(4)

3–

GMm

a

12. A body is projected from surface of earth with speed

2gR where R is radius of Earth and g is

acceleration due to gravity then total energy of body

is

(1) Positive

(2) Negative

(3) Zero

(4) May be positive or negative

13. The pressure of water in a water pipe when the tap

is closed and opened are respectively

2.5 × 105 N/m2 and 2 × 105 N/m2. The velocity of

water flowing through the pipe when tap is opened is

(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 5 m/s (4) 15 m/s

14. A vessel contains oil of density ρ1 over mercury of

density ρ2. A homogeneous sphere floats with half

its volume immersed in mercury and other half in oil.

The density of material of sphere is

(1) (ρ1 + ρ

2)

(2) (ρ1 – ρ

2)

(3)1 2

( )

2

ρ + ρ

(4)1 2

( – )

2

ρ ρ

15. Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height

of 25 m. The ratio of the cross-section area of the

orifice and the beaker is 0.1. Speed of liquid coming

from orifice if it is at 5 m from bottom is

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 m/s

(2) 10 m/s

(3) 5 m/s

(4) 30 m/s

16. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between

x = –A and x = +A. The time taken for it to go from

0 to 2

A is T

1 and 0 to A is T

2, then

(1) T1 = 4T

2

(2) T1 = 3T

2

(3) T2 = 3T

1

(4) T2 = 4T

1



3/21

17. If a metal object is heated to temperature T1 and

then allowed to cool in a room which is at T0, then

the variation between temperature (T) and time (t) is

(1)T

0

t

T

T1

(2)T

0

t

T

T1

(3)

T0

t

T

T1

(4)T

0

t

T

T1

18. Two moles of a monoatomic gas are mixed with two

moles of a diatomic gas, the value of p

v

C

C for the

mixture is

(1) 1.42 (2) 1.5

(3) 3.4 (4) 2.5

19.28

litre5

of argon gas at STP is adiabatically

compressed to 7

litre10

. Taking the initial

temperature T1, work done in this process is

(1) 1

9

8RT (2) 1

1

8RT

(3) 1

3

4RT (4) 1

9

2RT

20. P-V diagram for monoatomic gas is shown in

diagram. The amount of heat absorbed by the

source in a single cycle is

A

B C

DP0

2P0

V0 2V

0

V

P

(1) P0V

0(2) 0 0

11

2PV

(3) 0 0

13

2PV (4)

0 0

4

PV

21. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at

one end resonates with minimum frequency 80 Hz.

If end correction is neglected then length of pipe is

(1) 100 cm (2) 50 cm

(3) 200 cm (4) 300 cm

22. A source of frequency f approaches to a stationary

observer at a speed of v. The frequency and

wavelength observed by observer respectively

(1) Increase, decrease

(2) Decrease, increase

(3) Increase, increase

(4) Increase, constant

23. If the sound level at a point 5 m away from a point

source is 40 dB. Then sound level at a point 50 m

away from the source is

(1) 20 dB

(2) 10 dB

(3) 80 dB

(4) 90 dB



4/21

24. Three charges Q, 4e and 4e are placed at vertex of

a right angle isosceles triangle. If Q is placed at

vertex other than right angle, then value of Q for zero

electrostatic potential energy of system is

(1)–4 2

( 2 1)

e

+ (2)–4

(2 2)

e

+

(3)–4

1 2

e

+(4) –4e

25. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to V volt

battery, after full charging it is disconnected and

reconnected with battery in reverse polarity. Heat lost

in connecting wires is

(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV2

(3)21

2CV (4) 4CV2

26. In the following circuit, the potential drop across the

resistance R2, just after switch S is closed is

C

V

S

R1

R2

(1) 2

1

VR

R× (2) 1

2

VR

R×

(3) Zero (4) 2

1 2( )

VR

R R×

+

27. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a

current I, it is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0

such that B0 is perpendicular to the plane of the

loop. The tension produced in the loop is

(1) IrB0

(2) 2IrB0

(3)0

2

IrB(4) Zero

28. Coercivity of a ferromagnetic material in the core of

solenoid is 3 × 103 Am–1. The current required to be

passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and 100 number

of turns so that material gets demagnetised is

(1) 30 A (2) 3 A

(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.03 A

29. If semicircular conducting ring is entering in

perpendicular magnetic field then the direction of

induced current is

O

R

ω B

(1) First anticlockwise then clockwise

(2) Clockwise

(3) Zero current

(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise

30. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an

uniform magnetic field B directed along positive

z-axis. The direction of induced current as seen from

z-axis will be

(1) Clockwise of the positive z-axis

(2) Anticlockwise of the positive z-axis

(3) No current is induced

(4) Along magnetic field

31. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy required to

remove an electron from ground state of singly

ionized He atom is

(1) 1.51 eV (2) 54.4 eV

(3) 13.6 eV (4) 6.8 eV

32. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron

emitted from a surface when photons of energy

8 eV falls on it is, 2 eV. The stopping potential is

(1) 6 V (2) 4 V

(3) 2 V (4) 8 V



5/21

33. The electron is emitted from nucleus in beta radiation

when

(1) Proton is converted into neutron

(2) Neutron is converted into proton

(3) Neutrino is converted into antineutrino

(4) Antineutrino is converted into neutrino

34. During a nuclear fusion reaction

(1) A heavy nucleus breaks in two fragments by

itself

(2) A light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons

breaks up

(3) Heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutron

breaks up

(4) Two light nuclei combine to give a heavier

nucleus and possibly other products

35. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV

and that for C13 is 7.5 MeV. The energy required to

remove a neutron from C13 is

(1) 0.28 MeV (2) 9.3 MeV

(3) 5.34 MeV (4) 6.32 MeV

36. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge

carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n

junctions are

(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias

(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias

(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse biasing

(4) Drift in both forward and reverse biasing

37. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The

magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 1.5.

Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their

individual focal length (in cm)?

(1) 90, –60 (2) 15, –10

(3) 50, –75 (4) 75, –50

38. In a compound microscope the focal length of two

lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. An object is placed

at 2 cm from objective lens and final image is at

25 cm from eyepiece. The magnification is

(1) 5 (2) 15

(3) 12 (4) 7.5

39. The wavelength of light used in YDSE is λ. If

intensity of central maxima is I0, then intensity at

point where the path difference is 6

λ

(1)0

3

4

I(2)

0

2

I

(3) I0

(4) 2I0

40. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism

such that ray suffers minimum deviation and angle of

emergence is 3

4th of angle of prism. The angle of

deviation is

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 90°

In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of

assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason

(R).

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).

(4) If both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements, then mark (4).



6/21

41. A : Angle and strain are dimensionless.

R : Angle has unit and strain has no unit.

42. A : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity

is zero at an instant.

R : A body is at momentary rest when it reverses

its direction of motion.

43. A : The shaft of motors are provided with ball

bearings.

R : The rolling friction is lesser than sliding friction.

44. A : Work done by a force may be different in

different frame of references.

R : Work is an invariant physical quantity.

45. A : A shell at rest explodes, the centre of mass of

fragments move along a straight line.

R : In explosion linear momentum of system is not

conserved.

46. A : Gravitational potential on a planet may be

negative, positive and zero.

R : Gravitational potential at a point may depend

upon reference point.

47. A : The velocity of water increases when it is flowing

in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.

R : According to equation of continuity, product of

area and velocity is constant.

48. A : Blue star is at high temperature than red star.

R : According to Wein’s displacement law λm

T = constant, λm

= wavelength corresponding to

maximum intensity, T = temperature.

49. A : When the temperature of a black body is

doubled from T K to 2T K, the radial power

becomes 16 times.

R : The radiant power of a body is proportional to

fourth power of absolute temperature.

50. A : The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum in non

viscous medium remains same with time.

R : The frequency of oscillation decreases with time.

51. A : The potential of grounded conducting body is

taken to be zero.

R : Capacitance of Earth is very large.

52. A : When the plates of a charged capacitor are

connected to a resistor, a current starts flowing

in the resistor.

R : A charged capacitor acts as a battery of steady

emf.

53. A : Magnetic field will be tangential to magnetic field

line.

R : Magnitude of magnetic field is inversely

proportional to area by which field lines are

passing.

54. A : EM waves are transverse in nature.

R : EM waves exert radiation pressure.

55. A : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and

sunset during day.

R : The ray deviates after refraction by Earth’s

atmosphere.

56. A : A single lens cannot be free from chromatic

aberration.

R : When white light passes through lens,

dispersion must occur.

57. A : Polarisation of light is sure indication of

transverse nature of light.

R : Diffraction is a sure indication of wave nature.

58. A : A photoelectric effect can take place only with

an electron bound in the lattice.

R : Photoelectric effect confirms particle nature of

light.

59. A : Wavelength of Lyman series is less than that of

Balmer series.

R : In hydrogen spectrum Balmer series belongs to

visible spectrum.

60. A : A nucleus contains no electron, but can eject

them.

R : γ-rays are emitted by the excited nuclei.



7/21

[ CHEMISTRY ]

61. Hybridisation of central atom in SF4 molecule is

(1) sp3d (2) dsp3

(3) sp3 (4) d2sp3

62. The oxidation number of oxygen in CsO2 molecule is

(1) –2 (2) –1

(3)1

–2

(4) +1

63. According to IUPAC nomenclature, ‘Alkoxycarbonyl’

is a prefix used for

(1) Ethers (2) Esters

(3) Acid halides (4) Amides

64. Which of the following sets of axial angles and edge

lengths represent minimum number in Bravais

lattices?

(1) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b = c

(2) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b ≠ c

(3) α = β = γ = 90° and a ≠ b ≠ c

(4) α = β = γ ≠ 90° and a = b = c

65. The physical process involved in chromatography is

(1) Distillation (2) Sublimation

(3) Adsorption (4) Liquation

66. Lactose on hydrolysis gives

(1) β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

(2) α-D-galactose and α-D-glucose

(3) α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

(4) β-D-galactose and α-D-glucose

67. The rate of reaction A ⎯→ B, is 5.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1.

The time in which the concentration of reactants changed

from 0.04 mol L–1 to 0.03 mol L–1 is

(1) 0.2 s (2) 2.0 s

(3) 0.8 s (4) 1.3 s

68. Which of the following reactions has Kp = K

c?

(1)5 3 2

PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g)+��⇀↽��

(2)3 2 2

2NH (g) N (g) 3H (g)+��⇀↽��

(3)2 2

H (g) CI (g) 2HCI(g)+ ��⇀↽��

(4) 2 2 2

1H (g) O (g) H O(l)

2+ ��⇀

↽��

69. The geometry around boron atom in boric acid is

(1) Trigonal planar

(2) Tetrahedral

(3) Pyramidal

(4) Linear

70. Total number of optically active compound(s) formed

in the given reaction is

CH3

HPh

HO

3

(i) HCN/OH

(ii) H O

−

+⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

71. For the estimation of nitrogen, 7 g of an organic

compound was digested by Kjeldhahl’s method and

the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 200 ml of M

20

sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 100 ml

of M

10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization.

The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

(1) 2% (2) 6%

(3) 5% (4) 10%



8/21

72. Relative percentage yields of (A) and (B),

respectively in the following reaction are expected to

be

H C – CH – CH3 3

CH3

+ Cl2

hνH C – C – CH

3 3

CH3

Cl

(A)

+

H C – CH – CH – Cl3 2

CH3

(B)

(1) 50%, 50% (2) 64.29%, 35.71%

(3) 35.71%, 64.29% (4) 40%, 60%

73. The E° value of cell reaction will be

2 2 3Fe (aq) Cu (aq) Fe (aq) Cu (aq)+ + + ++ ⎯⎯→ +

[Given, 2 3 2

o o

Cu |Cu Fe |FeE a volt, E b volt+ + + += = ]

(1) b – a (2) a – b

(3) a + b (4) –(a + b)

74. Which of the following elements has the least

tendency to form ionic compounds?

(1) Be (2) Ca

(3) K (4) Na

75. Identify the paramagnetic species among the

following

(1) K4[Fe(CN)

6] (2) [Ni(CO)

4]

(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [NiCl

4]2–

76. R3SiCl on hydrolysis followed by heating forms

(1) R3SiOH (2) R

3SiOSiR

3

(3) R2SiO (4) Si(OR)

4

77. Out of the following, which forms buffer on mixing?

(1) 20 ml of 0.5 M CH3COOH and 50 ml of 0.2 M

NaOH

(2) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH and 100 ml of 0.1 M

KOH

(3) 75 ml of 0.1 M NaOH and 150 ml of 0.1 M

CH3COOH

(4) 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH and 10 ml of 0.5 M

HCOOH

78. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons,

respectively in phosphate anion are

(1) 50, 47 & 48 (2) 47, 48 & 50

(3) 42, 41 & 40 (4) 40, 41 & 42

79. If the value of l indicates a subshell, then maximum

number of electrons that can be accommodated in

any subshell is given by

(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2

(3) 2l + 2 (4) 2l – 2

80. The correct stability order of the following carbanions is

CH – CH3 2

(I)

H C = CH – CH2 2

(II)

C H C6 5

H2

(III)

HC C≡(IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I < IV < II < III

(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II < I < III < IV

81. H C – CH – CH = CH3 2

CH3

H /H O+

2 A (major)

B H /THF2 3

H O /OH2 2

B

Hg(OCOCH )/H O3 2

NaBH4

C

The correct statement regarding above reactions is

(1) Products A and B are same

(2) Products B and C are same

(3) Products C and A are same

(4) Products A, B and C are isomers



9/21

82. Most volatile substance among the following is

(1) CH3 – CH

2 – CH

2 – NH

2

(2) (CH3)3N

(3) (C2H

5)2NH

(4) CH3

– CH2 – CH

2 – OH

83.Sn/HCl

3(Major )

CH Cl AgCN A B+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Sn/HCl

3(Major )

CH Cl NaCN C D+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Sn/HCl

3 2 3CH NH CHCl KOH E F+ + ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Select the incorrect option regarding above reaction

sequences

(1) B & F are identical

(2) D and F are identical

(3) D & F are functional isomers

(4) B & D are functional isomers

84. Wavelength of second line in the Brackett series of

hydrogen spectrum is

(1)H

144 R

5(2)

H5 R

144

(3)H

11

15R(4)

H

144

5 R

85. Which of the following is the correct ratio of root

mean square speed to average speed of a gas

molecule at a particular temperature?

(1) 1.086 : 1

(2) 3.946 : 3

(3) 1 : 1.086

(4) 1.086 : 2

86. The number of dichlorobutane isomers (structural

only) which can be formed by the reaction of

CH3CH

2CH

2CH

3 with Cl

2/hν is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

87. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H

10O

2 was

treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex

so formed was treated with H2SO

4 and heated to

give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone

with molecular formula C8H

8O which shows positive

iodoform test. The structure of (A) is

(1) C2H

5COOC

6H

5

(2) C6H

5COOC

2H

5

(3)

COCH3

OCH3

(4) H C – O – CH – C – C H3 2 6 5

O

88. In the given reaction sequence product ‘C’ is

OCH OH

2

5 6 5PCl C H OHMg

etherA B CΔ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(1)O

CH2

O

(2) C6H

5OCH

3

(3)

OOCH

3

(4)

OCH

3



10/21

89. Match the complexes given in column I with the

hybridisation and primary valency in column II and

assign the correct code.

Column I Column II

a. [Cr(H2O)

6]Cl

3(i) sp3d2, 2

b. [Co(NH3)6]Br

3(ii) sp3d2, 3

c. [Ni(NH3)6]Cl

2(iii) d2sp3, 3

d. K3[FeF

6] (iv) d2sp3, 2

(1) a(iii), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

90. A black compound of manganese reacts with a

halogen acid (Y) to give greenish yellow gas (X).

When excess of (X) is reacted with NH3 gas then Y

and Z compounds are formed. The species X, Y and

Z respectively are

(1) MnCl2, HCl and Cl

2(2) Cl

2, HCl and NCl

3

(3) HCl, Cl2

and NCl3

(4) F2, HF and NF

3

91. In one solid substance A atoms are at corners, B

atoms are at face centres, C atoms are at

octahedral voids and D atoms are at tetrahedral

voids in a cube. If atoms touching one body diagonal

plane is removed then what is the formula of the

compound?

(1) AB3C

4D

8(2) AB

6C

5D

8

(3) AB4C

5D

8(4) AB

4C

6D

8

92. Metal rod M is dipped in 0.2 M solution of MSO4.

The salt is 80% dissociated at this dilution at

298 K. The reduction electrode potential of metal will

be 2

0

M | M(E –0.7 V)+ =

(1) –0.6765 V

(2) +0.6765 V

(3) +0.7235 V

(4) –0.7235 V

93. IUPAC name of the following compound is

H C–CH –CH –CH–CH–CH –3 2 2 2

CH –CH –CH 2 2 3

CH2

H C–C–CH3 3

CH3

CH3

H C–C–CH3 3

CH2

(1) Bis-4,5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)nonane

(2) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)-4-

propylnonane

(3) 4,5-Dineopentyldecane

(4) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(3′,3′-dimethylpropyl)nonane

94. In the given compound

H C – C – C = CH – CH – CH – CH3 3

H

H – CH2

H H

H(i)

(ii) (iii) (iv)

(v)

The correct order of reactivity of H atoms towards

free radical substitution is

(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (v) > (iii)

(2) (ii) > (i) > (v) > (iii) > (iv)

(3) (v) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)

(4) (ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)

95. Equal volumes of two strong acids having pH = 4

and pH = 6 are mixed. How much volume of this

mixture is required to neutralise the 100 ml 0.2 N

NaOH solution?

(1) 3.96 litre (2) 3.96 ml

(3) 3.96 × 105 ml (4) 3.96 × 106 ml



11/21

96. Ammonium carbamate dissociates as

2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+��⇀

↽��

In a closed vessel containing ammonium carbamate

in equilibrium, ammonia is added such that the

partial pressure of ammonia at new equilibrium is 3

2

times to the original total pressure. The ratio of total

pressure now to the original pressure is

(1)761

486(2)

9

2

(3)16

81(4)

31

27

97. The equivalent mass of X2 in the following reaction

(molecular mass is M) is

NaOH

2 3 2X NaX NaXO H OΔ⎯⎯⎯→ + +

(1)M

5(2)

2M

5

(3)3M

5(4)

M

2

98. A list of species having the formula XY4 is given

below

XeF4, SF

4, SiF

4, BF

4, BrF

4, [Cu(NH

3)4]2+, [FeCl

4]2–,

[NiCl4]2– and [PdCl

4]2–

Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and

Y atoms, the total number of species having a

square planar shape is

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

99. If the molality of NaOH in D2O is 20 m, then

difference between mole fractions of D2O and NaOH

will be

(1)2

7(2)

5

7

(3)1

7(4)

3

7

100. 5 g impure NaOH is completely neutralised by one

litre 0.1 M HCl. The percentage purity of NaOH

sample is

(1) 80% (2) 60%

(3) 40% (4) 20%

In the following questions (101 to 120), a statement

of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason

(R).





101. A : Beryllium fluoride is highly soluble in water.

R : Beryllium forms [Be(H2O)

4]2+ due to its

hydration.

102. A : Physical adsorption takes place on the surface

only.

R : Chemical adsorption takes place on the surface

as well as in the bulk.

103. A : Zinc is not considered as transition element.

R : Zinc does not show variable oxidation state.



12/21

104. A : The electron gain enthalpy of nitrogen is positive.

R : Nitrogen atom has very small size and half filled

p-subshell.

105. A : LiHCO3 cannot be obtained in solid state.

R : Carbonates and bicarbonates of Li are less

stable than rest of the alkali metals.

106. A : Energy is absorbed for the transition of e– from

4s to 3d level in hydrogen atom.

R : Energy of electron in all atoms depends on n + l

value.

107. A : Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is equal to that of

0.1 M glucose solution.

R : When molarity of two solutions is same then

their osmotic pressure are same.

108. A : Entropy of egg increases on boiling.

R : Generally randomness decreases on the

conversion of liquid to solid.

109. A : Ga has larger atomic radius than Al.

R : Generally on moving down the group atomic

radius decreases.

110. A : The dichromate ion is relatively stable in acidic

medium and converts into chromate ion in

alkaline medium.

R : The colour of dichromate ion is due to the charge

transfer spectrum

111. A : Non-metallic character increases and metallic

character decreases on moving from left to right

in periodic table.

R : Both ionisation enthalpy and electron gain

enthalpy decrease from left to right in periods.

112. A : Enzymes are naturally occurring simple or

conjugate proteins.

R : Enzymes are highly pH sensitive.

113. A : Aromatic aldehydes are more reactive than

aliphatic aldehydes towards nucleophillic addition

reactions.

R : Aromatic aldehyde on nucleophillic addition gives

product with one less carbon.

114. A : CFC’s are stable compounds.

R : CFC’s undergo decomposition in presence of UV

radiation in the stratosphere.

115. A : is an aromatic compound.

R : Out of 8π electrons, it has 6π electrons in one

ring following Huckel rule.

116. A : ΔH is one of the contributory factor in deciding

spontaneity.

R : ΔH = positive, means process is always

spontaneous.

117. A : The heat released in hydrogenation of benzene

is three times to the cyclohexene.

R : Benzene has degree of unsaturation three and

cyclohexene has degree of unsaturation one.

118. A : Cu+ ion is more stable than Cu2+ in aqueous

solution.

R : Cu2+ has [Ar]3d10 (fully filled configuration) where

as Cu+ is not having fully filled 3d configuration.

119. A : For a fixed amount of an ideal gas PV is always

constant at constant temperature where P is

pressure and V is volume.

R : PV value for ideal gas is directly proportional to

temperature even if mass is not constant.

120. A : Aqueous gold colloidal sol can be red in colour.

R : The colour arises due to scattering of light by

particles of gold in the gold sol.



13/21

[ BIOLOGY ]

121. The ploidy level of rhizoids, protonema, leaf,

oosphere, androcyte mother cell, apophysis and

calyptra in Funaria are respectively

(1) N, 2N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N

(2) N, N, N, N, N, 2N and N

(3) N, N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N

(4) N, N, N, 2N, 2N, 2N and 2N

122. How many of the given plants belong to the family

with floral formula ⊕+

P A G(3+3) 3+3 (3)?

Petunia, Colchicum Atropa AlliumCapsicum Glycine Solanum AloeLycopersicum Gloriosa Nicotiana

, , ,

, , , ,

, ,

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 5 (4) 4

123. Find out the incorrect match.

(1) Steller’s sea cow – Russia

(2) Thylacine – Australia

(3) Quagga – America

(4) Dodo – Mauritius

124. Given below is the sequence of nucleotides on

m-RNA

5′ AUG UUU GUG UCA AGU UAA 3′

How many amino acid could be coded before and

after replacement of 11 th nucleotide by G,

respectively?

(1) 5, 5 (2) 5, 3

(3) 3, 3 (4) 3, 5

125. Relationship between sea anemone and hermit crab

is

(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism

(3) Predation (4) Protocooperation

126. Cyclosporin-A is

(1) Produced by actinomycetes

(2) Cholesterol lowering agent

(3) Immunosuppressive agent

(4) Used for clearing of fruit juice

127. Oxidative decarboxylation occurs in Krebs cycle

when

(1) Oxalosuccinic acid ⎯→ α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) α-ketoglutaric acid ⎯→ Succinyl CoA

(3) Succinyl CoA ⎯→ Succinic acid

(4) Malic acid ⎯→ Oxaloacetic acid

128. Match the columns

Column I Column II

a. Soap box like cell wall (i) Chl a and Chl b

b. Mixotrophic nutrition (ii) Ciliated protozoans

c. Dimorphic nucleus (iii) Passive floating

d. Gonyaulax (iv) Red tide

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

129. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fungi which

reproduce asexually by exogenous spores and

sexually by endogenous spores

(1) May be decomposers or parasites

(2) Do not possess delayed karyogamy

(3) Motile structures do not occur in the life cycle

(4) May not be symbiont in ectomycorrhiza

130. Which one is the feature of monocot stem?

(1) Presence of phloem parenchyma

(2) Larger vascular bundles are arranged towards the

periphery

(3) Sclerenchymatous sheath surrounds each

vascular bundle

(4) Absence of schizolysigenous cavity



14/21

131. Four cells A, B, C and D have same osmotic

pressure but their turgor pressures are 10, 8, 6 and

4 respectively, if all four cells are interconnected

then movement of water will be

(1)A B

C D

(2)A B

C D

(3)A B

C D

(4)A B

C D


Column I Column II

(Mineral (Deficiency symptoms)

elements)

a. Fe (i) Grey speck in oats

b. Mo (ii) Loss of apical dominance

c. B (iii) Chlorosis in leaf

d. Mn (iv) Delayed flowering

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

133. Hormone Florigen is synthesised

(1) When photoperiod exceeds than the critical in

SDP

(2) If the plant is in juvenile phase

(3) In mature leaf if it gets appropriate photoperiodic

stimulus

(4) In senescent leaves

134. Choose the correct statement for meiosis

(1) Zygotene stage is longer than pachytene

(2) Leptotene stage is shorter than pachytene

(3) Diakinesis is marked by dissolution of the

synaptonemal complex

(4) Tetrad stage is not a result of synapsis of

homologous chromosomes

135. If a female plant is hexaploid (6n) and a male plant

is diploid then find out the ploidy of embryo and

endosperm in seeds of angiosperms and

gymnosperms respectively?

(1) 5n, 7n & 5n, 3n

(2) 4n, 7n & 4n, 7n

(3) 4n, 7n & 7n, 4n

(4) 4n, 7n & 4n, 3n

136. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. cell organelles and

their functions

(1) Mitochondria – ATP synthesis

(2) Chloroplast – Glucose synthesis

(3) Peroxisome – Photophosphorylation

(4) Nucleolus – Ribosome synthesis

137. A plant with genotype AABB is 20 cm tall, crossed

with 12 cm tall plant with genotype aabb. F1 of this

cross is 16 cm tall. If it is a polygenic trait then in

F2 generation, how many plants have height 16 cm

and 14 cm respectively?

(1) 4 & 6

(2) 6 & 4

(3) 4 & 2

(4) 4 & 4

138. Identify the correct statement regarding

photosynthesis.

(1) Oxygen in glucose comes from H2O

(2) RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for O2 than

CO2

(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation operates under high

light intensity and aerobic conditions

(4) H+ concentration is more in lumen than stroma

to produce proton motive force during ATP

synthesis through chemiosmosis



15/21

139. Match the following

Column I Column II

a. Brassica (i) Protein rich

b. Mung bean (ii) Hill bunt

c. Himgiri (iii) White rust

d. Atlas-66 (iv) Yellow mosaic virus

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

140. Read the following statements carefully.

a. Snow-blindness is caused by UV-C radiation.

b. Montreal protocol was signed at Canada to

control the emission of ozone depleting

substances.

c. Euro III norms stipulate that sulphur be

controlled at 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in

petrol.

d. Electrostatic precipitator can remove over

99 percent of particulate matter present in the

exhaust from a thermal power plant.

How many statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

141. Arrival of an impulse at axon terminals stimulates the

movement of synaptic vesicles towards

A membrane in a/an B synapse.

Select the option filling both blanks correctly.

(1) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Electrical

(2) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Chemical

(3) A– Post-synaptic, B– Electrical

(4) A– Post-synaptic, B– Chemical

142. The cause of sudden increase of LH hormone in the

mid cycle is

(1) Negative feedback of estrogen on the anterior

pituitary

(2) Negative feedback of progestrone on the

hypothalamus

(3) Positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior

pituitary

(4) Positive feedback of FSH on the ovary

143. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.

Myasthenia gravis?

(1) Antibodies inhibit the activity of acetylcholine-

sterase enzyme competitively

(2) Antibodies mask the acetylcholine receptors on

sarcolemma

(3) Antibodies destroy the acetylcholine receptors of

presynaptic membrane at neuromuscular

junction

(4) Antibodies bind to presynaptic membrane and

inhibit the release of acetylcholine

144. Choose the correct option w.r.t cardiac muscles.

(1) Communication junctions between cardiac

muscle fibres allow the cells of atria to contract

as a single unit

(2) Z-lines of cardiac muscles are composed of

actin proteins

(3) Molecular basis for contraction of heart muscles

is Ca2+ – calmodulin binding

(4) Multinucleated fibres are held together at

intercalated discs



16/21

145. Which of the following will be incorrect w.r.t. joint

diastole stage of a cardiac cycle?

(1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves remain open during

joint diastole

(2) The semilunar valves remain open throughout the

joint diastole to allow ventricles to receive blood

(3) Blood from vena cava flows into right ventricle

through right atrium

(4) Blood from pulmonary veins flows into left

ventricle through left atrium

146. The statements which are correct for the human

eye/vision are

a. In human eye, maximum refraction occurs when

light passes through lens.

b. The space between cornea and the lens is

called aqueous chamber

c. Vitreous humor is continuously renewed by

drainage and synthesis throughout life

d. Visual cortex area of the brain is located in

frontal lobe of cerebrum

(1) a & b (2) Only b

(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & d

147. The structure of human ear that lies immediately on

top of stereocilia of sensory hair cells of Organ of

Corti is

(1) Otolith (2) Basilar membrane

(3) Tectorial membrane (4) Reissner's membrane

148. The pair of hormones acting on pancreas to

stimulate secretion of water and bicarbonates from it

and to stimulate secretion of digestive enzymes from

it respectively, is

(1) GIP and CCK-PZ

(2) Secretin and GIP

(3) Secretin and Cholecystokinin-pancreozymin

(4) Cholecystokinin and Secretin

149. Injection of tetanus anti-toxin in a person for quick

recovery from possibly fatal symptoms will be called

(1) Passive immunisation

(2) Secondary/Anamnestic immune response

(3) Primary immune response

(4) Artificial active immunity

150. Which of the following is a successful product of

application of RNAi technique in plants?

(1) Fortified golden rice

(2) GM Bt cotton

(3) Nematode resistant tobacco plant

(4) Production of Hirudin from Brassica napus

151. In the initial rDNA experiments conducted by Eli-Lilly

to produce humulin in E.coli, the protein chains

obtained from bacteria

(1) Included an essential C-peptide chain

(2) Included separate A and B protein chains which

combined to form active human insulin

(3) Were joined by ionic bonds to form active

human insulin

(4) Could be administered orally to diabetics

152. Natural selection theory proposed by Charles Darwin

for explaining ‘organic evolution’ was based on which

of the following concepts?

(1) Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable

variations which led to survival of those having

the variations

(2) Inheritance of somatic characteristics acquired

through a life long use or disuse

(3) Differential reproduction rates, struggle for

existence and survival of the fittest

(4) Continuity of germplasm



17/21

153. Which of the following statements will be incorrect

in the context of modern concept of evolution?

(1) Interbreeding among members of different

species is prevented by reproductive isolation

barriers

(2) A smaller gene pool will lead to significantly

large variations, helping the species to dominate

all competitors

(3) Ultimate source of all variations are mutations

(4) A multicellular body is divisible into somatoplasm

and germplasm and only changes in germplasm

are inheritable

154. Emergency contraceptives are most effective when

administered any time within ______ period following

unprotected coitus

(1) Seven day (2) Six day

(3) Three day (4) Four day

155. The formation of a second polar body and a haploid

ovum in humans occurs

(1) Within the ovary by completion of unequal

meiotic division of oocyte

(2) In the fallopian tube, induced by entry of sperm

into the oocyte

(3) In the fallopian tube by completion of second but

equal meiotic division

(4) Within the ovary; induced by LH surge

156. With respect to molecules present in a cell, the

incorrect statement will be

(1) Low temperature destroys the enzyme activity

while high temperature preserves the enzyme in

inactive state

(2) Biocatalysts in a cell can be both proteinaceous

and nucleic acid in nature

(3) Structure of glycogen is similar to amylopectin

part of starch

(4) Glucose is an aldo-hexose while fructose is a

keto-hexose

157. Selective destruction of zona fasciculata of adrenal

cortex would produce a deficiency of which

hormone?

(1) Aldosterone (2) Cortisol

(3) Androgenic steroids (4) DHEA

158. Presence of exoskeleton of thick cuticle, haemocoel;

metameric segmentation and tube within tube body

plan are features of

(1) Ancylostoma (2) Loligo

(3) Laccifer (4) Pheretima

159. Consider the following statements w.r.t. an animal

tissue.

(a) The intercellular material is solid and pliable,

resisting compression

(b) Cells are enclosed in small cavities called

lacunae within the matrix secreted by them

(c) The tissue interacts with smooth muscles to

bring about body movements

(d) It is the site of production of blood cells

The statements which are applicable to cartilage

include

(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (c) & (d)

(3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)

160. Select the correct statement w.r.t. internal ear of

humans

(1) The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is a

series of channels inside which lies the bony

labyrinth

(2) The Reissner’s and Basilar membrane divide the

surrounding perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an

upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani

(3) The space within cochlea, called scala media, is

filled with perilymph

(4) The entire bony labyrinth is filled with a fluid

called endolymph



18/21


of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R).





161. A : Growth is not a defining feature of living

beings.

R : Snow mountains show intrinsic growth.

162. A : Archaebacteria survive in extreme harsh

environment.

R : Archaebacteria have different composition of cell

wall and cell membrane than other bacteria.

163. A : In racemose type inflorescence, the main axis

terminates into a flower.

R : Solitary terminal flower is found in china rose.

164. A : In date palm, autogamy and geitonogamy are

absent.

R : Date palm is a dioecious plant.

165. A : Primary succession is a very slow process.

R : Primary succession starts in abandoned

farmlands, generally.

166. A : Ions are absorbed from the soil by active means

only.

R : Suberin layer in root endodermis is able to

transport ions in both directions.

167. A : Excitation of chlorophyll molecules after

absorption of sunlight is the first step of

photosynthesis.

R : Shield pigments protect chl-a from

photooxidation.

168. A : Generally red algae are found at great depths in

ocean.

R : Red algae reproduce by isogamy and

accompanied by complex post fertilization

developments.

169. A : The mycelium of basidiomycetes is septate.

R : Rust and smut fungi have dolipore septa and

fruiting body.

170. A : Inside the mature seed, the embryo is the

progenitor of the next generation.

R : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of

species between organisms of one generation

and the next.

171. A : In porifers, external fertilization takes place

R : Most porifers are found in fresh water.

172. A : All copulations do not result in fertilisation and

pregnancy.

R : Oocyte and sperms must simultaneously reach

the ampulla part of fallopian tube to result in

successful fertilization.

173. A : Biological response modifiers like α-interferons

can be used to activate a person’s immune

system and help in destroying tumors.

R : Interferons increase MHC-I expression on tumour

cells thereby increasing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

activity.

174. A : Evolution can be considered as a stochastic

process, based on chance events occurring in

nature.

R : Anthropogenic actions have resulted in selection

of antibiotic sensitive microbes and insects in a

time scale of years rather than centuries.

175. A : The compounds in the human eyes, composed

of retinal and opsin proteins, are photosensitive.

R : Light induces dissociation of retinal from opsins,

causing membrane permeability changes in

photo receptor cells.



19/21

181. Which of the following was India's Flag-bearer at the

closing ceremony of the 21st Commonwealth Games

2018?

(1) Mary Kom (2) Abhinav Bindra

(3) Heena Sidhu (4) P. V. Sindhu

182. Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the

following state of India?

(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Punjab (4) Odisha

183. India's first insect museum is situated which of the


(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Punjab

(3) Haryana (4) Odisha

184. Which state has highest number of fully covered

tribal habitations with the safe drinking water?

(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Odisha (4) Assam

[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]

185. The joint military exercise "Desert Tiger-5" was held

between UAE and which country?

(1) Malaysia (2) Cambodia

(3) Thailand (4) USA

186. 105th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC) has

been hosted in which of the following state of India?

(1) Manipur (2) Punjab

(3) Sikkim (4) Kerala

187. Stephen Hawking who has recently passed away,

belongs to which of the following country?

(1) USA (2) UK

(3) Japan (4) France

188. "Gevora" which has been claimed as world's tallest

hotel is situated in which of the following city?

(1) Dubai (2) Britain

(3) France (4) India

176. A : Human heart is called myogenic.

R : Neural signals through sympathetic nervous

system can increase the strength of ventricular

muscle contraction.

177. A : Malthus’ essay on principles of population

growth and study of finches of Galapagos

islands had huge influence on Darwin while he

conceptualized his natural selection theory.

R : Darwin conducted many artificial selection

experiments to support the concept of selection

by nature

178. A : Force of contraction of white skeletal muscle

fibres is vigorous but they undergo fatigue

rapidly.

R : White skeletal muscle fibres have abundant

sarcoplasmic reticulum but possess very less

quantity of myoglobin.

179. A : Vaccination provides usually permanent, long

term immunity to a child against deadly

diseases.

R : Vaccines generate memory B and T cells which

recognise the actual pathogen on a subsequent

exposure; overwhelming it with a massive

production of antibodies.

180. A : At high altitudes availability of oxygen reduces,

so it becomes more difficult for a person to

breathe.

R : Rate of breathing increases at high altitudes

along with occurrence of polycythemia in blood.



20/21

189. Which country will host 2018 Shanghai Cooperation

Organization (SCO) summit?

(1) India

(2) Thailand

(3) China

(4) Afghanistan

191. Find the odd one, out of the following numbers.

11, 13, 15, 17, 18, 19,

(1) 13 (2) 17

(3) 18 (4) 19

Directions (Q.192 & Q.193) : Refer to the following Venn

diagram:

16

19

99

14 1213

13

2018 18

15 16

History

Science

Mathematics

Geography

192. The number of students who took only three of the

above subjects is

(1) 62

(2) 63

(3) 64

(4) 66

193. The number of students who took at least two

subjects is

(1) 139 (2) 158

(3) 119 (4) 137

[ APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING ]

194. An accurate clock shows 7 o'clock in the morning.

Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate

when the clock shows 1 o'clock in the afternoon?

(1) 168º

(2) 180º

(3) 188º

(4) 200º

195. How many days are there in m2 weeks n days?

(1) 7m2 + m

(2) m2 + n

(3) 7m2 + n

(4) 7n2 + m

196. The missing number is

60

5 4

25

54

20 1

17

?

2 9

14

(1) 66

(2) 72

(3) 71

(4) 60

190. ARIES i.e Aryabhatta Research Institute of

observational Science is located in which of the

following state?

(1) Uttarakhand

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Punjab

(4) Bihar



21/21

197. Select the alternative, the box that can be formed by

folding the sheet shown in the given figure

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (C)

(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)

� � �

198. Select the correct number that is missing in the

number series given below:

13, 195, 15, 17, 323, 19, 21, ?, 23

(1) 441 (2) 399

(3) 483 (4) 575

199. In a certain code language, if the word 'UNIVERSAL'

is coded as 'AEILNRSUV' and 'FOUNDATION' is

coded as 'ADFINNOOTU', then how the word

'MANAGER' is coded in that language?

(1) AAEGNMR (2) AAEMGNR

(3) AAEGMNR (4) ARMENAG

200. Soldier : Regiment :: ?

(1) Wheels : Bearings (2) Coil : Motor

(3) Book : Printer (4) CO2

: Gas

CBT - 02 (Code A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

1/8

1. (2)

2. (1)

3. (1)

4. (4)

5. (1)

6. (2)

7. (1)

8. (2)

9. (1)

10. (3)

11. (3)

12. (3)

13. (1)

14. (3)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (1)

18. (2)

19. (1)

20. (3)

21. (1)

22. (1)

23. (1)

24. (1)

25. (2)

26. (3)

27. (1)

28. (2)

29. (1)

30. (3)

31. (2)

32. (3)

33. (2)

34. (4)

35. (3)

36. (2)

37. (2)

38. (2)

39. (1)

40. (1)

Test Date : 20/05/2018

CBT - 02 (CODE A)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2018

ANSWERS

41. (2)

42. (2)

43. (1)

44. (3)

45. (4)

46. (1)

47. (1)

48. (1)

49. (1)

50. (3)

51. (2)

52. (3)

53. (3)

54. (2)

55. (1)

56. (1)

57. (2)

58. (2)

59. (2)

60. (2)

61. (1)

62. (3)

63. (2)

64. (4)

65. (3)

66. (1)

67. (1)

68. (3)

69. (1)

70. (2)

71. (1)

72. (3)

73. (2)

74. (1)

75. (4)

76. (2)

77. (3)

78. (1)

79. (2)

80. (3)

81. (4)

82. (2)

83. (2)

84. (4)

85. (1)

86. (3)

87. (2)

88. (4)

89. (1)

90. (2)

91. (3)

92. (4)

93. (2)

94. (4)

95. (3)

96. (1)

97. (3)

98. (2)

99. (4)

100. (1)

101. (1)

102. (3)

103. (2)

104. (1)

105. (2)

106. (4)

107. (4)

108. (2)

109. (4)

110. (2)

111. (3)

112. (2)

113. (4)

114. (2)

115. (1)

116. (3)

117. (4)

118. (4)

119. (3)

120. (1)

121. (2)

122. (4)

123. (3)

124. (2)

125. (4)

126. (3)

127. (2)

128. (3)

129. (2)

130. (3)

131. (2)

132. (2)

133. (3)

134. (2)

135. (4)

136. (3)

137. (2)

138. (4)

139. (2)

140. (3)

141. (2)

142. (3)

143. (2)

144. (1)

145. (2)

146. (2)

147. (3)

148. (3)

149. (1)

150. (3)

151. (2)

152. (3)

153. (2)

154. (3)

155. (2)

156. (1)

157. (2)

158. (3)

159. (4)

160. (2)

161. (3)

162. (1)

163. (4)

164. (1)

165. (3)

166. (4)

167. (2)

168. (3)

169. (3)

170. (2)

171. (4)

172. (1)

173. (1)

174. (3)

175. (1)

176. (2)

177. (2)

178. (1)

179. (1)

180. (2)

181. (1)

182. (2)

183. (1)

184. (2)

185. (1)

186. (1)

187. (2)

188. (1)

189. (3)

190. (1)

191. (3)

192. (1)

193. (1)

194. (2)

195. (3)

196. (4)

197. (1)

198. (3)

199. (3)

200. (2)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints)

2/8

PHYSICS

1. Answer (2)

ρ = Fa lb Tc

ML–3 = [MLT–2]a [L]b [T]c

So a = 1, b = –4, c = 2

2. Answer (1)

3. Answer (1)

. 0F P =� �

4. Answer (4)

2hT

g=

5. Answer (1)

. ( )M M

lg L l gL L

μ = −

3

Ll =

6. Answer (2)

2

2

k mv

rr=

KE = –E

7. Answer (1)

8. Answer (2)

1 1 2 2

cm

1 2

mv m v

v

m m

+=

+

� �

�

9. Answer (1)

10. Answer (3)

ConstantL =�

0τ =�

11. Answer (3)

–2

GmME

a=

12. Answer (3)

2gR is equal to escape so total energy will be

zero

13. Answer (1)

P1 – P

2 =

21

2vρ ⇒ v = 10 m/s

14. Answer (3)

V1ρ

1g + V

2ρ

2g = Vρg

1 2

2

VV V= =

HINTS

15. Answer (1)

( )

1/2

2

2 1

2

1– /

ghv

A A

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦

16. Answer (3)

17. Answer (1)

loge(T – T

0) = –kt + c

18. Answer (2)

1 2

1 2

1 2

1 2

p pp

v v v

nC n CC

C nC n C

+=

+

19. Answer (1)

1

Δ=− γ

nR TW

20. Answer (3)

ΔQ1 = nC

vΔT + nC

pΔT

= 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 5[2 ] [4 2 ]

2 2− + −P V P V P V P V

= 0 0

13

2P V

21. Answer (1)

04

vf

l=

22. Answer (1)

23. Answer (1)

2

2 1 10

1

– 20logr

dB dBr

⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

24. Answer (1)

(4 ) 4 4 (4 )0

2

×+ + =kQ e k e e kQ e

a a a

25. Answer (2)

2 21 1

2 2+ Δ = +CV qv CV H

H = 2CV 2

26. Answer (3)

t = 0, R2 is short-circuited by capacitor

27. Answer (1)

θrTcosθT

θTcosθT

TsinθTsinθ

θ

CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

3/8

2T sinθ = IdLB

2Tθ = I2rθB

T = IrB

28. Answer (2)

B = μnI

29. Answer (1)

30. Answer (3)

31. Answer (2)

2

2

13.6–

zE E

n∞=

E = 54.5 eV

32. Answer (3)

E = W + ev0

33. Answer (2)

34. Answer (4)

35. Answer (3)

E = Δmc2

= (13 × 7.3 – 12 × 7.68) = 5.34 eV

36. Answer (2)

37. Answer (2)

1

2

3

2

f

f=

1 2

1 1 1

f f f= +

38. Answer (2)

L = v0 + u

e

0 0 0

1 1 1–

f v u=

1 1 1–

e e ef v u

=

39. Answer (1)

2

04 cos

2I I

φ=

2x

πφ = × Δλ

40. Answer (1)

δ = (i + e) – A

3

4i e A= = ×

41. Answer (2)

42. Answer (2)

43. Answer (1)

44. Answer (3)

45. Answer (4)

46. Answer (1)

47. Answer (1)

48. Answer (1)

49. Answer (1)

50. Answer (3)

51. Answer (2)

52. Answer (3)

53. Answer (3)

54. Answer (2)

55. Answer (1)

56. Answer (1)

57. Answer (2)

58. Answer (2)

59. Answer (2)

60. Answer (2)

CHEMISTRY

61. Answer (1)

For neutral molecule.

number of hybridised orbitals

(H) = 1

2 [Valence electron of central atom

+ number of monovalent surrounding atoms]

31H [6 4] 5

2= + = = sp d

62. Answer (3)

The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides is1

–2

.

63. Answer (2)

Alkoxycarbonyl is a prefix used for esters.

64. Answer (4)

Option (1) is cubic, has 3 bravais lattices

Option (2) is tetragonal, has 2 bravais lattices

Option (3) is orthorhombic, has 4 bravais lattices

Option (4) is rhombohedral, has 1 bravais lattice

which is minimum.

65. Answer (3)

Fact

66. Answer (1)

Fact

67. Answer (1)

Rate (r) = Change in concentration ( C)

time (t)

Δ

–2

–2 –2

C 0.01 10 1t 0.2 s

r 55 10 5 10

Δ= = = = =× ×


4/8

68. Answer (3)

gn

p cK K (RT)

Δ=If Δn

g = 0 then K

p = K

c

69. Answer (1)

B

HO

HO

OH( )sp

2

70. Answer (2)

71. Answer (1)

2 4 2 4H SO H SO NaOH NaOH

organic compound

(V N – V N )%N (1.4)

W=

1 1(200) – (100)

10 10(1.4) 2%

7

⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎢ ⎥= =

⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

72. Answer (3)

(1) (5) 500%A 100 35.71%

(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =

+

(9) (1) 900%B 100 64.29%

(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =

+

73. Answer (2)

Fe 2+

Fe + e3+ –

; E° = –b V

Cu + e 2+ –

Cu+

; E° = a V

Fe + Cu2+ 2+

Fe + Cu3+ + ; E = (a – b) volt

o

74. Answer (1)

According to Fajan’s rule.

75. Answer (4)

Option (1), (2) & (3) have zero number of unpaired

electrons.

[NiCl4]2– has Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8 has two unpaired

electrons.

76. Answer (2)

2R SiCl3

HOHR Si OH

3

R SiO H3

ΔR Si – O –

3SiR

3

77. Answer (3)

For acidic buffer, equivalents of weak acid >

equivalents of strong base.

78. Answer (1)

Electrons = 15 + 4(8) + 3(1) = 50

Protons = 15 + 4 × 8 = 47

Neutrons = 16 + 32 = 48

79. Answer (2)

Number of electrons in s, p, d, f are

0 + 2, 4 + 2, 8 + 2, 12 + 2

⇒ 4(0) + 2, 4(1) + 2, 4(2) + 2, 4(3) + 2

⇒ 4l + 2

80. Answer (3)

Correct order is

6 5 2 2 2 3 2HC C C H CH CH CH CH CH CH

−≡ > > = − >

81. Answer (4)

A is 3° alcohol, B is 1°alcohol and C is 2° alcohol

with same number of carbon.

82. Answer (2)

83. Answer (2)

A = CH3NC, B = CH

3–NH–CH

3, C = CH

3CN,

D = CH3–CH

2–NH

2, E = CH

3NC, F = CH

3–NH–CH

3

84. Answer (4)

2

H 2 2

1 2

1 1 1R z –

n n

⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥λ ⎣ ⎦

2

H

1 1R (1) –

16 36

⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

H

144

5Rλ =

85. Answer (1)

3RT 8RT 8C : C : 3 :

22M M

7

= =π

563 :

22= 3 : 2.545= = 1.732 : 1.595

= 1.086 : 1

86. Answer (3)

CH3CH CH CH

2 2 3

Cl /h2

ν

Cl

CH2–CH–CH –CH

2 3

Cl

+

Cl

CH2–CH –CH–CH

2 3

Cl

Cl

CH2–CH –CH –CH

2 2 2

Cl

+

Cl

CH3–C–CH CH

2 3+

Cl

CH3 3–CH–CH–CH

Cl

+

Cl

+

Cl

CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 3

+

Cl


5/8

87. Answer (2)

RCOOR + Excess′ 3° alcoholH SO

2 4

Alkeneozonolysis

KetoneC H O

(+ve iodoform)8 8

CH – C – C H3 6 5

O

(a) RMgX

Then in the ester one must be aryl group.

(a) is

C H – C – OC H6 5 2 5

CH MgX3

C H – C – CH6 5 3

OH

CH3

H SO2 4

C = CH2

H C5 6

H C3

C H – C – CH6 5 3

O

+ HC – H

O

Ozonolysis

O

88. Answer (4)

OCH Cl

2

A =

O CH MgCl2

B =

OCH

3

C =

89. Answer (1)

According to VBT and Werner theory of complexes.

90. Answer (2)

X = Cl2, Y = HCl, Z = NCl

3

91. Answer (3)

(3–1) (8 4) 1 4 5 81 31 4

2 2

A B C D A B C D−⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞− −⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

=

92. Answer (4)

Salt is 80% dissociated 2 80

[M ] 0.2 0.16100

+ = × =

M2+ + 2e– ⎯→ M(s)

According to Nernst equation,

2 2

o

2M /M M /M

0.0591 1E E – log

n [M ]+ + +=

0.0591 1–0.7 – log

2 0.16= = –0.7235 volt

93. Answer (2)

IUPAC name of following compound is

H C–CH3 2

–CH –CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 2 2 2 3

H C–C–CH 3 3

CH3

CH2

5 6 7 8 9

H C–C–CH 3 3

CH2

CH3

3

2

1

2,2-dimethyl-5-(2,2 dimethylpropyl)-4-propylnonane′−

4

1′

2′

3′

94. Answer (4)

(ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓allyl 2° 1° vinyl

and 3°

allyl

and 2°

95. Answer (3)

–4 –6

mix

(V)(10 ) (V)(10 )N

V V

+=+

= 5.05 × 10–5

NaOH, Vb = 100 ml, N

b = 0.2 N

Vmix

Nmix

= VbN

b

5

mix 5

2(100)

2010V 10 ml

5.055.05 10−

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠= = ×

× = 3.96 × 105 ml

96. Answer (1)

2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+��⇀

↽��

2P + P = 3P (initial total pressure)

Initial, Kp = (2P)2 (P) = 4P3

After addition of NH3 ⇒

3NH

3 9P (3P) P

2 2= =

Let 2

COP x=

then

2

39P (x) 4P

2

⎛ ⎞ =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

2

381P(x) 4P

4

⎛ ⎞=⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

3

2

16P 16x P

8181P= =

9 16P P

Final total P 7612 81

3PInitial total P 486

1

+= =

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠


6/8

97. Answer (3)

Molar massE

n-factor=

5n-factor

3=

98. Answer (2)

XeF4 , BrF4 , [Cu(NH

3)4]2+ and [PdCl

4]2– are square

planar.

99. Answer (4)

2

NaOH

D O

n20m

1 W in kg= = , n

NaOH = 20,

2D OW 1 kg=

2D O

1000n 50

20= =

XNaOH

= 2

7,

2D O

5X

7=

∴ Difference is 3

7

100. Answer (1)

eq. NaOH = eq HCl

x(1) (0.1)

40= ⇒ x = 4g

% purity = 4

100 80%5

× =

101. Answer (1)

Compounds forming complex ions are highly soluble

in water.

102. Answer (3)

Adsorption is a surface phenomena.

103. Answer (2)

Zinc is not a transition element because it has

completely filled d-orbitals.

104. Answer (1)

Reason is correct explanation of (A) and both are

correct.

105. Answer (2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct

explanation for (A).

106. Answer (4)

For hydrogen energy depends on only ‘n’ value. So

energy is released when electron comes from 4s to

3d.

107. Answer (4)

van’t Hoff factor for NaCl is 2 and for glucose is one.

108. Answer (2)

In the denaturation of protein (boiling of egg) entropy

increases.

109. Answer (4)

Al has more radius than Ga. This is due to poor

shielding in Ga.

110. Answer (2)

Both (A) & (R) are correct.

111. Answer (3)

IE and EA increases from left to right in periodic

table.

112. Answer (2)

Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not correct

explanation of (A).

113. Answer (4)

R – CHO is more reactive than ArCHO.

114. Answer (2)

Fact

115. Answer (1)

One ring aromatic and other ring is non aromatic. So

total compound is aromatic.

116. Answer (3)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, with ΔS < 0, the process will be

non-spontaneous, if ΔH > 0 at all temperatures.

117. Answer (4)

Resonance is present in benzene. So heat released

is not three times to cyclohexene.

118. Answer (4)

Cu+ is not stable in aqueous medium because it

disproportionate spontaneously in water.

119. Answer (3)

For a fixed amount (n must constant) only PV ∝ T.

120. Answer (1)

Fact

BIOLOGY

121. Answer (2)

122. Answer (4)

Members of liliaceae are Colchicum, Allium, Aloe,

Yucca.

123. Answer (3)

Quagga – Africa.

124. Answer (2)

125. Answer (4)

126. Answer (3)

127. Answer (2)


7/8

128. Answer (3)

a. Diatoms

b. Euglena

c. Paramoecium

d. Dinoflagellates

129. Answer (2)

Ascomycetes are not symbiont in mycorrhiza.

130. Answer (3)

131. Answer (2)

D.P.D. of A < B < C < D

132. Answer (2)

133. Answer (3)

134. Answer (2)

Leptotene and zygotene stages are short-lived as

compared to pachytene.

135. Answer (4)

In gymnosperm endosperm is haploid.

136. Answer (3)

Photophosphorylation is absent in peroxisome.

137. Answer (2)

AABB = 20 cm

A or B = 5 cm

aabb = 12 cm a or b = 3 cm

16 cm means = 2 dominant and 2 recessive genes


138. Answer (4)

139. Answer (2)

140. Answer (3)

Snow blindness is caused by UV-B. radiation.

141. Answer (2)

Synaptic vesicles fuse with pre-synaptic

membranes.

142. Answer (3)

In the mid cycle, estrogen surge exerts positive

feedback on anterior lobe for secretion of LH and

FSH.

143. Answer (2)

Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune neurological

disorder in which antibodies are produced which bind

with the receptors of acetylcholine on sarcolemma

and do not allow acetylcholine to bind to the

receptors. They also activate complement mediated

destruction of these receptors.

144. Answer (1)

Heart muscles are autorhythmic and the fibres are

uninucleated, having intercalated discs between them

145. Answer (2)

Semilunar valves remain closed in joint diastole.

146. Answer (2)

Maximum refraction occurs at cornea.

147. Answer (3)

Tectorial membrane lies on top of sensory hair cells

located on basilar membrane.

148. Answer (3)

Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and

stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.

CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and

stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and

bile juice.

149. Answer (1)

Readymade antibodies provide passive immunity.

150. Answer (3)

Nematode (Meloidogyne) resistant tobacco and

Arabidopsis plants were produced by RNA i(RNA

interference).

151. Answer (2)

152. Answer (3)

Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable

changes (mutation) was the basis of Hugo de Vries

mutation theory. Inheritance of somatic

characteristics is the basis of Lamarck’s Theory of

evolution. Continuity of germplasm concept was

given by Weismann.

153. Answer (2)

A smaller gene pool has very few variations.

154. Answer (3)

Emergency contraceptives are administered within 72

hours of unwanted sex or rape case.

155. Answer (2)

Entry of sperm contents (head and proximal

centriole) triggers completion of unequal second

meiotic division of oocyte in fallopian tube.

156. Answer (1)

Low temperature preserves the enzyme while high

temperature causes denaturation.

157. Answer (2)

Zona fasciculata is middle layer of adrenal cortex

and produces glucocorticoids mainly cortisol.

158. Answer (3)

Features mentioned are present in arthropods.

159. Answer (4)

The site of production of red blood cells is red bone

marrow.


8/8

160. Answer (2)

Fact

161. Answer (3)

Snow mountains show extrinsic growth.

162. Answer (1)

163. Answer (4)

164. Answer (1)

165. Answer (3)

166. Answer (4)

167. Answer (2)

168. Answer (3)

Reproduces by oogamy

169. Answer (3)

170. Answer (2)

171. Answer (4)

Porifers show internal fertilization. They are mostly

marine.

172. Answer (1)

Fertilization occurs when sperms and oocyte come

in contact with each other in viable form.

173. Answer (1)

174. Answer (3)

Chance events occurring in nature and chance

mutations in organisms affect evolution process,

telling us that evolution is not a direct process in the

sense of determinism.

175. Answer (1)

The compounds are photosensitive as light falling on

rod and cone cells induces the dissociation of

components of these compounds.

176. Answer (2)

177. Answer (2)

Human heart is called myogenic as the normal

activities of heart are regulated intrinsically by

pacemaker.

178. Answer (1)

White muscle fibres have more Ca2+ but lesser O2

availability.

179. Answer (1)

The principal of vaccination is memory; providing long

term immunity.

180. Answer (2)

Rate of breathing increases due to decreased pO2

and increased pCO2of blood while polycythemia

increases the O2 carrying capacity of blood.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Answer (1)

182. Answer (2)

183. Answer (1)

184. Answer (2)

185. Answer (1)

186. Answer (1)

187. Answer (2)

188. Answer (1)

189. Answer (3)

190. Answer (1)

APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING

191. Answer (3)

All are odd numbers other than 18.

192. Answer (1)

193. Answer (1)

194. Answer (2)

195. Answer (3)

196. Answer (4)

E

a b

dc

E = (a + c) × (b + d)

197. Answer (1)

198. Answer (3)

13 × 15 = 195

17 × 19 = 323

21 × 23 = 483

199. Answer (3)

All the letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

200. Answer (2)

� � �


CBT - 02 (Code B) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

1/21

[ PHYSICS]

Choose the correct answer :

1. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism

such that ray suffers minimum deviation and angle of

emergence is 3

4th of angle of prism. The angle of

deviation is

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 90°

2. The wavelength of light used in YDSE is λ. If

intensity of central maxima is I0, then intensity at

point where the path difference is 6

λ

(1)0

3

4

I(2)

0

2

I

(3) I0

(4) 2I0

3. In a compound microscope the focal length of two

lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. An object is placed

at 2 cm from objective lens and final image is at

25 cm from eyepiece. The magnification is

(1) 5 (2) 15

(3) 12 (4) 7.5

4. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The

magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 1.5.

Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their

individual focal length (in cm)?

(1) 90, –60 (2) 15, –10

(3) 50, –75 (4) 75, –50

Time : 3:30 Hrs. MM : 200CBT - 02

5. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge

carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n

junctions are

(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias

(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias

(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse biasing

(4) Drift in both forward and reverse biasing

6. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV

and that for C13 is 7.5 MeV. The energy required to

remove a neutron from C13 is

(1) 0.28 MeV (2) 9.3 MeV

(3) 5.34 MeV (4) 6.32 MeV

7. During a nuclear fusion reaction

(1) A heavy nucleus breaks in two fragments by

itself

(2) A light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons

breaks up

(3) Heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutron

breaks up

(4) Two light nuclei combine to give a heavier

nucleus and possibly other products

8. The electron is emitted from nucleus in beta radiation

when

(1) Proton is converted into neutron

(2) Neutron is converted into proton

(3) Neutrino is converted into antineutrino

(4) Antineutrino is converted into neutrino


All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code B)

2/21

9. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron

emitted from a surface when photons of energy

8 eV falls on it is, 2 eV. The stopping potential is

(1) 6 V (2) 4 V

(3) 2 V (4) 8 V

10. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy required to

remove an electron from ground state of singly

ionized He atom is

(1) 1.51 eV (2) 54.4 eV

(3) 13.6 eV (4) 6.8 eV

11. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an

uniform magnetic field B directed along positive

z-axis. The direction of induced current as seen from

z-axis will be

(1) Clockwise of the positive z-axis

(2) Anticlockwise of the positive z-axis

(3) No current is induced

(4) Along magnetic field

12. If semicircular conducting ring is entering in

perpendicular magnetic field then the direction of

induced current is

O

R

ω B

(1) First anticlockwise then clockwise

(2) Clockwise

(3) Zero current

(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise

13. Coercivity of a ferromagnetic material in the core of

solenoid is 3 × 103 Am–1. The current required to be

passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and 100 number

of turns so that material gets demagnetised is

(1) 30 A (2) 3 A

(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.03 A

14. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a

current I, it is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0

such that B0 is perpendicular to the plane of the

loop. The tension produced in the loop is

(1) IrB0

(2) 2IrB0

(3)0

2

IrB(4) Zero

15. In the following circuit, the potential drop across the

resistance R2, just after switch S is closed is

C

V

S

R1

R2

(1) 2

1

VR

R× (2) 1

2

VR

R×

(3) Zero (4) 2

1 2( )

VR

R R×

+

16. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to V volt

battery, after full charging it is disconnected and

reconnected with battery in reverse polarity. Heat lost

in connecting wires is

(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV2

(3)21

2CV (4) 4CV2

17. Three charges Q, 4e and 4e are placed at vertex of

a right angle isosceles triangle. If Q is placed at

vertex other than right angle, then value of Q for zero

electrostatic potential energy of system is

(1)–4 2

( 2 1)

e

+ (2)–4

(2 2)

e

+

(3)–4

1 2

e

+(4) –4e



3/21

18. If the sound level at a point 5 m away from a point

source is 40 dB. Then sound level at a point 50 m

away from the source is

(1) 20 dB

(2) 10 dB

(3) 80 dB

(4) 90 dB

19. A source of frequency f approaches to a stationary

observer at a speed of v. The frequency and

wavelength observed by observer respectively

(1) Increase, decrease

(2) Decrease, increase

(3) Increase, increase

(4) Increase, constant

20. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at

one end resonates with minimum frequency 80 Hz.

If end correction is neglected then length of pipe is

(1) 100 cm (2) 50 cm

(3) 200 cm (4) 300 cm

21. P-V diagram for monoatomic gas is shown in

diagram. The amount of heat absorbed by the

source in a single cycle is

A

B C

DP0

2P0

V0 2V

0

V

P

(1) P0V

0(2) 0 0

11

2PV

(3) 0 0

13

2PV (4)

0 0

4

PV

22.28

litre5

of argon gas at STP is adiabatically

compressed to 7

litre10

. Taking the initial

temperature T1, work done in this process is

(1) 1

9

8RT (2) 1

1

8RT

(3) 1

3

4RT (4) 1

9

2RT

23. Two moles of a monoatomic gas are mixed with two

moles of a diatomic gas, the value of p

v

C

C for the

mixture is

(1) 1.42 (2) 1.5

(3) 3.4 (4) 2.5

24. If a metal object is heated to temperature T1 and

then allowed to cool in a room which is at T0, then

the variation between temperature (T) and time (t) is

(1)T

0

t

T

T1

(2)T

0

t

T

T1

(3)

T0

t

T

T1

(4)T

0

t

T

T1



4/21

25. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between

x = –A and x = +A. The time taken for it to go from

0 to 2

A is T

1 and 0 to A is T

2, then

(1) T1 = 4T

2

(2) T1 = 3T

2

(3) T2 = 3T

1

(4) T2 = 4T

1

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height

of 25 m. The ratio of the cross-section area of the

orifice and the beaker is 0.1. Speed of liquid coming

from orifice if it is at 5 m from bottom is

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 m/s

(2) 10 m/s

(3) 5 m/s

(4) 30 m/s

27. A vessel contains oil of density ρ1 over mercury of

density ρ2. A homogeneous sphere floats with half

its volume immersed in mercury and other half in oil.

The density of material of sphere is

(1) (ρ1 + ρ

2)

(2) (ρ1 – ρ

2)

(3)1 2

( )

2

ρ + ρ

(4)1 2

( – )

2

ρ ρ

28. The pressure of water in a water pipe when the tap

is closed and opened are respectively

2.5 × 105 N/m2 and 2 × 105 N/m2. The velocity of

water flowing through the pipe when tap is opened is

(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 5 m/s (4) 15 m/s

29. A body is projected from surface of earth with speed

2gR where R is radius of Earth and g is

acceleration due to gravity then total energy of body

is

(1) Positive

(2) Negative

(3) Zero

(4) May be positive or negative

30. If a planet of mass m is revolving around Sun of

mass M in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a

then the total mechanical energy of planet is

(1) –GMm

a(2)

2–

GmM

a

(3) –2

GMm

a(4)

3–

GMm

a

31. A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a child sits

gently on it, then angular momentum of system

(1) Decreases

(2) Increases

(3) Remains constant

(4) Is zero

32. A rod AB of mass M and length L is lying on a

smooth horizontal surface. A particle of mass m

strikes to end A elastically with speed v0 in a

direction perpendicular to AB. After collision if

particle comes to rest, then the distance of point

from B which is in rest just after the collision is

(1)3

L(2)

2

3

L

(3)4

L(4)

3

4

L



5/21

33. If two identical bodies move towards each other with

speeds 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, then

distance travelled by their centre of mass in interval

of 4 s is

(1) 5 m

(2) 10 m

(3) 2.5 m

(4) 20 m

34. If a light moving particle strikes a heavy target at

rest and sticks to it, then, which is true for particle?

(1) All the KE is lost (2) Half the KE is lost

(3) One third KE is lost (4) KE does not change

35. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle

of radius r, under a force equal to 2

k

r, where k is

constant, total energy of particle is

(1) –

k

r(2) –

2

k

r

(3)2

k

r(4)

k

r

36. L be the length of a chain, what is the maximum

length of the chain which can be held outside a

table without sliding? [where coefficient of friction

between chain and table is 1

2]

(1)3

L(2)

5

L

(3)2

3

L(4)

2

L

37. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with speed

100 m/s at a height of 2 km from ground. The

aeroplane when at point A drops a bomb to hit a

point B on the ground, the time taken by bomb to

reach from A to B is

(1) 10 s (2) 40 s

(3) 15 s (4) 20 s

38. The momentum of a particle is given by

ˆ ˆ( sin cos )= ω + ω�

P a t i a t j then

(1) Momentum is perpendicular to force

(2) Momentum is parallel to force

(3) Angle between momentum and force is 60°

(4) Momentum is antiparallel to force

39. If the length and radius of cylindrical wire is

measured with vernier callipers are found to be

4.54 cm and 1.25 cm respectively, then the volume

of cylinder is

(1) 22.3 cm3 (2) 22.27 cm3

(3) 22 cm3 (4) 22.274 cm3

40. If taking Force, Length and Time to be the

fundamental quantities, then dimension of density is

(1) [ F–1 L–4 T2 ] (2) [ F L–4 T2 ]

(3) [ F2 L–4 T ] (4) [ F L3 T–2 ]

In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of

assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason(R).




(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

statements, then mark (4).



6/21

41. A : A nucleus contains no electron, but can eject

them.

R : γ-rays are emitted by the excited nuclei.

42. A : Wavelength of Lyman series is less than that of

Balmer series.

R : In hydrogen spectrum Balmer series belongs to

visible spectrum.

43. A : A photoelectric effect can take place only with

an electron bound in the lattice.

R : Photoelectric effect confirms particle nature of

light.

44. A : Polarisation of light is sure indication of

transverse nature of light.

R : Diffraction is a sure indication of wave nature.

45. A : A single lens cannot be free from chromatic

aberration.

R : When white light passes through lens,

dispersion must occur.

46. A : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and

sunset during day.

R : The ray deviates after refraction by Earth’s

atmosphere.

47. A : EM waves are transverse in nature.

R : EM waves exert radiation pressure.

48. A : Magnetic field will be tangential to magnetic field

line.

R : Magnitude of magnetic field is inversely

proportional to area by which field lines are

passing.

49. A : When the plates of a charged capacitor are

connected to a resistor, a current starts flowing

in the resistor.

R : A charged capacitor acts as a battery of steady

emf.

50. A : The potential of grounded conducting body is

taken to be zero.

R : Capacitance of Earth is very large.

51. A : The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum in non

viscous medium remains same with time.

R : The frequency of oscillation decreases with time.

52. A : When the temperature of a black body is

doubled from T K to 2T K, the radial power

becomes 16 times.

R : The radiant power of a body is proportional to

fourth power of absolute temperature.

53. A : Blue star is at high temperature than red star.

R : According to Wein’s displacement law λm

T = constant, λm

= wavelength corresponding to

maximum intensity, T = temperature.

54. A : The velocity of water increases when it is flowing

in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.

R : According to equation of continuity, product of

area and velocity is constant.

55. A : Gravitational potential on a planet may be

negative, positive and zero.

R : Gravitational potential at a point may depend

upon reference point.

56. A : A shell at rest explodes, the centre of mass of

fragments move along a straight line.

R : In explosion linear momentum of system is not

conserved.

57. A : Work done by a force may be different in

different frame of references.

R : Work is an invariant physical quantity.

58. A : The shaft of motors are provided with ball

bearings.

R : The rolling friction is lesser than sliding friction.

59. A : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity

is zero at an instant.

R : A body is at momentary rest when it reverses

its direction of motion.

60. A : Angle and strain are dimensionless.

R : Angle has unit and strain has no unit.



7/21

[ CHEMISTRY ]

61. 5 g impure NaOH is completely neutralised by one

litre 0.1 M HCl. The percentage purity of NaOH

sample is

(1) 80% (2) 60%

(3) 40% (4) 20%

62. If the molality of NaOH in D2O is 20 m, then

difference between mole fractions of D2O and NaOH

will be

(1)2

7(2)

5

7

(3)1

7(4)

3

7

63. A list of species having the formula XY4 is given

below

XeF4, SF

4, SiF

4, BF

4, BrF

4, [Cu(NH

3)4]2+, [FeCl

4]2–,

[NiCl4]2– and [PdCl

4]2–

Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and

Y atoms, the total number of species having a

square planar shape is

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

64. The equivalent mass of X2 in the following reaction

(molecular mass is M) is

NaOH

2 3 2X NaX NaXO H OΔ⎯⎯⎯→ + +

(1)M

5(2)

2M

5

(3)3M

5(4)

M

2

65. Ammonium carbamate dissociates as

2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+��⇀

↽��

In a closed vessel containing ammonium carbamate

in equilibrium, ammonia is added such that the

partial pressure of ammonia at new equilibrium is 3

2

times to the original total pressure. The ratio of total

pressure now to the original pressure is

(1)761

486(2)

9

2

(3)16

81(4)

31

27

66. Equal volumes of two strong acids having pH = 4

and pH = 6 are mixed. How much volume of this

mixture is required to neutralise the 100 ml 0.2 N

NaOH solution?

(1) 3.96 litre (2) 3.96 ml

(3) 3.96 × 105 ml (4) 3.96 × 106 ml

67. In the given compound

H C – C – C = CH – CH – CH – CH3 3

H

H – CH2

H H

H(i)

(ii) (iii) (iv)

(v)

The correct order of reactivity of H atoms towards

free radical substitution is

(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (v) > (iii)

(2) (ii) > (i) > (v) > (iii) > (iv)

(3) (v) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)

(4) (ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)



8/21

68. IUPAC name of the following compound is

H C–CH –CH –CH–CH–CH –3 2 2 2

CH –CH –CH 2 2 3

CH2

H C–C–CH3 3

CH3

CH3

H C–C–CH3 3

CH2

(1) Bis-4,5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)nonane

(2) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)-4-

propylnonane

(3) 4,5-Dineopentyldecane

(4) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(3′,3′-dimethylpropyl)nonane

69. Metal rod M is dipped in 0.2 M solution of MSO4.

The salt is 80% dissociated at this dilution at

298 K. The reduction electrode potential of metal will

be 2

0

M | M(E –0.7 V)+ =

(1) –0.6765 V (2) +0.6765 V

(3) +0.7235 V (4) –0.7235 V

70. In one solid substance A atoms are at corners, B

atoms are at face centres, C atoms are at

octahedral voids and D atoms are at tetrahedral

voids in a cube. If atoms touching one body diagonal

plane is removed then what is the formula of the

compound?

(1) AB3C

4D

8(2) AB

6C

5D

8

(3) AB4C

5D

8(4) AB

4C

6D

8

71. A black compound of manganese reacts with a

halogen acid (Y) to give greenish yellow gas (X).

When excess of (X) is reacted with NH3 gas then Y

and Z compounds are formed. The species X, Y and

Z respectively are

(1) MnCl2, HCl and Cl

2(2) Cl

2, HCl and NCl

3

(3) HCl, Cl2

and NCl3

(4) F2, HF and NF

3

72. Match the complexes given in column I with the

hybridisation and primary valency in column II and

assign the correct code.

Column I Column II

a. [Cr(H2O)

6]Cl

3(i) sp3d2, 2

b. [Co(NH3)6]Br

3(ii) sp3d2, 3

c. [Ni(NH3)6]Cl

2(iii) d2sp3, 3

d. K3[FeF

6] (iv) d2sp3, 2

(1) a(iii), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

73. In the given reaction sequence product ‘C’ is

OCH OH

2

5 6 5PCl C H OHMg

etherA B CΔ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(1)O

CH2

O

(2) C6H

5OCH

3

(3)

OOCH

3

(4)

OCH

3

74. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H

10O

2 was

treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex

so formed was treated with H2SO

4 and heated to

give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone

with molecular formula C8H

8O which shows positive

iodoform test. The structure of (A) is



9/21

(1) C2H

5COOC

6H

5

(2) C6H

5COOC

2H

5

(3)

COCH3

OCH3

(4) H C – O – CH – C – C H3 2 6 5

O

75. The number of dichlorobutane isomers (structural

only) which can be formed by the reaction of

CH3CH

2CH

2CH

3 with Cl

2/hν is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

76. Which of the following is the correct ratio of root

mean square speed to average speed of a gas

molecule at a particular temperature?

(1) 1.086 : 1 (2) 3.946 : 3

(3) 1 : 1.086 (4) 1.086 : 2

77. Wavelength of second line in the Brackett series of

hydrogen spectrum is

(1)H

144 R

5(2)

H5 R

144

(3)H

11

15R(4)

H

144

5 R

78.Sn/HCl

3(Major )

CH Cl AgCN A B+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Sn/HCl

3(Major )

CH Cl NaCN C D+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Sn/HCl

3 2 3CH NH CHCl KOH E F+ + ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

Select the incorrect option regarding above reaction

sequences

(1) B & F are identical

(2) D and F are identical

(3) D & F are functional isomers

(4) B & D are functional isomers

79. Most volatile substance among the following is

(1) CH3 – CH

2 – CH

2 – NH

2

(2) (CH3)3N

(3) (C2H

5)2NH

(4) CH3

– CH2 – CH

2 – OH

80. H C – CH – CH = CH3 2

CH3

H /H O+

2 A (major)

B H /THF2 3

H O /OH2 2

B

Hg(OCOCH )/H O3 2

NaBH4

C

The correct statement regarding above reactions is

(1) Products A and B are same

(2) Products B and C are same

(3) Products C and A are same

(4) Products A, B and C are isomers

81. The correct stability order of the following carbanions is

CH – CH3 2

(I)

H C = CH – CH2 2

(II)

C H C6 5

H2

(III)

HC C≡(IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I < IV < II < III

(3) IV > III > II > I

(4) II < I < III < IV



10/21

82. If the value of l indicates a subshell, then maximum

number of electrons that can be accommodated in

any subshell is given by

(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2

(3) 2l + 2 (4) 2l – 2

83. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons,

respectively in phosphate anion are

(1) 50, 47 & 48 (2) 47, 48 & 50

(3) 42, 41 & 40 (4) 40, 41 & 42

84. Out of the following, which forms buffer on mixing?

(1) 20 ml of 0.5 M CH3COOH and 50 ml of 0.2 M

NaOH

(2) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH and 100 ml of 0.1 M

KOH

(3) 75 ml of 0.1 M NaOH and 150 ml of 0.1 M

CH3COOH

(4) 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH and 10 ml of 0.5 M

HCOOH

85. R3SiCl on hydrolysis followed by heating forms

(1) R3SiOH (2) R

3SiOSiR

3

(3) R2SiO (4) Si(OR)

4

86. Identify the paramagnetic species among the

following

(1) K4[Fe(CN)

6] (2) [Ni(CO)

4]

(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [NiCl

4]2–

87. Which of the following elements has the least

tendency to form ionic compounds?

(1) Be (2) Ca

(3) K (4) Na

88. The E° value of cell reaction will be

2 2 3Fe (aq) Cu (aq) Fe (aq) Cu (aq)+ + + ++ ⎯⎯→ +

[Given, 2 3 2

o o

Cu |Cu Fe |FeE a volt, E b volt+ + + += = ]

(1) b – a (2) a – b

(3) a + b (4) –(a + b)

89. Relative percentage yields of (A) and (B),

respectively in the following reaction are expected to

be

H C – CH – CH3 3

CH3

+ Cl2

hνH C – C – CH

3 3

CH3

Cl

(A)

+

H C – CH – CH – Cl3 2

CH3

(B)

(1) 50%, 50% (2) 64.29%, 35.71%

(3) 35.71%, 64.29% (4) 40%, 60%

90. For the estimation of nitrogen, 7 g of an organic

compound was digested by Kjeldhahl’s method and

the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 200 ml of M

20

sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 100 ml

of M

10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization.

The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

(1) 2% (2) 6%

(3) 5% (4) 10%

91. Total number of optically active compound(s) formed

in the given reaction is

CH3

HPh

HO

3

(i) HCN/OH

(ii) H O

−

+⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

92. The geometry around boron atom in boric acid is

(1) Trigonal planar (2) Tetrahedral

(3) Pyramidal (4) Linear



11/21

93. Which of the following reactions has Kp = K

c?

(1)5 3 2

PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g)+��⇀↽��

(2)3 2 2

2NH (g) N (g) 3H (g)+��⇀↽��

(3)2 2

H (g) CI (g) 2HCI(g)+ ��⇀↽��

(4) 2 2 2

1H (g) O (g) H O(l)

2+ ��⇀

↽��

94. The rate of reaction A ⎯→ B, is 5.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1.

The time in which the concentration of reactants changed

from 0.04 mol L–1 to 0.03 mol L–1 is

(1) 0.2 s (2) 2.0 s

(3) 0.8 s (4) 1.3 s

95. Lactose on hydrolysis gives

(1) β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

(2) α-D-galactose and α-D-glucose

(3) α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

(4) β-D-galactose and α-D-glucose

96. The physical process involved in chromatography is

(1) Distillation (2) Sublimation

(3) Adsorption (4) Liquation

97. Which of the following sets of axial angles and edge

lengths represent minimum number in Bravais

lattices?

(1) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b = c

(2) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b ≠ c

(3) α = β = γ = 90° and a ≠ b ≠ c

(4) α = β = γ ≠ 90° and a = b = c

98. According to IUPAC nomenclature, ‘Alkoxycarbonyl’

is a prefix used for

(1) Ethers (2) Esters

(3) Acid halides (4) Amides

99. The oxidation number of oxygen in CsO2 molecule is

(1) –2 (2) –1

(3)1

–2

(4) +1

100. Hybridisation of central atom in SF4 molecule is

(1) sp3d

(2) dsp3

(3) sp3

(4) d2sp3


of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason

(R).






101. A : Aqueous gold colloidal sol can be red in colour.

R : The colour arises due to scattering of light by

particles of gold in the gold sol.

102. A : For a fixed amount of an ideal gas PV is always

constant at constant temperature where P is

pressure and V is volume.

R : PV value for ideal gas is directly proportional to

temperature even if mass is not constant.

103. A : Cu+ ion is more stable than Cu2+ in aqueous

solution.

R : Cu2+ has [Ar]3d10 (fully filled configuration) where

as Cu+ is not having fully filled 3d configuration.



12/21

104. A : The heat released in hydrogenation of benzene

is three times to the cyclohexene.

R : Benzene has degree of unsaturation three and

cyclohexene has degree of unsaturation one.

105. A : ΔH is one of the contributory factor in deciding

spontaneity.

R : ΔH = positive, means process is always

spontaneous.

106. A : is an aromatic compound.

R : Out of 8π electrons, it has 6π electrons in one

ring following Huckel rule.

107. A : CFC’s are stable compounds.

R : CFC’s undergo decomposition in presence of UV

radiation in the stratosphere.

108. A : Aromatic aldehydes are more reactive than

aliphatic aldehydes towards nucleophillic addition

reactions.

R : Aromatic aldehyde on nucleophillic addition gives

product with one less carbon.

109. A : Enzymes are naturally occurring simple or

conjugate proteins.

R : Enzymes are highly pH sensitive.

110. A : Non-metallic character increases and metallic

character decreases on moving from left to right

in periodic table.

R : Both ionisation enthalpy and electron gain

enthalpy decrease from left to right in periods.

111. A : The dichromate ion is relatively stable in acidic

medium and converts into chromate ion in

alkaline medium.

R : The colour of dichromate ion is due to the charge

transfer spectrum

112. A : Ga has larger atomic radius than Al.

R : Generally on moving down the group atomic

radius decreases.

113. A : Entropy of egg increases on boiling.

R : Generally randomness decreases on the

conversion of liquid to solid.

114. A : Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is equal to that of

0.1 M glucose solution.

R : When molarity of two solutions is same then

their osmotic pressure are same.

115. A : Energy is absorbed for the transition of e– from

4s to 3d level in hydrogen atom.

R : Energy of electron in all atoms depends on n + l

value.

116. A : LiHCO3 cannot be obtained in solid state.

R : Carbonates and bicarbonates of Li are less

stable than rest of the alkali metals.

117. A : The electron gain enthalpy of nitrogen is positive.

R : Nitrogen atom has very small size and half filled

p-subshell.

118. A : Zinc is not considered as transition element.

R : Zinc does not show variable oxidation state.

119. A : Physical adsorption takes place on the surface

only.

R : Chemical adsorption takes place on the surface

as well as in the bulk.

120. A : Beryllium fluoride is highly soluble in water.

R : Beryllium forms [Be(H2O)

4]2+ due to its

hydration.



13/21

[ BIOLOGY ]

121. Read the following statements carefully.

a. Snow-blindness is caused by UV-C radiation.

b. Montreal protocol was signed at Canada to

control the emission of ozone depleting

substances.

c. Euro III norms stipulate that sulphur be

controlled at 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in

petrol.

d. Electrostatic precipitator can remove over

99 percent of particulate matter present in the

exhaust from a thermal power plant.

How many statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

122. Match the following

Column I Column II

a. Brassica (i) Protein rich

b. Mung bean (ii) Hill bunt

c. Himgiri (iii) White rust

d. Atlas-66 (iv) Yellow mosaic virus

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

123. Identify the correct statement regarding

photosynthesis.

(1) Oxygen in glucose comes from H2O

(2) RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for O2 than

CO2

(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation operates under high

light intensity and aerobic conditions

(4) H+ concentration is more in lumen than stroma

to produce proton motive force during ATP

synthesis through chemiosmosis

124. A plant with genotype AABB is 20 cm tall, crossed

with 12 cm tall plant with genotype aabb. F1 of this

cross is 16 cm tall. If it is a polygenic trait then in

F2 generation, how many plants have height 16 cm

and 14 cm respectively?

(1) 4 & 6

(2) 6 & 4

(3) 4 & 2

(4) 4 & 4

125. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. cell organelles and

their functions

(1) Mitochondria – ATP synthesis

(2) Chloroplast – Glucose synthesis

(3) Peroxisome – Photophosphorylation

(4) Nucleolus – Ribosome synthesis

126. If a female plant is hexaploid (6n) and a male plant

is diploid then find out the ploidy of embryo and

endosperm in seeds of angiosperms and

gymnosperms respectively?

(1) 5n, 7n & 5n, 3n

(2) 4n, 7n & 4n, 7n

(3) 4n, 7n & 7n, 4n

(4) 4n, 7n & 4n, 3n

127. Choose the correct statement for meiosis

(1) Zygotene stage is longer than pachytene

(2) Leptotene stage is shorter than pachytene

(3) Diakinesis is marked by dissolution of the

synaptonemal complex

(4) Tetrad stage is not a result of synapsis of

homologous chromosomes



14/21

128. Hormone Florigen is synthesised

(1) When photoperiod exceeds than the critical in

SDP

(2) If the plant is in juvenile phase

(3) In mature leaf if it gets appropriate photoperiodic

stimulus

(4) In senescent leaves


Column I Column II

(Mineral (Deficiency symptoms)

elements)

a. Fe (i) Grey speck in oats

b. Mo (ii) Loss of apical dominance

c. B (iii) Chlorosis in leaf

d. Mn (iv) Delayed flowering

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

130. Four cells A, B, C and D have same osmotic

pressure but their turgor pressures are 10, 8, 6 and

4 respectively, if all four cells are interconnected

then movement of water will be

(1)A B

C D

(2)A B

C D

(3)A B

C D

(4)A B

C D

131. Which one is the feature of monocot stem?

(1) Presence of phloem parenchyma

(2) Larger vascular bundles are arranged towards the

periphery

(3) Sclerenchymatous sheath surrounds each

vascular bundle

(4) Absence of schizolysigenous cavity

132. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fungi which

reproduce asexually by exogenous spores and

sexually by endogenous spores

(1) May be decomposers or parasites

(2) Do not possess delayed karyogamy

(3) Motile structures do not occur in the life cycle

(4) May not be symbiont in ectomycorrhiza


Column I Column II

a. Soap box like cell wall (i) Chl a and Chl b

b. Mixotrophic nutrition (ii) Ciliated protozoans

c. Dimorphic nucleus (iii) Passive floating

d. Gonyaulax (iv) Red tide

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

134. Oxidative decarboxylation occurs in Krebs cycle

when

(1) Oxalosuccinic acid ⎯→ α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) α-ketoglutaric acid ⎯→ Succinyl CoA

(3) Succinyl CoA ⎯→ Succinic acid

(4) Malic acid ⎯→ Oxaloacetic acid

135. Cyclosporin-A is

(1) Produced by actinomycetes

(2) Cholesterol lowering agent

(3) Immunosuppressive agent

(4) Used for clearing of fruit juice

136. Relationship between sea anemone and hermit crab

is

(1) Commensalism

(2) Mutualism

(3) Predation

(4) Protocooperation



15/21

137. Given below is the sequence of nucleotides on

m-RNA

5′ AUG UUU GUG UCA AGU UAA 3′How many amino acid could be coded before and

after replacement of 11 th nucleotide by G,

respectively?

(1) 5, 5 (2) 5, 3

(3) 3, 3 (4) 3, 5

138. Find out the incorrect match.

(1) Steller’s sea cow – Russia

(2) Thylacine – Australia

(3) Quagga – America

(4) Dodo – Mauritius

139. How many of the given plants belong to the family

with floral formula ⊕+

P A G(3+3) 3+3 (3)?

Petunia, Colchicum Atropa AlliumCapsicum Glycine Solanum AloeLycopersicum Gloriosa Nicotiana

, , ,

, , , ,

, ,

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 5 (4) 4

140. The ploidy level of rhizoids, protonema, leaf,

oosphere, androcyte mother cell, apophysis and

calyptra in Funaria are respectively

(1) N, 2N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N

(2) N, N, N, N, N, 2N and N

(3) N, N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N

(4) N, N, N, 2N, 2N, 2N and 2N

141. Select the correct statement w.r.t. internal ear of

humans

(1) The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is a

series of channels inside which lies the bony

labyrinth

(2) The Reissner’s and Basilar membrane divide the

surrounding perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an

upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani

(3) The space within cochlea, called scala media, is

filled with perilymph

(4) The entire bony labyrinth is filled with a fluid

called endolymph

142. Consider the following statements w.r.t. an animal

tissue.

(a) The intercellular material is solid and pliable,

resisting compression

(b) Cells are enclosed in small cavities called

lacunae within the matrix secreted by them

(c) The tissue interacts with smooth muscles to

bring about body movements

(d) It is the site of production of blood cells

The statements which are applicable to cartilage

include

(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (c) & (d)

(3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)

143. Presence of exoskeleton of thick cuticle, haemocoel;

metameric segmentation and tube within tube body

plan are features of

(1) Ancylostoma (2) Loligo

(3) Laccifer (4) Pheretima

144. Selective destruction of zona fasciculata of adrenal

cortex would produce a deficiency of which

hormone?

(1) Aldosterone (2) Cortisol

(3) Androgenic steroids (4) DHEA

145. With respect to molecules present in a cell, the

incorrect statement will be

(1) Low temperature destroys the enzyme activity

while high temperature preserves the enzyme in

inactive state

(2) Biocatalysts in a cell can be both proteinaceous

and nucleic acid in nature

(3) Structure of glycogen is similar to amylopectin

part of starch

(4) Glucose is an aldo-hexose while fructose is a

keto-hexose



16/21

146. The formation of a second polar body and a haploid

ovum in humans occurs

(1) Within the ovary by completion of unequal

meiotic division of oocyte

(2) In the fallopian tube, induced by entry of sperm

into the oocyte

(3) In the fallopian tube by completion of second but

equal meiotic division

(4) Within the ovary; induced by LH surge

147. Emergency contraceptives are most effective when

administered any time within ______ period following

unprotected coitus

(1) Seven day (2) Six day

(3) Three day (4) Four day

148. Which of the following statements will be incorrect

in the context of modern concept of evolution?

(1) Interbreeding among members of different

species is prevented by reproductive isolation

barriers

(2) A smaller gene pool will lead to significantly

large variations, helping the species to dominate

all competitors

(3) Ultimate source of all variations are mutations

(4) A multicellular body is divisible into somatoplasm

and germplasm and only changes in germplasm

are inheritable

149. Natural selection theory proposed by Charles Darwin

for explaining ‘organic evolution’ was based on which

of the following concepts?

(1) Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable

variations which led to survival of those having

the variations

(2) Inheritance of somatic characteristics acquired

through a life long use or disuse

(3) Differential reproduction rates, struggle for

existence and survival of the fittest

(4) Continuity of germplasm

150. In the initial rDNA experiments conducted by Eli-Lilly

to produce humulin in E.coli, the protein chains

obtained from bacteria

(1) Included an essential C-peptide chain

(2) Included separate A and B protein chains which

combined to form active human insulin

(3) Were joined by ionic bonds to form active

human insulin

(4) Could be administered orally to diabetics

151. Which of the following is a successful product of

application of RNAi technique in plants?

(1) Fortified golden rice

(2) GM Bt cotton

(3) Nematode resistant tobacco plant

(4) Production of Hirudin from Brassica napus

152. Injection of tetanus anti-toxin in a person for quick

recovery from possibly fatal symptoms will be called

(1) Passive immunisation

(2) Secondary/Anamnestic immune response

(3) Primary immune response

(4) Artificial active immunity

153. The pair of hormones acting on pancreas to

stimulate secretion of water and bicarbonates from it

and to stimulate secretion of digestive enzymes from

it respectively, is

(1) GIP and CCK-PZ

(2) Secretin and GIP

(3) Secretin and Cholecystokinin-pancreozymin

(4) Cholecystokinin and Secretin

154. The structure of human ear that lies immediately on

top of stereocilia of sensory hair cells of Organ of

Corti is

(1) Otolith (2) Basilar membrane

(3) Tectorial membrane (4) Reissner's membrane



17/21

155. The statements which are correct for the human

eye/vision are

a. In human eye, maximum refraction occurs when

light passes through lens.

b. The space between cornea and the lens is

called aqueous chamber

c. Vitreous humor is continuously renewed by

drainage and synthesis throughout life

d. Visual cortex area of the brain is located in

frontal lobe of cerebrum

(1) a & b (2) Only b

(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & d

156. Which of the following will be incorrect w.r.t. joint

diastole stage of a cardiac cycle?

(1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves remain open during

joint diastole

(2) The semilunar valves remain open throughout the

joint diastole to allow ventricles to receive blood

(3) Blood from vena cava flows into right ventricle

through right atrium

(4) Blood from pulmonary veins flows into left

ventricle through left atrium

157. Choose the correct option w.r.t cardiac muscles.

(1) Communication junctions between cardiac

muscle fibres allow the cells of atria to contract

as a single unit

(2) Z-lines of cardiac muscles are composed of

actin proteins

(3) Molecular basis for contraction of heart muscles

is Ca2+ – calmodulin binding

(4) Multinucleated fibres are held together at

intercalated discs

158. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.

Myasthenia gravis?

(1) Antibodies inhibit the activity of acetylcholine-

sterase enzyme competitively

(2) Antibodies mask the acetylcholine receptors on

sarcolemma

(3) Antibodies destroy the acetylcholine receptors of

presynaptic membrane at neuromuscular

junction

(4) Antibodies bind to presynaptic membrane and

inhibit the release of acetylcholine

159. The cause of sudden increase of LH hormone in the

mid cycle is

(1) Negative feedback of estrogen on the anterior

pituitary

(2) Negative feedback of progestrone on the

hypothalamus

(3) Positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior

pituitary

(4) Positive feedback of FSH on the ovary

160. Arrival of an impulse at axon terminals stimulates the

movement of synaptic vesicles towards

A membrane in a/an B synapse.

Select the option filling both blanks correctly.

(1) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Electrical

(2) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Chemical

(3) A– Post-synaptic, B– Electrical

(4) A– Post-synaptic, B– Chemical



18/21


of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R).






161. A : Inside the mature seed, the embryo is the

progenitor of the next generation.

R : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of

species between organisms of one generation

and the next.

162. A : The mycelium of basidiomycetes is septate.

R : Rust and smut fungi have dolipore septa and

fruiting body.

163. A : Generally red algae are found at great depths in

ocean.

R : Red algae reproduce by isogamy and

accompanied by complex post fertilization

developments.

164. A : Excitation of chlorophyll molecules after

absorption of sunlight is the first step of

photosynthesis.

R : Shield pigments protect chl-a from

photooxidation.

165. A : Ions are absorbed from the soil by active means

only.

R : Suberin layer in root endodermis is able to

transport ions in both directions.

166. A : Primary succession is a very slow process.

R : Primary succession starts in abandoned

farmlands, generally.

167. A : In date palm, autogamy and geitonogamy are

absent.

R : Date palm is a dioecious plant.

168. A : In racemose type inflorescence, the main axis

terminates into a flower.

R : Solitary terminal flower is found in china rose.

169. A : Archaebacteria survive in extreme harsh

environment.

R : Archaebacteria have different composition of cell

wall and cell membrane than other bacteria.

170. A : Growth is not a defining feature of living

beings.

R : Snow mountains show intrinsic growth.

171. A : At high altitudes availability of oxygen reduces,

so it becomes more difficult for a person to

breathe.

R : Rate of breathing increases at high altitudes

along with occurrence of polycythemia in blood.

172. A : Vaccination provides usually permanent, long

term immunity to a child against deadly

diseases.

R : Vaccines generate memory B and T cells which

recognise the actual pathogen on a subsequent

exposure; overwhelming it with a massive

production of antibodies.

173. A : Force of contraction of white skeletal muscle

fibres is vigorous but they undergo fatigue

rapidly.

R : White skeletal muscle fibres have abundant

sarcoplasmic reticulum but possess very less

quantity of myoglobin.

174. A : Malthus’ essay on principles of population

growth and study of finches of Galapagos

islands had huge influence on Darwin while he

conceptualized his natural selection theory.

R : Darwin conducted many artificial selection

experiments to support the concept of selection

by nature



19/21

181. ARIES i.e. Aryabhatta Research Institute of

observational Science is located in which of the

following state?

(1) Uttarakhand

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Punjab

(4) Bihar

182. Which country will host 2018 Shanghai Cooperation

Organization (SCO) summit?

(1) India

(2) Thailand

(3) China

(4) Afghanistan

183. "Gevora" which has been claimed as world's tallest

hotel is situated in which of the following city?

(1) Dubai (2) Britain

(3) France (4) India

[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]

184. Stephen Hawking who has recently passed away,

belongs to which of the following country?

(1) USA (2) UK

(3) Japan (4) France

185. 105th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC) has

been hosted in which of the following state of India?

(1) Manipur (2) Punjab

(3) Sikkim (4) Kerala

186. The joint military exercise "Desert Tiger-5" was held

between UAE and which country?

(1) Malaysia (2) Cambodia

(3) Thailand (4) USA

187. Which state has highest number of fully covered

tribal habitations with the safe drinking water?

(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Odisha (4) Assam

175. A : Human heart is called myogenic.

R : Neural signals through sympathetic nervous

system can increase the strength of ventricular

muscle contraction.

176. A : The compounds in the human eyes, composed

of retinal and opsin proteins, are photosensitive.

R : Light induces dissociation of retinal from opsins,

causing membrane permeability changes in

photo receptor cells.

177. A : Evolution can be considered as a stochastic

process, based on chance events occurring in

nature.

R : Anthropogenic actions have resulted in selection

of antibiotic sensitive microbes and insects in a

time scale of years rather than centuries.

178. A : Biological response modifiers like α-interferons

can be used to activate a person’s immune

system and help in destroying tumors.

R : Interferons increase MHC-I expression on tumour

cells thereby increasing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

activity.

179. A : All copulations do not result in fertilisation and

pregnancy.

R : Oocyte and sperms must simultaneously reach

the ampulla part of fallopian tube to result in

successful fertilization.

180. A : In porifers, external fertilization takes place

R : Most porifers are found in fresh water.



20/21

191. Soldier : Regiment :: ?

(1) Wheels : Bearings (2) Coil : Motor

(3) Book : Printer (4) CO2

: Gas

192. In a certain code language, if the word 'UNIVERSAL'

is coded as 'AEILNRSUV' and 'FOUNDATION' is

coded as 'ADFINNOOTU', then how the word

'MANAGER' is coded in that language?

(1) AAEGNMR (2) AAEMGNR

(3) AAEGMNR (4) ARMENAG

193. Select the correct number that is missing in the

number series given below:

13, 195, 15, 17, 323, 19, 21, ?, 23

(1) 441 (2) 399

(3) 483 (4) 575

194. Select the alternative, the box that can be formed by

folding the sheet shown in the given figure

(A) (B) (C) (D)

[ APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING ]

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (C)

(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)

195. The missing number is

60

5 4

25

54

20 1

17

?

2 9

14

(1) 66

(2) 72

(3) 71

(4) 60

196. How many days are there in m2 weeks n days?

(1) 7m2 + m (2) m2 + n

(3) 7m2 + n (4) 7n2 + m

197. An accurate clock shows 7 o'clock in the morning.

Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate

when the clock shows 1 o'clock in the afternoon?

(1) 168º

(2) 180º

(3) 188º

(4) 200º

188. India's first insect museum is situated which of the


(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Punjab

(3) Haryana (4) Odisha

189. Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the


(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Punjab (4) Odisha

190. Which of the following was India's Flag-bearer at the

closing ceremony of the 21st Commonwealth Games

2018?

(1) Mary Kom (2) Abhinav Bindra

(3) Heena Sidhu (4) P. V. Sindhu



21/21

� � �

Directions (Q.198 & Q.199) : Refer to the following Venn

diagram:

16

19

99

14 1213

13

2018 18

15 16

History

Science

Mathematics

Geography

198. The number of students who took at least two

subjects is

(1) 139 (2) 158

(3) 119 (4) 137

199. The number of students who took only three of the

above subjects is

(1) 62

(2) 63

(3) 64

(4) 66

200. Find the odd one, out of the following numbers.

11, 13, 15, 17, 18, 19,

(1) 13

(2) 17

(3) 18

(4) 19

CBT - 02 (Code B) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

1/8

1. (1)

2. (1)

3. (2)

4. (2)

5. (2)

6. (3)

7. (4)

8. (2)

9. (3)

10. (2)

11. (3)

12. (1)

13. (2)

14. (1)

15. (3)

16. (2)

17. (1)

18. (1)

19. (1)

20. (1)

21. (3)

22. (1)

23. (2)

24. (1)

25. (3)

26. (1)

27. (3)

28. (1)

29. (3)

30. (3)

31. (3)

32. (1)

33. (2)

34. (1)

35. (2)

36. (1)

37. (4)

38. (1)

39. (1)

40. (2)

Test Date : 20/05/2018

CBT - 02 (CODE B)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2018

ANSWERS

41. (2)

42. (2)

43. (2)

44. (2)

45. (1)

46. (1)

47. (2)

48. (3)

49. (3)

50. (2)

51. (3)

52. (1)

53. (1)

54. (1)

55. (1)

56. (4)

57. (3)

58. (1)

59. (2)

60. (2)

61. (1)

62. (4)

63. (2)

64. (3)

65. (1)

66. (3)

67. (4)

68. (2)

69. (4)

70. (3)

71. (2)

72. (1)

73. (4)

74. (2)

75. (3)

76. (1)

77. (4)

78. (2)

79. (2)

80. (4)

81. (3)

82. (2)

83. (1)

84. (3)

85. (2)

86. (4)

87. (1)

88. (2)

89. (3)

90. (1)

91. (2)

92. (1)

93. (3)

94. (1)

95. (1)

96. (3)

97. (4)

98. (2)

99. (3)

100. (1)

101. (1)

102. (3)

103. (4)

104. (4)

105. (3)

106. (1)

107. (2)

108. (4)

109. (2)

110. (3)

111. (2)

112. (4)

113. (2)

114. (4)

115. (4)

116. (2)

117. (1)

118. (2)

119. (3)

120. (1)

121. (3)

122. (2)

123. (4)

124. (2)

125. (3)

126. (4)

127. (2)

128. (3)

129. (2)

130. (2)

131. (3)

132. (2)

133. (3)

134. (2)

135. (3)

136. (4)

137. (2)

138. (3)

139. (4)

140. (2)

141. (2)

142. (4)

143. (3)

144. (2)

145. (1)

146. (2)

147. (3)

148. (2)

149. (3)

150. (2)

151. (3)

152. (1)

153. (3)

154. (3)

155. (2)

156. (2)

157. (1)

158. (2)

159. (3)

160. (2)

161. (2)

162. (3)

163. (3)

164. (2)

165. (4)

166. (3)

167. (1)

168. (4)

169. (1)

170. (3)

171. (2)

172. (1)

173. (1)

174. (2)

175. (2)

176. (1)

177. (3)

178. (1)

179. (1)

180. (4)

181. (1)

182. (3)

183. (1)

184. (2)

185. (1)

186. (1)

187. (2)

188. (1)

189. (2)

190. (1)

191. (2)

192. (3)

193. (3)

194. (1)

195. (4)

196. (3)

197. (2)

198. (1)

199. (1)

200. (3)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints)

2/8

PHYSICS

1. Answer (1)

δ = (i + e) – A

3

4i e A= = ×

2. Answer (1)

2

04 cos

2I I

φ=

2x

πφ = × Δλ

3. Answer (2)

L = v0 + u

e

0 0 0

1 1 1–

f v u=

1 1 1–

e e ef v u

=

4. Answer (2)

1

2

3

2

f

f=

1 2

1 1 1

f f f= +

5. Answer (2)

6. Answer (3)

E = Δmc2

= (13 × 7.3 – 12 × 7.68) = 5.34 eV

7. Answer (4)

8. Answer (2)

9. Answer (3)

E = W + ev0

10. Answer (2)

2

2

13.6–

zE E

n∞=

E = 54.5 eV

11. Answer (3)

12. Answer (1)

13. Answer (2)

B = μnI

HINTS

14. Answer (1)

θrTcosθT

θTcosθT

TsinθTsinθ

θ

2T sinθ = IdLB

2Tθ = I2rθB

T = IrB

15. Answer (3)

t = 0, R2 is short-circuited by capacitor

16. Answer (2)

2 21 1

2 2+ Δ = +CV qv CV H

H = 2CV 2

17. Answer (1)

(4 ) 4 4 (4 )0

2

×+ + =kQ e k e e kQ e

a a a

18. Answer (1)

2

2 1 10

1

– 20logr

dB dBr

⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

19. Answer (1)

20. Answer (1)

04

vf

l=

21. Answer (3)

ΔQ1 = nC

vΔT + nC

pΔT

= 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 5[2 ] [4 2 ]

2 2− + −P V P V P V P V

= 0 0

13

2P V

22. Answer (1)

1

Δ=− γ

nR TW

23. Answer (2)

1 2

1 2

1 2

1 2

p pp

v v v

nC n CC

C nC n C

+=

+

24. Answer (1)

loge(T – T

0) = –kt + c

CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018

3/8

25. Answer (3)

26. Answer (1)

( )

1/2

2

2 1

2

1– /

ghv

A A

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦

27. Answer (3)

V1ρ

1g + V

2ρ

2g = Vρg

1 2

2

VV V= =

28. Answer (1)

P1 – P

2 =

21

2vρ ⇒ v = 10 m/s

29. Answer (3)

2gR is equal to escape so total energy will be

zero

30. Answer (3)

–2

GmME

a=

31. Answer (3)

ConstantL =�

0τ =�

32. Answer (1)

33. Answer (2)

1 1 2 2

cm

1 2

mv m v

v

m m

+=

+

� �

�

34. Answer (1)

35. Answer (2)

2

2

k mv

rr=

KE = –E

36. Answer (1)

. ( )M M

lg L l gL L

μ = −

3

Ll =

37. Answer (4)

2hT

g=

38. Answer (1)

. 0F P =� �

39. Answer (1)

40. Answer (2)

ρ = Fa lb Tc

ML–3 = [MLT–2]a [L]b [T]c

So a = 1, b = –4, c = 2

41. Answer (2)

42. Answer (2)

43. Answer (2)

44. Answer (2)

45. Answer (1)

46. Answer (1)

47. Answer (2)

48. Answer (3)

49. Answer (3)

50. Answer (2)

51. Answer (3)

52. Answer (1)

53. Answer (1)

54. Answer (1)

55. Answer (1)

56. Answer (4)

57. Answer (3)

58. Answer (1)

59. Answer (2)

60. Answer (2)

CHEMISTRY

61. Answer (1)

eq. NaOH = eq HCl

x(1) (0.1)

40= ⇒ x = 4g

% purity = 4

100 80%5

× =

62. Answer (4)

2

NaOH

D O

n20m

1 W in kg= = , n

NaOH = 20,

2D OW 1 kg=

2D O

1000n 50

20= =

XNaOH

= 2

7,

2D O

5X

7=

∴ Difference is 3

7


4/8

63. Answer (2)

XeF4 , BrF4 , [Cu(NH

3)4]2+ and [PdCl

4]2– are square

planar.

64. Answer (3)

Molar massE

n-factor=

5n-factor

3=

65. Answer (1)

2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+��⇀

↽��

2P + P = 3P (initial total pressure)

Initial, Kp = (2P)2 (P) = 4P3

After addition of NH3 ⇒

3NH

3 9P (3P) P

2 2= =

Let 2

COP x=

then

2

39P (x) 4P

2

⎛ ⎞ =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

2

381P(x) 4P

4

⎛ ⎞=⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

3

2

16P 16x P

8181P= =

9 16P P

Final total P 7612 81

3PInitial total P 486

1

+= =

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

66. Answer (3)

–4 –6

mix

(V)(10 ) (V)(10 )N

V V

+=+

= 5.05 × 10–5

NaOH, Vb = 100 ml, N

b = 0.2 N

Vmix

Nmix

= VbN

b

5

mix 5

2(100)

2010V 10 ml

5.055.05 10−

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠= = ×

× = 3.96 × 105 ml

67. Answer (4)

(ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓allyl 2° 1° vinyl

and 3°

allyl

and 2°

68. Answer (2)

IUPAC name of following compound is

H C–CH3 2

–CH –CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 2 2 2 3

H C–C–CH 3 3

CH3

CH2

5 6 7 8 9

H C–C–CH 3 3

CH2

CH3

3

2

1

2,2-dimethyl-5-(2,2 dimethylpropyl)-4-propylnonane′−

4

1′

2′

3′

69. Answer (4)

Salt is 80% dissociated 2 80

[M ] 0.2 0.16100

+ = × =

M2+ + 2e– ⎯→ M(s)

According to Nernst equation,

2 2

o

2M /M M /M

0.0591 1E E – log

n [M ]+ + +=

0.0591 1–0.7 – log

2 0.16= = –0.7235 volt

70. Answer (3)

(3–1) (8 4) 1 4 5 81 31 4

2 2

A B C D A B C D−⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞− −⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

=

71. Answer (2)

X = Cl2, Y = HCl, Z = NCl

3

72. Answer (1)

According to VBT and Werner theory of complexes.

73. Answer (4)

OCH Cl

2

A =

O CH MgCl2

B =

OCH

3

C =

74. Answer (2)

RCOOR + Excess′ 3° alcoholH SO

2 4

Alkeneozonolysis

KetoneC H O

(+ve iodoform)8 8

CH – C – C H3 6 5

O

(a) RMgX


5/8

Then in the ester one must be aryl group.

(a) is

C H – C – OC H6 5 2 5

CH MgX3

C H – C – CH6 5 3

OH

CH3

H SO2 4

C = CH2

H C5 6

H C3

C H – C – CH6 5 3

O

+ HC – H

O

Ozonolysis

O

75. Answer (3)

CH3CH CH CH

2 2 3

Cl /h2

ν

Cl

CH2–CH–CH –CH

2 3

Cl

+

Cl

CH2–CH –CH–CH

2 3

Cl

Cl

CH2–CH –CH –CH

2 2 2

Cl

+

Cl

CH3–C–CH CH

2 3+

Cl

CH3 3–CH–CH–CH

Cl

+

Cl

+

Cl

CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 3

+

Cl

76. Answer (1)

3RT 8RT 8C : C : 3 :

22M M

7

= =π

563 :

22= 3 : 2.545= = 1.732 : 1.595

= 1.086 : 1

77. Answer (4)

2

H 2 2

1 2

1 1 1R z –

n n

⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥λ ⎣ ⎦

2

H

1 1R (1) –

16 36

⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

H

144

5Rλ =

78. Answer (2)

A = CH3NC, B = CH

3–NH–CH

3, C = CH

3CN,

D = CH3–CH

2–NH

2, E = CH

3NC, F = CH

3–NH–CH

3

79. Answer (2)

80. Answer (4)

A is 3° alcohol, B is 1°alcohol and C is 2° alcohol

with same number of carbon.

81. Answer (3)

Correct order is

6 5 2 2 2 3 2HC C C H CH CH CH CH CH CH

−≡ > > = − >

82. Answer (2)

Number of electrons in s, p, d, f are

0 + 2, 4 + 2, 8 + 2, 12 + 2

⇒ 4(0) + 2, 4(1) + 2, 4(2) + 2, 4(3) + 2

⇒ 4l + 2

83. Answer (1)

Electrons = 15 + 4(8) + 3(1) = 50

Protons = 15 + 4 × 8 = 47

Neutrons = 16 + 32 = 48

84. Answer (3)

For acidic buffer, equivalents of weak acid >

equivalents of strong base.

85. Answer (2)

2R SiCl3

HOHR Si OH

3

R SiO H3

ΔR Si – O –

3SiR

3

86. Answer (4)

Option (1), (2) & (3) have zero number of unpaired

electrons.

[NiCl4]2– has Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8 has two unpaired

electrons.

87. Answer (1)

According to Fajan’s rule.

88. Answer (2)

Fe 2+

Fe + e3+ –

; E° = –b V

Cu + e 2+ –

Cu+

; E° = a V

Fe + Cu2+ 2+

Fe + Cu3+ + ; E = (a – b) volt

o

89. Answer (3)

(1) (5) 500%A 100 35.71%

(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =

+

(9) (1) 900%B 100 64.29%

(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =

+

90. Answer (1)

2 4 2 4H SO H SO NaOH NaOH

organic compound

(V N – V N )%N (1.4)

W=

1 1(200) – (100)

10 10(1.4) 2%

7

⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎢ ⎥= =

⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦


6/8

91. Answer (2)

92. Answer (1)

B

HO

HO

OH( )sp

2

93. Answer (3)

gn

p cK K (RT)

Δ=If Δn

g = 0 then K

p = K

c

94. Answer (1)

Rate (r) = Change in concentration ( C)

time (t)

Δ

–2

–2 –2

C 0.01 10 1t 0.2 s

r 55 10 5 10

Δ= = = = =× ×

95. Answer (1)

Fact

96. Answer (3)

Fact

97. Answer (4)

Option (1) is cubic, has 3 bravais lattices

Option (2) is tetragonal, has 2 bravais lattices

Option (3) is orthorhombic, has 4 bravais lattices

Option (4) is rhombohedral, has 1 bravais lattice

which is minimum.

98. Answer (2)

Alkoxycarbonyl is a prefix used for esters.

99. Answer (3)

The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides is1

–2

.

100. Answer (1)

For neutral molecule.

number of hybridised orbitals

(H) = 1

2 [Valence electron of central atom

+ number of monovalent surrounding atoms]

31H [6 4] 5

2= + = = sp d

101. Answer (1)

Fact

102. Answer (3)

For a fixed amount (n must constant) only PV ∝ T.

103. Answer (4)

Cu+ is not stable in aqueous medium because it

disproportionate spontaneously in water.

104. Answer (4)

Resonance is present in benzene. So heat released

is not three times to cyclohexene.

105. Answer (3)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, with ΔS < 0, the process will be

non-spontaneous, if ΔH > 0 at all temperatures.

106. Answer (1)

One ring aromatic and other ring is non aromatic. So

total compound is aromatic.

107. Answer (2)

Fact

108. Answer (4)

R – CHO is more reactive than ArCHO.

109. Answer (2)

Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not correct

explanation of (A).

110. Answer (3)

IE and EA increases from left to right in periodic

table.

111. Answer (2)

Both (A) & (R) are correct.

112. Answer (4)

Al has more radius than Ga. This is due to poor

shielding in Ga.

113. Answer (2)

In the denaturation of protein (boiling of egg) entropy

increases.

114. Answer (4)

van’t Hoff factor for NaCl is 2 and for glucose is one.

115. Answer (4)

For hydrogen energy depends on only ‘n’ value. So

energy is released when electron comes from 4s to

3d.

116. Answer (2)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct

explanation for (A).

117. Answer (1)

Reason is correct explanation of (A) and both are

correct.

118. Answer (2)

Zinc is not a transition element because it has

completely filled d-orbitals.

119. Answer (3)

Adsorption is a surface phenomena.

120. Answer (1)

Compounds forming complex ions are highly soluble

in water.


7/8

BIOLOGY

121. Answer (3)

Snow blindness is caused by UV-B. radiation.

122. Answer (2)

123. Answer (4)

124. Answer (2)

AABB = 20 cm

A or B = 5 cm

aabb = 12 cm a or b = 3 cm



125. Answer (3)

Photophosphorylation is absent in peroxisome.

126. Answer (4)

In gymnosperm endosperm is haploid.

127. Answer (2)

Leptotene and zygotene stages are short-lived as

compared to pachytene.

128. Answer (3)

129. Answer (2)

130. Answer (2)

D.P.D. of A < B < C < D

131. Answer (3)

132. Answer (2)

Ascomycetes are not symbiont in mycorrhiza.

133. Answer (3)

a. Diatoms

b. Euglena

c. Paramoecium

d. Dinoflagellates

134. Answer (2)

135. Answer (3)

136. Answer (4)

137. Answer (2)

138. Answer (3)

Quagga – Africa.

139. Answer (4)

Members of liliaceae are Colchicum, Allium, Aloe,

Yucca.

140. Answer (2)

141. Answer (2)

Fact

142. Answer (4)

The site of production of red blood cells is red bone

marrow.

143. Answer (3)

Features mentioned are present in arthropods.

144. Answer (2)

Zona fasciculata is middle layer of adrenal cortex

and produces glucocorticoids mainly cortisol.

145. Answer (1)

Low temperature preserves the enzyme while high

temperature causes denaturation.

146. Answer (2)

Entry of sperm contents (head and proximal

centriole) triggers completion of unequal second

meiotic division of oocyte in fallopian tube.

147. Answer (3)

Emergency contraceptives are administered within 72

hours of unwanted sex or rape case.

148. Answer (2)

A smaller gene pool has very few variations.

149. Answer (3)

Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable

changes (mutation) was the basis of Hugo de Vries

mutation theory. Inheritance of somatic

characteristics is the basis of Lamarck’s Theory of

evolution. Continuity of germplasm concept was

given by Weismann.

150. Answer (2)

151. Answer (3)

Nematode (Meloidogyne) resistant tobacco and

Arabidopsis plants were produced by RNA i(RNA

interference).

152. Answer (1)

Readymade antibodies provide passive immunity.

153. Answer (3)

Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and

stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.

CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and

stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and

bile juice.

154. Answer (3)

Tectorial membrane lies on top of sensory hair cells

located on basilar membrane.

155. Answer (2)

Maximum refraction occurs at cornea.

156. Answer (2)

Semilunar valves remain closed in joint diastole.

157. Answer (1)

Heart muscles are autorhythmic and the fibres are

uninucleated, having intercalated discs between them


8/8

158. Answer (2)

Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune neurological

disorder in which antibodies are produced which bind

with the receptors of acetylcholine on sarcolemma

and do not allow acetylcholine to bind to the

receptors. They also activate complement mediated

destruction of these receptors.

159. Answer (3)

In the mid cycle, estrogen surge exerts positive

feedback on anterior lobe for secretion of LH and

FSH.

160. Answer (2)

Synaptic vesicles fuse with pre-synaptic

membranes.

161. Answer (2)

162. Answer (3)

163. Answer (3)

Reproduces by oogamy

164. Answer (2)

165. Answer (4)

166. Answer (3)

167. Answer (1)

168. Answer (4)

169. Answer (1)

170. Answer (3)

Snow mountains show extrinsic growth.

171. Answer (2)

Rate of breathing increases due to decreased pO2

and increased pCO2of blood while polycythemia

increases the O2 carrying capacity of blood.

172. Answer (1)

The principal of vaccination is memory; providing long

term immunity.

173. Answer (1)

White muscle fibres have more Ca2+ but lesser O2

availability.

174. Answer (2)

Human heart is called myogenic as the normal

activities of heart are regulated intrinsically by

pacemaker.

175. Answer (2)

176. Answer (1)

The compounds are photosensitive as light falling on

rod and cone cells induces the dissociation of

components of these compounds.

177. Answer (3)

Chance events occurring in nature and chance

mutations in organisms affect evolution process,

telling us that evolution is not a direct process in the

sense of determinism.

178. Answer (1)

179. Answer (1)

Fertilization occurs when sperms and oocyte come

in contact with each other in viable form.

180. Answer (4)

Porifers show internal fertilization. They are mostly

marine.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Answer (1)

182. Answer (3)

183. Answer (1)

184. Answer (2)

185. Answer (1)

186. Answer (1)

187. Answer (2)

188. Answer (1)

189. Answer (2)

190. Answer (1)

APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING

191. Answer (2)

192. Answer (3)

All the letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

193. Answer (3)

13 × 15 = 195

17 × 19 = 323

21 × 23 = 483

194. Answer (1)

195. Answer (4)

E

a b

dc

E = (a + c) × (b + d)

196. Answer (3)

197. Answer (2)

198. Answer (1)

199. Answer (1)

200. Answer (3)

All are odd numbers other than 18.

� � �

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